General Chemistry 0112001 A 12 11002 51 0317 165509 0041 There are only four fundamental types of force in the universe. 9 A. True B. False 0112002 B 12 11004 51 18251826182709 0043 Converting a common logarithm (base 10) to a natural logarithm (base e) can be accomplished by multiplying by 2.303. 9 A. True B. False 0120001 A 12 11006 31 15250787007209 0041 Haber developed a process for synthesizing ammonia. 9 A. True B. False 0120002 B 12 11008 31 14860606018909 0040 More elements were discovered before 1800 than after. 9 A. True B. False 0120003 B 12 11010 31 14860189060609 0040 The last of the elements known today was discovered prior to 1940. 9 A. True B. False 0130001 B 12 11012 31 01960066000409 0041 Hydrogen compounds are known as halogens. 9 A. True B. False 0130002 B 12 11013 51 14610701022409 0043 Titanyl sulfate is Ti SO . 4 2 4 9 A. True B. False 0130003 B 12 11015 31 02241323 09 0043 It is incorrect to write P O for the formula for phosphoric 4 2 5 oxide. 9 A. True B. False 0130004 A 12 11017 31 08460066003509 0043 A hydride is a compound containing hydrogen in the -1 oxidation state. 9 A. True B. false. 0130005 A 12 11019 31 08461296117809 0043 Some hydrides do not contain the hydride ion. 9 A. True B. false. 0130006 B 12 11020 31 08130066019609 0043 An anhydrous compound is one which contains no hydrogen. 9 A. True B. false. 0130007 A 12 11022 31 00770804002809 0043 Acidic anhydrides are oxides of nonmetals. 9 A. True B. false. 0130008 B 12 11023 31 14861461018909 0040 All of the elements are named following a set pattern. 9 A. True B. False 0130009 B 12 11025 31 14861461001809 0040 Na S is named sodium sulfate. 4 2 9 A. True B. False 0130010 B 12 11026 31 148604581178 0040 5 2- The SO ion is called a sulfate ion. 4 3 9 A. True B. False 0130011 B 12 11028 31 054818390730 0043 5 3+ A gaseous ferric ion (Fe ; Z = 26) and a gaseous chromium atom (Z=24) are isoelectronic. 9 A. True B. False 0160002 AACBABB 73 11030 52 049980010195149006 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2The following questions refer to the kinetic-molecular theory. 2After each item number on the answer sheet, blacken space 2 A. if the item refers to observational or experimental 2 evidence which supports the theory 2 B. if the item refers to an hypothesis or an assumption 2 concerning the theory which was formulated long 2 before there was experimental evidence to test it, 2 or has not as yet been entirely proven to be true 2 experimentally 2 C. if the item refers to something which has nothing to do 0 with the theory MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 The volume of a gas increases with an increase in temperature when 1 the pressure remains constant. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 A gas always exerts pressure no matter how much it expands. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 3 Most gases are colorless. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 Gases are composed of small particles called molecules which are 4 relatively far apart and in rapid motion. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 5 Gases diffuse readily. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 6 6 Molecules are perfectly elastic. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 7 9 Molecules on colliding lose no energy. 0170001 A 13 11043 31 80018002 11 06 ETS2 OS Potential energy is A. energy of position B. energy of motion 9 C. heat energy 0170002 B 12 11045 31 149504710149 0009 Appropriate conversion factors would allow you to convert from a volume measurement in cubic feet to a density measurement in grams per cubic centimeter. 9 A. True B. False 0170003 B 12 11048 32 14860795 09 0040 The carat unit of weight is larger than a gram. 9 A. True B. False 0170004 B 12 11050 31 14860445015009 0040 A 1000-carat diamond weighs more than one kg. 9 A. True B. False 0172001 A 12 11051 31 01500149 09 0009 Nearly all countries, including England and excepting America, have already adopted or are now adopting a metric system as the single recognized system of measurement. 9 A. True B. False 0172002 A 12 11054 31 01500385149409 0009 The simplification in using the metric system is that, when converting units within the system, a decimal point is moved. 9 A. True B. False 0172003 B 12 11056 31 14861316079509 0040 AMU are the same as grams. 9 A. True B. False 0174001 B 13 11057 32 01611403 0019 Which of the following represents the highest temperature? 5 o o o o 9 A. 40 F B. 40 C C. 304 K D. 492 R 0176001 A 12 11060 32 0207 09 The specific heat of a substance is expressed in calories per gram per degree centigrade. A. True 9 B. False 0176002 B 12 11062 32 0207 09 The specific heat is the number of calories required to raise the temperature of any sample of a specific compound to a specific final temperature. A. True 9 B. False 0176003 B 12 11065 32 0207 09 The specific heat of a compound changes as the mass of compound changes. A. True 9 B. False 0176004 B 12 11067 32 02070206 09 Two equal masses of different compounds at the same temperature can have the same heat content only if their specific heats are different. A. True 9 B. False 0176005 B 13 11070 32 0207 05 The specific heat of a compound is A. the amount of heat required to melt 1 g of the compound. B. The quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 g one degree C. C. the quantity of heat required to increase the 9 temperature one degree C. 0176006 A 12 11074 52 02070648 09 Consider two compounds, A and B, of equal mass and at the same temperature, to each of which is added equal amounts of heat. If the specific heat of B is larger than the specific heat of A, then the final temperature of a will be higher than the final temperature of B. A. True 9 B. False 0176007 B 12 11078 52 02070648 09 Consider two compounds, A and B, of equal mass and at the same temperature, to each of which is added equal amounts of heat. If the specific heat of B is larger than the specific heat of A, then the final temperature of B will be higher than the final temperature of A. A. True 9 B. False 0176008 B 12 11082 52 02070648 09 Consider two compounds, A and B, of equal mass and at the same temperature, to each of which is added equal amounts of heat. If the final temperature of B is higher than the final temperature of A, then the specific heat of B is greater than the specific heat of A. A. True 9 B. False 0176009 A 12 11086 52 02070648 09 Consider two compounds, a and b, of equal mass and at the same temperature, to each of which is added equal amounts of heat. If the final temperature of b is higher than the final temperature of a, then the specific heat of b is smaller than the specific heat of A. A. True 9 B. False 0177001 C 13 11090 31 062203290054 0026 Violet light and red light differ in their 9 A. speed B. nature C. frequency. 0177002 A 13 11092 31 061506641340 0026 White light can be separated into its constituent wavelengths by means of a 9 A. prism B. mirror C. vacuum. 0177003 A 13 11094 31 039206161340 0026 Of the types listed below, the electromagnetic radiation with the greatest frequency is 9 A. x-rays B. visible light C. microwaves. 0177004 C 13 11096 31 033701890616 0026 The atomic number of an element can be determined directly from its 9 A. color B. density C. x-ray spectrum. 0177005 C 15 11098 32 01591340061609 0009 Consider the following regions of the electromagnetic spectrum: 1. x-ray 2. ultraviolet 3. visible 4. infrared The energy associated with individual quanta of these regions increases in the order 9 A. 1,2,3,4 B. 3,4,2,1 C. 4,3,2,1 D. 3,1,4,2 E. 1,4,3,2 0177006 B 12 11102 31 0615 09 Wavelength is defined as the distance between a crest and the succeeding trough of a wave. A. True 9 B. False 0178001 A 12 11104 31 80030161018609 04 2WVW Air has a density of 1.29 grams per liter at standard temperature and pressure. A. True 9 B. False 0178002 A 12 11106 32 01690438018609 0009 Generally, when a solid melts to form a liquid, the density decreases. 9 A. True B. False 0178003 A 12 11108 32 01860195 09 If a cube with a density of 4 g/cc has a mass of 5 g, then its volume is 1.25 cc. A. True 9 B. False 0178004 A 12 11110 32 01860195 09 A crystal has a density of 9 g/cc and a mass of 3 g. What is its volume? 9 A. 0.33 cc's B. 3.0 cc's C. 27./ cc's 0178005 A 12 11112 32 01860195 09 If a 5 g cube has a density of 2 g/cc, then its volume is 2.5 cc's. A. True 9 B. False 0178006 B 12 11114 32 01860195 09 If a 5 g sphere has a density of 2 g/cc, then its volume is 0.4 cc's. A. True 9 B. False 0178007 B 12 11116 32 01860195 09 If a 2 g block has a density of 5 g/cc, then its volume is 10 cc's. A. True 9 B. False 0178008 B 12 11118 32 01860195 09 If a cube has a density of 5 g/cc and a mass of 4 g, then its volume is 1.25 cc's. A. True 9 B. False 0178009 A 12 11120 32 01860195 09 If a cube has a density of 6 g/cc and a mass of 8 g, then its volume is 1.33 cc's. A. True 9 B. False 0178010 B 12 11122 32 01860195 09 A piece of manganese has a density of 7.0 g/cc and a mass of 3.5 grams. It therefore will have a volume of 2.0 cc's. A. True 9 B. False 0178011 A 12 11124 32 01860195 09 If a 4 cc block has a density of 3 g/cc, then its mass is 12 g. A. True 9 B. False 0178012 B 12 11126 32 01860195 09 If a 3 cc block has a density of 3 g/cc, then its mass is 1 g. A. True 9 B. False 0178013 B 12 11128 32 01860195 09 If a 4 cc block has a density of 3 g/cc, then its mass is 1.33 g. A. True 9 B. False 0178014 B 12 11130 32 01860195 09 A 6 cc block with a density of 20 g/cc would have a mass of 1.2 g. A. True 9 B. False 0178015 A 12 11132 32 01860195 09 An 8 cc block with a density of 2 g/cc would have a mass of 16 g. A. True 9 B. False 0178016 B 12 11134 32 01860195 09 A 4 cc block with a density of 2 g/cc would have a mass of 2 g. A. True 9 B. False 0178017 B 12 11136 32 01860195 09 If a cube with a density of 3.0 g/cc has a volume of 6 cc's, then its mass is 0.5 g. A. True 9 B. False 0178018 B 12 11138 32 01860195 09 If a cube with a density of 6.0 g/cc has a volume of 3 cc's, then its mass is 2 g. A. True 9 B. False 0178019 B 12 11140 32 01860195 09 If a cube with a density of 6.0 g/cc has a volume of 3 cc's, then its mass is 2 g. A. True 9 B. False 0178020 A 12 11142 32 01860195 09 If a 4 g cube is 2.0 cc's in volume, then its density is 2.0 g/cc. A. True 9 B. False 0178021 B 12 11144 32 01860195 09 If a 12 g cube is 4.0 cc's in volume, then its density is 48.0 g/cc. A. True 9 B. False 0178022 B 12 11146 32 01860195 09 If a 3 cc block has a mass of 3 g, then its density is 3 g/cc. A. True 9 B. False 0178023 A 12 11148 32 01860195 09 If a 5 cc block has a mass of 10 g , then its density is 2 g/cc. A. True 9 B. False 0178024 B 12 11150 32 01860195 09 If a 3 cc block has density of 2 g, then its density is 6 g/cc. A. True 9 B. False 0178025 A 12 11152 32 01860195 09 If a 2 cc block has a mass of 5 g, then its density is 2.5 g/cc. A. True 9 B. False 0178026 B 12 11154 32 01860195 09 If a 1.5 cc block has a mass of 4 g, then its density is 6 g/cc. A. True 9 B. False 0190001 A 12 11156 31 00398003 09 2WVW Gold may be found uncombined in nature A. True 9 B. False 0190002 A 12 11157 31 0027023680039004 2WVW Zinc sulfide is a white precipitate A. True 9 B. False 0190003 B 12 11158 31 14931468019209 0009 Extensive properties characterize, chemically identify, a substance. 9 A. True B. False 0190004 A 12 11160 51 14680037018609 0009 In trying to identify a certain liquid compound "L", a student finds that its density, freezing and boiling points, absorption spectrum, and behavior in a chromatography column are indistinguishable from those of known compound "Z". The student can safely assume L and Z are one and the same compound. 9 A. True B. False 0190005 B 12 11165 31 14860028018909 0040 About 50% of the known elements are nonmetals. 9 A. True B. False 0190006 A 12 11166 31 1149 0003 Rubbing alcohol feels cooler on the skin than does water because water has a lower vapor pressure. 9 A. True B. False 0190007 A 12 11168 31 01960498 0003 Hydrogen has a very low normal boiling point because its molecules are symmetrical and have few electrons. 9 A. True B. False 0190008 A 12 11170 31 01950114 0003 The molar volume of a liquid changes very little with changing pressure. 9 A. True B. False 0190009 B 12 11172 31 0008 0003 Water in an open thermos bottle will usually be colder than water in an open drinking glass. 9 A. True B. False 0190010 B 12 11174 31 0498 0003 When a liquid is at its boiling point, all the molecules have the same kinetic energy. 9 A. True B. False 0190011 A 12 11176 51 1701 0003 Amorphous materials ordinary become less viscous as they are heated. 9 A. True B. False 0190012 A 12 11178 31 1701 0003 Amorphous materials cannot cleave to reveal crystal faces. 9 A. True B. False 0190013 B 12 11180 31 01281149 0003 A substance with a high molecular weight will always have a lower vapor pressure than will one with a lower molecular weight, at any given temperature. 9 A. True B. False 0190014 A 12 11183 31 0498 0003 The normal boiling point of a liquid can be changed by changing the pressure. 9 A. True B. False 0190015 A 12 11185 31 0183 0003 5 + A ferric oxide (Fe O ) sol may be coagulated by adding H . 4 2 3 9 A. True B. False 0190016 A 12 11188 31 0485 0003 A catalyst alters the rate of a reaction without taking part in it 9 A. True B. False 0190017 A 12 11190 31 0494 0003 The frequency of collision between reacting particles is increased by increasing the temperature. 9 A. True B. False 0190019 A 12 11192 31 1548 0003 Relaxation spectroscopy is used to study reactions in which the rate of mixing of reactants is ordinarily much faster than their rate of chemical combination. 9 A. True B. False 0190020 B 12 11195 31 0490 0003 The triple-point temperature of water is slightly less than tne normal freezing point. 9 A. True B. False 0190021 A 12 11197 31 0555 0003 Whenever a pure liquid freezes, the temperature remains constant. 9 A. True B. False 0190022 A 12 11199 31 0558 0003 The lines on a phase diagram represent equilibrium between two phases. 9 A. True B. False 0190023 A 12 11201 31 04090438 0003 When a supercooled liquid freezes, some of the potential energy of the particles is converted into kinetic energy. 9 A. True B. False 0190024 A 12 11203 31 1152 0003 Spontaneous freezing of water at -10 degrees C and constant pressure is accompanied by a decrease in free energy, if the ice formed is kept at -10 degrees C. 9 A. True B. False 0190025 B 12 11206 31 0490 0003 If heat is continuously added to solid, liquid, and gaseous water, all in equilibrium at the triple point, the solid and liquid phases will disappear simultaneously if the pressure is kept constant. 9 A. True B. False 0190026 B 12 11209 31 0490 0003 If the pressure of a sample of carbon dioxide at the triple point is increased, the phase remaining will be solid if the temperature is held constant. 9 A. True B. False 0190027 A 12 11212 31 0511 0003 If heat is added to ice at -1 degrees C, the average kinetic energy of the molecules will always increase. 9 A. True B. False 0190028 B 12 11214 31 0245 0003 The temperature at which a liquid and a gas are at equilibrium is always the same if the pressure is the same. 9 A. True B. False 0190029 A 12 11216 31 0409 0003 Supercooled water may be frozen by adding a snowflake. 9 A. True B. False 0190030 A 12 11218 31 0245 0003 If a liquid and its vapor are at equilibrium and the pressure is increased, heat is evolved. 9 A. True B. False 0190031 A 12 11220 31 0491 0003 The rates of most reactions change as the reactions proceed, even if the temperature is held constant. 9 A. True B. False 0190032 A 12 11222 31 0114 0003 Increasing the total pressure in a gas phase reaction increases the fraction of the collisions which are effective in producing reaction. 9 A. True B. False 0190033 A 12 11225 31 0407 0003 In stepwise reactions the rate-determining step is the slow one. 9 A. True B. False 0190034 A 12 11227 31 04850996 0003 An enzyme is a biochemical catalyst. 9 A. True B. False 0192001 A 12 11228 31 05041153019209 0009 Changes in physical state, like melting and boiling, tend to resolve matter into pure component substances. 9 A. True B. False 0192002 B 12 11230 32 01691149016109 0009 For all solids and liquids, vapor pressure increases linearly with temperature. 9 A. True B. False 0192003 B 12 11232 31 0652 0003 The mean free path of molecules in a liquid is greater than that of molecules in a gas. 9 A. True B. False 0192004 A 12 11234 31 0524 0003 The statement "gases are more compressible than liquids" means that it is easier to increase the pressure of a gas than that of a liquid. 9 A. True B. False 0192005 A 12 11237 31 0153 0003 Water in an open container will eventually evaporate. 9 A. True B. False 0192006 A 12 11239 31 11740195 0003 The molar volume of liquid water at 100 degrees C is less than that of gaseous water at the same temperature. 9 A. True B. False 0192007 A 12 11241 31 0423 0003 The molecules in liquid water at 100 degrees C have a lower average potential energy than the molecules in gaseous water at the same temperature. 9 A. True B. False 0192008 B 12 11244 51 11490498 0003 The vapor pressure of chloroform at its normal boiling point is greater than that of water at its normal boiling point. 9 A. True B. False 0192009 A 12 11246 31 14180300 0003 A much smaller fraction of the space occupied by a liquid is "empty" than in the case of a gas. 9 A. True B. False 0192010 B 12 11248 31 1412 0003 It takes more time to hard-boil an egg on a high mountain than at sea level because the atmospheric pressure is lower on the mountain. 9 A. True B. False 0192011 A 12 11251 31 0494 0003 Liquids diffuse much more slowly than gases, because the molecules in a liquid collide less frequently. 9 A. True B. False 0192012 B 12 11253 31 0161 0003 Molecules in a gas move at the same average speed as the molecules in a liquid if the gas and the liquid are at the same temperature. 9 A. True B. False 0192013 A 12 11256 31 04331149 0003 A barometer measures the equilibrium vapor pressure of the air. 9 A. True B. False 0192014 A 12 11258 31 11490161 0003 The vapor pressure of a liquid increases as the temperature is raised. 9 A. True B. False 0192015 C 13 11260 31 050405881427 Which of the following states of matter is characterized by the most random motion of molecules? 9 A. solid B. liquid C. gas 0192016 A 13 11262 31 050405881359 Which of the following states of matter is characterized by the most highly ordered array of molecules? 9 A. solid B. liquid C. gas 0192017 C 13 11264 31 044205880504 Which state of matter is characterized by the highest intermolecular forces of attraction? 9 A. solid B. liquid C. gas 0192018 A 13 11266 31 050405881427 Which state of matter is characterized by the lowest intermolecular forces of attraction? 9 A. gas B. liquid C. solid 0192019 C 13 11268 31 050405881427 Which state of matter has the longest range intermolecular forces? 9 A. gas B. liquid C. solid 0192020 A 13 11270 31 050405880524 Which state of matter is most easily compressed into a smaller volume? 9 A. gas B. liquid C. solid 0192021 C 13 11272 31 05040588 Which state of matter has the lowest fluidity? 9 A. gas B. liquid C. solid 0192022 B 13 11274 31 050405881418 Which state of matter is characterized by portions of high molecular order which quickly disperse forming new portions of order? 9 A. gas B. liquid C. solid 0192023 A 13 11277 51 08710558 A system consists of two phases and is composed of liquid water and liquid benzene. Which of the following is true? A. Water and benzene do not mix. B. The system is a homogeneous mixture. 9 C. Benzene dissolves in water. 0192201 CCBA 43 11281 52 033003318001169006 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2After the number on the answer sheet which corresponds to 2that of each conclusion, blacken space 2 A. if the conclusion is the best answer to the problem 2 B. if the conclusion is the least satisfactory answer to the 2 problem 2 C. if the conclusion is neither the best answer nor the least 2 satisfactory answer to the problem. (Two conclusions 0 should receive this mark). MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 The dark lines of the solar spectrum are due to the fact that The atoms of the sun's atmosphere absorb all of the light of certain 1 definite frequencies. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 The relatively dark lines of the solar spectrum are due to the fact that the atoms of the heated and rarefied gases of the sun's atmosphere both absorb and emit light of certain definite 2 frequencies. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 The atmosphere of the sun contains sodium atoms which absorb light of certain definite frequencies and emit light of the same 3 frequencies. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 The atoms of the surface of the sun are incandescent and emit light which gives a continuous spectrum, while the atoms of the sun's atmosphere are not incandescent and thus absorb 9 light of certain definite frequencies. 0192202 ACACCAB 73 11296 52 1 028602939019149506 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2The following questions refer to Figure 19. 2A piston is pushed down in a cylinder of air as shown in the 2diagram. After each item number on the answer sheet, blacken 2space 2 A. if the statement is true and the reason given is true 2 B. if the statement is true, but the reason given is false 0 C. if the statement is itself false MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 The gas heats up, because the average kinetic energy of the 1 molecule has been increased. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 The number of molecules is increased, because the gas heats up. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 The gas heats up, because energy is expended in pushing down 3 on the piston. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 4 The molecules slow down, because they are being pushed together. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 The cylinder cools off, because the molecules absorb heat 5 from it. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 6 The pressure increases, because the air molecules collide more 6 frequently with the walls of the cylinder. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 7 The temperature of the gas increases, because the air molecules 9 lose energy as they collide with each other. 0192203 ACCAABCB 83 11308 52 049904720114119006 ETS OS MACROITEM STEM 2To answer the following questions, consider the following 2statements to apply to the kinetic theory of an ideal gas. 2Mark space 2 A. if a statement is true without qualification 2 B. if a statement is false without qualification 2 C. if a statement may be either true or false depending 0 on some further conditions MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 When a certain gas is made denser, the molecules are then closer 1 together. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 When a gas is heated it expands. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 3 When a gas is heated its pressure rises. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 When the temperature of a gas is raised, the average speed 4 of the molecules increases. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 When molecular collisions are more frequent but the speeds are 5 unchanged, the pressure is greater. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 6 When molecular collisions are more frequent but the speeds are 6 unchanged, the temperature is greater. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 7 When the molecules of a gas are crowded closer together, their 7 average speed increases. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 8 When a gas is compressed adiabatically, heat is generated by 9 friction between the molecules. 0192204 C 13 11321 52 0542800103401306 ETS2 OS Two identical leak-proof balloons a and b are filled, a with hydrogen and b with helium, so that at room temperature and pressure their volumes are equal. When they are taken together to the top of a mountain A. 1 will become appreciably bigger than 2 B. 2 will become appreciably bigger than 1 9 C. 1 and 2 will have approximately equal volumes 0192205 AACBABB 73 11326 72 030702788001119006 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2The following questions refer to the kinetic-molecular 2theory. After each item number on the answer sheet, 2blacken space 2 A. if the item refers to observational or experimental 2 evidence which supports the theory. 2 B. if the item refers to an hypothesis or an assumption 2 concerning the theory which was formulated long 2 before there was experimental evidence to test it, 2 or has not as yet been entirely proven to be true 2 experimentally. 2 C. if the item refers to something which has nothing to 0 do with the theory. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 The volume of a gas increases with an increase in temperature 1 when the pressure remains constant. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 A gas always exerts pressure no matter how much it expands. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 3 Most gases are colorless. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 Gases are composed of small particles called molecules 4 which are relatively far apart and in rapid motion. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 5 Gases diffuse readily. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 6 6 Molecular collisions are perfectly elastic. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 7 9 Molecules on colliding lose no energy. 0192206 C 13 11339 52 0542019680011306 ETS2 OS Two identical balloons 1 and 2 are filled, 1 with hydrogen and 2 with helium, so that at room temperature and pressure their volumes are equal. When they are taken together to the top of a mountain, assuming that there is no leakage of gas from either balloon. A. 1 will become appreciably bigger than 2 B. 2 will become appreciably bigger than 1 9 C. 1 and 2 will have approximately equal volumes 0192207 A 12 11345 51 03750706077109 0043 The activity of an ideal gas is always numerically equal to its partial pressure. 9 A. True B. false. 0192208 B 12 11347 51 03751404077109 0043 The activity of a real gas is always numerically less than its partial pressure. 9 A. True B. false. 0192209 B 12 11349 32 10970192018609 0009 Two separate samples of the same gaseous substance at the same pressure would have densities in the same ratio as their absolute temperatures. 9 A. True B. False 0192210 B 12 11352 32 01131392016109 0009 The fact that a sample of gas would not have zero volume at the absolute zero of temperature is a consequence of the fact that absolute zero cannot be reached. 9 A. True B. False 0192211 A 12 11355 31 14860511049909 0040 The kinetic energy of an H molecule is lower than that of an O 4 2 2 molecule traveling at the same speed. 9 A. True B. False 0192212 A 12 11358 31 14860511016109 0040 The average kinetic energy of molecules of different gases is the same at a given temperature. 9 A. True B. False 0192213 B 12 11360 31 14860186011309 0040 A high density is a characteristic of gases. 9 A. True B. False 0192214 B 12 11361 31 01130321034809 0009 Of all the gases in the atmosphere, nitrogen is the least reactive. 9 A. True B. False 0192215 A 12 11363 31 07060128 0003 The molecular weight of a gas may be calculated from its density at a given pressure and temperature. 9 A. True B. False 0192216 B 12 11365 31 1429 0003 Gases which have low critical temperatures often show near-ideal behavior. 9 A. True B. False 0192217 B 12 11367 31 1429 0003 Gases which have high critical pressures usually have low critical temperatures. 9 A. True B. False 0192218 A 12 11369 31 0258 0003 The rate of diffusion of a gas is inversely proportional to the square root of its density. 9 A. True B. False 0192219 B 12 11371 31 0706 0003 The perfect-gas law can be used only for 1 mole of gas. 9 A. True B. False 0192220 A 12 11373 31 0710 0003 The vapor pressure of water is essentially independent of the total pressure. 9 A. True B. False 0192221 A 12 11375 31 0706 0003 The ratio of PV to T is independent of the pressure for a given quantity of ideal gas. 9 A. True B. False 0192222 B 12 11377 31 0706 0003 Equal weights of different gases contain the same number of molecules at STP. 9 A. True B. False 0192223 A 12 11379 31 0511 0003 The most probable kinetic energy of the molecules in a gas increases as the temperature is increased. 9 A. True B. False 0192224 A 12 11381 31 1392 0003 An ideal gas would have no volume at absolute zero. 9 A. True B. False 0192225 B 12 11383 31 0706 0003 At low pressures the molecules of a gas are moving more slowly than at high pressures. 9 A. True B. False 0192226 A 12 11385 31 0706 0003 All gases, except hydrogen and helium, undergo cooling when they are allowed to expand freely at room temperature. 9 A. True B. False 0192227 A 12 11387 31 0511 0003 The molecules in liquid water at 100 degrees C have a lower average kinetic energy than the molecules in gaseous water at the same temperature 9 A. True B. False 0192228 A 12 11390 31 11490128 0003 At 25 degrees C the vapor pressure of chloroform, CHCl , is 4 3 higher than that of carbon tetrachloride, CCl , because CHCl has 4 4 3 a lower molecular weight. 9 A. True B. False 0192229 A 12 11394 31 1429 0003 When a liquid is at the critical temperature, its vapor pressure is the same as the critical pressure. 9 A. True B. False 0192230 B 13 11396 32 06540884 0540 At standard temperature and pressure, how would the volume occupied by one mole each of diatomic chlorine and monatomic xenon compare ? ( atomic numbers Cl = 17 , Xe = 54 ) A. the chlorine volume is greater than that of xenon B. the chlorine volume is equal to that of xenon 9 C. the chlorine volume is less than that of xenon 0192231 C 13 11401 32 06540884 0540 At standard temperature and pressure, how would the volume occupied by one mole each of diatomic nitrogen and monatomic neon compare? (atomic numbers N = 7, Ne = 10) A. the nitrogen volume is less than that of neon B. the nitrogen volume is greater than that of neon 9 C. the nitrogen volume is equal to that of neon 0192232 A 13 11406 32 06540884 0540 At standard temperature and pressure, how would the volume occupied by one mole each of diatomic oxygen and monatomic krypton compare ? ( atomic numbers O = 8 , Kr = 36 ) A. the oxygen volume is equal to that of krypton B. the oxygen volume is greater than that of krypton 9 C. the oxygen volume is less than that of krypton 0192233 B 13 11411 32 06540884 0540 At standard temperature and pressure, how would the volume occupied by one mole each of monatomic helium and monatomic xenon compare ? ( atomic numbers He = 2 , Xe = 54 ) A. the helium volume is greater than that of xenon B. the helium volume is equal to that of xenon 9 C. the helium volume is less than that of xenon 0192234 C 13 11416 32 06540884 0540 At standard temperature and pressure, how would the volume occupied by one mole each of diatomic fluorine and monatomic argon compare ? ( atomic numbers F = 9 , Ar = 18 ) A. the fluorine volume is less than that of argon B. the fluorine volume is greater than that of argon 9 C. the fluorine volume is equal to that of argon 0192401 B 12 11421 32 03930293139409 0041 Gasoline, whose molecules have symmetrical arrangements of positive and negative charge, is an example of a nonpolar liquid. 9 A. True B. False 0192402 A 12 11423 31 04980192012809 0009 Boiling points of molecular substances usually increase with molecular weight. 9 A. True B. False 0192403 A 12 11425 31 0438 0003 In a liquid the attractive forces between the molecules are opposed by the repulsive forces between the electron clouds of neighboring molecules. 9 A. True B. False 0192404 A 12 11428 31 14860174141209 0040 Water will boil at 20 degrees C provided the atmospheric pressure is equal to the vapor pressure of the water. 9 A. True B. False 0192405 B 12 11430 31 14860498011409 0040 The normal boiling point of a liquid varies with atmospheric pressure. 9 A. True B. False 0192406 B 12 11432 31 14860498051109 0040 When a liquid is at its boiling point, all the molecules have the same kinetic energy. 9 A. True B. False 0192407 B 12 11434 31 14860505043809 0040 At a given temperature, all molecules in a liquid are moving at the same speed. 9 A. True B. False 0192408 A 12 11436 31 14860791043809 0040 Evaporation of a liquid is a physical process. 9 A. True B. False 0192409 B 12 11437 31 01140113024509 0009 The pressure exerted by a sample of gaseous benzene in equilibrium with liquid benzene will depend on the container volume. 9 A. True B. False 0192410 A 12 11440 31 016110400871 0009 Higher temperatures would favor the production of more product in the following system: benzene(l) <=====> benzene(g). 9 A. True B. False 0192411 A 12 11442 31 04980177 0003 An ordinary table top will serve as an effective hot plate for boiling liquid air. 9 A. True B. False 0192412 B 12 11444 31 04980008 0003 The boiling point of water is always 100 degrees C. 9 A. True B. False 0192413 A 12 11446 31 13590438 0003 In a liquid there may be a temporary and localized ordering of neighbors around a molecule. 9 A. True B. False 0192414 AA 22 11448 32 11490498043890 0009 MACROITEM STEM At 50 degrees C, the vapor pressure of liquid A is found to be 50 0 mm Hg; that of liquid B, 125 mm Hg. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 One can be reasonably sure that liquid A has the higher normal boiling point. 1 A. True B. False MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 For these same two liquids, one can state that the liquid with the higher surface tension at 50 degrees C is probably A. 9 A. True B. False 0192415 B 13 11453 51 05240438 The compressibility of liquids is A. very great because the molecules of a liquid slide easily over one another B. very small because molecules of liquid are quite close together 9 C. extremely dependent on intermolecular forces 0192416 A 12 11457 31 0122 0003 Brownian motion is more pronounced for small particles than for large ones. 9 A. True B. False 0192601 A 12 11459 31 02448004001909 04 2WVW The geometric form of crystals is the result of the orderly arrangement of molecules, atoms, and ions. A. True 9 B. False 0192602 A 12 11461 31 06651678027409 0041 The phenomenon of interference makes possible the use of x-ray in crystal analysis. 9 A. True B. False 0192603 B 12 11463 31 05891213024409 0041 Diamond is an example of an ionic crystal. 9 A. True B. False 0192604 A 12 11464 31 02370244029309 0041 Covalent crystals consist of arrays of separate molecules. 9 A. True B. False 0192605 A 12 11466 31 01691161 09 0009 Are all solids crystalline? 9 A. Yes B. No 0192606 B 12 11467 31 14860169015309 0040 Some solids may evaporate. 9 A. True B. False 0192607 A 12 11468 31 0173 0003 Metallic solids have hardnesses which vary markedly from one metal to another. 9 A. True B. False 0192608 A 12 11470 31 0169 0003 X-ray diffraction shows that solids generally have a very ordered structure. 9 A. True B. False 0192609 A 12 11472 31 06160612 0003 An x-ray diffraction photograph is a picture of the inside of a crystal. 9 A. True B. False 0192610 A 12 11474 31 0169 0003 Lattice defects are quite common. 9 A. True B. False 0192611 A 12 11475 31 15931932 09 An isomorphous substance also can be crystalline. A. True 9 B. False 0192612 A 12 11477 31 15931933 09 A polymorphous substance also can be crystalline. A. True 9 B. False 0192613 B 12 11479 31 1701 09 Substances which are crystalline also can be amorphous. A. True 9 B. False 0192614 A 12 11481 31 15931933 09 Substances which are crystalline also can be polymorphous. A. True 9 B. False 0192615 B 12 11483 31 0715 09 The unit cell is that section of a crystal which contains one formula weight of the compound A. True 9 B. False 0192616 A 12 11485 31 0715 09 The unit cell is the smallest section of a crystal which describes the structure of the crystal. A. True 9 B. False 0192617 B 12 11487 51 0715 09 The smallest section of a crystal which describes the structure of the whole crystal is called the formula unit. A. True 9 B. False 0192618 A 12 11489 51 0715 09 In a crystal, the smallest repetitive unit which has the full symmetry of the lattice is defined as the unit cell. A. True 9 B. False 0192619 B 12 11491 31 1701 09 Amorphous solids have a regular arrangement of atoms in space. A. True 9 B. False 0192620 B 12 11493 51 01790172 09 A pure crystalline solid characteristically melts over a wide temperature range. A. True 9 B. False 0192621 A 12 11495 31 01790172 09 Crystalline solids have a sharp melting point. A. True 9 B. False 0192622 B 12 11497 31 17010172 09 Amorphous solids melt at a sharply defined temperature. A. True 9 B. False 0192623 A 12 11499 31 1701 09 Amorphous solids have little or no regular arrangement of their constituent atoms. A. True 9 B. False 0192624 A 12 11501 31 0179 09 Crystalline solids have a regular arrangement of atoms in space. A. True 9 B. False 0192625 B 12 11503 32 1892 09 In a cubic closest-packed structure, the particles of the substance are of different size in alternate layers. A. True 9 B. False 0192626 B 12 11505 32 1892 09 In a cubic closest-packed structure, the particles of the substance are spheres of unequal size. A. True 9 B. False 0192627 B 12 11507 31 0728 09 The crystal coordination number is the number of ions in a crystal. A. True 9 B. False 0192628 B 12 11509 31 0728 09 The crystal coordination number is the number of ions in a unit cell. A. True 9 B. False 0192629 A 12 11511 31 0728 09 The crystal coordination number is the number of nearest neighbors to an ion in a crystal. A. True 9 B. False 0192630 B 12 11513 31 08230825 09 The radius ratio of ions in a crystal is the ratio of the number of positive ions to negative ions in the unit cell. A. True 9 B. False 0192631 A 12 11515 31 08230325 09 The radius ratio of ions in a crystal is the ratio of the radius of the positive ion to the radius of the negative ion. A. True 9 B. False 0192632 A 12 11517 52 08230325 09 Crystals of two different binary sodium compounds have different radius ratios. Thus the negative ions in the two crystals must be different. A. True 9 B. False 0192633 B 13 11520 51 11531595 When a solid melts, A. the crystal lattice breaks down and heat is liberated in the process. B. the crystal lattice breaks down and heat is absorbed in the process. C. ordering in the crystal lattice remains the same but heat is used to increase the kinetic energy of the 9 molecules. 0193001 B 12 11525 31 00660189800409 04 2 OS Compounds are more complex than elements A. True 9 B. False 0193002 B 12 11526 32 03500189094309 0009 Since silicon is the second most abundant element in the earth's crust, it must be one of the cheapest to buy from a chemicals supplier. 9 A. True B. False 0193003 A 12 11529 31 10970588018509 0009 Stable, bulk samples of samples of matter carry little or no electric charge, that is, they are electrically neutral. 9 A. True B. False 0193004 B 12 11531 31 14860293035109 0040 The limit of chemical subdivision is a molecule. 9 A. True B. False 0193005 B 12 11533 31 14860087041109 0040 A solution is an example of a homogeneous pure substance. 9 A. True B. False 0193006 B 12 11535 31 14860193041109 0040 All homogeneous matter is classified as pure substance. 9 A. True B. False 0193007 A 12 11537 31 14861149016109 0040 The vapor pressures of all substances increase as the temperature is increased. 9 A. True B. False 0193008 B 12 11539 31 03030189 0041 Phlogiston is the lightest element. 9 A. True B. False 0193201 A 12 11540 32 01690808011009 0009 Sodium chloride and potassium dichromate, both solids which are soluble in water, can probably be separated by taking advantage of differences in solubility. 9 A. True B. False 0193202 B 12 11543 32 15110438017409 0009 Whenever bubbles form within a sample of liquid, the liquid is said to be boiling. 9 A. True B. False 0193203 A 12 11545 31 14860087143609 0040 Solutions can be separated into component substances by physical means. 9 A. True B. False 0193204 A 12 11547 31 14860193020409 0040 Homogeneous matter can have a variable composition. 9 A. True B. False 0193205 B 12 11549 31 10971605000809 0009 When a sample of air is allowed to warm up without changing the total water content, the relative humidity usually increases. 9 A. True B. False 0193206 A 12 11552 32 0168 09 The properties of a homogeneous mixture are uniform throughout any single sample of the mixture. A. True 9 B. False 0193207 A 12 11554 32 0168 09 A mixture is a material which can be separated by physical means into the substances from which it is made. A. True 9 B. False 0193208 B 12 11556 32 0168 09 A mixture is a material which can be separated only by chemical means into the substances out of which it is made. A. True 9 B. False 0193209 B 12 11558 32 0168 09 The properties of a heterogeneous mixture are uniform throughout any single sample of the mixture. A. True 9 B. False 0193210 A 12 11560 32 0087 09 The properties of a solution are uniform throughout any single sample of the solution. A. True 9 B. False 0193401 B 12 11562 31 14860411035109 0040 The unique simplest unit of a pure substance is an atom. 9 A. True B. False 0193402 A 12 11564 31 14860293018909 0040 Molecules of elements are always homoatomic. 9 A. True B. False 0193601 A 12 11565 31 00660649000509 0041 Compounds formed by electron transfer are called ionic compounds. 9 A. True B. False 0193602 B 12 11567 31 02930005035509 0041 Most molecules are held toghther by ionic bonds. 9 A. True B. False 0193603 B 12 11569 51 14861307065309 0040 In order for matter to be heterogeneous at least two different pure substances must be present. 9 A. True B. False 0193604 A 12 11571 31 14860066035109 0040 A compound contains only one kind of atom. 9 A. True B. False 0193605 A 12 11572 31 14860066041109 0040 A compound is an example of a pure substance. 9 A. True B. False 0193606 B 12 11573 31 000800870196 0041 Water is a solution of hydrogen and oxygen. 9 A. True B. False 0193607 B 12 11574 32 0037 09 A compound is a substance which can be separated by physical means into the elements out of which it is made. A. True 9 B. False 0193608 A 12 11576 32 0037 09 A compound is a substance which can be separated by chemical means into the elements out of which it is made. A. True 9 B. False 0193609 A 12 11578 32 0037 09 A compound is composed of two or more elements combined in definite proportions. A. True 9 B. False 0193610 B 12 11580 32 0037 09 A compound is any material with two or more elements in it. A. True 9 B. False 0193611 A 12 11582 32 0037 09 The properties of a compound are uniform throughout any single sample of the compound. A. True 9 B. False 0193612 A 12 11584 32 00370168 09 Compounds are homogeneous mixtures. A. True 9 B. False 0193613 B 12 11585 31 0067 09 A binary compound is one which contains only two atoms. A. True 9 B. False 0193614 A 12 11587 31 0067 09 A binary compound is one which contains two and only two different elements. A. True 9 B. False 0193615 B 13 11589 31 0067 05 A binary compound is one which contains A. two atoms of the same element B. two and only two different elements 9 C. two ions with the same electrical charge 0193701 B 13 11592 31 06790785 0026 The chief outlet from the nitrogen pool is, in humans, A. tissue protein being sloughed off B. proteins lost in solid wastes 9 C. urinary nitrogen. 0195001 A 12 11595 31 01351418 0041 A chemical reaction always involves molecular changes. 9 A. True B. False 0195201 B 12 11597 31 04070226094309 0041 Most chemical reactions are reversible. 9 A. True B. False 0195202 A 12 11598 51 04070196035509 0043 Reactions with hydrogen are typically slow, because the H-H bond is quite strong. 9 A. True B. false. 0195203 A 12 11600 51 00150554039209 0043 Metals which dissolve appreciable quantities of hydrogen are used for hydrogenation catalysts. 9 A. True B. false. 0195204 B 12 11602 31 14990135080609 0009 The materials which are consumed, disappear, during a chemical reaction are called products. 9 A. True B. False 0195205 A 12 11604 52 09620977040709 0009 All of the following may be reasons why the actual product yield in a reaction is usually less than 100%: separation and purification result in losses; competing reactions form other products instead; the reaction hasn't stopped yet; not all the reactants are converted to desired product, even when the reaction has ceased. 9 A. True B. False 0195206 B 12 11609 31 01920172000809 0009 For any pure substance, the melting point is always a little above the freezing point. For instance, water will melt at a temperature above 0 degrees C and freeze at a temperature a little below 0 degrees C. 9 A. True B. False 0195207 A 12 11613 32 14860087041109 0040 Some pure substances may be decomposed into simpler pure substances by chemical change. 9 A. True B. False 0195208 B 12 11615 31 14860588035109 0040 An atom is the smallest unit possible from physical subdivision of matter. 9 A. True B. False 0195401 A 12 11617 31 03510293169709 0041 At any instant, all atoms and molecules have asymmetric charge distributions. 9 A. True B. False 0195402 A 12 11619 31 14140513117809 0009 The following statement is probably consistent with modern atomic theory: A positively charged sodium ion is smaller than a neutral sodium atom. 9 A. True B. False 0195403 B 12 11622 31 14861402034109 0040 The chemical properties of elements are very dependent on the number of nuclear neutrons. 9 A. True B. False 0196201 B 12 11624 32 04700189026409 One difference between an element and a compound is that compounds do not always follow the law of conservation of matter and energy while elements do. A. True 9 B. False 0196202 B 12 11627 32 0264 09 The law of conservation of matter and energy is generally, but not always, followed. A. True 9 B. False 0196203 B 12 11629 32 02640470 09 The burning of a candle is one of those rare exceptions to the law of conservation of matter and energy. A. True 9 B. False 0196204 A 12 11631 32 02640470 09 During a chemical reaction, matter and energy are always conserved. A. True 9 B. False 0196205 B 12 11633 32 02640470 09 Nuclear explosions which directly convert matter into energy are examples of exceptions to the law of conservation of matter and energy. A. True 9 B. False 0196206 B 12 11636 32 02640470 09 An exothermic reaction loses heat to its surroundings. This is a violation of the law of conservation of matter and energy. A. True 9 B. False 0196207 B 12 11639 32 02640470013509 Some energy is always destroyed when a chemical reaction occurs. A. True 9 B. False 0196208 A 12 11641 32 0470 09 The law of conservation of energy implies that energy is not destroyed during a chemical reaction. A. True 9 B. False 0196209 B 12 11643 32 0470 09 The law of conservation of energy states that matter cannot be converted into energy. A. True 9 B. False 0196210 A 12 11645 32 0364 09 Matter and energy can be considered interrelated because one can be converted into the other. A. True 9 B. False 0196211 A 12 11647 32 0364 09 The amount of energy into which matter can be converted is 5 2 governed by the equation E = mc . A. True 9 B. False 0196212 B 12 11650 32 04700264 09 The law of conservation of matter and energy states that matter can be created but not destroyed. A. True 9 B. False 0196213 B 12 11652 32 0264 09 An exception to the law of conservation of matter and energy occurs in the explosion of a hydrogen bomb. A. True 9 B. False 0196401 A 12 11654 31 02950345149609 0009 In the light of current knowledge, we must view the law of constant composition as only a good approximation to observed behavior. 9 A. True B. False 0196402 B 12 11657 31 14860513026509 0040 The law of definite composition is an exception to the atomic theory. 9 A. True B. False 0198001 A 12 11659 31 80040089008709 04 2WVW When molecules of an electrolyte are broken up in solution into their constituent radicals, each is charged, and these are called ions A. True 9 B. False 0198002 A 12 11662 31 07310351015909 0041 The ionization energy of an atom is the energy needed to remove its outermost electron. 9 A. True B. False 0199001 A 12 11664 31 02938004800309 04 2WVW Molecules are always in motion. A. True 9 B. False 0200001 ABABBBBA 83 11665 52 035103428001119006 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2Evaluate the statements according to the key. 2 A. The statement is true. 2 B. The statement is false. 0 C. The statement is neither true nor false in all cases. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 All atoms must have at least one electron in the nucleus. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 All atoms must have at least one neutron in the nucleus. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 3 Nuclei of all atoms carry a positive charge. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 4 All nuclei contain more neutrons than protons. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 The isotopes of uranium cannot be separated by means of chemical 5 processes. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 6 When an atom disintegrates all of its mass is accounted for 6 in the particles and lighter atoms that are released. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 7 In the disintegration of uranium, the barium atoms are the 7 product that continues the chain reaction. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 8 Chemically speaking all but the nucleus of an atom can be 9 disregarded. 0200002 A 12 11675 51 0438 0003 The x-ray diffraction pattern produced by a liquid shows a series of concentric rings. 9 A. True B. False 0210001 BAAAABAAC93 11677 31 027602638001119006 ETS2WVW MACROITEM STEM 2To answer the following questions, use the key below 2 A. a scientific fact well supported by evidence. 2 B. A highly probable theory. 0 C. A mere guess. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 An electron revolving around a positive nucleus is subjected to a centrifugal force equal and opposite to 1 the electrostatic force attracting it by the nucleus. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 The atom for the most part is made up of a nucleus of protons and neutrons with the same number of electrons revolving around the nucleus as protons contained 2 in the nucleus. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 A useful element has been formed by merely projecting 3 a neutron into the nucleus of an atom. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 Researchers have been able to form many isotopes 4 that have never been discovered as natural particles. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 The electron is considered by scientists as the 5 smallest particle of matter. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 6 The atom is a tiny solar system with a nucleus of positive charges of electricity at its center and electrons 6 revolving around it. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 7 Robert Millikan discovered the value of the electrical 7 charge carried by the electron. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 8 8 The atom has locked in its nucleus a tremendous amount of energy. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 9 9 A fuel in all the larger electrical power plants. 0210002 B 12 11692 31 16830495034109 0041 A nucleon is a composite particle consisting of a neutron and a proton. 9 A. True B. False 0210003 A 12 11694 31 00970341026309 0041 The proton, neutron, and electron are stable particles that do not decay in free space. 9 A. True B. False 0210004 B 12 11696 51 07970097146609 0041 The old name for proton is positron. 9 A. True B. False 0210005 B 12 11697 51 03411686168709 0041 The antiparticle of the neutron is the neutrino. 9 A. True B. False 0210006 B 12 11699 51 16860343000909 0041 Neutrinos are readily absorbed by lead and iron. 9 A. True B. False 0210007 B 12 11701 51 16880449 09 0041 The distinction between mesons and hyperons is that mesons are unstable while hyperons are stable. 9 A. True B. False 0210008 A 12 11703 31 00971486044509 0040 Neutrons and protons weigh approximately the same. 9 A. True B. False 0210009 A 12 11705 31 03421486018509 0040 All nuclei are positively charged. 9 A. True B. False 0210010 A 12 11706 31 14860445026309 0040 The weight of 2000 electrons is less than that of 2000 protons. 9 A. True B. False 0210011 A 12 11708 32 15711285035809 0009 The extent of deflection in an electrostatic field is greater for a beta-particle than for an alpha-particle. 9 A. True B. False 0210012 A 12 11710 31 05131486 0003 Goldstein's experiments with discharge tubes proved that atoms contain positrons as well as electrons. 9 A. True B. False 0210013 A 12 11712 31 03571486 0003 Rutherford's experiments showed that the nucleus of an atom is extremely small. 9 A. True B. False 0210014 B 12 11714 31 00701486 0003 In the process of losing an electron from its outer shell, a neutral (uncharged) atom acquires a negative charge. 9 A. True B. False 0210015 A 12 11716 31 026314860097 0003 The mass-to-charge ratio of an electron is lower than that of a proton. 9 A. True B. False 0210016 B 12 11718 31 03851486 0003 The positive particles formed in a Goldstein discharge tube are all alpha particles. 9 A. True B. False 0211001 B 14 11720 31 02630027800111 06 ETS2WVW When electrons are emitted from a clean zinc plate illuminated by ultra-violet light the kinetic energy of an emitted electron is A. directly proportional to the intensity of the illumination B. dependent only on the frequency of the incident light C. independent of the frequency of the incident light D. directly proportional to the absolute temperature of 9 metal 0211002 A 12 11726 51 02760263168909 0041 The theory of the electron was developed by Dirac. 9 A. True B. False 0211003 B 12 11728 32 02630097 09 In relation to the proton, the electron is about the same mass and of opposite charge. A. True 9 B. False 0211004 A 12 11730 31 02630097 09 In relation to the proton, the electron is many times lighter and of opposite charge. A. True 9 B. False 0211005 B 12 11732 31 02630097 09 In relation to the proton, the electron is many times heavier and of opposite charge. A. True 9 B. False 0211006 B 12 11734 31 02630341 09 In relation to the electron, the neutron is many times heavier and of opposite charge. A. True 9 B. False 0211007 B 12 11736 31 02630341 09 In relation to the electron, the neutron is many times lighter and negative in charge. A. True 9 B. False 0211008 B 12 11738 31 00970341 09 In relation to the proton, the neutron is many times heavier and negative in charge. A. True 9 B. False 0211009 A 12 11740 31 03410097 09 In relation to the neutron, the proton is about the same mass and positively charged. A. True 9 B. False 0211010 A 12 11742 31 02630097 09 The charges on the electron and proton are equal but opposite in sign. A. True 9 B. False 0211011 B 12 11744 31 00970341 09 The charges on the proton and neutron are equal but opposite in sign. A. True 9 B. False 0211013 B 12 11746 31 02630341 09 The charges on the electron and neutron are not equal but they have the same electrical sign. A. True 9 B. False 0211101 A 13 11748 31 05900571 0026 Whether or not a given beam of radiation can eject electrons from a metal surface is determined solely by 9 A. its frequency B. its intensity C. its speed. 0211102 A 12 11751 31 057103280263 0041 The photoelectric effect is the emission of electrons when light is shined on a metal surface. 9 A. True B. False 0213001 A 12 11753 31 03370189034209 0041 The atomic number of an element is equal to the number of protons in its nucleus. 9 A. True B. False 0213002 B 12 11755 31 03420351009709 0041 The nuclei of all hydrogen atoms consist of single protons. 9 A. True B. False 0213003 A 12 11757 31 14860097035109 0040 All atoms contain protons. 9 A. True B. False 0213004 B 12 11758 32 00970341 09 The number of protons in an atom is always equal to the number of neutrons. A. True 9 B. False 0213005 A 12 11760 32 00970263 09 The number of protons in a atom is always equal to the number of electrons. A. True 9 B. False 0215001 B 12 11762 31 03410353009709 0041 The neutron is an isotope of the proton. 9 A. True B. False 0215002 B 12 11763 51 06200341 09 0041 The half-life of the free neutron is 1,600 years. 9 A. True B. False 0215003 B 12 11765 32 03410263 09 The number of neutrons in a atom is always equal to the number of electrons. A. True 9 B. False 0215004 B 12 11767 32 00970263034109 All atoms of the same element must contain the same number of protons, neutrons, and electrons. A. True 9 B. False 0220001 A 13 11769 31 14020351018509 0009 The chemical properties of an atom are determined by its nuclear charge. 9 A. True B. False 0220002 A 12 11771 31 03510189026309 0009 All neutral atoms of a given element have the same number of electrons. 9 A. True B. False 0220003 A 12 11773 31 01950351026309 0009 The volume of an atom is essentially that volume occupied by the electrons. 9 A. True B. False 0220004 B 12 11775 31 01850351034209 0009 All the electrical charge in an atom is confined to the nucleus. 9 A. True B. False 0220005 B 12 11777 31 03371291026309 0009 The atomic number is always equal to the number of electrons in a particular atom. 9 A. True B. False 0220006 B 12 11779 31 08230185117809 0009 The radius of a negatively charged monatomic ion is always smaller than the radius of the parent neutral atom. 9 A. True B. False 0220007 B 12 11781 31 03420351148609 0040 The nucleus occupies about 1/2 the volume of an atom. 9 A. True B. False 0221001 B 12 11783 51 03640606154009 0041 Einstein discovered that the line spectrum of an element contains specific wavelengths which are characteristic of the element alone. 9 A. True B. False 0221002 B 12 11786 51 13450351 09 0041 The Bohr theory of the atom is now known to be correct in all respects. 9 A. True B. False 0221003 A 12 11788 51 0351026309 0041 According to the Bohr model of the atom, atoms emit light when their electrons jump from outer to inner orbits. 9 A. True B. False 0221004 B 12 11790 51 02630351134009 0041 Electrons moving in circular paths outside of atoms emit electromagnetic radiation continuously. 9 A. True B. False 0221005 A 13 11792 31 033001961345 0026 The Bohr theory of the hydrogen atom A. successfully predicts its spectrum B. proves that light is a form of radiant energy 9 C. contradicts planck's quantum hypothesis. 0221006 A 12 11795 31 06541486018509 0040 Cathode rays possess a negative charge. 9 A. True B. False 0221007 A 12 11796 32 0189 09 An atom and an ion which contain the same number of protons but which have different masses are both of the same element. A. True 9 B. False 0221008 A 12 11799 32 0189 09 Two atoms or ions with the same number of protons and the same mass are both of the same element. A. True 9 B. False 0221009 A 12 11801 32 0189 09 Two neutral atoms which contain the same number of electrons and which have the same mass are both atoms of the same element. A. True 9 B. False 0221010 B 12 11804 32 0189 09 Two atoms or ions with the same number of neutrons and the same mass must both be of the same element. A. True 9 B. False 0221011 B 12 11806 32 0189 09 Two isotopes of the same element differ in the number of protons their atoms contain. A. True 9 B. False 0221012 A 12 11808 32 0189 09 Two isotopes of the same element differ in the number of neutrons their atoms contain. A. True 9 B. False 0221013 B 12 11810 32 0342 09 The nucleus of an atom is composed of protons and electrons. A. True 9 B. False 0221014 B 12 11812 32 1110 09 Almost all the mass of an atom is contained in its protons and electrons. A. True 9 B. False 0221015 B 12 11814 32 1110 09 Almost all the mass of an atom is contained in its protons. A. True 9 B. False 0221016 A 12 11816 32 1110 09 Almost all the mass of an atom is contained in its protons and neutrons. A. True 9 B. False 0221017 A 12 11818 32 0342 09 The nucleus of an atom is composed of neutrons and protons. A. True 9 B. False 0230001 B 12 11820 31 03510445035109 0041 All atoms have weights which are exactly integral multiples of the weight of the hydrogen atom. 9 A. True B. False 0230002 B 13 11822 31 03531461 0026 5 235 In the symbol U , 235 means 4 92 A. the mass defect B. the isotope mass 9 C. the atomic number. 0230003 B 12 11824 31 00651413035309 0009 The atomic weight is an average number that takes into account all known isotopes of an element, including those prepared artificially in the laboratory. 9 A. True B. False 0230004 A 12 11827 32 1110 09 The mass number of an element is determined by the number of protons and neutrons. A. True 9 B. False 0230005 B 12 11829 32 1110 09 The mass number of an element is determined by the number of protons and electrons. A. True 9 B. False 0230006 A 12 11831 32 1313 09 All atomic weights are based ultimately on carbon-12 having a weight of exactly 12.0000. A. True 9 B. False 0230007 B 12 11833 32 1313 09 All atomic weights are based ultimately on oxygen-16 having a weight of exactly 16.0000. A. True 9 B. False 0230008 A 12 11835 32 0065 09 An element with a higher atomic number than carbon will always have a greater number of protons in its nucleus than carbon does. A. True 9 B. False 0230009 A 12 11838 32 0065 09 An element with a lower atomic number than carbon will always have a lower number of protons in its nucleus than carbon does. A. True 9 B. False 0230010 B 12 11841 32 00650337 09 If atom X has a greater mass than atom Y, then its atomic number is surely greater also. A. True 9 B. False 0230011 A 12 11843 32 00650337 09 If element X has a greater number of protons in its nucleus than element Y, then its atomic number is surely greater also. A. True 9 B. False 0230012 B 12 11846 32 03370263 09 If an atom and an ion have the same number of electrons, then they are of the same element. A. True 9 B. False 0231001 A 12 11848 31 03530189009709 0041 The isotopes of an element have the same number of protons in the nuclei of their atoms but different numbers of neutrons. 9 A. True B. False 0231002 A 12 11850 31 07880847035309 0041 Deuterium and tritium are isotopes of hydrogen. 9 A. True B. False 0231003 B 12 11852 32 02930008 09 0043 A molecule of deuterium oxide weighs twice as much as a molecule of ordinary H O. 4 2 9 A. True B. False 0231004 B 12 11854 31 03531055033709 0009 An isotope is one of two or more atomic species having the same atomic number but different numbers of electrons. 9 A. True B. False 0231005 A 12 11856 31 03371486035309 0040 Isotopes of an element have the same atomic number. 9 A. True B. False 0231006 B 12 11858 31 14860353034109 0040 Two isotopes can contain the same number of neutrons. 9 A. True B. False 0231007 A 12 11860 31 03531486 0003 Different isotopes of an element always have different numbers of neutrons in their nuclei. 9 A. True B. False 0231008 A 12 11862 31 01891486 Atoms of a given element always have the same number of protons. 9 A. True B. False 0231009 A 12 11864 31 06601486 0003 An atom can raise its neutron-proton ratio by ejecting a positron 9 A. True B. False 0231010 A 12 11866 31 06541486 0003 Cathode rays are streams of electrons. 9 A. True B. False 0231011 B 12 11867 31 12021486 0003 When exposed to a magnetic field, gamma rays exhibit no appreciable deflection. 9 A. True B. False 0231012 B 12 11869 51 120906621070 0041 Carbon 14 may be detected because of its distinctive color. 9 A. True B. False 0231013 B 12 11871 32 03530263 09 Neutral atoms of isotopes of the same element differ in the number of electrons they contain. A. True 9 B. False 0231014 C 13 11873 32 0353 05 To change one atom into another nuclide of the same element, add or subtract 9 A. electrons B. protons C. neutrons 0231015 B 13 11875 32 0353 05 For two atoms or ions of the same mass to be the same element, they must contain the same number of 9 A. electrons B. protons C. neutrons 0231016 B 12 11878 32 01890353 09 Atoms of two different elements with the same number of neutrons are isotopes. A. True 9 B. False 0233001 B 12 11880 31 14520189148609 0040 All of the 105 elements known today occur in nature. 9 A. True B. False 0233002 B 12 11882 31 14860415018909 0040 The known elements do not occur in exactly equal abundance but 3 _______ their abundances are very close to being equal. 9 A. True B. False 0233003 B 12 11885 31 03531486041509 0040 All of the elements occur in nature in two isotopic forms. 9 A. True B. False 0233004 A 12 11887 31 14860415018909 0040 More than 90% of the earth's crust, water, and atmosphere is composed of only ten elements. 9 A. True B. False 0233005 B 12 11889 31 019603210189 0041 There is little hydrogen in the earth's atmosphere because this element is rare everywhere in the universe. 9 A. True B. False 0250001 A 13 11891 31 03370189800111 06 ETS2WVW The atomic number of an element is numerically equal to A. the number of protons in the nucleus of the atom B. the number of neutrons in the nucleus of the atom 9 C. the whole number nearest to its atomic weight 0250002 A 12 11894 31 14020189168409 0041 The chemical properties of an element are determined almost wholly by the electron clouds of its atoms. 9 A. True B. False 0250003 A 12 11896 31 07771486 0003 The largest number of electrons which can populate an isolated atom's valence shell is eight. 9 A. True B. False 0250004 A 12 11898 32 01890097033709 The atomic number of an element is determined by the number of protons in its atoms. A. True 9 B. False 0250005 B 12 11900 32 01890097033709 The atomic number of an element is determined by the number of neutrons in its atoms. A. True 9 B. False 0250006 B 12 11902 32 00370097026309 The atomic number of an element is determined by the total number of protons plus neutrons in an atom of the element. A. True 9 B. False 0251001 A 12 11904 52 11781423 09 0043 The manganous ion contains five unpaired 3d electrons. 9 A. True B. False 0251002 A 12 11906 51 07681178 09 0043 The mercurous ion is not paramagnetic. 9 A. True B. False 0251003 B 12 11907 51 0016 033809 0043 5 3+ 3+ Al and Cr have similar electronic configurations in their outermost shells. 9 A. True B. False 0251004 A 12 11909 31 14860338035409 0040 The electronic configuration of argon (Ar) is 5 2 2 6 2 6 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 9 A. True B. False 0251005 A 12 11911 32 07771486 0003 The ground-state electronic population of a sodium (Z = 11) ion is 5 2 2 6 1s 2s 2p 9 A. True B. False 0251006 A 12 11913 31 11281486 0003 The ground-state electronic configuration of a potassium (Z=19) ion is the same as that of a calcium (Z = 20) ion. 9 A. True B. False 0251007 A 12 11915 31 09291486 0003 The ground state of an atom is the one in which all electrons are in the lowest energy levels available to them. 9 A. True B. False 0251008 C 13 11917 32 0189 05 An atom and an ion of the same element differ only in the number of 9 A. protons B. neutrons C. electrons 0251009 B 12 11919 32 01890353 09 Atoms of two different elements with the same mass number are isotopes. A. True 9 B. False 0251010 A 12 11921 32 01890263 09 A positive ion of a certain element can be formed by removal of an electron from an atom of that element. A. True 9 B. False 0251011 B 12 11923 32 01891178 09 5 + The number of electrons in an ion such as K is greater than the number of protons. A. True 9 B. False 0251012 B 12 11926 32 01891178 09 A negative ion of a certain element can be formed by removal of a proton from an atom of that element. A. True 9 B. False 0251013 B 12 11928 32 01891178 09 A negative ion of a certain element can be formed by removal of an electron from an atom of that element. A. True 9 B. False 0251014 B 12 11930 32 01891178 09 A positive ion of a certain element can be formed by addition of a proton to the nucleus of that element. A. True 9 B. False 0251015 A 12 11932 32 01891178 09 A negative ion of a certain element can be formed by addition of an electron to an atom of that element. A. True 9 B. False 0253001 B 12 11934 51 1540 09 0041 Emission spectra consist of bright lines on a dark background. 9 A. True B. False 0253002 A 12 11936 51 03510054032909 0041 Atoms emit and absorb light of the same frequencies. 9 A. True B. False 0253003 B 12 11938 51 03510907042909 0041 An atom in an excited state has a high velocity. 9 A. True B. False 0253004 A 12 11940 51 13620159 09 0043 The 4d and 5s subshells are very close in energy. 9 A. True B. False 0253005 A 13 11942 31 03800909 0026 When an electron in a hydrogen atom undergoes a change in its principal quantum number from 3 to 8, its energy is 9 A. increased B. decreased C. unchanged. 0253006 A 12 11945 31 01590263090909 0009 The energy associated with an electron in a given atom is almost fully described by specifying its value of the quantum number n. 9 A. True B. False 0253007 A 12 11948 31 14861362034709 0040 A subshell is a collection of orbitals that have the same energy. 9 A. True B. False 0253008 A 12 11950 31 14861362015909 0040 Electrons in the 3d subshell would have more energy than those in the 3p subshell. 9 A. True B. False 0270001 B 12 11952 51 05720351039209 0041 The quantum-mechanical theory of the atom restricts itself to physical quantities that can be measured. 9 A. True B. False 0270002 A 12 11954 51 16930351 09 0041 Quantum mechanics is an extension of Newtonian mechanics to the atom. 9 A. True B. False 0270003 B 12 11956 51 16930270026309 0041 Because quantum mechanics does not make definite predictions about the position and velocity of each electron in an atom, its correctness cannot be verified by experiment. 9 A. True B. False 0270004 B 13 11959 31 019603300572 0026 The hydrogen atomic spectrum requires that the hydrogen atom gain or lose energy A. only in a vacuum tube B. in discrete amounts 9 C. as required by its environment. 0270005 A 13 11962 31 06120628 0026 A characteristic feature of waves is 9 A. diffraction B. internal friction C. typical mass 0270006 B 12 11964 52 05720067060609 0009 Without quantum theory, there probably would be no way of predicting the properties of element 110, yet to be discovered. 9 A. True B. False 0273001 A 13 11966 31 146914700572 0026 The Heisenberg uncertainty principle is based upon the fact that A. photons of high energy can disturb small pieces of matter B. the present state of precision of measuring atomic positions can be refined to an unlimited extent 9 C. actual experimental work always contains slight errors. 0273002 A 12 11970 31 14860909147009 0040 The larger the number (n) of a shell, the greater is the distance between the nucleus and the most probable position of a contained electron. 9 A. True B. False 0273003 A 12 11973 31 1211 0417 0041 It is impossible simultaneously to determine the position and velocity of an electron. 9 A. True B. False 0275001 B 12 11975 51 03470914150509 0009 An orbital diagram is a geometrical representation of the shape of an orbital. 9 A. True B. False 0275002 B 12 11977 31 14860347136209 0040 An orbital is a collection of subshells. 9 A. True B. False 0275003 A 12 11978 31 14860347038009 0040 An orbital has a definite size and shape which are related to the energy of the electrons it could contain. 9 A. True B. False 0275004 A 12 11980 31 14861362034709 0040 A 2p and a 3p subshell contain the same number of orbitals. 9 A. True B. False 0275005 B 12 11982 31 14860915091409 0040 An s orbital is shaped something like a four leaf clover. 9 A. True B. False 0275006 B 12 11984 51 14860347136209 0040 The maximum number of electrons possible in a d orbital is 10. 9 A. True B. False 0275007 A 12 11986 31 11281486 0003 If two electrons in an atom have the same spin and are both in p orbitals oriented in the same direction in space, they must be in different shells. 9 A. True B. False 0275008 B 12 11989 31 05861486 0003 Each electron in an atom revolves in an orbit around the nucleus, according to present-day theory. 9 A. True B. False 0277001 A 12 11991 51 0909 026309 0041 Four quantum numbers are required to characterize each electron in a complex atom. 9 A. True B. False 0277002 B 12 11993 51 16920263058609 0041 Electron spin refers to the motion of electrons in their orbits. 9 A. True B. False 0277003 A 12 11995 51 02630909035109 0041 No more than one electron in an atom can have the same set of quantum numbers. 9 A. True B. False 0277004 A 12 11997 51 05301497026309 0041 Both the direction and the magnitude of the angular momentum of an atomic electron are quantized. 9 A. True B. False 0277005 B 12 11999 31 14860909026309 0040 The maximum number of electrons in a shell with N = 3 is 10. 9 A. True B. False 0279001 B 12 12001 31 11280244019509 0041 The exclusion principle explains why crystals do not collapse into smaller volumes. 9 A. True B. False 0279002 A 12 12003 31 14860347026309 0040 The maximum number of electrons an orbital may contain does not vary with the type of orbital. 9 A. True B. False 0290001 CABCCBCC 83 12005 31 1 057390159016959006 ETS2WVW MACROITEM STEM 2The following questions refer to Figures 15 and 16. 2all atoms are made from the same three pieces in Figure 15. Every 2tiny atom is like a solar system. Its central "sun" has one or 2more protons, generally neutrons, too. The revolving "planets" 2are the electrons, one for each proton in the nucleus, because 2plus and minus must balance in the atom. 2The opposite charges attract but high speed keeps the electrons 2in their circular paths. All the weight of the atom may be 2considered to be in the nucleus since the electron weighs only 21/1850 of the proton. 2The atom is mostly empty space. If the nucleus were enlarged 2to the size of a baseball, the electron would be a mere speck 22000 feet away. Electrons supply the energy for chemical reactions 2like burning coal or the explosion of tnt. The nucleus 2evades all ordinary chemical reactons. Its energy can be 2released only by direct hits on the nucleus to break the bonds 2that hold the protons and neutrons in a tight bundle. 2Uranium is nature's heaviest atom called U-238. It is not 2directly usable for energy release, but an element may have 2several isotopes--alternate forms with the same number of 2protons but slightly different numbers of neutrons. The material 2needed for direct atomic energy release is U-235 which consists 2of only .7 per cent of natural uranium. The separation of the 2uranium isotopes is difficult since they are chemically the same 2element. 2Relatively slow neutron bullets can split U-235 into lighter 2atoms and give several neutrons to split other U-235 atoms 2setting up a chain of explosions that may sweep through a block 2of U-235 releasing energy equivalent to 11,400,000 kilowatt-hours 2per pound. 2We now have a man-made new element, number 94 with 145 2neutrons, called plutonium which can also be split like u-235. 2in an elementary way the principle of atomic explosion can 2be shown by Figure 16. 2To answer the following questions, select from the key the 2most appropriate response. 2 A. The first part of the statement is true, and its truth 2 is supported by the reason given in the statement. 2 B. The first part of the statement is true, but its truth is 2 not supported by the reason given in the statement. 0 C. The first part of the statement is false. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 The atoms of all elements are neutral because the neutron 1 has no electrical charge. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 Splitting uranium into other elements produces elements of slightly different atomic weights because some neutrons 2 are given off in the action. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 3 Plutonium is listed as element 94 because it has 94 electrons. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 U-238 has the same atomic weight as U-234 because 4 U-234 is an isotope of U-238. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 electrons have no electrical attraction for the nucleus 5 because atoms are neutral in charge. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 6 Plutonium is heavier than U-238 as evidenced by its 6 greater atomic weight. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 7 The chance of a direct hit on the nucleus by an electron 7 bullet is good because the atom is mostly empty space. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 8 Centripetal force keeps electrons in their orbits because 9 electrons travel at high speed around the nucleus. 0290002 ABBBBBAAB92 12045 31 063106388001909004 ETS2WVW MACROITEM STEM 2The items to which you will respond have been 2selected from various sources. Mark space 2 A. if you believe that a statement is a scientific fact 2 B. if you believe a statement is an opinion 2For example statement of fact 1. growth is a characteristic of 3 _________ __ ____ 2cancer tissue. 2Statement of opinion 2. the cause of cancer will never be 3_________ __ _______ 0 discovered. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 Uranium-235 has less mass than U-238. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 The search for uranium in the united states 2 will result in an adequate supply of the ore. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 The atomic bomb does not make all methods 3 of warfare obsolete. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 An atomic bomb raid is no more damaging than a saturation bombing with fire bombs or block 4 busters. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 The hydrogen bomb is the most potent 5 weapon of war that science will ever produce. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 6 Sonar and radar diminish the effectiveness of 6 large navies. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 7 There are safety measures to be taken against 7 the atomic bomb. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 8 8 Uranium is a source of power. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 9 9 Radioactivity is the least of the atomic bomb's threats. 0290003 BBAACACAA93 12058 31 063102788001119006 ETS2WVW MACROITEM STEM 2To answer the following questions, use the key below 2 A. The statement is a fact. 2 B. The statement is an hypothesis. 0 C. The statement is a mere guess. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 If fission occurs in any heavy element, a chain 1 reaction will result. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 The scientist knew that if hahn had produced barium by neutron bombardment of uranium that he 2 had split the atom. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 Slow neutrons will cause fission of U-235 but not 3 of the other U-238. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 The capsule of beryllium at The center of a plutonium bomb (Greenglass version) furnishes additional 4 neutrons to those caused by the fission of the plutonium. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 The "tamper" (the force that holds the bomb together until a chain reaction is well under way) is an auxiliary explosion directed from all directions toward 5 the center of the bomb. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 6 The atomic bomb has the shape of a cigar but it 6 weighs thousands of pounds. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 7 The H bomb weighs less than the atomic bomb 7 but it is thousands of times more powerful. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 8 From theoretical considerations the H bomb should 8 be many times as powerful as an a bomb. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 9 9 Amount of energy. 0290005 C 13 12072 31 0661 0026 The term that best describes the device which accelerates nuclear particles in a straight line until they have very high energies is 9 A. cyclotron B. atom-smasher C. linear accelerator. 0290006 B 12 12075 31 0661 09 0040 No useful applications (besides weapons) have been made using nuclear reactions. 9 A. True B. False 0290007 B 12 12077 31 0518 09 0040 Nuclear fusion is now used to produce electicity. 9 A. True B. False 0290008 B 12 12079 31 0353 09 0040 Radioactive isotopes find little use in medicine. 9 A. True B. False 0290009 B 12 12081 51 03180590133109 0009 The most serious effect of low level radiation on the body is that it produces severe skin burns. 9 A. True B. False 0291001 A 12 12083 51 0342037909 0041 The beta decay of a radioactive nucleus corresponds to the conversion of one of its neutrons into a proton and an electron. 9 A. True B. False 0291002 A 12 12085 51 12020627032909 0041 Gamma rays are electromagnetic waves of very high frequency. 9 A. True B. False 0291003 A 12 12087 51 13470358037909 0041 Luminous watch and clock dials glow because the alpha particles emitted by radioactive materials radiate light. 9 A. True B. False 0291004 B 12 12089 51 03580379019209 0041 The alpha particles emitted by radioactive substances form the gas radon. 9 A. True B. False 0291005 A 12 12091 52 06200351037909 0041 After a time span equal to three half-lives, seven-eighths of the original number of atoms of a radioactive substance will have decayed. 9 A. True B. False 0291006 A 12 12094 51 03791202033709 0041 When a radioactive element emits a gamma ray, its atomic number changes. 9 A. True B. False 0291007 B 12 12096 51 03791499049109 0041 Heating a radioactive material increases its rate of decay. 9 A. True B. False 0291008 A 12 12098 31 03211209 09 0040 The carbon-14 involved in dating is produced by naturally occurring reactions in the upper atmosphere. 9 A. True B. False 0291009 B 12 12100 31 03580660 09 0040 In radioactive decay involving alpha emission, the atomic number of the reacting isotope increases. 9 A. True B. False 0291010 B 12 12102 32 1209 09 0040 514 C (t = 5000 years) could conveniently be used to date a 4 6 1/2 1.5 million-year-old artifact. 9 A. True B. False 0291011 B 12 12104 31 06171486 0003 As atomic number increases, the neutron-proton ratio decreases for stable nuclei. 9 A. True B. False 0291012 A 12 12106 31 06171486 0003 Induced radioactivity is always a more energetic process than natural radioactivity. 9 A. True B. False 0291013 A 12 12108 31 14661486 0003 The magnitude of charge on a positron is the same as that on an electron. 9 A. True B. False 0291014 B 12 12110 31 06321486 0003 Alpha emission is usually considered to be an example of nuclear fission. 9 A. True B. False 0291015 B 12 12112 31 06321486 0003 Fission of light nuclei generally tends to release more energy than fission of heavy nuclei. 9 A. True B. False 0291016 A 12 12114 32 06201486 0003 If the number of grams of a radioactive isotope is found to be reduced from 12 to 1.5 in a time interval of 600 hr, then the half-life of that isotope is 200 hr. 9 A. True B. False 0291017 B 12 12117 32 03531486 0003 5 32 The number of neutrons in a P nucleus is 32. 4 15 9 A. True B. False 0293002 A 12 12119 31 03420398049509 0041 Atomic nuclei always weigh less than the sum of the individual masses of their constituent particles. 9 A. True B. False 0293003 A 12 12121 31 16850342044909 0041 The greater the binding energy of a nucleus, the more stable it is. 9 A. True B. False 0293004 B 12 12123 31 01590632 09 0041 5 235 Stars obtain their energy from the nuclear fission of U . 9 A. True B. False 0293005 A 12 12125 51 01891110037909 0041 Several elements whose atomic masses are less than that of lead are radioactive. 9 A. True B. False 0293006 B 12 12127 31 039803420340 0041 The mass of a helium nucleus is slightly more than the combined mass of four hydrogen nuclei. 9 A. True B. False 0295001 B 12 12129 31 06321499 09 0041 5 235 U is the only known fissionable material. 9 A. True B. False 0295002 A 12 12131 31 06611218015909 0041 The nuclear reaction that gives the hydrogen bomb its immense destructive capability is similar to that which supplies the sun with energy. 9 A. True B. False 0295003 B 12 12134 51 12201221034109 0041 The moderator in a nuclear reactor controls the rate at which power is produced by absorbing some neutrons. 9 A. True B. False 0295004 B 12 12136 51 08470806120609 0041 Tritium is one of the products of radium decay. 9 A. True B. False 0295005 A 12 12138 51 16880342120609 0041 All mesons are unstable outside of atomic nuclei and decay in a small fraction of a second. 9 A. True B. False 0295006 A 12 12140 51 16901206169109 0041 Charged p-ions decay into charged mions. 9 A. True B. False 0295007 B 12 12141 51 00991690034109 0041 Neutral p-ions decay into neutrons. 9 A. True B. False 0295008 B 13 45003 31 066112160632 0026 The term critical mass applies to A. atomic fusion B. atomic fission C. the manufacture of balance weights D. molecular mass 9 E. the equilibrium between gases and liquids 0295009 B 12 12144 31 12161486 09 0040 A nuclear explosion results only when a critical mass is accumulated. 9 A. True B. False 0295010 B 12 12146 31 1212 09 0040 Neutrons can be accelerated in a cyclotron. 9 A. True B. False 0295011 A 12 12147 31 0661 09 0040 514 4 17 N reacts with alpha and produces O. The other particle 4 7 2 8 5 1 produced is H. 4 1 9 A. True B. False 0295012 B 12 12150 31 03281285033709 0009 The emission of a beta-particle leaves the atomic number unchanged but increases the mass number by one unit. 9 A. True B. False 0295013 A 12 12152 31 03281466034209 0009 Emission of a positron is equivalent to the conversion of a proton to a neutron in the nucleus. 9 A. True B. False 0295014 B 12 12154 31 06200379035309 0009 The longer the half life of a radioactive isotope, the more rapidly it decays. 9 A. True B. False 0295015 B 12 12156 51 12230337034109 0009 The very heavy transuranium elements, atomic number 101 or greater, are most readily prepared by neutron bombardment. 9 A. True B. False 0295016 B 12 12158 31 15751576157709 0009 Probably the most important hazard associated with a nuclear power plant is the possibility of a nuclear explosion. 9 A. True B. False 0295017 A 12 12160 31 07741486 0003 A very high temperature is required in order to initiate a nuclear-fusion reaction. 9 A. True B. False 0295018 B 12 12162 32 12851486 0003 5 210 Emission of a beta particle from a Pb nucleus yields a 4 82 nucleus with a mass number of 211. 9 A. True B. False 0295019 A 12 12165 31 06321486 0003 High-energy neutrons are rarely produced in nuclear-fission reactions. 9 A. True B. False 0295021 A 12 12170 31 12021486 0003 Gamma radiation is not accompanied by a change in either atomic or mass number. 9 A. True B. False 0295022 B 12 12172 31 15380787 0009 A plausible way to achieve the high temperatures required for nuclear fusion is to operate the process in the upper atmosphere. 9 A. True B. False 0297001 A 12 12175 31 05180331 09 0040 A nuclear fusion reaction is responsible for the output of energy by the sun. 9 A. True B. False 0299001 A 12 12177 32 01591447166909 0041 5 16 The amount of energy equivalent to 1 kg of mass is 9 x 10 joules. 9 A. True B. False 0299002 A 12 12180 51 02631466120209 0041 When an electron and a positron come together, their mass and charge disappear and two gamma rays are created. 9 A. True B. False 0299003 B 12 12182 31 06320518 09 0040 Nuclear fission reactions produce more energy per weight of reactant than fusion reactions. 9 A. True B. False 0299004 B 12 12184 32 03641368051809 0009 5 2 According to the einstein relation (E = mc ), the fusion 5 20 of one gram of deuterium would liberate 9.00 x 10 ergs or 5 10 2.15 x 10 kcal of energy. 9 A. True B. False 0311001 B 12 12188 51 13660367 09 0041 Mendeleev's periodic law becomes exact with no exceptions when the elements are arranged in the order of their atomic numbers rather than of their atomic weights. 9 A. True B. False 0312001 B 12 12191 31 03700189 09 0041 There are still many gaps in the periodic table into which no known elements fit. 9 A. True B. False 0312101 C 13 12193 31 122314610362 0026 Uranium has an atomic number of 92. The transuranium elements all have atomic numbers. 9 A. greater than 94 B. less than 92 C. greater than 92. 0312201 A 12 12196 31 07940370 09 0041 There are eight major groups in the periodic table. 9 A. True B. False 0312301 A 12 12198 31 01960015 09 0041 Hydrogen behaves like a metal in certain respects. 9 A. True B. False 0312302 A 12 12200 31 01890015 09 0041 The majority of the elements are metals. 9 A. True B. False 0312303 B 12 12201 31 14860015037009 0040 Metals are found to the far right of the periodic table. 9 A. True B. False 0312304 B 12 12203 31 03620722 09 Elements which are most metallic are found in the lower right area of the periodic table. A. True 9 B. False 0312305 B 12 12205 32 03620722 09 Elements which are the most metallic are found in the upper left area of the periodic table. A. True 9 B. False 0312306 B 12 12207 31 03620722 09 Elements which are the least metallic are found in the upper left area of the periodic table. A. True 9 B. False 0312307 A 12 12209 31 03620722 09 Elements which are the least metallic are found in the upper right area of the periodic table. A. True 9 B. False 0321001 A 12 12211 31 01890463800409 04 2WVW Elements with similar chemical properties have the same number of electrons in the outer shell A. True 9 B. False 0321002 A 12 12213 31 0009033809 0041 The magnetic behavior of iron, nickel, and cobalt is a consequence of their electron structures. 9 A. True B. False 0321003 B 12 12215 31 01890020 09 0041 An element can have only one valence. 9 A. True B. False 0322001 B 12 12216 31 01890820037009 0041 All the elements in each period of the periodic table have closely similar properties. 9 A. True B. False 0322201 B 12 12218 51 00150104031509 0041 Metals are good conductors of both electricity and heat. 9 A. True B. False 0322202 B 12 12220 31 00150169150309 0041 All metals are solids at room temperature. 9 A. True B. False 0322203 A 12 12221 31 00150020058309 0041 Metals have positive valences. 9 A. True B. False 0322301 B 12 12222 31 00280351026309 0041 Nonmetal atoms tend to lose their outer electrons when they combine chemically. 9 A. True B. False 0323001 B 12 12224 31 00821486 0003 The hydroxy compounds of elements at the right of the periodic table are usually basic. 9 A. True B. False 0323101 A 12 12226 31 00020263035109 0041 Sodium is more active than magnesium because the outer electrons of its atoms are less tightly bound than the outer electrons of magnesium atoms. 9 A. True B. False 0323102 B 12 12229 31 01890449006609 0041 Inactive elements form stable compounds. 9 A. True B. False 0323104 B 12 12230 31 03750003 09 0041 The activity of the alkali metals decreases with their size. 9 A. True B. False 0323105 B 12 12232 31 00030554006109 0041 An alkali metal is one that dissolves in a strongly basic solution only. 9 A. True B. False 0323106 B 12 12234 31 01890845007509 0043 Except for boron the elements of group III form amphoteric hydroxides. 9 A. True B. False 0323107 B 12 12236 32 08080077008709 0043 Bi O is not appreciably soluble in acid solutions. 4 2 3 9 A. True B. False 0323108 A 12 12238 51 00030075160109 0043 All alkali-metal (periodic group 1) hydroxides are strong bases. 9 A. True B. false. 0323109 B 12 12240 31 03440025011309 0043 Potassium metal reacts with oxygen gas to form potassium peroxide. 9 A. True B. false. 0323110 B 12 12242 51 01700003079409 0043 The sublimation energies of the alkali metals show a sharp increase in going down the group. 9 A. True B. False 0323111 A 12 12244 51 00030172001509 0043 Alkali metals have melting points which are rather low compared to many other metals. 9 A. True B. False 0323112 A 12 12246 31 11780191000209 0043 The sodium ion does not hydrolyze appreciably. 9 A. True B. False 0323113 A 12 12247 31 13700794041609 0043 The first ionization potential of lithium is the lowest in the group. 9 A. True B. False 0323114 B 12 12249 31 00030008002509 0043 Alkali metals are usually stored under water to protect them from the oxygen of the air. 9 A. True B. False 0323115 B 12 12251 31 11780348105509 0043 The sodium ion is a highly reactive species. 9 A. True B. False 0323116 B 12 12252 31 16270113145209 0043 5 + The disproportionation of Mg occurs only in the gas phase. 9 A. True B. False 0323117 B 12 12254 51 01720900000309 0043 The melting points of the alkaline-earth metals are generally lower than those of the alkali metals. 9 A. True B. False 0323118 B 13 12256 51 017000030159 0019 The sublimation energies of the alkali metals----- in going down the group. 9 A. increase B. decrease C. remain constant 0323119 B 13 12258 31 017200030015 0019 As a class, the melting points of the alkali metals are -------- most other metals. 9 A. higher than B. lower than C. comparable to 0323120 B 12 12260 31 148603690015 0040 Representative elements contain partially filled d subshells. 9 A. True B. False 0323121 A 12 12262 31 040700151331 0009 5 2- 2- The reaction of oxygen with a 1A metal may produce O , O or 4 2 5 - O ions. 4 2 9 A. True B. False 0323201 C 13 12266 31 01890045 0019 The element Br will oxidize 4 2 5 - - - 9 A. F B. Cl C. I 0323202 A 13 12268 52 137101890516 0019 The element with the lowest Van Der Waals attractive forces is A. F B. Cl C. Br 94 2 2 2 0323203 A 13 12270 31 043809581097 0019 In which liquid sample are the hydrogen bonds the strongest? A. H O B. H S C. H Se 94 2 2 2 0323204 A 13 12272 52 11390293 0019 The most polar molecule of those listed is A. NH B. PH C. AsH D. SbH E. BiH 94 3 3 3 3 3 0323205 B 12 12274 31 14860028007609 0040 The element with atomic number 34 will probably form a positive ion. 9 A. True B. False 0323206 B 12 12276 32 03381486 0003 A halogen atom has eight valence electrons. 9 A. True B. False 0323301 A 12 12277 51 00350189036909 0043 Great variability in oxidation state is common for elements near the middle of a transition-metal series. 9 A. True B. False 0323302 B 12 12279 51 03690351088509 0043 All transition element atoms have two valence electrons. 9 A. True B. False 0323303 A 12 12281 51 00350560 09 0043 The highest oxidation state exhibited by manganese is +7. 9 A. True B. False 0323304 B 12 12283 51 03690793016909 0043 Transition elements are likely to be brittle because of ionic bonding in the solid. 9 A. True B. False 0323305 A 12 12285 51 01860614001509 0043 The densities of all of the platinum metals are greater than 5 3 that of lead (11.3 g/cm ). 9 A. True B. False 0323306 A 12 12287 32 01890943003209 0009 Of the two elements, calcium and copper, the more likely to form coordination compounds is copper. 9 A. True B. False 0323401 B 12 12289 51 03500062094309 0041 Silicon is strongly metallic in its chemical behavior. 9 A. True B. False 0323402 B 12 12291 32 01890845132309 0043 The only element of group v which forms an amphoteric oxide is arsenic. 9 A. True B. False 0323403 A 12 12293 31 01960321128409 0043 Hydrogen is commonly found in combined form in the atmosphere. 9 A. True B. False 0323501 A 12 12295 31 0567 09 0041 The rare-earth metals resemble one another very closely. 9 A. True B. False 0323502 B 12 12297 51 17570067 09 0043 As a result of the lanthanide contraction, lanthanum and yttrium are very similar in properties. 9 A. True B. False 0323801 A 12 12299 31 03510449034609 0041 Atoms are most stable when their electron shells and subshells are closed. 9 A. True B. False 0323802 A 12 12301 32 05810263034209 0009 Chemical bonds form because one or more electrons are attracted simultaneously by two or more nuclei. 9 A. True B. False 0323803 B 13 12303 52 011300370830 0019 The first rare gas compound synthesized is ------. A. XeF B. XePtF C. XeOF 94 2 6 4 0324001 A 13 12305 71 8003 2WVW Trans-1,2-dimethylethylene is more stable than cis-1,2-dimethylethylene because A. the repulsion of the methyl groups is greater in cis B. the product of hydrogenation of cis is more stable 9 C. the statement is correct, but A and B are incorrect 0331001 B 13 12309 71 800306 2WVW Which of the following is most reactive to anionic reagents? A. CF B. NF C. CH D. C H E. CCl 94 4 3 4 2 6 4 0331002 A 15 12312 71 8003 06 2WVW Which will be most easily hydrogenated? A. cis-2-butene D. cyclohexane B. methane E. 1,2-dichloroethane 9 C. trans-2-butene 0331003 C 13 12315 71 8003 06 2WVW Which will be most easily hydrogenated? A. cyclohexane B. cyclopropane 9 C. propylene (propene) 0331004 B 12 12317 31 14860824072209 0040 The most electronegative elements will be found on the left of the periodic table. 9 A. True B. False 0332001 B 12 12319 31 00640731011309 0041 The inert gases have the lowest ionization energies. 9 A. True B. False 0334001 A 12 12321 51 03510032034409 0043 An atom of Cu is considerably smaller than an atom of K. 9 A. True B. False 0334002 A 12 12323 32 00261486 0003 A chlorine atom (Z = 17) is smaller than an atom of sulfur (Z=16) because the chlorine atom has a higher nuclear charge. 9 A. True B. False 0335001 B 12 12325 31 00060113 09 0041 Chlorine is the heaviest gas. 9 A. True B. False 0335002 B 12 12326 51 08080373045809 0043 The least soluble of the group II sulfates is BeSO . 4 4 9 A. True B. False 0335003 A 12 12328 31 0730 09 0043 5 2+ 3+ Mg and Al are isoelectronic. 9 A. True B. False 0335004 B 12 12330 52 08081526117809 0009 MgSO is more soluble than BaSO because the charge density of 4 4 4 the ions is higher. 9 A. True B. False 0335005 A 12 12332 52 15261435080809 0009 Using the 'charge density rule,' we would expect CaF to be less 4 2 soluble than CaCl . 4 2 9 A. True B. False 0335006 B 12 12335 32 00081486049809 0040 Water has lower boiling point than prediced by the periodic law. 9 A. True B. False 0335007 A 12 12337 32 07681486 0003 Atoms of the noble gases in their ground states are never paramagnetic. 9 A. True B. False 0337001 A 12 12339 31 08850351 09 0041 The valence electrons of an atom are readily lost. 9 A. True B. False 0337002 A 12 12341 31 00640020 09 0041 The inert gases all have valences of zero. 9 A. True B. False 0337003 B 12 12342 51 00350189003709 0043 The only oxidation state exhibited by the group III elements in their compounds is +3. 9 A. True B. False 0337004 B 12 12344 31 137100350369 0043 The lowest oxidation state exhibited by a transition metal is +2. 9 A. True B. False 0339001 A 12 12346 31 14020189006209 0041 The chemical properties of the elements in each column of the periodic table change from top to bottom in the direction of increased metallic activity. 9 A. True B. False 0339002 B 12 12349 31 00250028002309 0041 Oxygen is a more active nonmetal than fluorine. 9 A. True B. False 0339003 A 12 12351 31 00390071001509 0041 Gold is a less active metal than iron. 9 A. True B. False 0339004 A 12 12352 31 00281284 09 0041 Nonmetals sometimes combine with one another. 9 A. True B. False 0339005 B 12 12353 51 00390015007109 0041 Gold is the most active common metal, sodium the least active. 9 A. True B. False 0339006 A 12 12355 51 00230375009409 0041 Fluorine is the most active common nonmetal, sulfur the least active. 9 A. True B. False 0339007 A 12 12357 51 036900660035 0043 In going down a transition-metal subgroup, compounds with higher oxidation states tend to become more stable. 9 A. True B. False 0352001 B 12 12359 31 14860885096709 0040 There are five valence electrons in boron (B). 9 A. True B. False 0412001 B 12 12360 31 08120189079709 0009 The symbol for an element is always derived from the first one or two letters in its English name. 9 A. True B. False 0412002 B 12 12362 31 08121486018909 0040 The first letter of an element's symbol always begins with the same letter as does the element's name. 9 A. True B. False 0414001 A 12 12364 31 07260066 09 0041 The sum of the oxidation numbers in a compound is 0. 9 A. True B. False 0414002 B 12 12366 31 12540293019609 0009 The molecular formula for hydrogen peroxide, H O , indicates that 4 2 2 one molecule of hydrogen (H ) is bonded to one molecule of 4 2 oxygen (O ). 4 2 9 A. True B. False 0414003 B 12 12370 31 022401960445 0041 The formula H S means that two parts of hydrogen by weight 4 2 are combined with one part of sulfur by weight. 9 A. True B. False 0416001 B 12 12372 31 00310020 09 0041 The equation H S + O -----> H O + SO is balanced. 4 2 2 2 2 9 A. True B. False 0416002 A 12 12374 31 00311076 09 0041 The equation C H + 11 O -----> 7 CO + 8 H O is balanced. 4 7 16 2 2 2 9 A. True B. False 0416003 A 12 12376 32 08180031132409 0009 The coefficient of boron, B , in the equation for the reaction of 4 5 boron with oxygen, can be predicted from the electronic structures of boron and of oxygen. 9 A. True B. False 0416004 C 15 12379 32 0704 22 The equation for the reaction of phosgene gas with sodium hydroxide is COCl + 4NaOH = Na CO + 2NaCl 4 2 2 3 + 2H O. If 3 moles of COCl react, how many moles of 4 2 2 sodium chloride are formed? 9 A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8 E. 10 0416201 A 12 12383 51 02611173 09 0043 Carbon dioxide may be prepared by heating MgCO . 4 3 9 A. True B. False 0416202 B 12 12385 31 016101951167 0041 At the same temperature and pressure, two volumes of hydrogen react with one volume of oxygen to give three volumes of water vapor. 9 A. True B. False 0416401 A 12 12388 32 12010977102009 0009 The calculation of theoretical yield is based on the assumption that all of the limiting reactant is consumed according to the equation for the reaction. 9 A. True B. False 0416402 B 12 12391 31 01350553102009 0009 In an ordinary chemical reaction, the number of moles of reactants always equals the number of moles of products. 9 A. True B. False 0416403 A 12 12393 51 14190553024509 0009 A chemical equation describes the relative changes in the numbers of moles of reactants and products as equilibrium is approached. 9 A. True B. False 0420001 A 12 12396 31 05530066053409 0041 A mole of any compound has a mass equal to the formula mass of that compound expressed in grams. 9 A. True B. False 0420002 A 12 12398 31 02240553019209 0041 The number of formula units is the same in a mole of any substance. 9 A. True B. False 0420003 A 12 12400 51 05531339070309 0009 The chemical mole is defined as being Avogadro's number of formula units (molecules, ions, atoms, electrons...). 9 A. True B. False 0420004 A 12 12402 31 07030727 09 Avogadro's number of molecules is a mole of the substance. A. True 9 B. False 0420005 B 12 12404 31 1702 09 A mole of hydrogen atoms is equivalent in mass to a mole of hydrogen molecules (H ) 4 2 9 A. True B. False 0420006 A 12 12406 31 1702 09 A mole of hydrogen molecules (h ) and a gram-atom of helium 4 2 (He) contain the same number of particles A. True 9 B. False 0420007 A 12 12409 31 1702 09 A gram-atom of helium (He) and a mole of neon (Ne) contain the same number of particles. A. True 9 B. False 0420008 B 12 12411 31 1702 09 A mole of hydrogen (H ) and a mole of helium (He) have 4 2 the same mass. A. True 9 B. False 0420009 B 12 12413 31 1702 09 The mole is a convenient unit of measurement because a mole of one substance has the same mass as a mole of any other substance. A. True 9 B. False 0422001 B 12 12416 31 07031316079509 0041 Avogadro's number is the number of amu in a gram. 9 A. True B. False 0422002 B 12 12418 31 0703 0003 5 24 One mole of NaCl consists of 1.20 x 10 ions. 9 A. True B. False 0422003 A 12 12420 31 07030727 09 Avogadro's number of atoms is a mole of atoms. A. True 9 B. False 0422004 A 12 12422 31 07030727 09 5 23 A sample containing 6.02 x 10 atoms contains a mole of atoms. A. True 9 B. False 0422005 A 12 12424 31 07030727 09 5 12 The number of atoms in exactly 12.0000 grams of pure C is one mole. A. True 9 B. False 0422006 A 12 12427 31 07030727 09 5 12 A sample which contains 12.0000 grams of pure C contains 5 23 6.02 x 10 atoms of carbon. A. True 9 B. False 0422007 B 12 12430 31 07030727 09 5 16 A sample which contains 12.0000 grams of pure O contains Avogadro's number of atoms. A. True 9 B. False 0422008 B 15 12433 52 5 23 12 Avogadro's number is defined as 6.02 x 10 moles of pure C. 9 A. True B. False 0422009 A 12 12435 31 07030727 0940 The number of atoms present in 12.0000 grams of carbon-12 is called Avogadro's number. A. True 9 B. False 0422010 A 12 12437 31 07030727 0940 The number of atoms present in 16.0000 grams of oxygen-16 is called Avogadro's number. A. True 9 B. False 0422011 B 12 12439 31 07030727 0940 The number of atoms present in 6.0000 grams of carbon-12 is called Avogadro's number. A. True 9 B. False 0422012 B 12 12441 31 07030727 0940 The number of atoms present in 8.0000 grams of oxygen-16 is called Avogadro's number. A. True 9 B. False 0422013 A 12 12443 31 07030727 0940 The number of atoms present in 12.0000 grams of carbon-12 or 16.0000 grams of oxygen-16 is called Avogadro's number. A. True 9 B. False 0422014 A 12 12445 31 07030727 09 Avogadro's number of atoms is sometimes called a gram-atom. A. True 9 B. False 0424001 A 13 12447 52 146207270025 0026 Which would require more oxygen for complete oxidation? A. 12 grams of charcoal (carbon) B. 12 grams of a compound C H O 4 5 10 2 C. 12 grams of a compound C H O N . 94 5 12 3 2 0424002 A 12 12451 32 07950351029609 0009 In 50 grams of calcium carbonate, CaCO (FW = 100), there are: 4 3 5 23 3 x 10 Ca atoms, 0.5 mole of C, and 3/2 gram atomic weights of oxygen. 9 A. True B. False 0426001 A 12 12454 31 14860065035209 0040 Atomic weights are relative weights. 9 A. True B. False 0428001 A 12 12455 31 01280192029309 0009 The molecular weight of a substance is a number which tells how heavy a molecule is when compared to a chosen reference 9 A. True B. False 0428002 B 12 12458 31 03511097044509 0009 Since three-fourths of the atoms in a sample of ScCl are 4 3 chlorine atoms, 75% of the weight of the sample is due to chlorine. 9 A. True B. False 0428003 B 13 12461 32 006501890128 0035 If the atomic weights of the constituent elements and the percentage composition by weight of a compound are known, it A. is always possible to determine the molecular weight of the gas B. may be possible to determine the molecular weight of the gas 9 C. is impossible to determine the molecular weight of the gas 0428201 B 12 12466 32 03050196029309 0009 A gram molecular weight of hydrogen (two atoms in a molecule) is a gram of hydrogen. 9 A. True B. False 0428202 B 12 12468 32 02930305035109 0009 The number of molecules in a gram molecular weight of water, 18 grams, is eighteen times the number of atoms in a gram atomic weight of hydrogen, 1 gram. 9 A. True B. False 0434001 B 12 12471 32 02240037 09 0009 A reasonable formula for a compound of aluminum and bromine would be Al Br. 4 3 9 A. True B. False 0434201 A 12 12473 32 019513060293 0041 Two volumes of hydrogen peroxide vapor may be decomposed into two volumes of water vapor plus one volume of oxygen; therefore hydrogen peroxide molecules have the formula H O . 4 2 2 9 A. True B. False 0436001 A 12 12477 31 11100025170209 0041 The atomic mass of oxygen is 16.00 amu, and so a gram atom of oxygen has a mass of 16.00 g. 9 A. True B. False 0436002 A 12 12479 32 0186 23 A box of salt ( NaCl ) weighs 1 lb. Approximately how many moles of salt does this box contain? ( atomic weights Na = 9 23 , Cl = 35.5 , 1lb = 454 grams ) 0436003 A 12 12482 32 0186 23 An empty aluminum soft drink can weighs 50 grams. How many moles of aluminum does the can contain? (Atomic weight Al=27) 9 A. 1.9 B. 0.5 C. 1350 D. 50 0436004 A 12 12485 32 0186 23 A 12oz soft drink can filled with water contains how many moles 9 of water. ( Atomic weights H = 1 , O = 16 , 1oz = 30mls ) 0436005 A 12 12487 32 0186 23 A nickle ( made from the element nickel ) weighs approximately 5 grams. If you had nickles equivalent in mass to one mole of nickel, approximately how much money would you 9 have. ( Atomic weight Ni = 60 ) 0439001 B 12 12490 32 00651486002509 0040 An oxygen atom weighs 16 grams. 9 A. True B. False 0439002 B 12 12491 32 14860065019609 0040 Hydrogen has an atomic weight of 1, therfore one hydrogen atom weighs 1 g. 9 A. True B. False 0440001 A 12 12493 32 00320182800209 04 2 OS Copper oxide is heated with charcoal. The reaction is an example of both oxidation and reduction A. True 9 B. False 0441001 B 12 12495 31 07260351018909 0041 The oxidation number of an atom in the elemental state is + if it is a metal, -if it is a nonmetal. 9 A. True B. False 0441002 A 12 12497 31 15370007026309 0009 In a redox reaction, the oxidizing agent gains electrons. 9 A. True B. False 0442001 B 12 12499 31 08340474800309 04 2WVW Burning is an example of a physical change. A. True 9 B. False 0442002 B 12 12500 31 00490286002109 0041 Hydrogen is seldom used as a fuel because the heat liberated by its oxidation is small. 9 A. True B. False 0443001 A 12 12502 31 00150196037509 0041 The metals above hydrogen in the order of activity of the metals dissolve in acids, while those below hydrogen do not. 9 A. True B. False 0443002 A 12 12504 51 00010027001609 0043 Metallic aluminum is a stronger reducing agent than metallic zinc 9 A. True B. False 0443003 B 12 12506 32 00871450145109 0019 True or false? A solution of AgNO can safely be stored in a 4 3 copper bottle. 9 A. True B. False 0444001 B 12 12508 31 00090189072609 0041 Iron is the only element that has two different oxidation numbers in its compounds. 9 A. True B. False 0444101 B 12 12510 51 035100700263 0043 5 2+ When a vanadium atom (Z = 23) becomes ionized to form V , the electrons are removed from the 3d subshell. 9 A. True B. False 0444201 B 12 12513 31 00200006040809 0041 The oxidation state of chlorine is +1 in NaCl. 9 A. True B. False 0444202 A 12 12514 31 00200413 09 0041 The oxidation state of mercury is +2 in HgO. 9 A. True B. False 0444203 B 12 12515 32 00871296117809 0041 A solution of copper sulfate, CuSO , contains copper, sulfur, and 4 4 oxygen ions. 9 A. True B. False 0444204 B 12 12517 32 10550189003509 0009 The stable species of the element nitrogen in the +3 oxidation state in acidic solution is HNO . 4 3 9 A. True B. False 0444205 A 12 12520 31 00350189 09 0009 The lowest oxidation state of a 5a element is -3. 9 A. True B. False 0444206 B 12 12522 31 0726 09 The sum of the oxidation states of all the atoms in an ion must equal zero. A. True 9 B. False 0444207 A 12 12524 31 0726 09 The sum of the oxidation states of all the atoms in a neutral molecule must equal zero. A. True 9 B. False 0444208 A 12 12526 31 0726 09 The charge on an ion is equal to the sum of the oxidation numbers of all the atoms in the ion. A. True 9 B. False 0444209 A 12 12528 31 0726 09 The oxidation state of an element can be different in two different compounds of that element. A. True 9 B. False 0444210 A 12 12530 31 0726 09 The oxidation state of an element bonded only to itself is always zero. A. True 9 B. False 0444211 A 12 12532 31 0726 09 The sum of the oxidation states of all the atoms in an ion equals the charge on the ion. A. True 9 B. False 0444212 A 12 12534 31 0726 09 The oxidation state of a given element is always the same in all samples of any particular compound which contains that element. A. True 9 B. False 0444301 BACBAACA 83 12537 52 034404048001169006 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2After each item number on the answer sheet, blacken space 2 A. if the statement is true and its truth is supported by the 2 reason given 2 B. if the statement is true but its truth is not supported by 2 the reason given 0 C. if the statement is False MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 Potassium reacts more vigorously than sodium, because its valence 1 electron is closer to the nucleus of the atom. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 Chlorine reacts more vigorously than iodine, because its atomic 2 radius is smaller than that of iodine. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 Non-metals lose electrons more readily than metals, because they 3 have more electrons in their outermost shells. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 Acetic acid is a weaker acid than hydrochloric acid, because each 4 molecule of acetic acid can release only one hydrogen ion. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 When zinc reacts with hydrochloric acid, zinc atoms become zinc ions. The hydrogen ions of the acid act as the oxidizing agent, 5 because they gain electrons from the zinc atoms. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 6 When hydrogen ions acquire electrons, the change is reduction, 6 because electrons have been gained. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 7 Only an electric current can be used to reduce aluminum to the metallic state, because no other reducing agent is sufficiently 7 vigorous. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 8 The gases of group O of the periodic table do not react chemically with other elements, because they do not gain or lose electrons 9 under chemical conditions. 0444303 B 12 12554 31 035111781402 0041 Sodium atoms and sodium ions differ in that the latter are positively charged, but their chemical properties are identical. 9 A. True B. False 0444304 A 12 12556 31 00660449 09 0041 Ferric compounds tend to be more stable on the earth's surface, and ferrous compounds in the interior. 9 A. True B. False 0444305 B 12 12558 31 00160109002109 0041 Aluminum disintegrates rapidly in air because of oxidation. 9 A. True B. False 0444306 B 12 12560 51 11780045001509 0043 The vanadous ion will oxidize zinc metal. 9 A. True B. False 0444307 A 12 12561 51 00450037036909 0043 It is easier to oxidize compounds of the transition elements in basic solution than in acidic media. 9 A. True B. False 0444308 A 12 12563 51 00121178 09 0043 H O will reduce the manganic ion. 4 2 9 A. True B. False 0444309 A 12 12564 51 13180191117809 0043 One would expect a high percent hydrolysis for an ion with a high charge and a small radius. 9 A. True B. False 0444310 A 12 12566 31 11731167002509 0043 Li O can be prepared by reacting lithium metal with oxygen gas. 4 2 9 A. True B. False 0444311 A 12 12568 31 09000189 09 0043 None of the alkaline-earth elements is found uncombined in nature. 9 A. True B. False 0444312 B 12 12570 31 00150726059509 0009 Metals frequently show negative oxidation numbers. 9 A. True B. False 0445001 B 12 12572 32 01621076007709 0009 A redox equation balanced in acidic solution can be converted to apply in basic solution by adding the proper number of H O 4 2 molecules to both sides. 9 A. True B. False 0447001 B 12 12576 51 0007 09 0043 Manganous hydroxide is a good oxidizing agent. 9 A. True B. False 0447002 B 12 12577 31 14860025 09 0040 Liquid rocket propellant systems use oxygen as a fuel. 9 A. True B. False 0447101 A 12 12579 31 17051473001009 0041 Gangue is the valueless material mixed with an ore. 9 A. True B. False 0447102 A 12 12581 31 00160013147309 0041 Commercial aluminum is always produced by electrolysis. 9 A. True B. False 0447103 B 12 12583 31 00090010 09 0043 FeS is an important iron ore. 4 2 9 A. True B. False 0447104 A 12 12584 51 17591323008609 0043 In the basic open-hearth process limestone is added to remove acidic oxides. 9 A. True B. False 0447105 B 12 12586 51 00151581000909 0043 Chromium is a good metal for use in cathodic protection of iron. 9 A. True B. False 0447106 A 12 12588 31 14860013147309 0040 Electrolysis is used in the manufacture of some metals. 9 A. True B. False 0447107 A 12 12590 31 14860461084409 0040 Nickel is an important constituent of stainless steel. 9 A. True B. False 0447108 A 12 12592 31 14860461002509 0040 Oxygen is used in elemental form in steel production. 9 A. True B. False 0447109 A 12 12594 31 14860194046109 0040 Steel is an alloy. 9 A. True B. False 0447110 B 12 12595 31 14860194003909 0040 Fifteen carat gold is actually 50% gold. 9 A. True B. False 0447111 B 12 12596 31 14860461136909 0040 A steel with high tensile strength also has a high ductility. 9 A. True B. False 0447201 C 13 12598 31 005500210125 0026 Photography is based primarily upon the chemistry of 9 A. dyes B. developing agents C. silver compounds. 0447202 C 13 12600 51 005505290125 0026 A film is rendered panchromatic by the presence of A. a small amount of developer B. larger-than normal grains C. dyes, sensitive to certain regions of the spectrum which impart energy to silver halide grains 9 D. sulfide compounds. 0447203 B 13 12604 51 005505290125 0026 In typical color film, which light sensitive layer is hit first by the incoming light? A. The green sensitive layer B. The blue sensitive layer 9 C. The red sensitive layer. 0447204 B 13 12607 51 005500540125 0026 If a piece of photographic film is exposed, developed bleached, reexposed, redeveloped, washed, and then treated with hypo, a 9 A. negative results B. positive results C. print results. 0447205 B 12 12610 31 14860055 09 0040 A finished photograph contains silver halide compounds. 9 A. True B. False 0447206 A 12 12612 31 14860125005509 0040 The dark parts of a photograph negative contain silver metal. 9 A. True B. False 0447301 A 12 12614 31 06140015117109 0043 Platinum metal is essentially insoluble in HNO . 4 3 9 A. True B. False 0447302 A 12 12616 51 00210209133109 0043 5 2+ Oxidation of iron by dilute hydrochloric acid produces Fe . 9 A. True B. False 0447303 A 12 12618 51 15801514009109 0009 The oxidizing strength of oxyanions is ordinarily greatest at low pH. 9 A. True B. False 0447401 A 12 12620 51 00160062001309 0043 Metallic aluminum is not produced by electrolyzing an aqueous solution of an aluminum salt, because water has a much lower oxidation potential than aluminum. 9 A. True B. False 0447402 B 12 12623 51 00130196078809 0043 If water is electrolyzed, the hydrogen produced is richer in deuterium than usual. 9 A. True B. False 0447403 A 12 12625 51 01961331001309 0043 Hydrogen can be produced by electrolyzing a solution of NaOH in water. 9 A. True B. False 0447404 A 12 12627 51 15861587001309 0009 Cryolite is added in the Hall process for making aluminum so that the electrolysis can be carried out at a lower temperature. 9 A. True B. False 0447405 B 12 12630 51 15881589013809 0009 5 - Complexing agents such as CN are used in many electroplating processes to increase the concentration of metal ions. 9 A. True B. False 0447601 B 12 12633 31 11681773023609 0043 Hard water can be softened by adding graham's salt, which 5 2+ precipitates the unwanted Ca . 9 A. True B. False 0447602 A 12 12635 31 00081168148609 0040 5 2+ A common ion present in hard water is Ca . 9 A. True B. False 0447603 A 12 12637 31 00081486116809 0040 Water can be made chemically pure by distillation. 9 A. True B. False 0447604 B 12 12639 31 00081486095809 0040 H O is the only substance which may form hydrogen bonds. 4 2 9 A. True B. False 0447605 B 12 12641 31 00081486116809 0040 Distillation is often used to soften water in the home. 9 A. True B. False 0447606 B 12 12643 31 00081168148609 0040 In order for water to be soft all positive ions must be removed from it. 9 A. True B. False 0447607 A 12 12645 31 07871614116809 0009 5 2+ In the lime-soda process of water softening, Ca ions in the 5 + hard water are replaced eventually by Na ions. 9 A. True B. False 0447608 B 12 12649 51 16151616008709 0009 A zeolite column used to soften water could be regenerated by flushing with a concentrated solution of CaCl . 4 2 9 A. True B. False 0447609 B 12 12652 51 16170471048809 0009 Salt water can be converted to pure water by the process of osmosis. 9 A. True B. False 0510001 B 12 12654 51 8003 09 2WVW Kinetics is concerned chiefly with the energetics of a reaction. A. True 9 B. False 0510002 A 12 12656 51 8003 09 2WVW Kinetics is concerned chiefly with the pathway of a reaction. A. True 9 B. False 0511001 A 12 12658 31 8003 09 2WVW When two species collide, but do not react chemically, there may be transfer of energy from one to the other. A. True 9 B. False 0511002 B 12 12660 52 04071609049409 0009 Any reaction for which the rate determining step involves a collision between two molecules must be second order. 9 A. True B. False 0513001 A 12 12662 51 04071192 09 0009 In general, very fast reactions have small activation energies. 9 A. True B. False 0515001 A 12 12664 51 10041609 09 0043 In stepwise mechanisms the rate-determing step is the slowest one 9 A. True B. False. 0515002 B 12 12666 51 01380440117909 0043 The derivative of a concentration with respect to time is the instantaneous value of the concentration at a certain time. 9 A. True B. False. 0515003 A 12 12668 52 04070138102009 0043 In general, as a reaction proceeds not only will a reactant concentration change, but dc/dt also changes. 9 A. True B. False. 0515004 B 12 12670 51 04071004161209 0009 The reaction: H (g) + I (g) -----> 2 HI(g) is first order in 4 2 2 both H and I . consequently, the mechanism must involve a 4 2 2 simple bimolecular collision between H and I molecules. 4 2 2 9 A. True B. False 0517002 B 12 12674 31 8003 09 2WVW Reaction orders are identical to the coefficients of the reactants in the overall equation for the reaction. A. True 9 B. False 0517003 A 12 12676 52 14410494049509 0043 5 2 If the rate law for a single step is rate = k[Q] , that step consists of the collision (and reaction) of two particles of Q. 9 A. True B. False. 0517004 A 12 12679 51 06201808013809 0043 The half-life of a first-order chemical reaction is independent of reactant concentration. 9 A. True B. False. 0517005 B 12 12681 51 06201808016109 0043 The half-life of a first-order chemical reaction is independent of temperature. 9 A. True B. False. 0517006 B 12 12683 51 09180138180809 0043 Plotting reciprocal concentration against time yields a straight line for a first-order reaction. 9 A. True B. False. 0517007 A 12 12685 32 04070491013809 0009 If the rate of reaction doubles when the concentration is doubled, the reaction must be first order. 9 A. True B. False 0517008 B 12 12687 31 04071522038509 0009 For a zero order reaction the rate constant k could have the 5 -1 units sec . 9 A. True B. False 0517009 B 12 12689 51 04070138091809 0009 In a first order reaction a plot of concentration vs time is a straight line. 9 A. True B. False 0517010 A 12 12691 51 16100539013809 0009 The order of reactions occuring at solid surfaces frequently changes with concentration. 9 A. True B. False 0519001 A 12 12693 51 00640193024509 0043 The addition of an inert gas without change in volume to a homogeneous, gaseous system at equilibrium will not affect equilibrium concentrations of reacatants or products. 9 A. True B. False. 0519101 B 12 12696 31 04910407013809 0041 The rate of a chemical reaction is directly proportional to the concentration of each reacting substance. 9 A. True B. False 0519102 A 12 12698 51 04910407016109 0043 The rates of most reactions change as the reactions proceed, even if the temperature is held constant. 9 A. True B. False. 0519103 B 12 12700 51 01140407049409 0043 Increasing the total pressure in a gas-phase reaction increases the fraction of the collisions which are effective in producing reaction. 9 A. True B. False. 0519104 A 12 12703 31 04910407044009 0009 The rate of reaction ordinarily decreases with time. 9 A. True B. False 0519301 B 12 12705 51 8003 04 2WVW A reaction that is overall exergonic cannot be slow kinetically. A. True 9 B. False 0519302 A 12 12707 51 8003 04 2WVW A reaction that is overall endergonic can be very rapid kinetically. A. True 9 B. False 0519303 A 12 12709 31 1192 0003 Reactions with high activation energies are usually endothermic. 9 A. True B. False 0519304 B 12 12711 51 08010683040709 0041 The distinction between exothermic and endothermic reactions is that the latter requre activation energy in order to occur while the former do not. 9 A. True B. False 0519305 B 12 12714 31 04070161049109 0041 Reaction rates are normally independent of temperature. 9 A. True B. False 0519306 B 12 12716 51 04071192068309 0043 Reactions with high activation energies are usually endothermic. 9 A. True B. False. 0519307 A 12 12718 51 15220407016109 0043 It is possible to change the value of the specific rate constant for a reaction by changing the temperature. 9 A. True B. False. 0519308 A 12 12720 51 03290494016109 0043 The frequency of collision between reacting particles is increased by increasing the temperature. 9 A. True B. False. 0519309 B 12 12722 51 13680161117209 0043 -E/RT In the relation K = Ae , as the temperature increases, the value of e also increases. 9 A. True B. False. 0519310 B 12 12724 52 04071192049109 0043 Reactions with small activation energies show a greater increase in rate as the temperature is raised than do reactions with large activation energies. 9 A. True B. False. 0519311 A 12 12727 51 01490491016109 0043 Measurement of the rate of a given reaction at a series of different temperatures provides data for the computation of the activation energy of the reaction. 9 A. True B. False. 0519312 A 12 12730 51 04070801022709 0043 If a reaction were neither exothermic nor endothermic, its equilibrium constant would be independent of temperature. 9 A. True B. False. 0519313 B 12 12732 51 01381233016109 0009 In order to reduce the concentration of NO in automobile exhaust, it is desirable to increase the temperature at which the fuel is burned. 9 A. True B. False 0519314 B 12 12735 31 14861192049109 0040 The rate of a reaction increases when activation energy increases. 9 A. True B. False 0519315 B 12 12737 31 14860161013609 0040 The rate of a reaction is usually doubled by a 25 degrees C increase in temperature. 9 A. True B. False 0519316 B 12 12739 51 11920407102009 0009 The activation energy for a reaction can be obtained by taking the difference in energy between reactants and products. 9 A. True B. False 0519317 A 12 12741 51 13501192074509 0009 It is possible for the activation energy, as calculated from the Arrhenius equation, to be negative. 9 A. True B. False 0519318 A 12 12743 31 1522 0003 It is possible to change the specific rate constant for a reaction by changing the temperature. 9 A. True B. False 0519501 A 12 12745 31 04850491040709 0041 A catalyst changes the rate of a chemical reaction without itself being consumed. 9 A. True B. False 0519502 A 12 12747 31 02570407019209 0041 Catalysis refers to the effect on reaction speed of a substance that does not enter into the reaction directly. 9 A. True B. False 0519503 B 12 12749 51 04850407100409 0043 A catalyst alters the rate of a reaction without being involved in the mechanism. 9 A. True B. False. 0519504 A 12 12751 31 09960785048509 0043 An enzyme is a biochemical catalyst. 9 A. True B. False. 0519505 B 12 12752 51 04910485040709 0043 The rate of a catalyzed reaction is always independent of the concentration of the catalyst. 9 A. True B. False. 0519506 A 12 12754 51 04910192048509 0043 The rate at which substances reach equilibrium may be increased by adding a catalyst. 9 A. True B. False. 0519507 A 12 12756 31 14860485119209 0040 Catalyst act by lowering activation energy. 9 A. True B. False 0519508 B 12 12757 31 14860485024509 0040 Catalysts determine the position of equilibrium in a reaction. 9 A. True B. False 0519509 A 12 12759 51 16081001100809 0009 An enzyme-catalyzed reaction may be inhibited by adding a substance with a structure very similar to that of the substrate. 9 A. True B. False 0519701 B 12 12761 51 18240407102009 0043 An autocatalytic reaction is one in which a reactant catalyzes the reaction. 9 A. True B. False. 0530001 B 12 12763 31 02450407143909 0041 It is normally very difficult to establish a chemical equilibrium since most chemical reactions tend to proceed to completion. 9 A. True B. False 0530002 B 12 12766 51 01930245019209 0043 A homogeneous equilibrium is one involving only one substance. 9 A. True B. False. 0530003 A 12 12768 31 14860136024509 0040 The term equilibrium implies equal rates for opposing process. 9 A. True B. False 0530004 A 12 12770 31 0245 0003 A condition in which two opposing processes occur at exactly the same rate is known as dynamic equilibrium. 9 A. True B. False 0531101 B 12 12772 51 01140245087109 0043 Increasing the pressure on an equilibrium system always causes the system to adjust so as to relieve the stress. 9 A. True B. False. 0531301 A 12 12774 51 02450407049109 0041 In a chemical equilibrium two opposite reactions occur simultaneously at the same rate. 9 A. True B. False 0531302 B 12 12776 51 18220227040709 0043 The mass-action expression is always equal to the equilibrium constant for a reaction. 9 A. True B. False. 0531303 B 12 12778 51 04910407024509 0043 The rate of the forward reaction is equal to the rate of the reverse reaction at equilibrium only if both reactions have single-step mechanisms. 9 A. True B. False. 0531304 A 12 12781 51 08710245068309 0043 For a system at equilibrium the endothermic reaction always has a higher activation energy than the exothermic reaction does. 9 A. True B. False. 0531305 A 12 12784 51 18221319024509 0043 The mass-action expression is strictly constant at equilibrium only if chemical activities are used in the expression. 9 A. True B. False. 0531306 B 12 12786 51 03250138022709 0009 The ratio of O to O concentration in the upper atmosphere can be 4 3 calculated knowing the concentration of O and the equilibrium 4 2 constant for the reaction: O <=====> O + O. 4 3 2 9 A. True B. False 0531307 B 12 12790 51 02451076015909 0009 Equilibrium can be considered as a balance struck between two opposing tendencies: A system will tend to move toward a state of maximum energy; a system will tend to move toward a state of minimum entropy. 9 A. True B. False 0531501 B 12 12794 51 02270801040709 0043 The equilibrium constant for an exothermic reaction is negative. 9 A. True B. False. 0531502 B 12 12796 31 02270407 09 0009 The equilibrium constant for the reaction: CO(g) + Hem.O (aq) <=====> O (g) + Hem.CO(aq) 4 2 2 is less than one. 9 A. True B. False 0531503 A 12 12799 31 13190227105509 0009 The expression for K always shows all gaseous or dissolved 4 c species, never pure solid or liquid species. 9 A. True B. False 0531504 B 12 12802 32 01131167022709 0009 Gaseous hydrogen and oxygen are allowed to react to form liquid water. The value of K for the reaction: C 2 H (g) + O (g) <=====> 2 H O(l) will depend upon the initial 4 2 2 2 relative amounts of H and O . 4 2 2 9 A. True B. False 0531701 A 12 12807 52 05530537024509 0009 One mole of HI(g) and one mole of H (g) are placed in an 4 2 evacuated container at 100 degrees C and allowed to come to equilibrium. As equilibrium is approached, one can be sure that the H concentration will increase. (The reaction: 4 2 2 HI(g) <=====> H (g) + I (g)) 4 2 2 9 A. True B. False 0533101 B 12 12812 51 01921171000809 0043 Some substances are completely insoluble in water. 9 A. True B. False. 0533102 A 12 12814 31 14860245079109 0040 When a liquid is placed in a closed container evaporation continues for a time and then stops. 9 A. True B. False 0533501 B 12 12816 31 01100008 09 0009 The solubility of AgCl in 0.10 m NaCl is greater than it is in water. 9 A. True B. False 0533901 A 12 12818 51 01910100008709 0043 5 3+ The hydrolysis of Fe may be repressed by adding concentrated HNO to the solution. 4 3 9 A. True B. False 0533902 A 12 12820 51 11691446023609 0043 5 2+ Addition of a strong acid to Cu(NH ) can precipitate cupric 4 3 4 hydroxide. 9 A. True B. False 0533903 B 12 12823 52 11970254094309 0009 The smaller the value of the dissociation constant for a complex, the weaker the coordinate bonds in the complex. 9 A. True B. False 0533904 A 12 12825 52 02541531092309 0009 The dissociation constant for a complex ordinarily increases as the strength of the ligands as bases decreases. 9 A. True B. False 0535001 A 12 12827 51 02270407023909 0009 The equilibrium constant for the reaction of a weak acid with a strong base is smaller than that for a strong acid-strong base reaction. 9 A. True B. False 0535002 A 12 12830 52 02270407025409 0009 5 - + The equilibrium constant for the reaction of C H O with H is 4 2 3 2 equal to 1/K , where K is the dissociation constant for HC H O . 4 a a 2 3 2 9 A. True B. False 0535101 B 12 12835 32 00910087 09 0041 A pH of 0 signifies a neutral solution. 9 A. True B. False 0535102 A 12 12836 32 00910077008709 0041 A pH of 3.4 signifies an acid solution. 9 A. True B. False 0535103 A 12 12837 32 00910061008709 0041 A pH of 7.7 signifies a basic solution. 9 A. True B. False 0535104 B 12 12838 52 00720087009109 0043 When NH in solution is titrated with a solution of HCl, the pH 4 3 at the equivalence point is greater than 7. 9 A. True B. False. 0535501 A 12 12840 52 00870061013809 0043 A solution of Na HPO is more basic than one of the same 4 2 4 concentration of NaH PO . 4 2 4 9 A. True B. False 0535701 A 12 12843 32 01681444020909 0009 A mixture of 100 ml of 1.0 M HCl with 100 ml of 2.0 M NaC H O 4 2 3 2 would act as a buffer. 9 A. True B. False 0535702 B 12 12846 52 01681444020909 0009 A mixture of 100 ml of 1.0 M HCl with 100 ml of 1.0 M NaC H O 4 2 3 2 would serve as a buffer. 9 A. True B. False 0535901 A 12 12849 32 00080138117409 0041 5 + - In pure water the H and OH concentrations are both 5 -7 10 mole/liter. 9 A. True B. False 0535902 A 12 12851 32 00770087013809 0041 5 + -7 In an acid solution the H concentration exceeds 10 mole/liter. 9 A. True B. False 0535903 A 12 12853 31 00770087006609 0041 It is possible for an acid solution to result when certain compounds that contain no hydrogen are dissolved in water. 9 A. True B. False 0535904 A 12 12855 51 01911376000809 0043 5 3+ Because of hydrolysis the simple boron ion, B , cannot exist to any appreciable extent in water. 9 A. True B. False 0535905 A 12 12858 51 01380293008709 0043 The concentration of water molecules is practically the same in all dilute solutions. 9 A. True B. False. 0535906 A 12 12860 52 00770018019109 0043 The weaker an acid is, the more strongly its salts hydrolyze. 9 A. True B. False. 0535907 B 12 12862 52 00870075117809 0043 Adding NH to a solution decreases the hydroxide-ion 4 3 concentration. 9 A. True B. False. 0535908 B 12 12864 31 00080087006109 0009 5 + -7 In a basic water solution, (H ) > 10 . 9 A. True B. False 0535909 B 12 12866 31 08981446160109 0009 The conjugate anions of strong acids are strong bases. 9 A. True B. False 0537001 B 12 12868 31 01681537120109 0009 5 o For a certain mixture, positive E values are calculated for two different redox reactions. We can be confident that the 5 0 one with the higher e value will occur first. 9 A. True B. False 0551001 A 12 12872 51 05530169052809 0043 The number of moles of BaSO per liter of solid BaSO is 4 4 4 essentially constant. 9 A. True B. False. 0551002 A 12 12875 51 01100018016109 0043 If the solubility of a salt increases with increasing temperature the K also increases as temperature is increased. 4 sp 9 A. True B. False. 0551003 A 12 12878 51 00890808000809 0043 Many strong electrolytes are not very soluble in water. 9 A. True B. False. 0551004 B 12 12880 52 15270554009109 0043 Because the K for ZnS is larger than that for CuS, ZnS will sp dissolve in a solution of lower pH than CuS will. 9 A. True B. False. 0551005 B 12 12883 32 00181527011009 0009 Any two salts that have the same K value will have the same sp solubility. 9 A. True B. False 0551006 B 12 12885 32 00870236152709 0009 5 + - When equal volumes of 0.1 M solutions of M and X are mixed, a precipitate forms if K of MX is less than 0.01. sp 9 A. True B. False 0553001 B 12 12888 32 02360087013809 0009 5 - A precipitate will form when enough Cl is added to a solution 5 2+ - 0.10 M in Pb to make conc Cl = 0.010 M 5 -5 (K PbCl = 1.7 x 10 ). 4 sp 2 9 A. True B. False 0553002 A 12 12892 31 00181173040709 0009 A salt MNO can be prepared by a precipitation reaction which 4 3 involves adding AgNO to a solution of MCl. 4 3 9 A. True B. False 0555001 A 12 12895 32 01141172109609 0009 An increase in pressure increases the stability of diamond relative to graphite. 9 A. True B. False 0555002 B 12 12897 52 04900169137609 0009 Below the triple point temperature, only solid can exist. 9 A. True B. False 0555003 B 12 12899 52 00081376043809 0009 Pure water cannot exist as a liquid below 0 degrees C. 9 A. True B. False 0555004 A 12 12901 32 00080130008709 0009 If water saturated with nitrogen at 1 atm is exposed to air, N 4 2 will come out of solution. 9 A. True B. False 0555005 A 13 12904 52 019504380172 0019 The volume of a liquid sample decreases on freezing. An increase in pressure would therefore A. increase the melting point B. decrease the melting point 9 C. produce NO change in melting point 0555006 B 13 12907 31 049811490008 0019 The normal boiling points of water and ethyl alcohol are 100 degrees C and 78.5 degrees C respectively. The vapor pressure of water at its normal boiling point is ________ that of ethyl alcohol at its normal boiling point. 9 A. greater than B. equal to C. less than 0555007 AB 22 12911 32 11490498 0019 MACROITEM STEM The vapor pressures of ether and chloroform at 0 degrees C are 18.5 and 6.2 cm Hg respectively. The boiling point of chloroform 0 should be ______ the boiling point of ether. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 A. lower than B. higher than MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 The rate of evaporation of ether at 0 degrees C will be _________ the rate of evaporation of chloroform at 0 degrees C. 9 A. slower than B. faster than C. the same as 0555008 B 13 12916 32 000801740161 0019 Where would water boil at the lowest temperature? A. Miami, Fla. (Elev 0) B. Columbus, Ohio (elev 600 ft) 9 C. Denver, Colo. Elev 500 ft) 0555009 B 12 12918 32 14861437 09 0040 The greater the pressure of a gas on the surface of a liquid, the less the solubility of the gas. 9 A. True B. False 0555010 A 12 12920 32 14861437106409 0040 The bends of a deep sea diver and the sparkle of soda pop are due to the same process. 9 A. True B. False 0610001 B 12 12922 31 14860087 09 0040 In any mixture of water and alcohol the alcohol is always properly referred to as the solvent. 9 A. True B. False 0611001 B 12 12924 32 00871291013409 0009 In a solution containing equal numbers of grams of benzene (MW = 78) and toluene (MW = 92), the mole fractions are each 0.50 9 A. True B. False 0611002 A 12 12926 31 01341436008709 0009 The mole fractions of all the components of a solution add to unity. 9 A. True B. False 0612001 A 12 12928 51 00910077006109 0043 The pH of an acid being titrated with a base rises sharply at the equivalence point. 9 A. True B. False. 0612501 A 12 12930 31 14860089001809 0040 Salts are usually strong electrolytes. 9 A. True B. False 0613001 A 12 12931 51 00910087009909 0043 The pH of a neutral solution is 7.0 at 25 degrees C. 9 A. True B. False. 0613002 A 12 12933 51 00910099008709 0043 The pH of a neutral solution is not 7.0 at 50 degrees C. 9 A. True B. False. 0613003 B 12 12935 51 12110091 09 0043 It is impossible to have a pH less than zero. 9 A. True B. False. 0613004 B 12 12936 31 12110087009109 0009 It is impossible to have a solution with a negative ph. 9 A. True B. False 0613005 B 12 12938 32 00910087117309 0009 5 -9 The pH of a solution prepared by dissolving 1 x 10 moles of HCl in a liter of water is 9. 9 A. True B. False 0621001 B 12 12941 31 08450192117109 0041 An amphoteric substance is one that is insoluble. 9 A. True B. False 0621101 A 12 12943 31 00610097026309 04 2 OS A base is a proton acceptor and an electron donor. A. True 9 B. False 0621102 B 12 12945 31 14430189037009 0041 Hydronium is the element following hydrogen in the periodic table. 9 A. True B. False 0621103 A 12 12947 31 00770192007009 0041 An acid is a substance containing hydrogen which is partially or completely ionized when dissolved in water. 9 A. True B. False 0621104 A 12 12949 31 00930087006109 0041 An alkaline solution is the same thing as a basic solution. 9 A. True B. False 0621105 A 12 12951 31 14860018006609 0040 The compound CuCl would be classified as a salt. 4 2 9 A. True B. False 0621106 B 12 12953 31 14860077000609 0040 The substance ClO (OH) could not possibly be an acid. 4 2 9 A. True B. False 0621201 A 12 12955 51 00870105116709 0043 A solution of HCl will react with a solution of NaC H O . 4 2 3 2 9 A. True B. False. 0621202 B 12 12957 51 00721173144609 0009 Ammonia can be prepared by heating a solution of ammonium chloride with a strong acid. 9 A. True B. False 0621203 A 12 12959 31 00871511007709 0009 A solution which gives off bubbles when Na CO is added is 4 2 3 acidic. 9 A. True B. False 0621301 A 12 12961 51 11730130008709 0009 Sodium hydrogen carbonate could be prepared by saturating a solution of NaOH with CO and evaporating. 4 2 9 A. True B. False 0621401 A 12 12964 31 00770104031509 0041 Pure acids are poor conductors of electricity. 9 A. True B. False 0621402 B 12 12965 32 00770196029309 0041 The weaker an acid, the weaker is the attachment of hydrogen in its molecules. 9 A. True B. False 0621403 A 12 12967 31 00770077 09 0043 H PO is a diprotic acid. 4 3 3 9 A. True B. False 0621405 A 12 12968 51 00871760052209 0043 As a solution of a weak base is diluted, the number of moles of 5 - OH per liter decreases. 9 A. True B. False. 0621406 A 12 12970 51 00810087023909 0043 As a solution of a weak acid is diluted, the percent dissociation of the acid increases. 9 A. True B. False. 0621407 B 12 12972 51 00660061 09 0043 All hydroxy compounds are bases. 9 A. True B. False. 0621408 A 12 12973 51 14460056008109 0043 Although H SO is a strong acid, the second step in its 4 2 4 dissociation is partial. 9 A. True B. False. 0621409 B 12 12975 51 01960138008709 0043 If the hydrogen-ion concentration in a solution of HCl is gradually decreased by progressive addition of water, the solution will eventually turn basic. 9 A. True B. False. 0621410 C 13 12978 51 00771455 0019 The strongest acid of those listed is A. HClO B. HClO C. HClO 94 2 3 0621411 A 12 12980 31 14860018116709 0040 A salt is produced when an acid reacts with a base. 9 A. True B. False 0621412 A 12 12982 31 02391446 09 0009 There are more weak acids than strong acids. 9 A. True B. False 0621413 A 12 12983 51 00871178006109 0009 5 - Solutions containing CN ion are expected to be basic. 9 A. True B. False 0621414 A 12 12985 32 00771446 09 0009 5 -4 -4 HF (K = 7 x 10 ) is a stronger acid than HNO (K = 4 x 10 ). 4 a 2 a 9 A. True B. False 0621501 B 12 12988 32 00870408035109 0041 A solution of sodium chloride contains neutral sodium and chlorine atoms. 9 A. True B. False 0621502 A 12 12990 31 00180808 09 0041 All salts are soluble to some extent. 9 A. True B. False 0621503 A 12 12991 51 00871173055409 0043 A solution prepared by dissolving KAl(SO ) .12H O in water is 4 4 2 2 acidic. 9 A. True B. False 0621504 A 12 12993 31 00870077085009 0043 A solution of NH NO is acidic, because the ammonium ion 4 4 3 undergoes dissociation in water. 9 A. True B. False 0621505 A 12 12995 51 00870008009909 0043 A solution of KNO in water is practically neutral. 4 3 9 A. True B. False. 0621506 A 12 12997 51 00870061 09 0043 One would expect a solution of NaC H O to be basic. 4 2 3 2 9 A. True B. False. 0621507 A 12 12999 51 00870077 09 0043 One would expect a solution of NaHSO to be acidic. 4 4 9 A. True B. False. 0621508 B 12 13001 51 00870061 09 0043 One would expect a solution of NH Cl to be basic. 4 4 9 A. True B. False. 0621509 A 12 13003 51 00870099 09 0043 One would expect a solution of NH C H O to be neutral. 4 4 2 3 2 9 A. True B. False. 0621510 B 12 13005 31 14860408001809 0040 Sodium chloride is the only true salt. 9 A. True B. False 0621511 B 12 13006 31 00870061025209 0009 A solution of NH Cl is basic. 4 4 9 A. True B. False 0622001 A 12 13008 31 00801446160109 0041 The neutralization of a strong acid by a strong base in a water solution is essentially the reaction of hydrogen and hydroxide ions to form water. 9 A. True B. False 0622002 A 12 13011 31 13230061008009 0041 A basic oxide can neutralize an acid solution even though it 5 - contains no OH ions. 9 A. True B. False 0622003 A 12 13013 31 14860080001809 0040 The products of an acid-base neutralization are a salt and water. 9 A. True B. False 0622004 A 12 13015 31 14860080001809 0040 The reaction HNO + NaOH -----> NaNO + H O can be classified as 4 3 3 2 a neutralization. 9 A. True B. False 0622301 B 12 13018 52 01030215009909 0009 When 100 ml of 0.10 M HC H O is added to 100 ml of 0.10 M NaOH, 4 2 3 2 a neutral solution is produced. 9 A. True B. False 0622302 A 12 13021 52 00870099020909 0009 When 100 ml of 0.10 M HCl is added to 100 ml of 0.10 M NaOH, a neutral solution is formed. 9 A. True B. False 0622303 A 12 13023 51 15290103030509 0009 The gram equivalent weight of acetic acid, HC H O , in an 4 2 3 2 acid-base titration, is always equal to its gram molecular weight 9 A. True B. False 0622304 B 12 13026 51 15301183009109 0009 At the equivalence point of the titration of a strong acid with a weak base, the pH is greater than 7. 9 A. True B. False 0623001 B 12 13028 31 02440153008709 0041 NH OH crystals can be formed by evaporating a solution of 4 4 ammonia in water. 9 A. True B. False 0623201 A 12 13030 32 01130072008709 0041 When the gas ammonia is dissolved in water, the resulting solution is basic. 9 A. True B. False 0623202 B 12 13032 32 0085133109 0041 Carbonic acid can produce severe wounds. 9 A. True B. False 0630001 B 12 13033 32 08080237079009 0041 All soluble covalent compounds are nonelectrolytes. 9 A. True B. False 0630002 A 12 13035 32 00080112113909 0041 Water is an excellent solvent because of its polar nature. 9 A. True B. False 0630003 B 12 13037 31 11391394019209 0041 Polar liquids dissolve nonpolar substances readily and vice versa. 9 A. True B. False 0630004 A 12 13039 31 14860136055409 0040 The rate of dissolving of a solute is increased by heating. 9 A. True B. False 0631001 B 12 13041 52 10500808053509 0009 DDT should be more soluble in alcohol than in carbon tetrachloride. 9 A. True B. False 0631002 B 12 13043 31 14861139011009 0040 The solubility of a polar solute in a polar solvent tends to be low. 9 A. True B. False 0632001 A 12 13045 32 0351 159109 0043 Because of the larger size of the arsenic atom, one would expect arsenic acid to be weaker than phosphoric acid. 9 A. True B. False 0632002 A 12 13047 51 05541026006109 0043 Be(OH) will dissolve in excess base. 4 2 9 A. True B. False 0632003 B 13 13049 32 143508080008 0019 CsCl would be expected to be: A. more soluble in carbon tetrachloride than in water B. more soluble in water than in carbon tetrachloride 9 C. equally soluble in both solvents 0632004 B 12 13052 32 14860110039409 0040 Gasoline does not dissolve readily in water because polar substances tend not to dissolve in each other. 9 A. True B. False 0632005 A 12 13054 31 14860008 09 0040 A nonpolar solute would be relatively insoluble in water. 9 A. True B. False 0632006 A 12 13056 31 0453 0003 One would expect charcoal to adsorb chlorine (Cl ) more strongly 4 2 than hydrogen sulfide (H S). 4 2 9 A. True B. False 0632007 B 12 13059 31 0182 0003 A charcoal gas mask is more efficient at the south pole than at the equator. 9 A. True B. False 0633001 A 12 13061 52 011000080215 0043 The solubility of Ca(OH) in water can be decreased by adding 4 2 NaOH to the solution. 9 A. True B. False. 0634001 B 12 13063 31 00870112013009 0041 A solution that contains the maximum amount of solvent is called a saturated solution. 9 A. True B. False 0634002 A 12 13065 32 11780554113909 0041 Ionic compounds dissolve only in highly polar liquids. 9 A. True B. False 0634003 B 12 13067 31 01100113016109 0041 The solubilities of gases and solids increase with temperature. 9 A. True B. False 0634004 B 12 13069 31 11710008 09 0041 Potassium nitrate is insoluble in water. 9 A. True B. False 0634005 A 12 13070 51 0808 09 0043 The most soluble of the silver halides is AgF. 9 A. True B. False 0634006 A 12 13071 51 0408080809 0043 Silver chloride is more soluble in very concentrated NaCl than in pure water. 9 A. True B. False 0634007 B 12 13073 32 15131173010909 0009 A supersaturated solution of air in water could be prepared by bubbling air through water at 60 degrees C and cooling to 25 degrees C. 9 A. True B. False 0634008 B 12 13076 31 01100161016909 0009 The solubility of a solid in a liquid is ordinarily directly proportional to the absolute temperature. 9 A. True B. False 0634009 B 13 13078 32 028605540087 0019 Heat is evolved when a certain salt dissolves. Heating the solution will therefore ______ the solubility of the salt. 9 A. increase B. decrease C. not change 0634010 B 12 13081 31 01100130148609 0040 For a substance to form a saturated solution, it must be very insoluble. 9 A. True B. False 0634011 A 12 13083 31 14860110016109 0040 In certain cases the solubility of a substance in water decreases with temperature. 9 A. True B. False 0634012 A 12 13085 31 14860087049109 0040 The solution process can be speeded up in an exothermic reaction by heating. 9 A. True B. False 0636001 A 12 13087 31 01100008 09 0009 The solubility of AgCl in 0.10 M NaNO is greater than it is in 4 3 water 9 A. True B. False 0640001 B 12 13089 32 14860736 09 0040 The molecular weight of water is a colligative property. 9 A. True B. False 0641001 B 12 13091 51 04980087053609 0009 The boiling point of a 1 M solution of a nonelectrolyte will be 100.52 degrees C, provided the solution is ideal. 9 A. True B. False 0641002 A 12 13093 32 14860132073609 0040 Salt water boils at a higher temperature than pure water. 9 A. True B. False 0642001 B 12 13095 52 01110087 09 0009 The freezing point of a 1 M solution of K SO would be about the 4 2 4 same as that of a 1 M solution of urea. 9 A. True B. False 0642003 A 12 13098 31 14860127073609 0040 The freezing point of water is lowered by the addition of a solute. 9 A. True B. False 0644001 A 12 13100 51 01330112008709 0009 Raoult's Law often applies to the solvent in a solution but not to the solute. 9 A. True B. False 0644002 A 12 13102 51 01270132051909 0009 Freezing point lowering, boiling point elevation, and osmotic pressure can all be explained in terms of vapor pressure lowering 9 A. True B. False 0644003 A 12 13105 32 14860131073609 0040 The solvent vapor pressure of salt water is less than that of pure water. 9 A. True B. False 0644004 B 12 13107 32 14860131073609 0040 The vapor pressure of water can be raised by adding a small amount of sugar. 9 A. True B. False 0660001 A 12 13109 31 0130 0003 Even a very tall cylinder containing a solution of sugar in water shows no settling of sugar molecules. 9 A. True B. False 0660002 A 12 13111 31 0003 In a typical gel, both solid and liquid phases are continuous. 9 A. True B. False 0660003 A 12 13113 31 0118 0003 Information about the charge on colloidal particles can be obtained from electrophoretic measurements. 9 A. True B. False 0660004 B 12 13115 31 0122 0003 The Tyndall effect becomes more pronounced at higher temperatures 9 A. True B. False 0660005 B 12 13117 31 0118 0003 If a liquid appears perfectly transparent when viewed in front of a bright light, it cannot be a colloid. 9 A. True B. False 0662001 A 12 13119 31 0118 0003 Some molecules are so large they will produce a Tyndall effect 9 A. True B. False 0700001 B 12 13121 31 05810347 09 0009 Chemical bonds almost never form unless half-filled orbitals are available. 9 A. True B. False 0700002 B 12 13123 31 05890336 0003 Diamond is an example of a glass. 9 A. True B. False 0710001 A 12 13124 31 03510237019209 0041 The atoms of covalent substances are joined by shared electron pairs. 9 A. True B. False 0710002 B 12 13126 31 02370015006609 0041 Covalent compounds invariably contain a metal. 9 A. True B. False 0710003 B 12 13127 31 14860927092609 0040 No more than one pair of electrons can be shared to form covalent bonds between atoms. 9 A. True B. False 0710004 A 12 13129 52 14860926033709 0040 A compound between elements with atomic numbers of 7 and 8 will contain covalent bonds. 9 A. True B. False 0711301 A 12 13131 31 07820355034709 0041 Molecular orbitals can be bonding or antibonding in character. 9 A. True B. False 0711302 A 12 13133 31 07820263 09 0041 A molecular orbital can contain at most two electrons. 9 A. True B. False 0712001 B 12 13135 31 13210781026309 0041 In structural formulas, each dash represents a single shared electron. 9 A. True B. False 0712002 A 12 13137 31 0926 0003 In order to define a "molecule" of a covalent solid, one would have to specify the entire crystal. 9 A. True B. False 0712101 B 12 13139 31 00140781029309 0041 Carbon atoms may be joined by one, two, three, or four bonds in a molecule. 9 A. True B. False 0712102 A 12 13141 52 07760037077709 0009 Knowing that a Lewis structure can be written for the compound XY , where Y corresponds to an element in group 7a of the 4 2 periodic table, and that the octet rule is obeyed, you can be reasonably sure that the neutral atom of element X has two unpaired "valence" electrons. 9 A. True B. False 0712104 A 12 13145 32 09451486 0003 The ammonia molecule has two lone-pair electrons. 9 A. True B. False 0712105 A 12 13147 32 07771486 0003 The octet rule is violated in the compound NO . 4 2 9 A. True B. False 0712301 B 12 13149 51 09850355035109 0043 The formation of multiple bonds is exhibited more readily by large atoms than by small ones. 9 A. True B. False 0712302 B 12 13151 51 15140527093909 0009 The strength of the attractive force between two bonded atoms increases, and the length of the bond increases, in the order: single bond - double bond - triple bond. 9 A. True B. False 0712303 A 12 13154 32 07451486 0003 The energy required to break the bond in N should be greater 4 2 than that required for O . 4 2 9 A. True B. False 0712304 B 12 13157 31 09351486 0003 Each electron of a pair spends its time in only one of the two lobes of a pi bonding orbital. 9 A. True B. False 0712501 B 12 13159 51 12271509123009 0009 The double bonds in benzene and other aromatic hydrocarbons behave chemically in the same way as those in ethylene. 9 A. True B. False 0712701 A 12 13161 31 09190347115909 0041 Hybrid orbitals are formed from combinations of s and p orbitals. 9 A. True B. False 0712702 A 12 13163 32 12130919 09 0041 An example of hybrid orbital occurs in H O. 4 2 9 A. True B. False 0714001 A 12 13167 31 13210351029309 0041 The structural formula of a compound indicates the arrangement of the atoms in its molecules. 9 A. True B. False 0714002 B 12 13169 52 15960293093009 0009 Experimental results support the idea that a certain molecule, AB , is linear (that is, all three nuclei lie along a straight 4 2 line). this must mean that there are only two pairs of electrons about the central atom. 9 A. True B. False 0714101 B 12 13173 31 03510293 09 0041 The H atoms in an H O molecule are 180 degrees apart on opposite 4 2 sides of the O atom. 9 A. True B. False 0714102 A 12 13175 32 10290875087909 0043 The nitrate ion has a planar, triangular structure. 9 A. True B. False 0714103 A 12 13177 32 08500874087909 0043 The ammonium ion has a tetrahedral structure. 9 A. True B. False 0714104 A 12 13178 32 07791486 0003 The carbon tetrachloride, CCl , molecule has a tetrahedral shape. 4 4 9 A. True B. False 0714301 B 12 13180 32 09391486 0003 In the ammonium ion one N-H bond is of different length from the other three. 9 A. True B. False 0714701 B 12 13182 52 08791178 09 0043 The structure of the metaphosphate ion is similar to that of the dichromate ion. 9 A. True B. False 0714801 A 13 13184 51 16580898 05 A mirror image represents which symmetry operation? A. Reflection in a plane B. Rotation about an axis of symmetry 9 C. Inversion through a center 0714802 A 12 13187 32 0579 09 A rectangle contains a center of symmetry. A. True 9 B. False 0715001 A 13 13188 32 00661403077809 0019 What of the following compounds should have the highest dipole moment? A. H O B. H S C. H Te 94 2 2 2 0715002 B 12 13190 51 15930192092609 0009 The physical properties of molecular substances are directly related to the strengths of the covalent bonds holding the molecule together. 9 A. True B. False 0715003 B 12 13193 32 16971486 0003 The electronic charge distribution in a diatomic molecule is symmetrical between the two nuclei. 9 A. True B. False 0715101 B 12 13195 72 142302631756 0043 Each unpaired electron in an atom contributes 1.73 Bohr magnetons to the magnetic moment if the orbital moment is quenched. 9 A. True B. False 0715301 A 12 13198 51 03550351029309 0041 Strong bonds between atoms in a molecule mean great stability. 9 A. True B. False 0715302 B 12 13200 32 07451486 0003 The energy required to break the H-F bond is less than that required to break either the H-H of F-F bond. 9 A. True B. False 0715501 A 12 13202 31 11390293018509 0041 Polar molecules behave as though they were negatively charged at one end and positively charged at the other. 9 A. True B. False 0715502 B 12 13204 31 00081486113909 0040 The water molecule is nonpolar. 9 A. True B. False 0715503 A 12 13205 32 07781486 0003 A polar diatomic molecule always contains a polar covalent bond. 9 A. True B. False 0715504 B 12 13207 32 07781486 0003 The methane molecule is polar. 9 A. True B. False 0715701 A 12 13208 52 0768 09 0043 5 2+ Ti (g) should be paramagnetic. 9 A. True B. False 0715702 B 12 13209 51 0768 09 0043 5 + Paramagnetism would not be expected of Cr(NH ) Cl . 4 3 4 2 9 A. True B. False 0715703 B 12 13212 51 01890009175809 0043 All the elements of the iron subgroup are ferromagnetic. 9 A. True B. False 0715704 B 12 13214 51 0037076809 0043 Except for ferric compounds, all of the common compounds of the iron triad elements are paramagnetic. 9 A. True B. False 0715705 A 12 13216 32 076814861423 0003 No matter what its structure is, a molecule with an odd number of electrons must be paramagnetic. 9 A. True B. False 0715706 B 12 13218 32 07681486 0003 Any molecule which has an even number of electrons cannot be paramagnetic. 9 A. True B. False 0715801 A 12 13220 31 09391486 0003 The four carbon-hydrogen bonds in the methane molecule are all the same length. 9 A. True B. False 0716001 A 12 13222 31 14860716016909 0040 The building units of crystalline solids may be atoms, ions, or molecules. 9 A. True B. False 0716101 A 12 13224 51 02240695089509 0043 5 - The formula CoCl (NH ) represents a pair of cis-trans isomers. 4 4 3 2 9 A. True B. False 0716102 A 12 13226 51 06950874153109 0043 Cis-trans isomerism is not possible in tetrahedral complexes. 9 A. True B. False 0716103 B 12 13228 51 15311659087309 0043 5 2- The square-planar PtCl F complex shows optical isomerism. 4 2 2 9 A. True B. False 0716104 A 12 13230 71 11781531 09 0043 5 3+ Only three oxalate ions are necessary to complex one Fe . 9 A. True B. False 0716105 A 12 13232 51 15311178093009 0043 5 + Ag forms many linear complex ions. 9 A. True B. False 0716106 A 12 13233 51 15320351 09 0043 A complex ion always contains more than one atom. 9 A. True B. False. 0716107 B 12 13235 51 07280874153209 0009 Any complex ion with a coordination number of four for the central atom has a tetrahedral structure. 9 A. True B. False 0716108 A 12 13237 51 06950874153109 0009 Geometric (cis-, trans-)isomerism is not observed in tetrahedral complexes. 9 A. True B. False 0716201 B 12 13239 52 11780767117809 0009 - 2- Of the two ions, CN and SO , the more likely to be found in 4 4 metal complexes is the sulfate ion, the weaker base. 9 A. True B. False 0716202 A 12 13242 51 012611781841 0043 5 - The cyanide ion, CN , exhibits a strong ligand-field effect. 9 A. True B. False 0716401 A 12 13247 52 08741531 09 0043 5 2- CrO is a tetrahedral complex. 4 4 9 A. True B. False 0716502 B 13 13253 52 8003 06 2WVW Use crystal field splitting to predict whether the following compound would be paramagnetic. K (Cr)O (potassium chromate) 4 2 4 A. paramagnetic B. diamagnetic 9 C. insufficient data to tell 0716503 A 13 13257 52 8003 06 2WVW Use crystal field splitting to predict whether the following compound would be paramagnetic. K (Fe)(CN) (potassium 4 3 6 hexacyanoferrate(III) A. paramagnetic B. diamagnetic 9 C. insufficient data to tell 0716504 B 13 13261 52 8003 06 2WVW Use crystal field splitting to predict whether the following compound would be paramagnetic. K (Pt)(C=N) 4 2 6 (potassium hexacyanoplatinate(IV) A. paramagnetic B. diamagnetic 9 C. insufficient data to tell 0716505 B 13 13265 52 8003 06 2WVW Use crystal field splitting to predict whether the following compound would be paramagnetic. Ni(CO) (CO is carbon monoxide, 4 4 Ni is nickel) A. paramagnetic B. diamagnetic 9 C. insufficient data to tell 0716506 A 13 13269 52 8003 06 2WVW Use crystal field splitting to predict whether the following compound would be paramagnetic. (Fe)(HOH) (NO ) (hexaaquoiron(II) 4 6 3 2 nitrate). A. paramagnetic B. diamagnetic 9 C. insufficient data to tell 0716507 A 13 13273 52 8003 06 2WVW Use crystal field splitting to predict whether the following compound would be paramagnetic. (Fe)(HOH) (NO ) (hexaaquoiron(III 4 6 3 3 nitrate) A. paramagnetic B. diamagnetic 9 C. insufficient data to tell 0716508 B 13 13277 52 8003 06 2WVW Use crystal field splitting to predict whether the following compound would be paramagnetic. K (CO)(C=N) (potassium 4 3 6 hexacyanocobaltate(III)) A. paramagnetic B. diamagnetic 9 C. insufficient data to tell 0716509 A 13 13281 52 8003 06 2WVW Use crystal field splitting to predict whether the following compound would be paramagnetic. K (Cr)(C=N) (potassium 4 3 6 hexacyanochromate(III)) A. paramagnetic B. diamagnetic 9 C. insufficient data to tell 0716510 B 13 13285 52 8003 06 2WVW Use crystal field splitting to predict the magnetic properties of K [Fe(CN) ], potassium hexacyanoferrate(II). 4 4 6 9 A. paramagnetic B. diamagnetic C. insufficient data to tell 0716511 B 13 13289 52 8003 06 2WVW Use cystal field splitting to predict whether the following compound would be paramagnetic. (Co)(NH ) (NO ) 4 3 3 2 3 (trinitrotriamminecobalt(III)) A. paramagnetic B. diamagnetic 9 C. insufficient data to tell 0716512 B 13 13293 52 8003 06 2WVW Use crystal field splitting to predict whethr the following compound would be paramagnetic. (Rh)(NH ) (Cl) 4 3 6 3 (hexaamminerhodium(III) chloride) A. paramagnetic B. diamagnetic 9 C. insufficient data to tell 0716513 B 12 13297 51 06620874153109 0043 5 2+ Cr(NH ) is a deep blue, tetrahedral complex. 4 3 4 9 A. True B. False 0716514 A 12 13299 51 01100008008709 0043 The solubility of AgCl in water can be increased by adding NH 4 3 to the solution. 9 A. True B. False. 0716515 A 12 13302 52 13240808000809 0009 One would predict that (Pt(NH ) )Cl is more soluble in water 4 3 4 2 than is (Pt(NH ) Cl ). 4 3 2 2 9 A. True B. False 0716516 B 12 13305 51 15321533044909 0009 For a complex ion, labile means exactly the opposite of stable. 9 A. True B. False 0720001 B 12 13309 31 14861425092709 0040 Ionic bond formation involves sharing of electron pairs. 9 A. True B. False 0721001 B 12 13311 31 14861425002809 0040 An ionic bond often forms when two nonmetals react. 9 A. True B. False 0723001 B 12 13313 52 15140958016909 0009 The difference in strength between the hydrogen bonds in H O and 4 2 those in HF explains why the solid phases of these compounds have very different structures. 9 A. True B. False 0723002 A 12 13317 32 01860290087909 0009 The maximum density of water at 4 degrees C can be explained by assuming that the molecular structure of ice does not completely disappear when it melts. 9 A. True B. False 0725001 B 12 13320 51 1453 09 0043 The lattice energy of KCl is greater than that of AgCl. 9 A. True B. False 0728001 A 12 13322 31 00200066 09 0041 Positive and negative valences are equal in simple compounds. 9 A. True B. False 0728002 A 12 13324 31 11781296 09 0043 5 3- One would expect Na N to contain the N ion. 4 3 9 A. True B. False 0728003 B 12 13326 31 01040462153409 0043 Molten BaCl is not a good electrical conductor. 4 2 9 A. True B. False 0728004 A 12 13328 51 1834 09 0043 CaO is very refractory. 9 A. True B. False 0728005 B 12 13329 51 01040293046209 0009 NaOH(s) is a poor electrical conductor because it is made up of molecules. 9 A. True B. False 0728006 B 12 13331 31 13260189137009 0009 A binary compound consisting of an element having a low ionization potential and a second element having a high electronegativity is likely to possess covalent bonds. 9 A. True B. False 0728007 B 12 13334 31 0169 0003 Molecular solids generally have high melting points. 9 A. True B. False 0728008 A 12 13336 31 0160 0003 Ionic crystals are good electric conductors, because the particles at the lattice points are electrically charged. 9 A. True B. False 0728009 B 12 13338 31 07030005 0003 Crystals of calcium chloride (CaCl ) are molecular. 4 2 9 A. True B. False 0730001 A 12 13340 31 00620926 09 0041 The metallic bond can be regarded as a kind of covalent bond. 9 A. True B. False 0730002 B 12 13342 31 02630015 09 0041 The electrons in a metal are tightly bound in place and cannot move about readily. 9 A. True B. False 0731001 A 12 13344 31 00150244087909 0041 Metals are weaker than ionic crystals with perfect crystal structures. 9 A. True B. False 0731002 A 12 13346 31 01041700005409 0041 Conductors are opaque to visible light. 9 A. True B. False 0731003 B 12 13347 31 00151701087909 0041 Metallic elements are amorphous in structure, unlike crystalline solids. 9 A. True B. False 0731004 B 12 13349 31 00151369 09 0041 Metals are ductile because they lack dislocations. 9 A. True B. False 0733001 A 12 13351 31 03800015035109 0041 Metal atoms have energy bands in place of energy levels. 9 A. True B. False 0733002 B 12 13353 31 01590924169909 0041 When energy bands overlap, the overlapping portion is known as a forbidden band. 9 A. True B. False 0733003 A 12 13355 31 16761699015909 0041 Electrical insulators have wide forbidden bands separating filled energy bands from higher empty bands. 9 A. True B. False 0740001 A 12 13357 31 16980293 09 0041 Van der Waals bonds hold water molecules together to form ice. 9 A. True B. False 0741001 A 12 13359 31 0516 0003 Van der Waals forces exist in all matter. 9 A. True B. False 0743001 A 12 13360 52 09581149016109 0043 Because of hydrogen bonding the vapor pressure of H O is less 4 2 than that of H S at the same temperature. 4 2 9 A. True B. False. 0743002 A 12 13363 51 09580351018909 0043 Hydrogen bonds can be formed between two atoms of different elements. 9 A. True B. False. 0743003 C 13 13365 31 053504980959 0026 Which alcohol should be the highest boiling? A. C H O B. C H O C. C H O . 94 3 8 2 6 2 3 8 3 0743004 A 12 13367 52 11940958 09 0009 Ethyl alcohol, C H OH, would be expected to show hydrogen bonding 4 2 5 9 A. True B. False 0743005 A 12 13369 52 11780186 09 0009 5 + It is believed that the (C H ) N ion promotes the formation of 4 2 5 4 "flichering clusters" of water molecules. Consequently, one would expect the maximum density of solutions containing this ion to be above 4 degrees C. 9 A. True B. False 0743006 A 12 13374 31 00081486095909 0040 Hydrogen bonding causes water to have a lower density than expected at its freezing point. 9 A. True B. False 0743007 B 12 13376 31 00081486095909 0040 The molecular weight of water depends upon hydrogen bonding. 9 A. True B. False 0743008 A 12 13378 31 00080959148609 0040 The anomalous properties of water can be attributed to hydrogen bonding. 9 A. True B. False 0743009 A 12 13380 31 00080958148609 0040 Water is an example of a hydrogen bonded substance. 9 A. True B. False 0743010 A 12 13382 31 00081486049809 0040 Because of hydrogen bonding water has higher boiling point than would be expected for such a substance. 9 A. True B. False 0810001 A 12 13384 51 8003 09 2WVW Thermodynamics is concerned chiefly with the energetics of a reaction. 9 A. True B. False 0810002 B 12 13386 51 8003 09 2WVW Thermodynamics is concerned chiefly with the pathway of a reaction. A. True 9 B. False 0810003 B 12 13388 51 065516710265 0041 The laws of thermodynamics apply only to internal combustion engines. 9 A. True B. False 0811002 A 12 13390 51 05380871028609 0043 In an adiabiatic system q = 0. 9 A. True B. False. 0811003 B 12 13391 51 08710159159809 0009 If a system is carried through a series of steps, each of which involves an energy transfer into or out the system, but finally ends up being identical in every way to the initial system, the total thermal energy transfer must be zero. 9 A. True B. False 0811004 A 12 13395 51 09840470 0041 The first law of thermodynamics is the law of conservation of energy. 9 A. True B. False 0811005 AC 23 13397 31 01610286 119006 ETS2WVW MACROITEM STEM 2For the following questions, evaluate the statements according to 2the key 2 A. An increase of the first will produce An increase in the 2 second. 2 B. An increase of the first will produce a decrease in the 2 second. 2 C. One will remain practically constant regardless of how the 0 other changes. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 Temperature of a liquid--rate of evaporation MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 Amount of heat being applied to the liquid--temperature of a 9 boiling liquid 0811103 CBCBAAC 73 13403 51 038704168001119006 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2Blacken space 2 A. if the item at the left is of greater magnitude than that 2 at the right 2 B. if the item at the right is of greater magnitude than that 2 at the left 0 C. if they are approximately of the same magnitude MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 The work represented The work represented 1 by a dyne centimeter by an erg MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 work required to raise potential energy of the a 10 lb. Object through 10 lb. Object at a vertical 2 a vertical distance of 30 feet height of 300 feet MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 potential energy of an kinetic energy of the object at a height of 30 feet same object the instant before 3 it strikes the earth MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 the mechanical advantage the mechanical advantage of an inclined plane 40 feet of an inclined plane 60 feet long with a vertical height of long with a vertical height 4 2 feet of 2 feet MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 force necessary to move force necessary to move the a 3000 lb. Car up an inclined same car up an inclined plane 40 feet long with plane 60 feet long with 5 a vertical height of 2 feet a vertical height of 2 feet MACRO SUB-ITEM # 6 useful work performed useful work performed in in pulling a coaster pushing on a stalled 6 wagon 30 feet car which you do not move MACRO SUB-ITEM # 7 the amount of energy the work accomplished required to move an object in moving the object a given distance the same distance with with a crowbar, neglecting the crowbar, neglecting 9 friction friction 0811104 BAACCCBCB93 13425 31 1 042903879004119506 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2Figure 4 represents two hills of different slopes. Neglect 2friction and air resistance and assume that potential energy 2is measured from the level of the horizontal line xy. The hill 2on which point m is located is referred to as the upper hill 2and the hill on which points N and O are located is referred to as the lower hill. Assume for the items in which a sled slides 2down either of these hills that it starts from rest at point z. 2Potential energy is equal to mgh and kinetic energy is equal to 3 ___ 21/2 Mv**2. force is equal to Ma, work is equal to force times 2distance, and power is equal to work done per unit of time. 2Mechanical advantage of a frictionless inclined plane is equal to 2the length of the plane divided by the vertical height. 2After the answer sheet number corresponding to that of each 2of the following paired items, blacken space 2 A. if the item at the left is greater than the item at the right 2 B. if the item at the right is greater than the item at the left 0 C. if the two items are of the same magnitude MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 velocity of a person velocity of the same sliding down the upper person when sliding hill on a sled when passing down the lower hill 1 point M when passing point N MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 velocity of a sled while velocity of the same sliding down the lower sled while sliding down hill when it passes point the lower hill when it 2 O passes point N MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 force required to raise force required to pull a sled from y to z the same sled along 3 either hill from x to z MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 work done on a sled in work done on the pulling it along the upper same sled in raising it 4 hill from x to z from y to z MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 work done on a sled in work done on the pulling it along the upper same sled in pulling it hill from x to z along the lower hill 5 from x to z MACRO SUB-ITEM # 6 force required to stop a force required to stop sled at point x after the the same sled at point sled has coasted down X after the sled has 6 the upper hill coasted down the lower hill MACRO SUB-ITEM # 7 the power required to the power required to pull a sled 10 feet up pull the same sled 10 feet the lower hill near point up the lower hill O and in a given amount near point N and in 7 of time the same amount of time MACRO SUB-ITEM # 8 the power required to the power required to pull a sled from x to z pull a sled from x to along the upper hill in z along the lower hill 8 three minutes in three minutes MACRO SUB-ITEM # 9 9 minutes in five minutes 0811105 B 12 13463 51 01690438040709 0043 When solids and liquids alone are involved in a reaction, the work done by the reacting system is generally very small. 9 A. True B. False. 0811106 B 12 13465 31 14860423044209 0040 Energy a particle possesses by virtue of its motion is called potential energy. 9 A. True B. False 0811107 B 12 13467 31 14860511050509 0040 Doubling the speed of a particle doubles its kinetic energy. 9 A. True B. False 0811108 B 12 13469 31 14860511042309 0040 Kinetic energy cannot be converted into potential energy. 9 A. True B. False 0811109 B 12 13471 31 14860423051109 0040 A rolling bowling ball possesses mainly potential energy. 9 A. True B. False 0811110 B 12 13473 31 14860511042309 0040 A wound up watchspring represents kinetic energy. 9 A. True B. False 0811111 B 12 13475 31 14860511016109 0040 The kinetic energy of molecules in hot water is less than that of cold water. 9 A. True B. False 0811112 B 12 13477 31 14860423051109 0040 The potential energy increases when two positively charged particles are separated. 9 A. True B. False 0811113 B 12 13479 51 03870317 0041 Work is done whenever a force is applied. 9 A. True B. False 0811114 ABACAC 63 13480 51 038703170420119006 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2Blacken space 2 A. if the item at the left is of greater magnitude than that 2 at the right 2 B. if the item at the right is of greater magnitude than 2 that at the left 0 C. if they are approximately of the same magnitude MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 the work represented the work represented 1 by one joule by one erg MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 the effort force required the resistance force of to move an object the object being moved 2 with a crowbar by the crowbar MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 the distance traveled by the distance traveled the effort force in moving by the resisting force the object with the in being moved by the 3 crowbar crowbar MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 energy required in energy required in climbing a steep hill climbing the same hill along a longer and less 4 steep path MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 force required to raise force required to raise a piano directly up to a the piano to the window window 6 feet above the along an inclined plane 5 ground 12 feet long MACRO SUB-ITEM # 6 work done in raising work done in raising the piano directly up, the piano along the plane, 9 neglecting friction neglecting friction 0811115 CACCBCC 73 13498 31 1 9004 119506 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2Figure 4 represents two hills of different slopes. Neglect friction 2and air resistance and assume that potential energy is measured 2from the level of the horizontal line xy. The hill on which point 2m is located is referred to as the upper hill and the hill 2on which points N and O are located is referred to as the lower 2hill. Assume for the items in which a sled slides down either of 2these hills that it starts from rest at point z. Potential energy 5 2 is equal to mgh and kinetic energy is equal to 1/2 mv . force 2is equal to ma, work is equal to force times distance, and power 2is equal to work done per unit of time. Mechanical advantage of a 2frictionless inclined plane is equal to the length of the plane 2divided by the vertical height. 2After the answer sheet number corresponding to that of each of 2the following paired items, blacken space 2 A. if the item at the left is greater than the item at the right 2 B. if the item at the right is greater than the item at the left 0 C. if the two items are of the same magnitude MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 potential energy acquired potential energy acquired by a person climbing by the same person climbing 1 the upper hill from x to z the lower hill from x to z MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 potential energy of a potential energy of the person climbing the upper same person climbing 2 hill from x to point M the lower hill from x to N MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 loss of potential energy loss of potential energy of the sled in coasting of the sled in coasting from z to x along the from z to x along the 3 upper hill lower hill MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 loss of potential energy gain in kinetic energy of a sled in sliding from of the same sled in falling 4 z to x along the upper hill freely from z to y MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 kinetic energy of a person kinetic energy of the and sled when coasting same person and sled when past point M on the upper coasting past point N on 5 hill the lower hill MACRO SUB-ITEM # 6 kinetic energy of the kinetic energy of the sled when it has coasted sled when it has coasted down the upper hill and down the lower hill 6 is passing point x and is passing point x MACRO SUB-ITEM # 7 velocity of a person velocity of the same sliding down the upper person sliding down hill when passing point x the lower hill when passing 9 point x 0813001 A 12 13532 51 07290192016109 0043 The enthalpy of a substance always increases with an increase in temperature. 9 A. True B. False. 0813101 CCAABCAB 83 13534 32 020780018003119006 ETS2WVW MACROITEM STEM 2The following paragraphs concern the action of 2a geyser. Read the passage carefully and answer the items by 2using the key. 2A geyser is a hot spring that erupts at intervals. It is made up 2of a more or less crooked, or constricted, tubular fissure that 2extends into the earth and is filled with water. A source of heat 2near the bottom of the fissure heats the water. 2After an eruption the tube fills with water from an underground 2source. The water throughout most of the length of the tube, 2and especially in the lower part, becomes heated to a point 2above the normal boiling temperature (212 degrees F.) of water but 2does not become quite hot enough to turn to steam. However, 2sooner or later, some of the water in the lower part of the tube at 2the source of heat reaches the boiling point and turns to steam. 2The steam raises the whole column of water above it and causes 2some water to overflow from the geyser pool at the surface. 2This overflow acts as a trigger, permitting the whole column 2of water in the tube to flash into steam which blows from the 2fissure in an eruption. 2 A. Statement is true and pertains directly to the action 2 of the geyser. 2 B. Statement is true but is not directly concerned with 2 the action of the geyser. 2 C. Statement is false. 0 _____ MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 Water has one of the lowest specific heats of any common substance. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 The boiling point of water in the bottom of the tube is 2 lower than that at the top. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 The water in the tube does not turn to steam although it is above the normal boiling point because of the 3 pressure of the overlying water. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 More heat is necessary to turn the water to steam at the 4 bottom of the tube than at the top. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 Water vapor at the top of the tube (at the surface of the geyser pool) can be raised above its boiling point soley by the application of more heat after the water has 5 been made to boil. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 6 If salt were added to the water the boiling point of 6 the water would be lowered. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 7 The geyser erupts because the overflow of water releases pressure throughout the whole tube, lowering the boiling point at all levels sufficiently to allow the water to turn 7 to steam. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 8 Air pressure on a fine day is usually higher than on a stormy day. Thus the geyser will erupt more often during 9 stormy weather. 0813102 B 13 13564 32 04580596800111 06 ETS2WVW Cerrous sulfate is more soluble in cold water than in hot water. Therefore, when this compound is dissolved in water, it is likely that heat will be A. absorbed from the surroundings B. given up to the surroundings C. neither absorbed nor given up since there is ordinarily NO 9 connection between heat effect and solubility 0813103 B 12 13569 31 14860504015909 0040 For a pure substance, the gas state represents a lower energy state than the liquid. 9 A. True B. False 0813104 A 12 13571 31 06530387 0003 The work done by 1 mole of water is greater when the water boils than when it freezes. 9 A. True B. False 0813105 B 12 13573 31 1151 0003 When equal masses of ice and liquid water are at equilibrium with each other, their heat contents are the same. 9 A. True B. False 0813106 A 12 13575 31 1151 0003 /\H of fusion is always a positive quantity. 3__ 9 A. True B. False 0813107 D 14 13577 32 1151 0003 Since the molar heat of fusion of water is 1.44 kcal per mole, 1 kcal of heat will melt: A. 0.0799 g of water B. 0.799 g of water 9 C. 7.99 g of water D. 12.5 g water 0813201 B 12 13580 31 04071501080109 0009 In carrying out a reaction in a test tube, a student observes that the test tube becomes cold. He should call the reaction exothermic. 9 A. True B. False 0813202 B 12 13583 32 0729 0003 The enthalpy of water remains constant as the water is heated from its melting point to its boiling point. 9 A. True B. False 0813203 C 14 13585 31 1546 0003 The axes on a cooling curve are: A. pressure and temperature B. pressure and heat 9 C. temperature and time D. pressure and time 0813204 BA 22 13587 32 00310286015390 0009 MACROITEM STEM Given the thermochemical equation: UF (l) -----> UF (g), delta H = +7.2 kcal, 04 6 6 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 one can be sure that at least 7.2 kcal of heat must be produced or evolved when one mole of liquid UF is evaporated. 4 6 1 A. True B. False MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 Another way of writing the thermochemical equation of question in the question above would be: UF (l) + 7.2 kcal -----> UF (g). 4 6 6 9 A. True B. False 0813205 A 12 13594 51 06480161028609 Two objects at different temperatures in a perfectly insulated container are brought into contact but do not react with each other. The final temperature of the objects inside the container can never be lower than the cooler object nor higher than the hotter object. A. True 9 B. False 0813206 B 12 13598 51 06480161028609 Assume that a hot block of metal is dropped into an insulated beaker containing a cooler liquid. Whether the heat lost by the metal equals the heat gained by the liquid depends upon the masses and specific heats of the metal and liquid. A. True 9 B. False 0813207 A 12 13602 51 06480161028609 When a block of solid is dropped into an insulated beaker of liquid, the heat lost by the substance originally at the higher temperature is always exactly equal to the heat gained by the substance initially at the lower temperature. A. True 9 B. False 0813208 A 12 13606 31 0648 09 If an exothermic reaction takes place in an insulated container, the temperature of the contents will be higher at the end of the reaction than it was at the start. A. True 9 B. False 0813209 B 12 13609 31 0648 09 If an endothemic reaction takes place in an insulated container, then the temperature of the contents will be higher at the end of the reaction than it was at the beginning. A. True 9 B. False 0813210 B 12 13612 32 0648 09 If an exothermic reaction takes place in an insulated container, the temperature of the contents will be lower at the end of the reaction than it was at the start. A. True 9 B. False 0813211 A 12 13615 32 0648 09 If an endothermic reaction takes place in an insulated container, then the temperature of the contents will be lower at the end of the reaction than at the beginning. A. True 9 B. False 0813501 A 12 13618 31 08010407028609 0041 All exothermic reactions liberate heat. 9 A. True B. False 0813502 B 12 13619 51 04070801040709 0041 If a certain reaction is exothermic, the reverse reaction will be exothermic also. 9 A. True B. False 0813503 A 12 13621 51 01921306015909 0041 Substances whose decompositions absorb energy are usually stable. 9 A. True B. False 0813504 B 12 13623 52 14350286040709 0009 You would expect that the heat produced in the following reactions would have one and the same numerical value: 9 A. True B. False 0813505 A 12 13625 52 07291291150209 0009 The difference in enthalpy between one mole of Cl and two moles 4 2 of atomic chlorine, Cl, both at one atmosphere pressure and 25 degrees C is equal in magnitude to the heat of bond formation for one mole of Cl . 4 2 9 A. True B. False 0813506 B 12 13630 31 12130407065109 0009 Considering the example reaction: C(s) + O (g) -----> CO (g), 4 2 2 one can always say that the heat of combustion for any substance is the same thing as the so-called heat of formation of that substance. 9 A. True B. False 0813507 B 12 13634 32 14350407073309 0009 One would expect that /\H for the following reaction would be 3 __ smaller (i.e., less negative) than the molar heat of formation of liquid water: 2 H(g) + O(g) -----> H O(l) 4 2 9 A. True B. False 0813508 A 12 13638 31 14860791068309 0040 Evaporation is an endothermic process. 9 A. True B. False 0813509 B 12 13639 31 14860170080109 0040 Sublimation is an exothermic process. 9 A. True B. False 0813510 A 12 13640 51 04070482072909 0009 Reactions which tend to occur of their own accord, proceeding "naturally" or spontaneously, usually involve a decrease in enthalpy. 9 A. True B. False 0813601 B 12 13643 51 02270161040709 0009 The value of K is expected to increase with temperature for any 4 c reaction that has a negative value of delta H. 9 A. True B. False 0815001 B 12 13646 51 07350037098509 0009 Free energies of formation of compounds are positive numbers in most cases. 9 A. True B. False 0815002 B 12 13648 51 04070161072909 0009 If delta H and delta S for a reaction are both negative, we expect delta G to be negative at all temperatures. 9 A. True B. False 0815101 B 12 13650 51 04070735049109 0043 Reactions for which delta G is highly positive have rapid rates. 9 A. True B. False. 0815102 B 12 13652 51 04070735016109 0009 If delta G for a reaction is positive, it is impossible to carry out the reaction unless either the temperature or the pressure is changed. 9 A. True B. False 0815103 A 12 13655 51 08010407048209 0009 Exothermic reactions always become spontaneous as we approach absolute zero. 9 A. True B. False 0815104 A 12 13657 52 07350985150309 0009 The free energies of formation O? Cu O and CuO at 25 degrees C 4 2 and 1 atm are -35 and -30 kcal/mole respectively. This means that Cu O, exposed to oxygen at room temperature, will convert 4 2 spontaneously to CuO. 9 A. True B. False 0815105 A 12 13661 51 04071520016109 0009 Reactions for which delta H and delta S have the same sign will tend to reverse at high temperatures. 9 A. True B. False 0815106 A 12 13663 52 04070482 09 0019 True or false? The following reaction is spontaneous as written 5 2+ 3+ - 2Fe + Br ---> 2 Fe + 2Br 4 2 9 A. True B. False 0815107 A 12 13666 32 04070482 0019 Which is the best reducing agent listed? 5 2+ - A. Ni B. Ni C. F D. F 4 2 True or false? The following reaction is spontaneous as written. 5 3+ - 2+ 2 Fe + 2 I ---> I + 2 Fe 4 2 9 A. True B. False 0815108 A 12 13671 31 14860482087009 0040 A process will be spontaneous if the energy decreases and the entropy increases. 9 A. True B. False 0815109 B 12 13673 51 01140407048209 0009 At 25 degrees C and 1 atmosphere pressure, the reaction between N and O is spontaneous. 4 2 2 9 A. True B. False 0815110 B 12 13675 32 0735 0003 Delta G of freezing ice at 0 degrees C is equal to zero. 9 A. True B. False 0815111 B 12 13677 32 0735 0003 Delta G of freezing ice at 10 degrees C is less than zero. 9 A. True B. False 0815301 A 12 13679 51 02270407068309 0043 If the equilibrium constant for a reaction increases as the temperature is increased, the reaction must be endothermic. 9 A. True B. False. 0815302 B 12 13681 51 0245 09 0043 5 o At equilibrium /\G = 0. 3 __ 9 A. True B. False. 0815303 B 12 13683 51 08710245073509 0043 5 o For a system at equilibrium delta G = delta G . 9 A. True B. False. 0815304 A 12 13685 52 06000189040709 0009 For the decomposition of water to the elements at 25 degrees C and 1 atm, delta G = +56.7 kcal. This means that at least 56.7 kcal of work has to be supplied to make this reaction go. 9 A. True B. False 0815305 A 12 13688 31 07350490 0003 At the triple point of water, the solid, liquid, and gaseous phases all have the same free energy. 9 A. True B. False 0815306 B 12 13690 31 0490 0003 The triple-point temperature of water is: A. 100.01 degrees C B. -0.01 degrees C 9 C. 0.01 degrees C D. 99.99 degrees C 0815307 A 14 13692 51 0490 0003 The normal melting point of CO is: 4 2 A. below the triple-point temperature B. above the triple-point temperature C. above the critical temperature 9 D. nonexistent 0817001 A 13 13695 31 040708708003 06 2WVW If the chemical reaction below proceeds from left to right, there will be ______ in the entropy of the reaction system. 2 HOH (gas) = 2 H (gas) + O (gas) 2 2 A. an increase B. a decrease 9 C. no appreciable change 0817002 B 13 13699 31 040708708003 06 2WVW If the chemical reaction below proceeds from left to right, there will be ________ in the entropy of the reaction system. 2 NO + O = 2 NO 4 2 2 A. an increase B. a decrease 9 C. no appreciable change 0817003 A 13 13703 31 040708708003 06 2WVW The change in entropy for the reaction P(Cl) = P(Cl) + (Cl) 4 5 3 2 should be A. positive B. negative 9 C. zero 0817004 B 13 13706 31 040708708003 06 2WVW (Cu)SO + H O = (Cu)SO (H O) should be 4 4 2 4 2 A. positive B. negative 9 C. zero 0817005 C 13 13708 31 040708708003 06 2WVW The reaction 2 SO + O = 2 SO should proceed from left to right 4 2 2 3 with________in entropy. A. no change B. an increase 9 C. a decrease 0817006 B 13 13711 31 040708708003 06 2WVW If the chemical reaction below proceeds from left to right, there will be________in the entropy of the reaction system. N + 3 H = 2 NH 4 2 2 3 A. an increase B. a decrease 9 C. no appreciable change 0817007 A 13 13715 31 040708708003 06 2WVW If the chemical reaction below proceeds from left to right, there will be ________ in the entropy of the reaction system. N O = 2 NO 4 2 4 2 A. an increase B. a decrease 9 C. no appreciable change 0817008 B 13 13719 31 040708708003 06 2WVW If the chemical reaction below proceeds from left to right, there will be________in the entropy of the reaction system. 2 CO + O = 2 CO 4 2 2 A. an increase B. a decrease 9 C. no appreciable change 0817009 A 13 13723 31 040708708003 06 2WVW If the chemical reaction below proceeds from left to right, there will be ________ in the entropy of the reaction system. 2 N O = 2 N + O 4 2 2 2 A. an increase B. a decrease 9 C. no appreciable change 0817010 B 13 13727 31 040708708003 06 2WVW If the chemical reaction below proceeds from left to right, there will be ________ in the entropy of the reaction system. (Cl) + 3 F = 2 (Cl)F 4 2 2 3 A. an increase B. a decrease 9 C. no appreciable change 0817011 B 13 13731 31 040708708003 06 2WVW If the chemical reaction proceeds from left to right, there will be ________ in the entropy of the reaction system. HCl(g) + NH (g) = NH (+)Cl(-) (s) 4 3 4 A. an increase B. a decrease 9 C. no appreciable change 0817012 A 13 13735 31 087007878003 06 2WVW The change in entropy for the process H O(s) = H O(l) will be 4 2 2 A. positive B. negative 9 C. zero 0817013 B 13 13738 31 087080030407 06 2WVW Given that the reaction shown below proceeds from left to right, there will be _____________in the entropy of the reaction system. P (g) + 5O (g) = P O (s) 4 4 2 4 10 9 A. an increase B. a decrease C. no appreciable change 0817014 B 13 13742 31 040708708003 06 2WVW If the chemical reaction proceeds from left to right, there will be ________ in the entropy of the reaction system. 2 Na (s) + Cl (g) = 2 Na(+)Cl(-) (s) 4 2 A. an increase B. a decrease 9 C. no appreciable change 0817015 A 13 13746 31 064707878003 06 2WVW The change in entropy for the process, S (g) = 6 S(g), will be 4 6 A. positive B. negative 9 C. zero 0817016 C 13 13749 31 065580030870 06 2WVW The second law of thermodynamics states that for any real process the entropy of the ________ increases. A. system B. surroundings 9 C. universe 0817017 C 13 13752 51 040708708003 06 2WVW If the chemical reaction below proceeds from left to right, there will be ________ in the entropy of the reaction system. PF (trigonal bypyramid) = pF (square pyramid) 4 5 5 A. an increase B. a decrease 9 C. no appreciable change 0817018 C 13 13756 51 040708708003 06 2WVW If the chemical reaction below proceeds from left to right, there will be ________ in the entropy of the reaction system. Cis-2-butene (C H ) - trans-2-butene (C H ) 4 4 6 4 6 A. an increase B. a decrease 9 C. no appreciable change 0817019 A 13 13760 31 040708708003 06 2WVW If the chemical reaction below proceeds from left to right, there will be ______ in the entropy of the reaction system. 2 HOH (gas) = 2 H (gas) + O (gas) 4 2 2 A. an increase B. a decrease 9 C. no appreciable change 0817020 B 13 13764 31 040708708003 06 2WVW If the chemical reaction below proceeds from left to right, there will be ________ in the entropy of the reaction system. 2 NO + O = 2 NO 4 2 2 A. an increase B. a decrease 9 C. no appreciable change 0817021 A 13 13768 31 040708708003 06 2WVW The change in entropy for the reaction P(Cl) = P(Cl) + (Cl) 4 5 3 2 should be A. positive B. negative 9 C. zero 0817022 B 13 13771 31 040708708003 06 2WVW The change in entropy for the reaction (Cu)SO + H O = (Cu)SO (H O) should be 4 4 2 4 2 A. positive B. negative 9 C. zero 0817023 C 13 13774 31 040708708003 06 2WVW The reaction 2 SO + O = 2 SO should proceed from left to right 4 2 2 3 with________in entropy. A. no change B. an increase 9 C. a decrease 0817024 B 13 13777 31 040708708003 06 2WVW If the chemical reaction below proceeds from left to right, there will be________in the entropy of the reaction system. N + 3 H = 2 NH 4 2 2 3 A. an increase B. a decrease 9 C. no appreciable change 0817025 A 13 13781 31 040708708003 06 2WVW If the chemical reaction below proceeds from left to right, there will be ________ in the entropy of the reaction system. N O = 2 NO 4 2 4 2 A. an increase B. a decrease 9 C. no appreciable change 0817026 B 13 13785 31 040708708003 06 2WVW If the chemical reaction below proceeds from left to right, there will be________in the entropy of the reaction system. 2 CO + O = 2 CO 4 2 2 A. an increase B. a decrease 9 C. no appreciable change 0817027 A 13 13789 31 040708708003 06 2WVW If the chemical reaction below proceeds from left to right, there will be ________ in the entropy of the reaction system. 2 N O = 2 N + O 4 2 2 2 A. an increase B. a decrease 9 C. no appreciable change 0817028 B 13 13793 31 040708708003 06 2WVW If the chemical reaction below proceeds from left to right, there will be ________ in the entropy of the reaction system. (Cl) + 3 F = 2 (Cl)F 4 2 2 3 A. an increase B. a decrease 9 C. no appreciable change 0817029 B 13 13797 31 040708708003 06 2WVW If the chemical reaction proceeds from left to right, there will be ________ in the entropy of the reaction system. HCl(g) + NH (g) = NH (+)Cl(-) (s) 4 3 4 A. an increase B. a decrease 9 C. no appreciable change 0817030 A 13 13801 31 087007878003 06 2WVW The change in entropy for the process H o(s) = H o(l) will be 4 2 2 A. positive B. negative 9 C. zero 0817031 B 13 13804 31 087080030407 06 2WVW If the chemical reaction proceeds from left to right, there will be ________ in the entropy of the reaction system. P (s) + 5O (g) = P O (s) 4 4 2 4 10 A. an increase B. a decrease 9 C. no appreciable change 0817032 B 13 13808 31 040708708003 06 2WVW If the chemical reaction proceeds from left to right, there will be ________ in the entropy of the reaction system. 2 Na (s) + Cl (g) = 2 Na(+)Cl(-) (s) 4 2 A. an increase B. a decrease 9 C. no appreciable change 0817033 A 13 13812 31 064707878003 06 2WVW The change in entropy for the process, S (g) = 6 S(g), will be 4 6 A. positive B. negative 9 C. zero 0817035 C 13 13815 51 040708708003 06 2WVW If the chemical reaction below proceeds from left to right, there will be ________ in the entropy of the reaction system. PF (trigonal bypyramid) = PF (square pyramid) 4 5 5 A. an increase B. a decrease 9 C. no appreciable change 0817036 C 13 13819 51 040708708003 06 2WVW If the chemical reaction below proceeds from left to right, there will be ________ in the entropy of the reaction system. Cis-2-butene (C H ) - trans-2-butene (C H ) 4 4 6 4 6 A. an increase B. a decrease 9 C. no appreciable change 0817037 B 12 13823 51 01920482087009 0043 When any substance undergoes a spontaneous change, its entropy increases. 9 A. True B. False. 0817038 A 12 13825 51 01920870 09 0043 When any substance melts, its entropy increases. 9 A. True B. False. 0817039 A 12 13827 51 0870 09 0043 The entropy of a martini is greater than the total entropy of the gin and vermouth out of which it was made. 9 A. True B. False. 0817040 A 12 13829 51 04070870058309 0009 For the reaction: PCl (g) -----> PCl (g) + Cl (g), delta S is 4 5 3 2 positive. 9 A. True B. False 0817041 A 12 13831 31 11110870 09 0009 Automobiles increase in entropy with age. 9 A. True B. False 0817042 A 12 13832 51 07871435072909 0009 For the process CO (s) -----> CO (g), we expect both delta H and 4 2 2 delta S to be positive. 9 A. True B. False 0817043 B 12 13834 52 08700407059509 0009 The sign of the entropy change for the reaction: 5 2+ Ni (aq) + dimethylglyoxime -----> chelate(s) is expected to be negative. 9 A. True B. False 0817044 B 12 13837 31 14860870135909 0040 A high entropy corresponds to a high degree of order for a system. 9 A. True B. False 0817045 A 12 13839 31 14860870135909 0040 The entropy of a coed class is greater than one containing men only. 9 A. True B. False 0817046 A 12 13841 31 0870 0003 Delta S of freezing is always a negative quantity. 9 A. True B. False 0817047 A 12 13843 32 0870 0003 The entropy of a disordered pile of bricks on the ground would be greater than the entropy of the same bricks in a wall 9 A. True B. False 0820001 A 12 13845 31 00870089031509 0041 All solutions of electrolytes conduct electricity. 9 A. True B. False 0820002 B 12 13847 31 14860013008709 0040 Electrolysis can only be performed on solutions. 9 A. True B. False 0821001 B 12 13849 31 14860013002109 0040 In electrolysis, the process occurring at the cathode is oxidation. 9 A. True B. False 0821002 B 12 13851 31 00290574059709 0009 In any cell, electrolytic or voltaic, the cathode is the negative electrode. 9 A. True B. False 0821003 A 12 13853 31 00300597 0041 An anode is a positive electrode. 9 A. True B. False 0822001 B 12 13854 31 01890438017809 0041 The liberation of free elements from liquids by the passage of an electric current is called neutralization. 9 A. True B. False 0822002 A 12 13856 31 00130018008709 0041 Electrolysis can be carried out in molten salts as well as in water solutions. 9 A. True B. False 0822003 B 12 13858 51 15890013 09 0041 Electroplating is the reverse of electrolysis. 9 A. True B. False 0822004 A 12 13859 31 07430385018509 0041 The Faraday is essentially a unit of electric charge. 9 A. True B. False 0822005 A 12 13861 32 00870013006109 0043 If a solution of KBr is electrolyzed, it becomes more basic. 9 A. True B. False. 0822006 A 12 13863 32 012505970574 0019 You wish to silver plate a spoon. Which electrode do you make the spoon? 9 A. cathode B. anode 0822007 B 12 13865 51 15810597158209 0009 The phrase "cathodic protection" refers to the common practice of enclosing fragile metal electrodes in plexiglass to prevent them from being broken. 9 A. True B. False 0822008 A 12 13868 32 00130087055309 0009 5 - In the electrolysis of a water solution of Nacl, one mole of OH 5 - is produced for every mole of cl consumed. 9 A. True B. False 0822009 B 12 13872 52 00130087074309 0009 5 3- In the electrolysis of a solution of Ag(S O ) , three Faradays 4 2 3 2 of electricity are required to form one mole of silver. 9 A. True B. False 0823001 B 12 13876 52 14860013085709 0040 Platinum cannot be plated from solution by electrolysis. 9 A. True B. False 0823101 B 12 13878 31 10551448000709 0009 A species with a large positive standard oxidation potential will be a strong oxidizing agent. 9 A. True B. False 0823102 B 12 13880 31 11910029040709 0009 The voltage of a cell in which the reaction: 5 + 2+ Cu(s) + 2 Ag (aq) -----> Cu (aq) + 2 Ag(s) occurs will be, at 5 + standard concentrations: s.o.p. Cu + 2 x s.r.p. Ag 9 A. True B. False 0823301 A 12 13884 51 04070138157909 0009 Reactions which are readily reversed by a small change in concentration are ones in which E is close to zero. 9 A. True B. False 0823501 B 12 13886 31 01890021041609 0043 Any element with an oxidation potential less than that of zinc will liberate H from water. 4 2 9 A. True B. False. 0823502 B 12 13888 51 153600010015 0009 5 + The standard reduction potentials of F and Ag are +2.87v and 4 2 5 - +0.80v respectively. We conClude that F is a better reducing agent than Ag metal. 9 A. True B. False 0826001 A 12 13892 32 14860751059709 0040 The container serves as an electrode in some cells. 9 A. True B. False 0826002 B 12 13894 51 15841585117809 0009 The purpose of the iron screen in the downs cell is to prevent 5 + - Na and Cl ions from coming in contact with each other. 9 A. True B. False 0826101 B 12 13897 31 03330178016209 0041 Batteries produce electric current by means of oxidation reduction reactions. 9 A. True B. False 0826102 A 12 13899 51 01541193024709 0041 The chemical changes that occur in a lead-acid storage battery when it is charged by an external current are the opposite of those that occur when it is discharged. 9 A. True B. False 0826103 A 12 13902 31 14860333034309 0040 In the lead-acid battery used in automobiles, a single electrolyte is employed. 9 A. True B. False 0826104 B 12 13904 31 14860333034309 0040 The lead-acid battery used in automobiles is in reality made up of a single cell. 9 A. True B. False 0826105 A 12 13906 31 0333 0159 0041 A battery is a device for converting chemical energy into electrical energy.00 9 A. True B. False 0826301 B 12 13908 51 15830196 09 0041 A fuel cell is a storage chamber for hydrogen. 9 A. True B. False 0826302 B 12 13909 31 14860751 09 0040 Fuel cells are quite efficient. 9 A. True B. False 0910001 B 13 13910 31 019910580552 0026 The most common simple sugar is 9 A. sucrose B. d-glucose C. sucrose molecules. 0910002 B 12 13912 31 03941486 09 0040 Low molecular weight hydrocarbons are usually solids. 9 A. True B. False 0910003 B 12 13914 31 08901486 09 0040 An alkyne contains at least one double bond. 9 A. True B. False 0910004 A 12 13915 31 06950882148609 0040 Isomers are substances that have the same structure but different formulas. 9 A. True B. False 0910005 B 12 13917 31 06780394148609 0040 Ethane and ethene are both unsatureated hydrocarbons. 9 A. True B. False 0910006 B 12 13919 31 08880889148609 0040 Alkenes always contain more carbon atoms than alkanes. 9 A. True B. False 0910007 B 12 13921 31 14861509 09 0040 Cyclohexane is an aromatic compound. 9 A. True B. False 0910008 B 12 13922 31 14860889 09 0040 The general formula for alkanes is C H . 4 n 2n 9 A. True B. False 0911001 B 12 13924 32 10001661170609 0041 Nitroglycerin is an ester. 9 A. True B. False 0911002 A 12 13925 31 05350394124809 0041 Alcohols are hydrocarbon derivatives in which one or more H atoms in a hydrocarbon molecule have been replaced by OH groups 9 A. True B. False 0911003 B 12 13927 51 00660678011009 0041 Unsaturated compounds are unlimited in their solubility in water. 9 A. True B. False 0911004 A 12 13929 51 06951254132109 0041 Isomers have the same molecular formulas but different structural ones. 9 A. True B. False 0911005 B 12 13931 31 00660393 09 0041 Octane is the name of a compound added to gasoline to prevent it from freezing in cold weather. 9 A. True B. False 0911006 B 12 13933 51 17070394016909 0041 The paraffin hydrocarbons are all waxy solids. 9 A. True B. False 0911007 B 12 13934 51 03820701007709 0041 Organic acids, like inorganic acids, are often strong acids. 9 A. True B. False 0911008 B 12 13936 52 00140351085309 0041 The carbon atoms in the ring structures of benzene hydrocarbons are actually joined to one another with alternate single and double bonds 9 A. True B. False 0911009 B 12 13939 51 10000382008909 0041 Esters are the organic analogs of salts and therefore are electrolytes. 9 A. True B. False 0911011 A 12 13942 51 17070394013009 0041 The paraffin hydrocarbons are saturated because their structures contain only single bonds. 9 A. True B. False 0911012 B 13 13944 51 07661244 0019 How many optically active tartaric acids are there? 9 A. one B. two C. three 0911013 A 13 13946 51 124500660407 0019 The enantiomer of a compound produced by reaction of a d acid with an l base is -------. A. d acid - d base B. l acid- l base 9 C. l acid - d base 0911014 B 12 13949 31 12540889 09 0009 The molecular formula C H represents an alkane. 4 5 10 9 A. True B. False 0911015 B 12 13951 32 15080695 09 0009 The hydrocarbon C H shows cis-trans isomerism. 4 4 10 9 A. True B. False 0911016 B 12 13953 31 06950067 0043 Isomers have identical properties. 9 A. True B. False 0913001 B 12 13954 51 06740394048509 0041 Polymerization is the heating of heavy hydrocarbons under pressure in the presence of catalysts in order to break them down into simpler molecules. 9 A. True B. False 0913002 C 13 13957 31 070011440674 0026 Which is the monomer unit in (-CH -CH -CH -CH -), polyethylene? 4 2 2 2 2 A. -H - B. -CH - C. -CH -CH - D. -C- E. -CH -CH -CH - 94 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 0913101 B 12 13961 31 11440196039809 0009 In polyethylene, (CH ) , hydrogen accounts for 2/3 of the mass. 4 2 n 9 A. True B. False 0913701 B 13 13963 51 019101990401 0026 The complete hydrolysis of amylopectin yields 9 A. dextrins B. d-glucose C. sucrose molecules. 0913702 B 13 13965 31 07851068 0026 Essential amino acids are: A. those that contain sulfur B. those that the body cannot manufacture in sufficient amounts 9 C. those that contain complex ring structures in the molecule. 0913703 B 13 13968 31 06790785 0026 The fibrous protein found in mammalian tissue is: 9 A. d-deoxyribose B. collagen C. hemoglobin. 0920001 B 13 13970 31 00180785 0026 Meat can be preserved by generous amounts of salt. This is due to the fact that, A. microorganisms can not eat salt B. the salt forms a hypertonic solution which dehydrates a microorganism C. the salt creates an aneorobic situation in the meat, SO 9 bacteria can not grow. 0920002 B 13 13974 51 125712561258 0019 The iodine number of a triglyceride consisting only of oleic acid is -------- one consisting of only linolenic acid. 9 A. larger than B. smaller than C. the same as 0920003 E 15 13977 51 1266 0019 Lycopene is a -----------. A. monoterpene B. diterpene C. triterpene 9 D. sesquiterpene E. tetraterpene 0920004 C 13 13979 51 126709760988 0019 Adenine is contained in ---------. 9 A. DNA only B. RNA only C. DNA and RNA 0920005 B 13 13981 51 09730988 0019 Uracil is contained in -------------. 9 A. DNA only B. RNA only C. DNA and RNA 0920006 A 13 13983 51 126709751268 0019 Adenine forms a base pair with 9 A. thymine B. cytosine C. guanine 0920007 A 12 13985 31 14861035103409 0040 Some antibiotics do not themselves kill bacteria. 9 A. True B. False 0920008 A 12 13987 31 14861035103409 0040 A number of antibiotics are produced by soil organisms. 9 A. True B. False 0920009 A 12 13989 31 14861027052909 0040 The original sulfa drug was related to a chemical dye. 9 A. True B. False 0920010 A 12 13991 51 14861027 09 0040 The illegal drug heroin is closely related in structure to codeine and morphine. 9 A. True B. False 0920011 A 12 13993 31 14861735173609 0040 Penicillin was originally isolated from a mold. 9 A. True B. False 0920012 B 12 13995 31 14861027173009 0040 Tranquilizers are mild analgesics. 9 A. True B. False 0920013 A 12 13996 31 14861027 09 0040 Sedatives relax a patient while producing drowsiness. 9 A. True B. False 0920014 B 12 13998 31 14861082 09 0040 The path followed by a nerve impulse from the brain to an organ is continuous. 9 A. True B. False 0920015 B 12 14000 31 14861082 09 0040 All sympathetic nerves originate in the same part of the spinal cord. 9 A. True B. False 0920016 B 12 14002 31 14861027 09 0040 In normal surgical operations today, a single drug is used to produce sleep and anesthesia. 9 A. True B. False 0921001 B 12 14004 31 10721115011709 0041 Hemoglobin is a valuable nutrient found in milk. 9 A. True B. False 0921002 A 12 14006 51 04010014019609 0041 All carbohydrates contain only carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen. 9 A. True B. False 0921003 B 12 14008 51 06980401 09 0041 Chlorophyll is the most important carbohydrate found in plants. 9 A. True B. False 0921004 A 12 14010 51 01590796 09 0041 Plants store energy in the form of starch. 9 A. True B. False 0921005 A 12 14011 51 0401 09 0041 Lobster shells are largely carbohydrate. 9 A. True B. False 0921006 A 12 14012 51 08401710 09 0041 Fats are lipids. 9 A. True B. False 0921007 B 12 14013 51 06790293106809 0041 A protein molecule consists of 23 amino acid units joined together. 9 A. True B. False 0921008 A 12 14015 51 11710679129609 0041 Skin, muscles, hair, and nails contain insoluble proteins. 9 A. True B. False 0921009 B 12 14017 52 06790952 09 0041 Heating a protein turns it into a nucleic acid. 9 A. True B. False 0921010 B 12 14019 52 08650679129609 0041 9 A. True B. False 0921011 B 12 14020 51 10021711097609 0041 The sequence of nitrogen bases in a DNA molecule determines the properties of the cell in which it is located. 9 A. True B. False 0921012 A 13 14022 51 098001911248 0019 Treatment of gly-leu-val with 2,4-dinitrofluorobenzene followed by complete hydrolysis will yield a derivative of 9 A. glycine B. leucine C. valine 0921013 C 13 14025 51 098012490977 0019 Treatment of gly-leu-val with hydrazine will yield hydrazides of A. glycine and leucine B. leucine and valine 9 C. glycine, leucine and valine 0921014 B 13 14028 51 084012600675 0019 Fats become rancid ------- oils. 9 A. faster than B. slower than C. at the same rate as 0921015 B 13 14030 51 127612770128 0019 Pepsin is of -------- molecular mass as/than pepsinogen. 9 A. larger B. smaller C. same 0921016 B 12 14032 31 14861723107809 0040 Cholesterol is a sex hormone. 9 A. True B. False 0921017 A 12 14033 51 14861726084009 0040 Waxes and fats are chemically both esters. 9 A. True B. False 0921018 A 12 14034 31 14860191172209 0040 The hydrolysis of disaccharides yields other sugars. 9 A. True B. False 0921019 B 12 14036 31 14860996019109 0040 Cows possess the enzyme necessary to hydrolyze cellulose. 9 A. True B. False 0921020 A 12 14038 31 14861053164309 0040 Cellulose is a polysaccharide. 9 A. True B. False 0921021 A 12 14039 31 14860675084009 0040 Solid cooking shortening can be made from vegetable oils. 9 A. True B. False 0921022 A 12 14041 31 14861710067509 0040 Waxes and oils are both classes of lipids. 9 A. True B. False 0921023 B 12 14042 31 14860796171009 0040 Starch is a lipid. 9 A. True B. False 0921024 A 12 14043 31 14860199172209 0040 The sugar glucose is a hexone. 9 A. True B. False 0921025 B 12 14044 31 14860840126009 0040 Fats and oils go rancid due to the formation of steroids. 9 A. True B. False 0921026 B 12 14046 31 14860840017209 0040 Fats usually have lower melting points than oils. 9 A. True B. False 0921027 A 12 14048 31 14860840013009 0040 The fats obtained from animal sources contain high percentages of saturated fatty acids. 9 A. True B. False 0921028 A 12 14050 31 14860675019109 0040 Complete hydrolysis of an oil will always yield glycerol. 9 A. True B. False 0921029 A 12 14052 31 14861009019109 0040 Saponification is a hydrolysis reaction involving carbohydrates and a strong base. 9 A. True B. False 0921030 A 12 14054 31 14860675067009 0040 Liquid vegetable oil may be solidified using a hydrogenation reaction. 9 A. True B. False 0921031 A 15 14056 31 14860679110709 0040 The permanent waving of hair involves reversible protein denaturation. 9 A. True B. False 0921032 A 12 14058 31 14860679067409 0040 Protein is a natural polymer. 9 A. True B. False 0921033 B 12 14059 31 14861489067909 0040 The helical arrangement of protein chains is an example of primary structure. 9 A. True B. False 0921034 B 12 14061 31 06791486095909 0040 Hydrogen bonding is involved in the primary structure of a protein. 9 A. True B. False 0921035 B 12 14063 31 14860679040109 0040 Proteins and carbohydrates are stored in the body as energy reserves. 9 A. True B. False 0921036 B 12 14065 31 14861073106809 0040 Vitamins are amino acids that the body cannot manufacture. 9 A. True B. False 0921037 B 12 14067 31 14861107067909 0040 Denaturation of a protein involves the rupturing of peptide linkages. 9 A. True B. False 0921038 B 12 14069 31 14861068156409 0040 The sequence of amin acids in a polypeptide is called the secondary structure. 9 A. True B. False 0921039 A 12 14071 31 14860979097809 0040 More than one type of RNA is known. 9 A. True B. False 0921040 B 12 14072 31 14861068126909 0040 Only one codon exists for each amino acid. 9 A. True B. False 0921041 A 12 14073 31 14861727019109 0040 The most common reaction of digestion is hydrolysis. 9 A. True B. False 0921042 B 12 14075 31 14861727019109 0040 Saliva initiates the digestive hydrolysis of starch. 9 A. True B. False 0921043 B 12 14077 31 14860952048509 0040 Nucleic acids are specific catalysts for chemical reactions occurring within a cell. 9 A. True B. False 0921044 B 12 14079 31 14860976067909 0040 DNA supplies directly to the cell the information necessary to 3 ________ synthesize proteins. 9 A. True B. False 0921045 B 12 14081 31 14860976098809 0040 The backbone of an RNA molecule is identical to that of a DNA molecule. 9 A. True B. False 0921046 A 12 14083 31 14860261007709 0040 CO is important in normal acid-base balance of the body. 4 2 9 A. True B. False 0921047 B 12 14085 31 14860988098609 0040 RNA is the compound of which genes are composed. 9 A. True B. False 0921048 A 12 14087 31 14861729098109 0040 Ribosomes are the site where protein synthesis takes place. 9 A. True B. False 0921049 B 12 14089 31 14861268097309 0040 The bases thymine and uracil can be found in the same nucleic acid. 9 A. True B. False 0921050 A 12 14091 31 14861088067909 0040 Some antiseptics attack infectious organisms by denaturing their protein. 9 A. True B. False 0921051 A 12 14093 31 14860996040009 0040 Enzyme inhibition is a mode of action for some poisons. 9 A. True B. False 0921052 B 12 14095 51 04010674037809 0009 Carbohydrate polymers are synthesized only by plants. 9 A. True B. False 0921053 A 12 14097 51 01910679109809 0009 The hydrolysis of proteins (breakage of the peptide links with insertion of water molecules) will always result in the formation of equal numbers of -NH and -CO H groups. 4 2 2 9 A. True B. False 0921054 B 12 14101 51 09880976156909 0009 Cellular RNA can be thought of as an exact copy of DNA. 9 A. True B. False 0922001 A 12 14103 51 00211710015909 0041 The oxidation of lipids yields more energy than the oxidation of carbohydrates. 9 A. True B. False 0922002 A 12 14105 51 04610194 09 0043 Vanadium is used in steel alloys. 9 A. True B. False 0923001 B 12 14106 51 09960401048509 0041 Enzymes are specialized carbohydrates that act as biochemical catalysts. 9 A. True B. False 0923002 B 13 14108 51 127801911098 0019 Trypsin is necessary to hydrolyze -----------. 9 A. carboxydrates B. peptides C. acid esters 0923003 A 12 14110 31 14860996048509 0040 Enzymes are biological catalysts. 9 A. True B. False 0923004 A 12 14111 31 14861007164109 0040 Apoenzymes need coenzymes in order to function properly. 9 A. True B. False 0924001 B 12 14113 51 04010261069809 0041 Plants manufacture carbohydrates from carbon dioxide and chlorophyll. 9 A. True B. False 0924002 B 12 14115 51 00210159020009 0041 The oxidation of glucose in living matter to yield energy is an example of photosynthesis. 9 A. True B. False 0924003 B 12 14117 52 10680830040109 0041 Amino acids are synthesized in the human body from carbohydrates. 9 A. True B. False 0924004 A 12 14119 51 0616 086509 0041 X-rays can change the heredity of an organism by altering the structure of its DNA molecules. 9 A. True B. False 0924005 C 13 14121 51 012611300400 0026 Cyanide ion acts primarily by, A. precipitating valuable iron as Fe(CN) 4 2 B. blocking aconitase enzyme 9 C. by tying up oxidative enzymes. 0924006 A 13 14124 51 127912800159 0019 The aerobic metabolism of pyruvic acid yields ----- energy as/than the anaerobic metabolism. 9 A. more B. less C. the same 0924007 A 12 14126 31 14860091078509 0040 The pH of the stomach is quite high. 9 A. True B. False 0924008 B 12 14127 51 10380679015909 0009 In animals, proteins serve primarily to store energy. 9 A. True B. False 0924009 A 12 14129 52 02000407001709 0009 The net photosynthetic reaction, CO + H O -----> glucose + O , involves a reduction 4 2(g) 2 (g) (s) 2(g) of carbon. 9 A. True B. False 0924010 A 12 14132 51 10680946001509 0009 The alpha-amino acids might generally be expected to form chelates with metal atoms. 9 A. True B. False 0924011 B 12 14134 52 00871068009109 0009 The water solution of any amino acid which contains only one basic functional group and one acidic group is expected to have a pH of 7. 9 A. true B. False 0924012 B 12 14137 52 07350830065509 0009 The formation of an enzyme from amino acids has a positive free energy change. The fact that the synthesis of enzymes occurs in a living organism is a contradiction of the laws of thermodynamics. 9 A. True B. False 0930001 B 12 14140 31 14860032 09 0040 Copper is used in greater quantities than any other metal. 9 A. True B. False 0931001 B 12 14142 51 05980001147309 0043 Chromium plating is durable because chromium is a very poor reducing agent. 9 A. True B. False 0931002 B 12 14144 51 11670161021809 0043 Nitrogen reacts with hydrogen more rapidly at moderate temperatures than at high ones. 9 A. True B. False 0931003 B 12 14146 31 00360468019609 0043 Water gas consists of a mixture of steam and hydrogen. 9 A. True B. false. 0931004 B 12 14148 31 14860056104009 0040 Sulfuric acid is produced in greater quantity than any other chemical. 9 A. True B. False 0931005 B 12 14150 31 14860006 09 0040 Cl is used extensively in fertilizer production. 4 2 9 A. True B. False 0931006 A 12 14152 31 14860164039409 0040 Chlorination of hydrocarbons is the main market for chlorine. 9 A. True B. False 0931007 B 12 14154 31 14860215046109 0040 Steel-making is the dominant consumer of NaOH. 9 A. True B. False 0933001 CABB 43 14155 52 033602300335149006 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2Glass is a solid material of great hardness and amazing stability 2that is made by fusing a batch of dry, powdered, or granular 2inorganic chemical compounds. Usually, 60% or more of sand with 2various percentages of two or more oxides of Na, Ca, K, Pb, Mg, and 2Al is heated in a refractory container, until a bubbling syrup 2is formed at a blinding white heat by the mutual solution of the 2metal oxides. Heating is continued at a lower temperature until 2the bubbles disappear and the syrup becomes homogeneous. Then, 2if the formula is a good one, if the melting or fusing has been 2correct, and if the cooling is done properly, the syrup will 2stiffen continuously from its liquid or molten state at about 22700 degrees F. to a hard, rigid solid at room temperature without 2any crystallization taking place. 2Soda-lime glasses are used for 90 per cent of all glassware. Their 2raw materials are the least expensive and they are among the 2easiest to melt and shape. 2Lead oxide is a good fluxing agent and in percentages of 20 and 40 2it can replace most or all of the lime and some of the soda or 2alkali content. This gives glasses greater sparkle and makes 2them easier to cut and engrave. They are used to make fine 2tableware and art-glass. About 1758, John Colland realized that the 2higher index of refraction of a lead glass, that accounts for its 2higher sparkle and luster, makes possible compound lenses that are achromatic. 2Fused quartz or fused silica glass (99.8% silica) can be made by 2fusing a batch consisting solely of quartz crystals or of sand 2(impure crystals of quartz). in this type, unfortunately, the 2fusing or melting temperature is as high (about 3150 degrees F.) 2as that of the crystalline raw materials. This requires special 2melting methods and the molten glass is so viscous that it is 2difficult to make it homogeneous and free of bubbles. 2Borosilicate glasses are a type in which the melting point of 2the silica is lowered by the addition of boric oxide, b2o3, and in smaller amount alumina, Al O , with only the smallest possible 4 2 3 2amount of alkali. It is intrinsically superior to corrosion and to 2breakage from heat shock, but is more difficult to manufacture and 2work. Borosilicates have ample margin of heat shock resistance, 2some of which can be sacrificed in making articles that are 2thicker walled and thus mechanically stronger. 296% Silica glasses were developed by corning in 1939. first, the 2article is formed from a conventional borosilicate glass. Then a 2heat treatment causes the glass to separate into two 2intermingled glassy phases. One phase contains nearly all of the 2alkalies and can be leached out by hot acids to leave a sponge-like 2glass containing 96% silica and 3% B O . The leached glass is so 3 2 3 2refractory that subsequent heating can close the pores completely 2without any change of the shape of the article even though there is 2a linear shrinkage of about 14%. These glasses can be used at a red 2heat and plunged into ice water repeatedly without cracking. 2The following questions are to be answered after reading the above 2paragraphs and in reference to the following key. 2 A. The statement is true and the reason supports the truth of it. 2 B. The statement is true but the reason does not support the 2 truth of it. 0 C. The statement is false. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 Glass is a chemical compound because, at a blinding white heat, any two substances react to form a compound. At ordinary temperature, glass could be called a solid-liquid 1 because its molecules are scattered about as in liquids. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 In the manufacture of glass, the batch is heated to 2700 degrees F. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 Lead glass lenses are used in optical instruments because 3 of their high sparkle. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 Borosilicate glasses are used for most heat-resistant glass ware (such as pyrex ovenware) because they are the only heat-resistant glasses that can be produced by conventional mass production 9 into two intermingled glassy phases by heat treatment. 0933002 B 12 14207 31 17031704115909 0041 TNT is a form of gunpowder. 9 A. True B. False 0933003 A 12 14208 31 14860218104409 0040 Explosives very commonly contain nitrogen. 9 A. True B. False 0933004 B 12 14209 31 09640066001409 0041 Dynamite is a compound of carbon, nitrogen, and oxygen. 9 A. True B. False 0933005 B 12 14211 31 13341604026109 0009 Carbon dioxide is obtained commercially by fractional distillation of air. 9 A. True B. False 0935001 C 13 14213 31 0635 0026 An optical brightener works to brighten clothes by A. bleaching them B. reflecting visible light 9 C. absorbing UV light and reemitting visible light. 0941001 A 12 14216 51 03500066002009 0041 Silicon tends to form compounds in which its valence is 4. 9 A. True B. False 0941002 A 12 14218 51 06850879078109 0041 In silicate structures, each silicon atom is linked to four oxygen atoms. 9 A. True B. False 0941003 A 12 14220 52 0350008609 0041 The only common rock in which silicon is not an important constituent is limestone. 9 A. True B. False 0941004 A 12 14222 51 06851171 09 0041 Most silicates are relatively insoluble. 9 A. True B. False 0941005 B 12 14223 51 00160010068509 0043 The most important aluminum ores are complex aluminum silicates such as felspar. 9 A. True B. False 0941006 A 12 14225 31 1798 0003 The face-centered cubic unit cell consists of 14 points. 9 A. True B. False 0943001 A 12 14227 51 056606870590 0041 Ozone is an excellent absorber of ultraviolet radiation. 9 A. True B. False 0950001 A 13 14229 31 00251118 0026 What happens to the bod of a stream as the temperature of the water goes up? 9 A. increases B. decreases C. no change. 0950002 B 13 14231 31 05540025 0026 What happens to the amount of dissolved oxygen as the temperature of a stream increases? 9 A. increases B. decreases C. NO change. 0950003 C 13 14233 31 00230008 0026 The mechanism by which fluoridation of water is affective appears to be, A. killing of bacteria B. the adjustment of pH SO that enzymes may work better in oxidation of organic wastes 5 - C. incorporation of F ions into tooth structures such as 9 calcium hydroxyphosphate. 0950004 B 13 14238 31 063205180672 0026 Which has the greatest potential as a fuel for man's needs? 9 A. petroleum B. atomic fusion C. atomic fission. 0950005 B 12 14240 31 00080541148609 0040 Bodies of water tend to moderate climatic temperatures. 9 A. True B. False 0950006 B 12 14242 31 00081486 09 0040 Natural waters are often pure. 9 A. True B. False 0950007 B 12 14243 31 14860091000809 0040 The pH of pure water is 8. 9 A. True B. False 0950008 A 12 14244 31 14860261064609 0040 In the CO cycle in nature, plants use CO and give up O . 4 2 2 2 9 A. True B. False 0950009 A 12 14246 31 03210325117209 0009 As one moves up in the atmosphere, the ratio [O]/[O ] 4 2 increases. 9 A. True B. False 0951001 A 13 14248 31 11250343 0026 The formula for tetraethyllead is A. (CH ) Pb B. (C H ) Pb C. Pb(CO) . 94 3 4 2 5 4 4 0951002 A 12 14250 51 14740008151509 0009 A high B.O.D. suggests that a water supply is contaminated with organic wastes. 9 A. True B. False 0951003 B 12 14252 31 14861104039309 0040 Pb compounds in gasoline give rise to the greenhouse effect. 9 A. True B. False 0951004 A 12 14254 31 14861099018709 0040 The NO photolytic cycle results in the production of secondary 4 2 pollutants. 9 A. True B. False 0951005 B 12 14256 31 14860187021809 0040 Nitrogen-containing fertilizer is the main source of NO 4 x pollution. 9 A. True B. False 0951006 A 12 14259 31 14860214026109 0040 Thermal exhaust reactors convert CO to CO . 4 2 9 A. True B. False 0951007 B 12 14261 31 14860566099909 0040 Ozone is a primary pollutant. 9 A. True B. False 0951008 B 12 14262 31 14860999021809 0040 No natural mechanisms exist to get rid of any air pollutants. 9 A. True B. False 0951009 A 12 14264 51 14861478109909 0040 PAN is both a secondary air pollutant and a photochemical oxidant. 9 A. True B. False 0951010 A 12 14266 31 14860214103409 0040 CO is removed from the air by soil microorganisms. 9 A. True B. False 0951011 A 12 14268 31 14860057041409 0040 The burning of coal is the leading source of SO emissions. 4 2 9 A. True B. False 0951012 A 12 14270 31 14861717008609 0040 Limestone is attacked by certain particulate pollutants. 9 A. True B. False 0951013 B 12 14272 31 14860214099909 0040 CO is the most toxic of the common air pollutants. 9 A. True B. False 0951014 B 12 14274 31 14861112061709 0040 Thermal pollution is involved with radioactive ("hot") atoms. 9 A. True B. False 0951015 B 12 14276 31 14861050025109 0040 NTA has undergone extensive study as a replacement for DDT. 9 A. True B. False 0951016 B 12 14278 31 14861050007309 0040 The effects of DDT on birds relates to eggs with shells so thick that they do not hatch. 9 A. True B. False 0951017 B 12 14280 31 14861119105009 0040 Eutrophication is the process by which substances like DDT and Hg are concentrated in the food chain. 9 A. True B. False 0951018 A 12 14282 31 14860025171809 0040 The BOD content of sewage would be expected to be relatively high. 9 A. True B. False 0951019 B 12 14284 31 14861112002509 0040 The two plant nutrients of prime importance in water pollution are P (phosphorus) and O (oxygen). 9 A. True B. False 0951020 A 12 14286 31 14860675111209 0040 Oil pollution has serious long-term effects. 3 _________ 9 A. True B. False 0951021 B 12 14288 31 14861116103309 0040 Coliform bacteria are the main disease-causing agents in water. 9 A. True B. False 0951022 B 12 14290 31 14860008059009 0040 Radiation levels in water are increasing. 9 A. True B. False 0951023 A 12 14291 31 14860018070109 0040 Some inorganic pollutants cause salinity problems. 9 A. True B. False 0951024 A 12 14293 31 14860488001809 0040 Salt can kill growing plants because of the osmosis process. 9 A. True B. False 0951025 B 12 14295 31 03400064032109 0009 Helium is the most abundant noble gas in the atmosphere. 9 A. True B. False 0953001 A 12 14297 51 10131516151709 0009 Branched-chain detergents are more readily broken down in nature than those with straight chains. 9 A. True B. False 0962001 B 12 14299 51 1677 0286 0041 A thermocouple is a device for conducting heat from one location to another. 9 A. True B. False 0962003 A 12 14301 51 10761930 09 The sensitivity of an equal arm balance depends upon the masses suspended from the beam. A. True 9 B. False 0962004 A 12 14303 51 10761930 09 The sensitivity of an analytical balance does not depend upon the position of the zero adjust dial of the balance. A. True 9 B. False 0962005 B 12 14305 51 10761930 09 The sensitivity of a single pan analytical balance depends upon the mass of the sample being weighed. A. True 9 B. False 0962006 A 12 14307 51 10761930 09 The single pan analytical balance has constant sensitivity because the same mass is suspended from the balance beam in all weighings. A. True 9 B. False 0962007 B 12 14310 51 10761930 09 When a weight is dialed on a single pan analytical balance, that number of grams is added to the balance beam on the side opposite the sample pan. A. True 9 B. False 0962008 A 12 14313 51 10761930 09 When a weight is dialed on a single pan analytical balance, that number of grams is removed from the balance beam on the side from which the sample pan hangs. A. True 9 B. False 0962009 B 12 14316 51 10761930 09 When an object is weighed on a double pan balance, one removes weights from the weight pan equal to the weight of the object. The beam is then balanced at zero. A. True 9 B. False 0962010 A 12 14319 51 10761930 09 When an object is weighed on a double pan balance, one adds weights to the weight pan until the beam arm is balanced at zero. A. True 9 B. False 0962011 B 12 14322 51 10761930 09 On a double pan balance, one can perform two weighings at the same time, one in each pan. A. True 9 B. False 0962013 A 12 14324 51 10761930 09 The single pan balance is so designed that the same mass (within 0.1 g) is suspended from the balance beam in all weighings. A. True 9 B. False 0962014 B 12 14327 51 10761930 09 When you make a weighing on a single pan analytical balance, the recommended procedure is to dial the smallest weights first and the largest weights last. A. True 9 B. False 0962015 B 12 14330 51 10761930 09 When a single pan analytical balance is used to make a weighing, the balance is set in full release, the sample is then placed on the sample pan, and weights are dialed. A. True 9 B. False 0962016 A 12 14333 51 10761930 09 When a single pan analytical balance is used to make a weighing, weights of 0.1 gram or larger are dialed with the beam in partial release. A. True 9 B. False 0962017 A 12 14336 51 10761930 09 When an analytical balance is in full release, the beam from which the pan is suspended is fully able to swing freely. A. True 9 B. False 0962018 A 12 14338 51 10761930 09 When a single pan analytical balance is used, weights of 1 gram or larger should never be dialed with the beam in full release. A. True 9 B. False 0962019 B 12 14341 51 10761930 09 When a sample is weighed on a single pan analytical balance, weights of 1 gram or larger should never be dialed with the beam in partial release. A. True 9 B. False 0962020 B 12 14344 51 10761930 09 When a single pan analytical balance has all dials set at zero, the beam has NO weights suspended from it. A. True 9 B. False 0962021 A 12 14346 51 10791930 09 When an equal arm double pan analytical balance is zeroed, the difference in masses suspended from the two arms of the beam is zero. A. True 9 B. False 0962022 A 12 14349 51 10791930 09 Before beginning a weighing, an analytical balance must be zeroed with the zero adjust knob. Before this is done, the weight dials must be set at zero. 9 A. True B. False 0962023 A 12 14352 51 1079 09 The mass of an object is measured by comparing the force of gravity on it to the force of gravity on an object of known mass. A. True 9 B. False 0962024 A 12 14355 51 10791930 09 Beam arm error is A. present only in the equal arm double pan balance. B. present only in the single pan analytical balance. C. present in all types of balances. 9 D. not present in any balance. 0962025 B 12 14358 51 10791930 09 5 -4 To weigh an object to a precision of 10 gram, one could use a triple beam balance. A. True 9 B. False 0962026 A 12 14361 51 10791930 09 4 -4 To weigh an object to a precision of 10 gram, one could use a single pan analytical balance. A. True 9 B. False 0970001 B 12 14364 32 00081486095909 0040 Water has its maximum density at 0 degrees C. 9 A. True B. False 0970002 A 12 14365 31 14860125 09 0040 Silver metal is a good conductor of electricity. 9 A. True B. False 0970003 B 12 14367 31 14860125079909 0040 The tarnish on silverware is a thin coating of black Ag O. 4 2 9 A. True B. False 0970004 A 12 14369 31 14860125079909 0040 Silver tarnish is a chemical compound. 9 A. True B. False 0970005 B 12 14370 31 14860039 09 0040 Gold is generally found in nature in compounds with other elements. 9 A. True B. False 0970006 B 12 14372 31 14860039 09 0040 Pure gold is a very hard metal. 9 A. True B. False 0971001 A 12 14373 51 00161323145409 0043 Rubies are composed principally of aluminum oxide. 9 A. True B. False 0971002 B 12 14375 51 084609 0043 The simplest of the known boron hydrides is BH . 4 3 9 A. True B. False 0971003 B 12 14377 51 01610218029309 0043 Only at very high temperatures does nitrogen form an N molecule. 4 4 9 A. True B. False 0971004 A 12 14379 31 05540806159109 0043 When P O is dissolved in (excess) water, the final product 4 4 10 is H PO . 4 3 4 9 A. True B. False 0971005 B 12 14381 31 0293 09 0043 NO , N O , and NO are all odd molecules. 4 2 2 4 9 A. True B. False 0971006 A 12 14383 31 00771627 09 0043 Nitrous acid undergoes slow disproportionation. 9 A. True B. False 0971007 B 12 14385 31 1774116709 0043 White phosphorus is sometimes stored under kerosene, in order to prevent it from reacting with air. 9 A. True B. False 0971008 A 12 14387 51 0674019209 0043 Red phosphorus is a polymeric substance. 9 A. True B. False 0971009 A 12 14388 31 00350196 09 0043 The +1 oxidation state is more common than the -1 state for hydrogen. 9 A. True B. false. 0971010 A 12 14390 31 0808040809 0043 Silver chloride is less soluble in water than sodium chloride. 9 A. True B. false. 0971011 A 12 14392 31 13940192080809 0043 Nonpolar substances are not very soluble in water. 9 A. True B. false. 0971012 A 12 14394 31 01650351019609 0043 In ice every oxygen atom is bound to four hydrogen atoms. 9 A. True B. false. 0971013 B 12 14396 31 05660768 09 0043 Ozone is paramagnetic. 9 A. True B. false. 0971014 B 12 14397 31 04980025021809 0043 The normal boiling point of oxygen is lower than that of nitrogen. 9 A. True B. false. 0971015 B 12 14399 31 00070566 09 0043 Although O is a more powerful oxidizing agent than O , it is 4 3 2 a slower-acting one. 9 A. True B. false. 0971016 A 12 14402 31 10750077 09 0043 Hydrogen peroxide is an acid. 9 A. True B. false. 0971017 A 12 14403 31 10751367162709 0043 Hydrogen peroxide exhibits disproportionation. 9 A. True B. false. 0971018 B 12 14405 31 01690237 09 0043 Sodium oxide is a covalent solid. 9 A. True B. false. 0971019 A 12 14406 31 08080008 09 0043 One would not expect FePO to be very soluble in water. 4 4 9 A. True B. false. 0971020 A 12 14408 31 00770804 09 0043 SO is an acidic anhydride. 4 2 9 A. True B. false. 0971021 A 12 14409 31 00750808000809 0043 Many hydroxides are not very soluble in water. 9 A. True B. false. 0971022 A 12 14411 31 00080045000209 0043 Water is capable of oxidizing sodium metal. 9 A. True B. False 0971023 A 12 14412 31 00660344080809 0043 Most compounds of potassium are quite soluble in water. 9 A. True B. False 0971024 A 12 14414 51 00870002 09 0043 A solution prepared by adding sodium to liquid ammonia contains negative ions which are apparently solvated electrons. 9 A. True B. False 0971025 B 12 14416 31 00870138132309 0043 A solution prepared by adding K O to water contains a high 4 2 concentration of oxide ions. 9 A. True B. False 0971026 B 12 14418 51 18321173183309 0043 Plaster of paris may be prepared by adding water to gypsum. 9 A. True B. False 0971027 B 12 14420 31 01730008 09 0043 Permanent hardness may be removed by adding Ca(OH) to the water 4 2 9 A. True B. False 0971028 A 12 14422 31 14860787005609 0040 The conversion of SO to SO is a step in the production of 4 2 3 H SO . 4 2 4 9 A. True B. False 0971029 B 12 14424 31 14860787005609 0040 The S used as a starting material for H SO production is usually 4 2 4 obtained from H S in the atmosphere. 4 2 9 A. True B. False 0971030 A 12 14427 31 14860109002509 0040 Use of pure O instead of air results in a five-fold increase in 4 2 oxygen concentration. 9 A. True B. False 0971031 B 12 14429 31 14860025 09 0040 Commercial production of O involves electrolysis of H O. 4 2 2 9 A. True B. False 0971032 A 12 14431 31 14860218 09 0040 NH is a form of fixed nitrogen. 4 3 9 A. True B. False 0971033 B 12 14432 31 14861525007209 0040 The Haber process is used to produce Cl . 4 2 9 A. True B. False 0971034 B 12 14434 31 14860072117009 0040 The source of H needed for ammonia manufacture is sea water. 4 2 9 A. True B. False 0971035 A 12 14436 31 14860215041309 0040 Sodium hydroxide production often involves the use of mercury. 9 A. True B. False 0971036 A 12 14438 31 14861330084809 0040 5 - The active ingredient in a bottle of bleach is the OCl ion. 9 A. True B. False 0971037 A 12 14440 31 14860852081709 0040 At least one allotrope of carbon conducts electricity. 9 A. True B. False 0971038 B 12 14442 31 14860817002409 0040 The allotropic form of phosphorus called red phosphorus is very toxic. 9 A. True B. False 0971039 B 12 14444 31 14860817035009 0040 Silicon shows the property of allotropy. 9 A. True B. False 0971040 A 12 14445 31 14860817028409 0040 Allotropes are different forms of the same element. 9 A. True B. False 0971041 B 12 14447 31 14860024 09 0040 All forms of phosphorus are poisonous. 9 A. True B. False 0971042 A 12 14448 31 14860024081709 0040 Phosphorus exists in at least two allotropic forms. 9 A. True B. False 0971043 B 12 14450 31 14860350033609 0040 No substance is known which will dissolve or react with glass. 9 A. True B. False 0971044 B 12 14452 31 14860589001409 0040 The main use of diamonds (by weight) is in jewerly. 9 A. True B. False 0971045 B 12 14454 31 14860024 09 0040 The bones of animals are unhealthy if they contain any phosphorus. 9 A. True B. False 0971046 A 12 14456 31 14860817001409 0040 Carbon possesses the property of allotropy. 9 A. True B. False 0973001 A 12 14457 51 11780087 09 0043 The ferric ion may be detected in solution by adding potassium thiocyanate. 9 A. True B. False 0973002 A 12 14459 51 00370844000709 0043 Compounds of +3 nickel are powerful oxidizing agents. 9 A. True B. False 0973003 A 12 14461 51 17600061007509 0043 Cobaltous hydroxide is a basic hydroxide. 9 A. True B. False 0973004 B 12 14462 51 00320017008709 0043 5 2+ Copper metal will reduce Fe in solution. 9 A. True B. False 0973005 B 12 14464 51 11780012 09 0043 The cobaltic ion will reduce H O. 4 2 9 A. True B. False 0973006 A 12 14466 51 11710008 09 0043 AgCl and CuCl are both rather insoluble in water. 9 A. True B. False 0973007 B 12 14468 51 14480039117809 0043 The oxidation potential of gold (to form the aurous ion) is highly positive. 9 A. True B. False 0973008 B 12 14470 51 05541578002109 0043 When HgS is dissolved in aqua regia, the mercury becomes 5 - oxidized by the NO in the aqua regia. 4 3 9 A. True B. False 0973009 A 12 14473 51 00870215055409 0043 5 2+ Adding a solution of NaOH to a solution containing Zn produces a precipitate, which redissolves upon addition of excess NaOH. 9 A. True B. False 0973010 B 12 14476 51 11690087023609 0043 5 + Addition of NH to a solution containing Ag produces a black 4 3 precipitate. 9 A. True B. False 0973011 A 12 14479 51 00890089 09 0043 Mercuric chloride is a weak electrolyte. 9 A. True B. False 0973301 B 12 14480 51 05040560006109 004 The +6 state of manganese is not stable in basic solution. 9 A. True B. False 0973302 A 12 14482 51 13310087001209 0043 5 - 2+ When MnO is reduced in acidic solution, Mn is produced. 4 4 9 A. True B. False 0973303 A 12 14484 51 00450077008709 0043 5 +3 2- Cr may be oxidized to Cr O by H O in acid solution. 4 2 7 2 2 9 A. True B. False 0983001 B 12 14487 51 15731574037909 0009 The technique of activation analysis is limited to those elements that have naturally radioactive isotopes. 9 A. True. B. False. 0983002 A 12 14489 31 05781486 0003 A mass spectrometer can be used to determine the charge-to-mass ratio of positively charged particles. 9 A. True B. False 1000002 ACAABA 64 14491 32 0272027880011290 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2To answer the following questions, mark space 2 A. if the statement has been proved by experiment or observation 2 B. if the statement is theoretical or hypothetical 2 C. if the statement is a definition 2 D. if the statement has been proved false by experiment or 0 observation MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 Heat is the kinetic energy of rapidly moving molecules. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 The acceleration of a body is equal to the time rate of change of 2 velocity. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 3 The mass of a hydrogen atom is 100 times that of an electron. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 An electric current may be produced in a coil of wire by moving 4 a magnet into the coil. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 The number of molecules in a liter of any gas is the same as the 5 number in a liter of any other gas under the same conditions. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 6 9 Wave motion transmits energy. 1000003 ABAD 44 14501 52 0021008180011190 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2To answer the following items, select the most appropriate response 2from the key. 2 A. The second cannot occur unless the first has occured or is 2 occuring. 2 B. The first usually but not necessarily occurred before the 2 second. 2 C. The second usually but not necessarily occured before the 2 first. 2 D. There is NO relationship between the occurence of the first 0 and the second. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 Oxidation-spontaneous combustion MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 Solution in water-dissociation of ions MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 3 Gaseous ions-discharge of an electroscope MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 9 Rubbing with silk or fur-magnetization 1000004 CABBA 54 14509 32 0272027802811290 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2To answer the following questions, mark space 2 A. if the statement has been proved by experiment or observation 2 B. if the statement is theoretical or hypothetical 2 C. if the statement is a definition 2 D. if the statement has been proved false by experiment or 0 observation MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 The mass of 1 cc of water at 4 degrees C is one gram. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 The pressure of a gas is due to the motion of the molecules. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 The gravitational attraction is the same at all places on the 3 surface of the earth. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 4 The number of different kinds of atoms is limited. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 9 The earth's diameter is greater at the equator than at the poles. 1100001 BDA 35 14517 31 0257025880011290 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2To answer the following questions, choose from the key list the 2term most closely related to the statements. 2 A. catalysis 2 B. hydrolysis 2 C. electrolysis 2 D. diffusion 0 E. dialysis MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 A reaction in which a normal salt reacts with water to form 1 either an acidic or basic solution MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 Mixing of two substances by molecular motion MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 Changing the rate of a reaction by using a substance that remains 9 unchanged after completion of the reaction 1110001 D 15 14523 31 096109620963 0018 Which of the following is not considered a valid reason for studying chemistry? A. The need to be aware of the effect of chemistry on each citizen and his environment B. The need to consider changes that may result as new chemical knowledge is obtained C. The need to know some of the important products that have resulted from chemical explorations D. The realization that chemistry is the answer to all the world's problems 9 E. The need to think rigorously and with logic 1110002 C 14 14530 31 1702 0003 One formula-unit of Na SO contains: 4 2 4 A. 1 mole of Na SO B. 1 gram-atom of sulfur 4 2 4 9 C. one atom of sulfur D. 1 mole of sodium 1110003 B 14 14533 31 0703 0003 One molecule of HCl: A. contains 1 g of H 5 -23 B. weighs 6.06 x 10 g C. weighs 36.461 g 9 D. contains 1 mole of Cl 1110004 B 14 14536 31 0706 0003 The product of the pressure and the volume of a fixed weight of ideal gas is: A. constant B. directly proportional to the temperature C. inversely proportional to the temperature 9 D. approximately constant 1110005 D 14 14539 52 07060186 0003 The density of methane (CH ) at 2.00 atm pressure and 248 K is: 4 4 is: A. 26.0 g/liter B. 0.260 g/liter 9 C. 0.130 g/liter D. 1.30 g/liter 1110006 B 14 14542 31 0498 0003 At a given pressure the boiling point is the same as the A. freezing point B. liquefaction point 9 C. critical temperature D. triple-point temperature 1111101 C 15 14545 32 8003 2WVW Multiplying 75 x 273 x 600 gives 3 ___ ___ 300 750 9 A. 91 B. 91/125 C. 273/5 D. 273 E. none of these 1111102 A 15 14548 32 8003 2WVW What percent of $12.50 is 25 cents? 9 A. 2 B. 1/5 C. 5 D. 20 E. 200 1111103 C 15 14550 32 8003 2WVW x divided by x equals 9 A. 0 B. x C. 1 D. 0.5x E. 2x 1111104 E 15 14551 32 8003 2WVW y-y equals 9 A. -2y B. 2y C. 1 D. y E. 0 1111105 E 15 14552 32 8003 2WVW 6 - r equals 3_ _ n n A. 6r 3 __ 5 2 N B. 6n - rn C. 6-r 3 ___ 2n D. 6 - r 3 _____ 5 2 N 9 E. none of these 1111106 A 15 14555 32 8003 2WVW -2 2 10 x 10 3__________ equals 4 -3 10 x 10 5 3 3 -8 9 A. 1/10 B. 1/10 C. 10 D. 1/10 E. 1/3 1111107 D 15 14558 32 8003 2WVW The product of -7 and zero is A. -7 B. 7 C. -1 D. 0 9 E. none of these 1111108 C 15 14560 32 8003 2WVW 5 2 3 4 Multiplying x , x and x gives 5 24 24 9 9 9 A. x B. 3x C. x D. 3x E. 9x 1111109 B 15 14562 32 8003 2WVW On a given map, one-fourth of an inch represents a distance of one mile. How long is a line which represents 12 miles (in inches)? 9 A. 1/3 B. 3 C. 36 D. 48 E. None of these 1111110 E 15 14565 32 8003 2WVW The amount of money that will buy d dozen eggs at c cents per dozen will buy how many pounds of potatoes at e cents per pound. 9 A. dce B. ce/d C. de/c D. d(c+e) E. None of these 1111111 A 15 14568 32 8003 2WVW How many kilograms are there in 242 pounds (1 kilogram = 2.2 pounds) 9 A. 110 B. 11 C. 0.009 D. 532.4 E. None of these 1111112 B 15 14570 32 8003 2WVW 5 1/2 Simplifying 2 + 12 gives 3 ___________ 2 2 1/2 A. 1 + 2 x (3 ) 1/2 B. 1 + 3 1/2 C. 6 1/2 D. 12 9 E. none of these 1111113 D 15 14574 32 8003 2WVW A store advertised that the price of an article had been reduced 30% and the new selling price was 98 cents. What was the original price? A. $0.69 B. $1.27 C. $1.31 D. $1.40 9 E. none of these 1111114 C 15 14577 32 8003 2WVW The number of cubic feet in a rectangular tank 8 inches by 15 inches by 10 feet is 9 A. 1200 B. 100 C. 25/3 D. 25/36 E. None of these 1111115 D 15 14579 32 8003 2WVW 5 2 2 What is the value of x - y if x = 3 and y = 1 3 _______ 2y - 3x 9 A. -2 B. -64/7 C. 8/3 D. -8/7 E. 64/3 1111116 E 15 14582 32 8003 2WVW The outer diameter of a pipe is 3.257 inches and the inner diameter is 2.635 inches. What is the thickness of the pipe wall, in inches? A. 2.946 B. 0.301 C. 0.622 D. 1.882 9 E. none of these 1111117 A 15 14585 32 8003 2WVW 7 1/2 is 3/4 of 5/6 of what number? 9 A. 12 B. 1/12 C. 75/16 D. 16/75 E. 75/9 1111118 D 15 14587 32 8003 2WVW When y is 9% of x and y = 18, then x equals A. 162 B. 1.62 C. 2 D. 200 9 E. none of these 1111119 C 15 14589 32 8003 2WVW From a rectangle of length a and width b, squares of side x are cut out at the four corners. Find the area remaining 5 2 2 A. (a-2x ) (b-2x ) B. (a-2x) (b-2x) 5 2 C. ab - 4x 5 2 D. 4x - ab 9 E. none of these 1111120 D 15 14593 32 8003 2WVW Given a = p + prt, then r equals A. a - p - pt B. a - p 3 __ pt C. a 3 __ p+pt D. a - p 3 _____ pt E. a - pt 3 _ 9 p 1111121 B 15 14596 32 8003 2WVW 5 -1/3 Simplifying -27 gives A. 1 3 _ 3 B. - 1 3 _ 3 C. 9 5 3 D. -27 E. 1 3 _____ 5 3 9 27 1111122 A 15 14599 32 8003 2WVW A mixture is to be made of two substances a and b in the proportion seven parts of a to 13 parts of b. What percent of the mixture is b? A. 65 B. 54 C. 35 D. 19 9 E. none of these 1111123 D 15 14602 32 8003 2WVW If a number, when divided by d, gives quotient q and remainder r, then the number is A. d + rq B. q + r 3 _ d C. q + rd D. dq + r 9 E. qrd 1111124 C 15 14605 32 8003 2WVW How many cents are there in d dollars, q quarters, and t dimes? A. d + q + t B. d + q + t 3 ___ __ __ 100 25 10 C. 100d + 25q + 10t D. dqt 9 E. none of these 1111125 A 15 14608 32 8003 2WVW When the simultaneous equations 3x + 5y = 9 2x - y = -7 are solved, the value of y is A. 3 B. -2 C. - 3 3 _ 7 D. - 3 3 __ 13 E. 25 9 13 1111126 C 15 14612 32 8003 2WVW The surface area of a cube is 294. Find the length of one edge. 5 1/3 A. 294 5 3 B. (294) C. 7 5 1/2 D. 294 9 E. None of these 1111127 B 15 14615 32 8003 2WVW A diagonal of a square is 50. Find the length of a side. A. 25 5 1/2 B. 25 X 2 5 1/2 C. 25 x 3 5 1/2 D. 25 x 5 9 E. none of these 1111128 D 15 14618 32 8003 2WVW If the weight of a box containing n apples is a, and the weight of the empty box is b, what is the average weight of six apples? A. 6n (a-b) 5 a B. (6-b)/n C. 6na - b D. 6 (a - b) 3 _ n 9 E. none of these 1111129 D 15 14622 32 8003 2WVW The radius of a circle is r inches. By how many inches would the circumference be increased if the radius were increased 3 inches? A. 6 B. 6 pi r C. 6r D. 6 pi 9 E. none of these 1111130 D 15 14625 32 8003 2WVW 5 2 The surface area S of a sphere is given by the formula S=4 pi r where r is the radius. What is the effect on S if r is reduced by 50%? A. reduced by 25% B. reduced by 50% C. reduced by 75% D. reduced by 200% 9 E. none of these 1111131 E 15 14630 32 8003 2WVW If y = a sin 0 and x = b cos 0,then it is necessarily true that 3 / / 5 2 2 2 2 A. x + y = a + b 5 2 2 B. x + y -- -- = 1 5 2 2 a b C. xy = ab D. y = tan 0 3 _ / x 9 E. none of these is necessarily true 1111132 C 15 14635 32 8003 2WVW If py - rq = y (r + p), then p = 3 _______ qx A. (qr + xy)/y B. 2qr/x C. qr(xy + 1) 3 __________ y - qxy D. qr(1 - xy) 3 __________ y (1 - qx) 9 E. none of these is correct 1111133 C 15 14638 32 90 2WVW 2In the study of the physical sciences it is frequently necessary 2to proceed from a verbal statement to a symbolic representation of 2this statement. Show that you can do this with the following statements (assume k and k' to be constants). under certain conditions, the product of the pressure (P) and volume (V) is proportional to the absolute temperature (T). A. PV = T B. P + V = T C. PV = kT D. PVT = 1 9 E. PV = kT + k' 1111134 B 15 14644 32 8003 The effective wavelength, w, of a beam of electrons is inversely proportional to the square root of the mean kinetic energy of the electrons, E. 5 1/2 A. (wE) = k 5 1/2 B. w x E = k C. w = 1 3 ______ 5 1/2 E 5 1/2 D. w = k + 1 ----- E 9 E. none of these is correct 1111135 B 15 14650 32 8003 2WVW The atomic number of an atom is equal to A. the charge on the atom B. the number of protons in the nucleus C. half the atomic weight of the atom D. the number of electrons in the valence shell 9 E. the number of neutrons in the atom 1111136 E 15 14654 32 2WVW An aqueous sodium chloride solution conducts electricity better than does a solution containing an equal concentration of acetic acid because A. acetic acid reduces the dissociation of water markedly B. all acids are poor conductors in aqueous solution C. concentrated solutions conduct better than dilute solutions D. organic compounds never ionize at all 9 E. many more ions are present in the salt solution 1111137 B 15 14660 32 8003 2WVW Isotopes of nitrogen differ in the number of A. protons C. charged particles E. electrons 9 B. neutrons D. deuterons 1111138 B 15 14663 32 8003 2WVW The fact that sulfur is a non-metal implies that it is A. monatomic B. a poor conductor of electricity C. malleable D. easily oxidized 9 E. able to displace hydrogen from an acid solution 1111139 D 15 14666 32 8003 2WVW The term "acid" is used chemically to refer to A. anything which tastes sour B. any compound which contains hydrogen atoms C. any substance which has or can furnish hydrogen atoms D. any substance which has or can furnish hydrogen ions 9 E. any substance which can accept hydrogen ions 1120001 D 14 14670 51 15100317 0041 The strongest of the four fundamental interactions is the A. gravitational B. weak nuclear 9 C. electromagnetic D. strong nuclear 1120002 A 14 14672 51 15100317 0041 The weakest of the four fundamental interactions is the A. gravitational B. weak nuclear 9 C. electromagnetic D. strong nuclear 1120003 C 14 14674 51 151009850627 0041 The interaction primarily responsible for the formation of atoms from nuclei and electrons is the A. gravitational B. weak nuclear 9 C. electromagnetic D. strong nuclear 1120004 C 15 14677 32 180504451646 0042 Considering significant figures, what is the total weight of a series of beakers which weigh 125.2 gm, 90.3 gm, 56.2 gm, and 20.237 gm respectively? 5 2 A. 2.91 x 10 gm, B. 292 gm, C. 291.9 gm, D. 291.937 gm, 9 E. 291.23 gm. 1120005 D 15 14681 32 18050288 0042 Pay attention to significant figures and solve the problem: 35.00 + 1.02 4 ---------------- = ? 5 2 (3.0) 9 A. 4 B. 4.002 C. 0.120 D. 4.0 E. 12 1120006 B 15 14684 32 01950150 0028 What is the volume of a box which is 200 mm x 10.0 cm x 0.400 m? A. 10.0 liters B. 8.00 liters C. 800 milliliters 9 D. 1000 milliliters E. 2000 milliliters 1120007 E 15 14687 31 096112870588 0020 A study of chemistry can include a study of A. matter B. pesticides C. dyes D. photography 9 E. all of these 1120008 C 15 14689 31 096103820014 0020 Organic chemistry is A. the study of organisms B. the study of metallic compounds C. a study of compounds containing carbon D. a branch of quantitative analysis 9 E. a minor branch of biology 1120009 B 15 14692 31 026902040961 0020 The science dealing with the composition of materials and the changes in composition which these materials undergo is A. biology B. chemistry C. physics D. mathematics 9 E. all of these 1120010 B 15 14695 32 1301 0020 5 -7 The number 1.23 x 10 is A. 00.12300 B. 0.000 000 123 C. 0.000 000 0012 23 D. 0.000 001 23 9 E. 0.000 012 3 1120011 D 15 14698 32 0020 5 -2 8.80 cm plus 1.36 x 10 cm is 9 A. 8.94 cm B. 10.16 cm C. 8.93 cm D. 8.81 cm E. 8.8136 cm 1120012 E 15 14700 32 0020 5 -7 5 3.80 X 10 times 5.60 x 10 is 5 1 2 A. 2.13 x 10 B. 0.00213 C. 0.0213 D. 2.13 x 10 9 E. none of these 1120013 C 15 14703 32 1302 0020 5 -8 8 5.60 X 10 divided by 2.80 x 10 is 5 16 -16 0 A. 2.0 B. 2.0 x 10 C. 2.0 x 10 D. 2.0 x 10 9 E. none of these 1120014 E 15 14706 32 13031302 0020 5 5 -5 -3 The results of (1.0 x 10 )(2.0 x 10 ) divided by 2.0 x 10 is 5 -3 3 -3 A. 100 B. 2.0 x 10 C. 2.0 x 10 D. 1.0 x 10 5 3 9 E. 1.0 x 10 1120015 C 15 14710 31 054501140798 0009 The inflation of an automobile tire to a pressure of "20 pounds" means: 5 2 A. the pressure exerted by the air in the tire is 20 lb/in B. the weight of the air in the tire is 20 pounds 5 2 C. the pressure of the air in the tire is 20 lb/in higher than the air pressure outside the tire 5 2 D. the pressure of the air inside the tire is about 5 lb/in 9 E. the mass of the air is 20 lb. 1120016 B 14 14718 52 19441827 0055 5 2.699 10 equals A. log 2.699 B. 500 C. 2.699 log 10 9 D. 699. 1120017 D 14 14720 52 19441805 0055 The number of significant figures in 0.002060 is A. six B. two C. three 9 D. four 1120018 A 14 14722 52 19441950 0055 By experiment, a student found 39.08% of oxygen in KClO . The 4 3 theoretical percentage is 39.17%. The percent of experimental error is calculated as follows: A. (39.08 - 39.17)100/39.17 B. (39.08 - 39.17)100/39.08 C. (39.08 - 39.17)100 9 D. (39.17 - 39.08)100 1120019 B 14 14727 52 194416540398 0055 The weight of an object w, is equal to the product of its mass m, and the acceleration due to gravity a, (w = ma). if w is in dynes 5 -2 and a is in cm sec , then m is in 5 -2 A. dyne cm sec 5 2 -1 B. dyne sec cm 5 -1 2 -1 C. dyne sec cm 5 -1 -2 9 D. dyne sec cm 1120020 C 14 14732 52 19441328 0055 5 -6 The multiple 10 is denoted by the prefix A. mega B. milli C. micro 9 D. nano 1120021 B 14 14734 52 1944 0055 The number of chirps per minute made by a cricket is temperature dependent as follows: deg F = 0.25 (chirps/min) + 39.0. If a cricket chirps 144 times per minute the Fahrenheit temperature is 9 A. 36 B. 75 C. 105 D. 114 1120022 D 15 14738 72 1955 0062 A solid lead sphere is 1 cm in diameter. A second solid lead sphere is 2 cm in diameter. The mass of the second sphere is how many times that of the first? 9 A. 2 B. 3.14 C. 4 D. 8 E. 16 1122001 C 15 14741 52 OS The number 134537.5, expressed to three significant figures is: 5 5 5 9 A. 134. B. 135. C. 1.35x10 D. 1.34x10 1122002 BDA 35 14744 52 OS MACROITEM STEM Maria says to Gwenda, "I have four experimental values for the atomic weight of chlorine. They are: 36.7665, 33.7762, 34.9112 and 35.8726." Gwenda determines the average and says to Maria, "Your precision 0 is much better than your accuracy. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 On the basis of this information, it can be concluded that A. Gwenda is correct in her assessment of Maria's data. B. Gwenda is incorrect in her assessment of Maria's data because Maria's accuracy is better than her precision. C. Gwenda is incorrect in her assessment of Maria's data because 1 Maria's precision is just about equal to her accuracy. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 Maria's average deviation for these four results is (in atomic mass units) 2 A. 0.1 B. 0.3 C. 0.5 D. 1 E. 2 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 Maria would be justified in reporting her average atomic weight to how many significant figures? 9 A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 E. 6 1122003 BDE 35 14756 52 OS83 MACROITEM STEM The atomic weight of aluminum is determined five times. The results of these trials are shown below: Trial 1 26.872 Trial 2 26.849 Trial 3 26.867 Trial 4 26.844 Trial 5 26.853 0 If the accepted value of the atomic weight of Al is 26.982, then MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 it can be concluded from these data that A. the accuracy of these determinations is significantly greater than the precision. B. the precision of these determinations is significantly greater than the accuracy. C. the precision and accuracy are about the same. D. the precision and accuracy are not the same, but one is not 1 significantly greater than the other. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 Based on the precision of these measurements, the experimental value for the atomic weight of aluminum should be reported to ____________ significant figures. 2 A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 Of the five experimental values, the one which seems to deviate from the mean because of an effect other than random experimental error is A. 26.872 B. 26.849 C. 26.867 D. 26.844 9 E. none of them. They seem to be fairly evenly distributed. 1122004 B 15 14771 52 071101 0064 A mixture is prepared by mixing 7.65 g of A and 6.95 g of B. The total weight of the mixture can be reported to ______ significant figures. The ratio, wt of A/wt of B, in the mixture can be reported to ______significant figures. The difference, A - B, can be reported to _____significant figures. The numbers required to fill the blanks are, respectively, 9 A. 3,3,3 B. 4,3,2 C. 4,3,3 D. 4,4,3 E. none of these 1122005 D 15 14777 52 071101 0064 Two samples were weighed using different balances sample (1) = 3.529 g and sample (2) = 0.40 g. How should the total weight of the samples be reported? 9 A. 3.929 g B. 3 g C. 3.9 g D. 3.93 g E. 4 g 1122006 C 15 14780 52 071101 0064 A 0.060-g sample of Al wire was found to weigh 56.0 mg after treatment with hydrochloric acid. How should the percent weight loss be reported? 9 A. 6.7% B. 15% C. 7% D. 6.67% E. 10% 1122007 D 15 14783 52 071101 0064 Which of the following contains 4 significant figures? A. 0.0005 g B. 0.0050 mL C. 0.0500 m D. 0.5000 cm 9 E. all of these 1122008 C 15 14785 52 071101 0064 Add 5.17 g, 0.251 g and 0.0023 g. The answer to the correct number of digits after the decimal point is 9 A. 5.4233 g B. 5.423 g C. 5.42 g D. 5.4 g E. 5 g 1122009 D 15 14788 52 071101 0064 Two samples were weighed using different balances sample (1) = 3.529 g and sample (2) = 0.40 g. How should the total weight of the samples be reported? 9 A. 3.929 g B. 3 g C. 3.9 g D. 3.93 g E. 4 g 1122010 D 15 14791 52 071101 0064 Which of the following masses is reported to four significant figures? 5 -4 A. 2.0110 mg B. 17.4 x 10 g C. 0.0020 g 5 4 9 D. 3.030 kg E. 3 x 10 g 1122011 B 15 14794 52 071101 0064 A mixture of X and Y weighing 14.00 g is found to contain 13.50 g of X. The percentage of Y (by weight) in this mixture should be reported to ____significant figure(s). 9 A. one B. two C. three D. four E. eight 1122012 E 15 14797 52 071101 0064 The density of the element gold, Au, is to be calculated from the following data Mass of a golden coin = 13.512 g Volume of the coin and water = 25.1 ml Volume of the water alone = 24.4 ml The density of the metal in the coin should be reported as A. 19.303 g/ml B. 19.30 g/ml C. 19.3 g/ml D. 19 g/ml 5 1 9 E. 2 x 10 g/ml 1122013 B 13 44559 31 Maria says to Gwenda, "I have four experimental values for the atomic weight of chlorine. They are: 36.7665, 33.7762, 34.9112 and 35.8726." Gwenda determines the average and says to Maria, "Your precision is much better than your accuracy." On the basis of this information, it can be concluded that A. Gwenda is correct in her assessment of Maria's data. B. Gwenda is incorrect in her assessment of Maria's data because Maria's accuracy is better than her precision. C. Gwenda is incorrect in her assessment of Maria's data because 9 Maria's precision is just about equal to her accuracy. 1122014 B 15 45148 71 How many significant figures are there in the value 2,100,100? 9 A. 7 B. 5 C. 4 D. 3 E. 2 1122015 D 15 45150 71 What is the best answer to report for the following: 2.521 x 13.51 4 ------------- + 0.31 2.78 9 A. 12.5613 B. 12.561 C. 12.56 12.6 E. 13 1122016 B 15 45154 71 The age of a wooden artifact was determined by carbon-14 dating. Three different measurements gave values of 6295, 4815, and 5485 years. Its age would best be reported as (in years): 9 A. 5531.7 B. 5532 C. 5530 D. 5500 E. 5000 1123001 E 15 14802 52 071101 0064 If you could count individual atoms at the rate of one atom per second, about how many years would be required to count 5 23 6.02 x 10 atoms? 5 2 3 9 12 16 9 A. 10 B. 10 C. 10 D. 10 E. 10 1124001 C 15 45158 51 Which of the following is NOT an SI unit? 9 A. meter B. kilogram C. angstrom D. pascal E. joule 1128001 ADE 35 14806 72 1977 90 OS MACROITEM STEM A determination of the atomic weight of chlorine is carried out five times. The values obtained are 35.436,35.440,35.445,35.458 0 and 35.493. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 If the accepted atomic weight of chlorine is 35.453, A. the accuracy of this series of trials is significantly greater than the precision. B. the precision of this series of trials is significantly greater than the accuracy. C. the accuracy and the precision of this series of trials are about the same. D. no judgment regarding the accuracy or precision of this series of trials can be made, as the mean of the measurements is much too low. E. no judgment regarding the accuracy and precision of this series of trials can be made, as the mean of the measurements is 1 much too high. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 The experimental value from this series of measurements should be reported to _____ significant figures. 2 A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 Of the five experimental values, the one which appears to deviate from the mean because of an effect other than random experimental error is 9 A. 35.436 B. 35.440 C. 35.445 D. 35.458 E. 35.493 1128002 D 15 14821 52 OS82 Michele asks Ivan, "Did you weigh our sample yet?" Ivan replies, "Yes, I weighed it on each of three top loading Mettler balances. Here are my results." Balance Mass of sample 1 1.206 g 2 1.237 g 3 1.285 g Michele says, "Do you mind if I weigh it once again?" From this brief conversation, one could conclude that the MOST reasonable explanation for Michele's request is that A. the Mettler balances have scales accurate only to 0.1 g, so Ivan could not have achieved his reported results. B. Only with four weighings can one safely assume that accurate results will be achieved. C. Ivan should have used the Centogram balance, because it would have produced more precise results. D. The agreement between the three values should be better than it is, even if one uses separate Mettler balances. 9 E. Only one balance should have been used for this weighing. 1128003 DBCA 45 45743 51 MACROITEM STEM A solution is known to have a concentration of 0.1126+0.0002 M HCl 3 _ Five students carry out a standardization of the solution using Na CO and report the following values: 4 2 3 Student Sample 1 Sample 2 Sample 3 A. Juliet 0.1129 M 0.1184 M 0.1106 M B. Brian 0.1120 M 0.1118 M 0.1124 M C. Michael 0.1104 M 0.1109 M 0.1116 M D. Shelley 0.1100 M 0.1115 M 0.1163 M E. Tramy 0.1118 M 0.1123 M 0.1130 M 0 Of these five reports, which exhibits MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 the highest accuracy? MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 the highest precision? MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 3 the lowest accuracy? MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 9 the lowest precision? 1200001 B 15 14834 31 02790269028011 ETS2 OS Galileo considered his sciences to be "new" in the sense that they A. take into account the facts of nature B. deal with phenomena never before investigated C. avoid abstractions and adhere to inductions from observations D. involve novel and original uses of mathematical proof E. rest upon application of mathematical methods to physical 9 principles heretofore unknown 1200002 E 15 14840 52 02920293800111 ETS2 OS Avogadro's suggestion that in some elements molecules might be identical with atoms but that in other elements as well as in compounds, each molecule might consist of several atoms, is a good example of A. a conceptual scheme which could not be directly tested or proved B. a hypotheses that had some truth in it but, in general, had little consequence C. a conceptual scheme that had an immediate application D. a concept that had no practical use 9 E. a hypothesis that led directly to new knowledge 1200003 DDAEDCDDA95 14847 32 0271027380011190 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2The following questions should be answered in accordance with the 0 opinions and point of view expressed by Conant. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 The significance of Toricelli's experiment for those studying the methods of science lies in the fact that A. it can be easily and quickly duplicated in any laboratory B. it can be readily verified C. it is a broad hypothesis or conceptual scheme D. it is simple evidence of one consequence of a broad hypothesis or conceptual scheme to a pressing problem of 1 the day MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 One of the reasons why the phlogiston hypothesis was not accepted for over a hundred years was that A. scientists of that day were less intelligent than modern scientists B. gases were commonly believed to have zero or negative weight C. scientists of that day were not really good observers D. men were too set in their ways to accept the theory of oxidation E. a better theory could not have been formulated until Dalton's 2 atomic theory became known MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 According to Conant, the rebirth of the idea of air as an elastic medium is an example of A. a concept arising from an experiment B. a limited working hypothesis C. an experiment giving rise to deduced consequences D. a limited working hypothesis arising from a concept 3 E. none of these MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 Conant believes that A. few if any hypotheses on a grand scale can be directly tested B. unlike hypotheses, conceptual schemes can be directly tested C. unlike conceptual schemes, most hypotheses on a grand scale can usually be tested directly D. hypotheses on a grand scale are tests of conceptual schemes E. both hypotheses on a grand scale and conceptual schemes 4 can usually be tested directly MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 According to Conant, the idea that Galileo used to explain the failure of pumps to raise water more than 34 feet was that A. nature abhors a vacuum B. mechanical defects existed in all pumps C. water is incompressible D. a water column, like a long wire, breaks under a stress 5 E. atmospheric pressure was a causal factor MACRO SUB-ITEM # 6 select the one condition which contributes least toward the development of a conceptual scheme. A. The time must be ripe for scientific discovery to be effective. B. Scientific variables must be controlled. C. A previous accepted conceptual scheme which already explains the phenomena. D. The adoption of ad hoc (special or for this purpose only) assumptions to support theories. 6 E. The use of deductive experimentation or tests. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 7 Avogadro's hypothesis concerning the relationship between volumes of gases and the number of particles or molecules they contain is now considered a A. generalization B. conceptual scheme C. discarded hypothesis D. law 7 E. fruitful hypothesis MACRO SUB-ITEM # 8 The concept of atmospheric pressure A. was proved by the simple process of deductive reasoning B. depended upon the presence of a funiculus C. could never have arisen without a knowledge of Gay Lussac's law D. led Boyle into a series of fruitful experiments dealing with vacuums 8 E. proves that nature abhors a vacuum MACRO SUB-ITEM # 9 9 their contemporaries 1200004 D 15 14889 32 01530281800112 ETS2 OS The lowering of the temperature of a liquid by evaporation was probably first discovered by A. deducing the consequences of the kinetic theory B. controlled experimentation C. speculation D. observation 9 E. inductive reasoning 1200005 CECA 45 14893 52 0304007780011290 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2The following questions refer to Lavoisier's experiments with 0 muriatic acid. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 Of the following methods, Lavoisier would best support his contention that the acidity of muriatic acid is due to the presence of oxygen by A. showing that oxygenated muriatic acid is stronger than muriatic acid itself B. showing that all other oxygen-containing substances are acidic C. showing that other substances are capable of uniting with a sufficient amount of oxygen to form acids D. preparing muriatic acid by combining a non-acidic or weakly- acidic substance with oxygen 1 E. isolating oxygen as a decomposition product of muriatic acid MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 The subsequent discovery that muriatic acid contains no oxygen A. invalidates the criteria by which Lavoisier identified acids B. excludes muriatic acid from the class of acids C. necessitates postulating another element as the cause of acidity D. makes this one exception necessary to the theory that oxygen is the cause of acidity E. invalidates the oxygen theory of acidity but retains the 2 criteria by which acids are recognized MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 Lavoisier states, we cannot have the slightest doubt that it (muriatic acid), like all other acids is composed by the union of oxygen with an acidifiable base. This statement may be best characterized as A. a tentative hypothesis designed to guide further investigation B. a redefinition of the term "acid" in terms of observables C. a conclusion arising from similarity of properties of muriatic acid and oxygen-containing acids D. an inference from experimental data on muriatic acid E. a necessary consequence of the theory that all substances 3 containing a maximum amount of oxygen are acids MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 In view of the subsequent finding that muriatic acid contains no oxygen, which of the following comments is best justified? A. Lavoisier erred in basing conclusions on qualitative rather than quantitative data. B. Lavoisier violated his own precepts by making hypotheses. C. Lavoisier's error demonstrates the need of an atomic theory as a guiding principle. D. To the extent that a scientist may feel it unnecessary to prove all highly probably conclusions, Lavoisier was justified. E. Lavoisier's entire scheme of classification is invalid, since 9 it contains a false assumption. 1200006 BBCE 45 14925 32 0304010980011290 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2The following items refer to Lavoisier's experiments with 0 mercury to determine the composition of air. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 In Lavoisier's determination of the composition of air, the experiment in which mercury was calcined in the presence of a restricted amount of air is best considered to be A. a complete analysis of the air B. a step in an analysis of the air C. a step in a synthesis of the air D. a complete synthesis of the air 1 E. simultaneous analysis and synthesis of the air MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 The subsequent experiment in which the red calx of mercury was heated in the absence of air is best considered to be A. a complete analysis of the air B. the final step in a partial analysis of air C. the final step in a partial synthesis of air D. the final step in a complete synthesis of the air 2 E. none of the above MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 The heating of the red calx of mercury can also be looked on as A. an analysis of the mercury B. a synthesis of the mercury C. an analysis of the mercuric calx D. a synthesis of the mercuric calx 3 E. a part of the synthesis of the mercuric oxide MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 In terms of Lavoisier's criteria for adequate chemical evidence, proof that ordinary air is composed of the two parts, "mephitis" and "highly" respirable air, requires that Lavoisier A. use no more than the results of the experiments mentioned in the previous questions B. prove that "mephitis" and "highly" respirable air cannot themselves be separated into any more substances C. show that no substance other than air is composed of "mephitis" and "highly" respirable air. D. show that "mephitis" and "highly" respirable air can each be obtained from other compound substances, although not necessarily from the same compound substances E. show that when "mephitis" and "highly" respirable air only are combined in the proportions in which they were obtained 9 from air, the mixture behaves in all ways as air 1200007 C 14 14951 31 056106168004 2 OS In some cases Moseley found that the variation in the wave lengths of x-rays between two successive elements was twice as great as his conclusions justified. He concluded that A. the atomic weight of the first element was incorrect B. the atomic weights of the second element was incorrect C. the element was misplaced in the periodic table 9 D. the existence of an inert gas was indicated 1200008 CBE 35 14957 52 0323032480011390 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2Davy found that the combining volumes of oxygen with 100 volumes of 0 nitrogen are 49.5, 108.9 and 204.7. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 From these results Gay-Lussac concluded that the volume ratios are 2:1, 1:1, and 1:2. What justification did Gay-Lussac have for such a conclusion? A. The measured values are closer to these simple ratios than to any others. B. Combination in definite proportions had already been established; simple volume ratios are, therefore, to be expected. C. The other gas reactions studied showed similar clusterings of data around simple ratios. D. Although subsequent measurements justified the conclusion, these data do not justify it. 1 E. Natural laws take the simplest possible forms. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 Rayleigh found that the density of nitrogen isolated from air is about 0.47% greater than that of nitrogen prepared by chemical means. May this difference be regarded as significant? A. Only if two kinds of nitrogen gas are assumed to exist B. Only if this difference is much larger than the experimental error involved C. Only if the experimental error is considered to be zero D. Any discrepancy among related data must be regarded as significant 2 E. This difference is too small to have any real significance MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 In view of your answers to the preceding two items, what general statement may be made as to the criteria for significance of deviations in experimental data? A. The point at which deviations are great enough to be considered significant are arbitrarily decided by each investigator concerned. B. Deviations of less than 1% may be attributed to experimental error but greater deviations are real. C. Deviations may be considered significant only if they reappear in a great many similar measurements. D. The only criterion is whether or not the best theory available can account for such deviations. E. The significance of deviations is determined by the precision 9 of measurement. 1200009 D 15 14984 52 02650312800111 ETS2 OS In order to help determine the existence of a degree of order and organization in a constantly changing environment, certain methods of investigation have been emphasized especially in connection with the studies on physical and chemical changes and the derivation of two of the gas laws. These methods are A. obtaining data, classifying the data, and then placing it on graphs B. identification, recognition and classification of dynamic relationships between quantities C. identification of all variables involved, then keeping one variable fixed while others are varied one after another D. direct and inverse comparisons of observed differences E. application of external agents, careful observation of results, and formulation of hypotheses leading to fruitful 9 investigations 1200010 D 15 14995 31 04830293800111 ETS2 OS The Brownian movement was so named because a man named Brown noticed that finely divided solid particles suspended in a liquid moved about continuously. He attributed this to A. convection currents in the liquid B. electrical forces of attraction and repulsion C. chemical activity between the substances D. molecular movement of liquid particles 9 E. Newton's law of universal gravitation 1200011 C 15 15001 71 0189 05 Which of the following elements was NOT named for a geographical area? 9 A. Francium B. Thulium C. Samarium D. Copper E. Ruthenium 1200012 B 14 15003 31 018906638004 2 OS An element discovered by the use of the spectroscope is A. lithium B. cesium C. potassium 9 D. sodium 1200013 B 14 44866 31 019501138004 2 OS The statement, "Equal volumes of all gases, under the same conditions of temperature and pressure, contain the same number of molecules, is credited to A. Gay-Lussac C. Berthollet E. Dalton 9 B. Avogadro D. Proust 1200014 D 14 45640 31 018906068004 2 OS An element whose discovery was not predicted by Mendeleev is A. scandium C. gallium E. they were all predicted by 9 B. germanium D. helium Mendeleev 1200015 C 15 15010 31 018502630580 0042 The charge on the electron was originally determined by A. using Avogadro's principle. B. measuring the equivalent conductance of ions. C. Millikan's oil-drop experiment. D. hysteresis measurements. 9 E. alpha-particle bombardment. 1200016 C 15 15014 31 079702680757 0042 Which name-idea association is incorrect? A. Mendeleev-periodic table B. Moseley-atomic number C. De Broglie-uncertainty principle D. Pauli-exclusion principle 9 E. Rutherford-alpha particle scattering. 1200017 E 15 15017 51 141402680272 0044 Each of the following statements describes the significance of a certain key experiment or idea. Which one is not correct? 3 ___ A. J. J. Thomson used a primitive mass spectrometer to measure the charge-to-mass ratio of the electron. Subsequently R. A. Millikan's oil drop experiment provided a value for the electronic charge. B. The solution to the Schroedinger wave equation for the hydrogen atom does not exactly specify the electron's position but only the probability of finding the electron in a given region of space. C. Einstein explained the photoelectric effect by applying Planck's idea of the quantization of radiant energy to the ionization of atoms. D. Rutherford's experiment on the scattering of alpha particles showed that the mass of the nucleus is concentrated in a very small volume. E. Roentgen discovered x-rays and noted that they were deflected by electric and magnetic fields and therefore 9 were beams of charged particles. 1200018 D 15 15032 51 036103510357 0044 Bohr proposed a theory of atomic structure for the hydrogen atom that was influenced by Rutherford's nuclear model of the atom, the quantum hypothesis and the experimental results of atomic spectroscopy. Which of the below statements is not a correct 3 ___ statement of some aspect of Bohr's theory? A. The energy of the electron in the hydrogen atom depends on only one quantum number, the principle quantum number, n. B. The radius of the hydrogen atom in the ground state (n=1) is 0.529 angstrom. C. The energy of the electron in the hydrogen atom is restricted to certain quantized values, given by 5 2 E = -k/n (n=1,2,3,4,...), where k is a constant D. Although the theory worked well for hydrogen and other atoms of low atomic number, it failed to explain the spectra 5 + 2+ of ions such as He or Li . E. The Rydberg constant used to calculate the frequencies of the lines in the hydrogen spectrum could be precisely calculated from independently determined physical constants (Planck's constant, mass of electron, and 9 charge of electron). 1200019 D 15 15049 31 060609640965 0018 Who was responsible for the discovery of dynamite? 9 A. Dalton B. Kekule C. Meyer D. Nobel E. Curie 1200020 C 15 15051 31 018906060440 0040 In which of the following time periods were the greatest number of elements discovered? A. 1600-1700 B. 1700-1800 C. 1800-1900 D. 1900-1930 9 E. 1930-1975 1200021 D 15 15054 31 1650 0034 Alchemy probably began in the A. 4th century B.C. B. 1st century B.C. C. 1st century A.D. D. 4th century A.D. 9 E. 8th century A.D. 1200022 D 15 15057 31 1651 0474 0034 The first generally accepted scheme of our physical and biological world was formulated by A. Plato. B. Thales of Miletos C. Socrates 9 D. Aristotle E. Democritus 1200023 C 15 15060 31 16501472 0034 To the alchemists, the transmutation of metals into gold was a process that required A. changing the basic composition of the metal B. changing the properties of the metal C. changing the aristotelian qualities of the metal D. purifying the metal 9 E. changing the atomic structure of the metal 1200024 E 15 15065 31 1652 0008 0034 The concept that the primary basis of all nature was water was announced by A. Aristotle B. Lavoisier C. Priestly D. Plato 9 E. Thales of Miletos 1200025 C 15 15068 31 0513 0034 The 17th century (A.D.) saw the rise of A. deductive logic B. inductive logic C. the atomic theory 9 D. the law of conservation of mass E. all of the above 1200026 B 15 15071 31 030302900043 0034 The Phlogiston theory failed in its inability to explain A. the qualitative changes which occurred on combustion B. the weight changes that occurred during combustion C. the phenomenon of respiration D. the "improvement" in the quality of the air when mercury oxide is heated E. the "reduction" of metal oxides to the metal on heating with 9 charcoal 1200027 A 15 15076 31 03030304 0034 The overthrow of the Phlogiston theory is due primarily to 9 A. Lavoisier B. Priestly C. Cavendish D. Franklin E. Dalton 1200028 A 15 15078 31 0114 0034 The inability to pull apart the Magdeburg hemispheres was due to A. the external pressure exerted on the hemispheres B. the fact that nature abhors a vacuum C. the vacuum in the hemispheres holds them together D. the hemispheres were too large 9 E. all of the above 1200029 B 15 15082 31 04330114 0034 The column of mercury in a Torricelli barometer is held up by A. the upward pull of the vacuum in the space above the mercury B. the downward pressure of the air on the pool of mercury C. the attraction between the mercury and the glass tubing wall D. all of the above play a role in holding up the mercury column 9 E. none of the above 1200030 D 15 15087 31 04330321 0034 A mercury barometer placed on the moon would A. be higher than on earth because of the lower gravity B. be lower than on earth because of the lower gravity C. be higher because of the absence of a gaseous atmosphere D. be lower because of the absence of a gaseous atmosphere 9 E. be the same as on earth 1200031 A 15 15092 31 02920113 0034 Avogadro realized that events involving gases at the macroscopic level (gas laws, combining volumes, etc.) could be interpreted in terms of A. events at the molecular level B. collisions between the molecules in the gas C. the sizes of the individual molecules 5 23 D. the number 1.06 x 10 9 E. the kinetic molecular theory 1200032 C 14 15097 31 16500039 0041 The alchemists were: A. early physicians B. French chemists at the time of the revolution C. primarily interested in making gold from base metals 9 D. the men who first developed the scientific method 1200033 B 15 15100 71 1966 OS Which of the following elements was not named for a 3 ___ geographical location? 9 A. Lutetium B. Indium C. Erbium D. Magnesium E. Holmium 1200034 D 15 15103 71 1966 OS Each option below contains three elements. All elements in one set are named for objects in space. That set is ______. A. Uranium, Selenium, Cesium B. Thorium, Mercury, Krypton C. Cerium, Neptunium, Promethium D. Phosphorus, Palladium, Tellurium 9 E. Plutonium, Helium, Thorium 1200035 E 15 15107 71 1966 OS Each option below is followed by a set of three elements. One set contains elements all of which are named for geographical areas. Which set is that? A. Thulium, Osmium, Lutetium B. Iodine, Holmium, Europium C. Yttrium, Gallium, Lanthanum D. Samarium, Francium, Magnesium 9 E. Americium, Copper, Hafnium 1200036 B 15 15112 31 19661469 NGLS ________ hypothesized that it is impossible to know both the exact location and the exact momentum of an object at the same time. 9 A. Planck B. Heisenberg C. Pauli D. Bohr 1200037 D 15 15115 51 MSU Which element is not named after a person? 9 A. Fermium B. Gadolinium C. Curium D. Tellurium E. Nobelium 1220001 BB 25 15117 32 0304030380011390 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2Answer the following questions concerned with the Phlogiston 0 theory MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 A theory widely held in Lavoisier's time was that combustion consisted in the escape of a material substance, Phlogiston, from a burning material into the surrounding atmosphere. By which of the following assumptions can the Phlogiston theory best account for the fact that a wax candle burns only for a short time in a closed jar, but can be burned again if the jar is opened? A. The amount of Phlogiston in the wax is limited. B. The atmosphere can become saturated with Phlogiston. C. Part of the Phlogiston is in stable combination with the wax. D. Phlogiston is repelled by the atmosphere under certain conditions. E. The pressure of the surrounding atmosphere is necessary in 1 order to expel the Phlogiston. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 Which of the following observations is most difficult to explain on the basis of the statements given above about the Phlogiston theory? A. Air in which mercury is heated decreases in volume. B. Combustion of some substances results in an increase in weight; combustion of others, in a decrease. C. Air in which mercury is heated is rendered unfit for breathing. D. Air in which the red calx of mercury is strongly heated supports combustion more vigorously than does ordinary air. E. If a candle is burned in a closed vessel, the total weight 9 of the contents does not change. 1220002 E 15 15136 32 03220304800113 ETS2 OS On mixing the mephitic air with vital air in the proportion of 73 to 27, Lavoisier obtained a gas precisely similar to atmospheric air in all its properties, how can this result, taken by itself, be reconciled with the Phlogiston theory? A. By postulating an excess of Phlogiston in mephitic air and a deficiency in vital air. B. By identifying vital air as Phlogiston and mephitic air as dephlogisticated air. C. By postulating that mephitic air is pure Phlogiston. D. No reconciliation is necessary since the rival theories agree on the interpretation of this result. E. No reconciliation is possible; this result is incompatible 9 with the Phlogiston theory. 1220003 A 15 15146 32 03010302800114 ETS2 OS According to the Phlogiston theory, when wood burns its ashes weigh less than the original wood, and the decrease in weight may be reasonably interpreted as the weight of the Phlogiston which has escaped. When a metal is heated, however, the resulting powder weighs more than the original metal. In terms of the Phlogiston theory, this would seem to indicate that A. Phlogiston could also have a negative weight, so that its escape would therefore make a substance heavier B. Burning is a different chemical process than that which is involved in the heating of a metal until it changes into a powder C. While burning liberates Phlogiston, heating a metal attracts Phlogiston D. In burning a substance some of the Phlogiston which is present is consumed as the product of combustion, while in heating a metal Phlogiston combines with the metal to form scale 9 E. More than one of these could account for the results 1220004 B 15 15159 32 00590303800112 ETS2 OS When a large jar is placed over a lighted candle, the candle burns for a few minutes and then goes out. On the basis of the Phlogiston theory, this would suggest that A. all the Phlogiston in the air was consumed by the burning candle B. the air in the jar became saturated with Phlogiston C. the air in the jar becaue too hot to receive Phlogiston D. carbon dioxide produced by the burning candle extinguished the flame E. this is a phenomenon that could not be explained by the 9 Phlogiston theory 1220005 C 15 15167 52 03038001001514 ETS2 OS We no longer accept the Phlogiston hypothesis of combustion because prediction does not agree with observation in one of the 3 ___ following instances. A. Combustion of a substance results in a new substance being formed. B. New properties may appear when a substance is burned. C. When a metal is burned Phlogiston is expelled from it, resulting in a loss of weight. D. Metals can be recovered from their ores by heating with charcoal. E. A substance heated in a limited amount of air is only 9 partially burned. 1300001 B 14 15175 31 019080040255 2 OS A hydrated proton is called a A. deuterium B. hydronium ion C. hydroxide ion 9 D. hydrogen ion 1300002 B 14 15177 31 007001928004 2 OS The term ionization is correctly used with substances which A. are electrovalent B. form polar molecules C. are hygroscopic 9 D. form macromolecules 1300003 D 14 15180 31 010905158004 2 OS On exposure to air a deliquescent substance A. oxidizes B. crystallizes C. loses water of hydration 9 D. becomes moist 1300004 C 14 15182 31 040708068004 2 OS A reaction in which the products possess more energy than the reactants is A. an isothermic reaction B. reversible reaction C. endothermic reaction 9 D. exothermic reaction 1300005 C 14 15185 31 022400668004 2 OS The simplest formula for a compound is A. the correct formula B. the molecular formula C. the empirical formula 9 D. the atomic formula 1300006 B 14 44453 31 007300948004 2 OS When calcium metal reacts with elemental sulfur, the compound formed is calcium A. sulfate B. sulfide C. sulfite D. thiosulfate 9 E. persulfate 1300007 B 14 15190 31 006601891296 0041 Which of the following compounds contains only two elements? A. sodium sulfate B. potassium chloride 9 C. potassium nitrate D. magnesium carbonate 1300008 E 15 15193 32 081217951507 0042 In which case is the symbol of the nuclide accurately described? 5 1 A. H is isotopic with hydrogen-1, 4 1 5 65 B. Cu is an isobar of copper-65 4 29 5 19 C. F has Z=19, 4 9 5 80 D. Br will have 36 electrons when ionized so as to possess 2 4 35 negative charges, 5 37 E. Cl when mixed with 77% of chlorine-35 will provide an 4 17 9 average atomic weight of 35.45 for the mixture. 1300009 A 15 15200 31 079701920705 0042 What is the name of a substance whose empirical formula is LiH? A. lithium hydride B. lithium hydrate C. lithium amide 9 D. lithium hydroxide E. none of these is correct. 1300010 D 15 15203 31 02241178 0042 Write the formula of the hydrogen carbonate ion. 5 2- - - 2- A. H CO , B. HCO , C. H CO , D. HCO , E. HCO . 94 2 3 3 2 4 3 3 1300011 B 15 15206 31 0224 0042 The correct formula of calcium hydroxide is: A. Ca(OH) B. Ca(OH) C. Ca (OH) D. CaOH E. Ca(OH) . 94 2 2 2 3 1300012 A 15 15209 31 132803510094 0042 The "thio" prefix indicates that an atom of sulfur has replaced an atom of 9 A. oxygen B. chlorine C. hydrogen D. nitrogen E. carbon 1300013 D 14 15211 51 17611178 0043 The ferricyanide ion is: 5 6- 4- 6- 3- A. Fe(CN) B. Fe(CN) C. Fe(CN) D. Fe(CN) 94 4 6 3 6 1300014 D 14 15214 51 0457 0043 The following is not an alum: A. KAl(SO ) .12H O B. NH Al(SO ) .12H O 4 4 2 2 4 4 2 2 C. NH Cr(SO ) .12H O D. Al (SO ) .18H O 94 4 4 2 2 2 4 3 2 1300015 D 14 15217 31 1769 0043 Carborundum is: A. CaC B. Fe C C. CaCO D. SiC. 94 2 3 3 1300016 A 14 15219 31 019212540695 0043 Compounds with the same molecular formula but different structures are called: 9 A. isomers B. polymers C. esters D. isotopes E. allotropes 1300017 D 14 15221 31 08790094 0043 Although the details of the structure of monoclinic sulfur are not all known, it probably consists of: A. S chains B. S molecules C. S rings D. S rings. 94 8 2 4 8 1300018 D 14 15224 31 0094 0043 It is known that rhombic sulfur consists of: A. S chains B. S molecules C. S rings D. S rings. 94 8 2 4 8 1300019 A 14 15227 51 0077 0043 Hypobromous acid is: A. HOBr B. HOBrO C. HOBrO D. HOBrO 94 2 3 1300020 C 15 15229 31 0115 0047 Sodium stearate is a component of 9 A. table salt B. sand C. soap D. margarine E. detergent 1300021 D 14 15231 32 0081 0043 The number of syllables in the word dissociation is: 9 A. 8 B. 7 C. 6 D. 5 1300022 D 14 15233 31 022408130176 0043 The formula of anhydrous copper sulfate is: A. CuSO .5H O B. Cu(H O) SO .H O C. Cu(H O) SO D. CuSO 94 4 2 2 4 4 2 2 4 4 4 1300023 A 15 15236 31 07970037 0044 Select the proper set of names for the following four compounds: 1. Cu(CN) 2. Sn(ClO ) 3. Fe (SO ) 4. AgCl 4 2 3 4 2 3 3 2 A. 1. copper(II) cyanide 2. tin(IV) chlorate 3. iron(III) sulfite 4. silver(II) chloride B. 1. curium(II) cyanide 2. tin(IV) chlorate 3. iron(III) sulfate 4. gold(II) chloride C. 1. copper(II) cyanide 2. tin(IV) perchlorate 3. iron(III) sulfite 4. silver(II) chloride D. 1. curium(II) cyanide 2. tin(IV) chlorate 3. iron(III) sulfite 4. silver(II) chloride. 9 E. None of the above. 1300024 B 15 15245 31 07970037 0044 Which of the following four compounds is incorrectly named? 3 ___________ A. TiSe B. Na C O C. V(ClO ) D. AlPO 4 2 2 2 4 3 3 4 A. titanium(IV) selenide B. sodium acetate C. vanadium(III) chlorate D. aluminum phosphate 9 E. none of the above. 1300025 C 15 15250 31 07970037 0044 Select the proper set of names for the following four compounds: 1. Au(MnO ) 2. NiS 3. Cu(CrO ) 4. Zn(NO ) 4 4 3 4 3 2 A. 1. gold(III) permanganate 2. niobium(II) sulfide 3. copper(I) chromate 4. zinc nitrite B. 1. gold(III) permanganate 2. nickel(II) sulfide 3. copper(II) chromate 4. zinc nitrite C. 1. gold(III) permanganate 2. nickel(II) sulfide 3. copper(II) chromate 4. zinc nitrate D. 1. gold(III) manganate 2. nickel(II) sulfide 3. copper(II) chromate 4. zinc nitrate 9 E. none of the above. 1300026 C 15 15259 31 07970037 0044 Which of the following four compounds is incorrectly named? 3 ___________ A) Cu(CrO ) B) Al(NO ) C) Bi (C O ) D) Ag Se 4 4 2 3 2 2 4 3 2 A. copper(II) chromate B. aluminum nitrite C. bismuth(III) acetate D. silver(I) selenide 9 E. none of the above. 1300027 E 15 15264 31 00350797 0028 The correct name for NaClO is 4 4 A. sodium hypochlorite B. sodium chlorite C. sodium perchlorite D. sodium chlorate 9 E. sodium perchlorate 1300028 B 15 15267 31 1166 0020 Slaked lime is A. calcium carbonate B. calcium hydroxide C. calcium oxide D. calcium phosphate 9 E. none of these 1300029 E 15 15269 51 128912900943 0020 The publication that is the key to the world's chemical literature is A. the A.C.S. B. Chemical Reviews C. J. Chemical Education D. Chemistry Today 9 E. Chemical Abstracts 1300030 E 15 15272 31 07971325 0020 A better name for stannous nitrate is A. stannic nitrate B. tin(IV)nitrate C. tin(III) nitrate D. stannous nitrite 9 E. tin(II) nitrate 1300031 E 15 15275 31 00661326 0020 Which of the following compounds is not a binary compound? A. sodium hydride B. lead dioxide C. phosphorus pentachloride D. calcium iodide 9 E. all are binary 1300032 A 15 15278 31 13271328 0020 The Greek prefix for seven is A. hepta B. hexa C. septa D. nona 9 E. none of these 1300033 D 15 15280 31 00661329 0020 The compound PCl can correctly be called 4 3 A. phosphorus trichloride B. monophosphorus trichloride C. phosphorus(III) chloride D. all of the above 9 E. none of the above 1300034 E 15 15283 31 0224 0020 The formula for aluminum sulfate is A. AlSO B. Al SO C. Al(SO ) D. Al (SO ) E. Al (SO ) 94 4 2 4 4 2 3 4 2 2 4 3 1300035 A 15 15286 31 006607971326 0020 A compound whose name has an -ide ending even though it is not a binary compound is A. KCN B. HNO (aq) C. KMnO D. KClO E. H CO 94 3 4 3 2 3 1300036 D 15 15289 31 02600083 0020 NaHCO is called 4 3 A. baking soda B. sodium hydrogen carbonate C. sodium bicarbonate D. all of these 9 E. none of these 1300037 D 15 15291 31 11781330 0020 5 - The ClO ion is called A. perchlorate B. hypochlorate C. perchlorite 9 D. hypochlorite E. chlorite 1300038 A 15 15293 51 032813470161 0020 The emission of light from matter at low temperatures is called A. luminescence B. radium emission C. gamma radiation D. symbiosis 9 E. none of these 1300039 C 15 15296 52 134706651348 0020 Which of the following is not a luminescent phenomenon? A. bioluminescence B. television pictures C. light from flashlight D. phosphorescence 9 E. luminous watch dial 1300040 E 15 15299 51 006602240355 0020 The compound nitric oxide has A. the formula NO 4 2 5 3 B. sp hybrid bonds C. 90 degree bond angles D. 8 electrons around each atom 9 E. none of these 1300041 C 15 15302 31 117814610025 0040 Which of the following polyatomic ions does not contain oxygen? 3 ________ A. sulfate B. acetate C. cyanide 9 D. peroxide E. permanganate. 1300042 B 15 15305 51 117801850851 0040 Which of the following polyatomic ions has a negative two charge associated with it? A. phosphate B. carbonate C. chlorate 9 D. both A and B E. both B and C. 1300043 B 15 15308 31 021814610066 0040 The name of the compound Mg N is 4 3 2 A. manganese nitride B. magnesium nitride C. magnesium nitrate D. manganese nitrate 9 E. magnesium nitrate 1300044 D 15 15311 31 146107260006 0040 Which of the following groups of compounds would be named by using Roman numerals to represent oxidation numbers? A. NO , N O , N O B. KCl, KBr, KI 4 2 2 4 2 5 C. H SO , H SO D. CoCl , CoCl 4 2 3 2 4 2 3 9 E. both B and C. 1300045 D 15 15315 31 146102180025 0040 The compound N O can correctly be called 4 2 5 A. nitrogen pentoxide B. dinitrogen tetroxide C. nitrogen trioxide D. dinitrogen pentoxide 9 E. dinitro pentoxide. 1300046 B 15 15318 31 146101000077 0040 HNO is called nitric acid. Therefore, the name of HNO is 4 3 2 A. pernitric acid B. nitrous acid C. hyponitrous acid D. hydronitric acid 9 E. no correct response is given. 1300047 A 15 15322 31 146100770056 0040 Which formula is followed by its correct name? A. H SO --sulfurous acid B. HClO --chlorous acid 4 2 3 3 C. H S--sulfuric acid D. HNO - nitric acid 4 2 2 9 E. both A and B. 1300048 C 15 15326 31 001814610066 0040 Which of the following compounds has a name ending in the suffix-ate? A. KCN B. H SO C. KClO D. H S 4 2 3 3 2 9 E. both A and C. 1300049 B 15 15329 32 003500570025 0040 The name for the oxide of sulfur in which the sulfur has an oxidation number of +4 is A. sulfur monoxide B. sulfur dioxide C. sulfur trioxide D. disulfur monoxide 9 E. sulfurous oxide. 1300050 E 15 15332 31 00640354 0035 Which of the following is an inert gas? 9 A. Mg B. Si C. C D. P E. Ar 1300051 D 15 15334 31 166109610066 0034 Organic chemistry may be defined as that branch of chemistry that includes A. molecules that contain only the element carbon B. molecules that are synthesized only in living systems C. substances that are endowed with a "vital force" D. compounds of carbon and other elements 9 E. molecules capable of forming long chains 1300052 E 15 15339 32 1461 05 The compound Fe O is named 4 2 3 A. iron(II) oxide D. ferrous oxide B. iron dioxide E. iron(III) oxide 9 C. ferric oxalate 1300053 A 14 15342 32 1461 0540 The compound Na S is named 4 2 A. sodium sulfide C. sodium sulfite 9 B. sodium sulfate D. sodium sulfone 1300054 A 14 15344 32 1461 0540 The compound K SO is named 4 2 4 A. potassium sulfate C. potassium sulfite E. potassium sulfide 9 B. sodium sulfate D. sodium sulfite 1300055 C 14 15347 52 1948 0059 The formula of gallium (III) perchlorate is: A. GaClO B. Ga ClO C. Ga(ClO ) D. GaClO 94 4 3 4 4 3 3 1300056 A 14 15350 52 1948 0059 The formula of tin (II) sulfate is: A. SnSO B. Sn SO C. Sn(SO ) D. Sn (SO ) 94 4 2 4 4 2 2 4 3 1300057 C 14 15352 52 19470224 0058 The formula for lithium orthophosphate is: A. LiPO B. LiPO C. Li PO D. Li(PO ) 94 4 3 3 4 3 3 1300058 A 14 15354 52 1949 0060 The formula of hypophosphorous acid is: A. H PO B. H P O C. H P O D. H P O 94 3 2 4 2 5 4 2 6 4 2 7 1300059 D 14 15356 52 1949 0060 The anhydride of H VO is: 4 3 4 A. VO B. VO C. V O D. V O 94 3 4 2 3 2 5 1300060 EDD 35 15358 52 OS MACROITEM STEM 0 Match the name to the formula: MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 bicarbonate 5 = - = = A. C O B. HC O C. H CO D. CO E. HCO 14 2 4 2 4 2 3 3 3 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 bromate 5 - - - - - A. Br B. BrO C. BrO D. BrO E. BrO 24 2 3 4 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 phosphite 5 3- 3- 3- 3- 3- A. P B. PO C. PO D. PO E. PO 94 2 3 4 1300061 D 14 15366 31 029300728004 2 OS A difference between a molecule of ammonia and an ammonium ion is one A. electron B. neutron C. positron 9 D. proton 1300062 A 15 45181 31 Choose the pair of names and formulas that do not match. A. sodium sulfite, Na S D. aluminum bromide, AlBr 4 2 3 B. calcium fluoride CaF E. iron(III) oxide Fe O 4 2 2 3 C. potassium permanganate, KMnO 94 4 1300063 B 15 45186 71 The oxoanion which comes from nitrous acid is: 5 - - - A. NO B. NO C. NO D. N O E. HNO 94 2 3 2 3 3 1600001 C 15 15368 31 02670266800111 ETS2 OS Inductive reasoning is a phase of logic concerned primarily with A. solving problems by formula B. classification and systematic organization of facts C. developing laws from a study of assembled facts D. observing natural phenomena 9 E. the statement of a theory 1600002 A 15 15372 32 02690268800111 ETS2 OS One of the baffling features of the advance of science lies in the A. unpredictable way in which revolutionary ideas have developed B. reluctance of famous scientists to accept new ideas or concepts C. slow development of new ideas by logical thought D. reluctance of professors and scientists to mingle with artisans E. reluctance with which new ideas have been applied to 9 everyday events 1600003 C 14 15378 32 02760277800111 ETS2 OS A theory is A. used interchangeably with the word "principle" B. the method of applying some principle to the solution of a problem C. a generalization standing midway between a hypothesis and law D. a generalization standing midway between a hypothesis and 9 principle 1600004 A 14 15383 31 02810282800111 ETS2 OS The process in which one systematically observes and builds up piecemeal scientific principles is called A. deduction B. induction C. intuition 9 D. hypothesis 1600005 B 15 15386 52 02100277800111 ETS2 OS Proust's Law of definite proportions which states that the elements which make up a chemical compound are combined in a definite proportion by weight, is a A. concept which arose out of abstract thinking B. generalization which was developed as a means of integrating many observed facts C. hypothesis which stemmed from a concept by means of a chain of reasoning D. conceptual scheme which was theorized from a set of proven hypotheses E. general unsubstantiated belief becoming accepted as law as a 9 result of the passage of time 1600006 A 14 15394 32 02850031800111 ETS2 OS F=k x m x m is an expression of 4 1 2 3 _______ 5 2 d A. a natural law B. an hypothesis C. a theory 9 D. an assumption 1600007 D 15 15397 32 02868001028811 ETS2 OS A statement such as "The heats of formation between the halogens and carbon were checked and they increase from iodine to fluorine," represents A. a hypothesis B. a problem C. the specification of a problem D. data used in the solution of a problem 9 E. none of these 1600008 B 15 15401 52 02890283800111 ETS2 OS From the general principle that "To every action there is always an equal reaction," it may be concluded that a rocket ship will travel out in space moving forward by reaction from the materials ejected. This best illustrates A. inductive reasoning B. deductive reasoning C. testing an hypothesis experimentally D. discovering a scientific law 9 E. utilization of common sense 1600009 C 15 15407 52 02900278800111 ETS2 OS When one evolves a new explanation of why a certain cause produces a certain effect with the idea of testing the explanation observationally or experimentally, it is MoSt appropriate to call the explanation A. a deduction B. a scientific law C. an hypothesis D. a general theory 9 E. an example of inductive reasoning 1600010 B 15 15412 31 00870089800111 ETS2 OS In solution, all electrolytes break down into atoms or groups of atoms carrying positive or negative charges. This is classified as a/an A. hypothesis B. theory C. definition D. natural law 9 E. unverifiable hypothesis 1600011 C 15 15416 32 03260054800114 ETS2 OS A photoelectric cell for measuring intensities of light has been constructed on the theory that electrons exist. Calculations based on this theory give correct values for the intensity of light falling on the cell for all values of the current through the cell. If in the future scientists find evidence against the existence of electrons, A. we should stop using the cell B. we should have to reconstruct the cell C. we could use the cell but not the electron theory for calculating the intensity of light D. we could continue using the electron theory for calculating the intensity of light 9 E. none of the above is true 1600012 CE 25 15425 52 0284027680011190 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2The following questions involve terms used in science. Select from 2the key the most closely related term for each item. 2 A. definition 2 B. observation 2 C. theory 2 D. verification of hypothesis 0 E. natural law MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 The atom consists of a positive nucleus with one or more planetary 1 electrons revolving around it in orbital motion. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 In every sample of any compound substance, formed or decomposed, the proportion by weight of the constituent elements is always 9 the same. 1600014 AEC 35 15432 52 0284027680011190 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2The following questions involve terms used in science. Select 2from the key the most closely related term for each item. 2 A. definition 2 B. observation 2 C. theory 2 D. verification of hypothesis 0 E. natural law MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 About 1887 congress passed a law making the yard 3600/3937 of the 1 standard meter. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 In every sample of any compound substance, formed or decomposed, the proportion by weight of the constituent elements is always 2 the same. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 The molecules of an electrolyte are broken up in solution into 9 their constituent radicals, each being charged 1600015 DAACDEBAB95 15440 52 0296029780011190 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2Read the following selection carefully. 2The northwestern tip of Quebec just south of Baffin Island, is 2flat, sodden tundra sprinkled thickly with little lakes. Most of 2them are irregularly shaped. But prospector Fred W. Chubb noticed, 2while poring over an aerial photograph, that one lake was almost 2round and surrounded by a wall of rock. This week Dr. V. B. Meen, 2field geologist Ontario Department of Mines, returned from a quick 2air visit to the lake and reported that it was almost certainly a 2meteorite crater (there was no lava or other sign of volcanic 2activity), and the biggest yet discovered. The lake in the crater 2is two and one-half miles across compared with Arizona's famed 2meteorite crater, which is four-fifths of a mile across. Its 2level is about 90 feet above that of other small lakes in the 2vicinity, and around it is a ring of shattered granite that rises 2550 feet above the tundra. The rim is lowest on the north-west 2side, which suggests that the meteorite came from that direction and hit the ground obliquely. 2Dr. Meen found no meteoric iron, only a reddish rock that might 2prove to be the peculiar stony material of which some meteorites 2are made. But there was plenty of other evidence that some enormous 2body had buried itself in the earth shattered blocks of stone from 2football to freight-car size, and concentric circles in the granite 2around the crater, like ripples stirred up by a pebble dropped 2into still water. Dr. Meen estimated that the meteorite must have 2fallen at least 3,000 years ago, since there are no Indian or 2Eskimo legends about it. He named it Chubb crater after the 2sharp-eyed prospector, and promised that a full-dress expedition 2would report on it within a year. Time, August 14, 1950. by permission. Copyright Time, Inc., 1950. 2Directions: For each of the following questions select the best 0 answer, then mark the corresponding space on the answer sheet. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 The basic problem which faces a scientist in the case of this lake is the A. the shape of the lake B. size of the lake C. high elevation of the lake D. origin of the lake 1 E. depth of the lake MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 This problem was suggested by the A. shape of the lake B. size of the lake C. high elevation of the lake D. origin of the lake 2 E. depth of the lake MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 Which one of the following statements is least related to the 3 _____ basic problem? A. The northernwestern tip of Quebec...is flat, sodden tundra, sprinkled thickly with little lakes. B. ..one lake was almost round, and surrounded by a wall of rock. C. There was no lava or other sign of volcanic acitivity. D. Its level is about 80 feet above that of other small lakes in the vicinity, and around it is a ring of shattered granite that rises 550 feet above the tundra. E. (there were) concentric circles in the granite around the crater, like ripples stirred up by a pebble dropped into 3 still water. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 Which one of the following statements would represent the attitude of a scientist? A. He would not say that the lake was of meteoric origin unless he had seen the meteor fall. B. He would say that the lake was of meteoric origin if he had any evidence that pointed in that direction. C. He would say that the lake was probably of meteoric origin if evidence from many different sources pointed in that direction. D. He would state that the lake was of meteoric origin and then would attempt to prove it. E. The economic conditions of the regions would influence his 4 interest in the origin of the lake. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 The statement "It was almost certainly a meteorite crater" is A. a scientific fact B. evidence in support of a scientific fact C. an unfounded assumption D. a reasonable hypothesis 5 E. a chance guess MACRO SUB-ITEM # 6 Which one of the following lines of study would probably furnish the most conclusive means of testing the idea of meteoric origin of the lake? A. Compare the lake with other lakes in the immediate vicinity. B. Accurately survey the lake and territory immediately around it. C. Look for other lakes like this lake in other parts of Quebec and Baffin Island. D. Compare the lake in detail with known meteoric craters. E. Determine the structure and composition of the rock found 6 in the vicinity of the lake. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 7 Which one of the following statements is the best example of an hypotheses? A. Dr. Meen found no meteoric iron, only a reddish rock that might prove to be the peculiar stony material of which some meteorites are made. B. The rim is lowest on the northwest side, which suggests that the meteorite came from that direction and hit the ground obliquely. C. Prospector Fred W. Chubb noticed... that one lake was almost round and surrounded by a wall of rock. D. The lake in the crater is two and one-half miles across, compared with Arizona's famed meteorite crater, which is four-fifths of a mile across. E. Dr. Meen promised that a full-dress expedition would report 7 on it within a year MACRO SUB-ITEM # 8 The face of the moon shows many craters similar to the Chubb and Arizona craters, most of which are larger than either of these. If these craters on the moon were formed by meteorites, why are there fewer of them on the earth? A. The moon has no atmosphere, and therefore there is no erosion working on the moon to destroy the craters. B. More meteorites strike the moon than the earth because the moon is located out in space where the meteorites can reach it more easily. C. The moon is smaller than the earth and therefore the moon is more susceptible to being buffeted by meteorites. D. The natural laws that operate on the earth do not operate on the moon. E. The moon is older than the earth, and therefore has had more 8 time for meteorites to strike it. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 9 9 Uninhabited places 1600016 DDEAAE 65 15518 52 0299029380011690 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2Read the following selection carefully. 2At a temperature of 0 degrees centigrade and standard barometric 2pressure there are about 27,000,000,000,000,000,000 molecules 2in one cubic centimeter of air. These molecules are in constant 2motion, and have an average velocity of about one-quarter of a 2mile per second. This is slightly greater than the speed of 2sound. Under these conditions the average distance traveled by 2a molecule before it strikes another is eight millionths of a centimeter. 2In interstellar space a molecule is believed to travel about 50 2billion miles before it collides with another. Each molecule in 2space collides with another on the average of about once a year. 2For each of the following questions, select the best answer and 0 mark the corresponding space on the answer sheet. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 The statements in the selection are A. wild guesses B. true, because they are based on statements in a reputable textbook C. incredible, because no one can even see molecules, much less measure their speeds and number of collisions D. probably close to the truth because they are the results of calculations based on a well-established theory E. incredible, because no one has ever been able to travel to 1 interstellar space MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 The statements in the selection are A. observed facts B. generalized presentations of fact C. hypotheses D. reasoning based on a theory 2 E. experimental data upholding or disproving an hypothesis MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 The statements in the selection are obtained by the process of A. experimentation B. generalization C. observation D. reasoning from specific data to a principle 3 E. applying a general principle to a specific case MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 The statements in the selection are A. impossible to prove or disprove because one cannot see or handle individual molecules B. impossible to prove or disprove because no instruments are available to measure such distances or speeds C. possible to check experimentally by direct methods D. possible to check experimentally by indirect methods E. impossible to check because of the very large and very 4 small numbers involved MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 If the statements about molecules are true A. the average distance a molecule travels between collisions is large in comparison to its diameter B. there is much more space occupied by molecules than between molecules in the air C. when one molecule strikes another, the first one is destroyed D. the distances between molecules are small compared to their diameters 5 E. each molecule always travels at the same speed MACRO SUB-ITEM # 6 if the statements in the selections are true, which one of the following is inconsistent with them? 3 ____________ A. Matter must be evenly distributed in interstellar space. B. Man can build a machine which will travel as fast as an average air molecule. C. Probably in air few molecules travel as far as one centimeter before colliding with others. D. In interstellar space, molecules travel an average distance of 50,000,000,000 miles before changing directions. 9 E. Interstellar space is a complete vacuum. 1600017 B 14 15560 31 02810320028712 ETS2 OS The observation of data without allowing one's personal motives to "color" the observations is known to social science A. intuition B. objectivity C. subjectivity 9 D. bias 1600020 E 15 15570 52 02760272800111 ETS2 OS A scientific theory is usually established when A. it agrees with about half of the observed experimental facts B. it is based on plain common sense C. almost every person believes it D. about half of the leading scientists accept it E. it accounts for every bit of experimental evidence known at 9 the time 1600021 C 15 15575 32 03080276800111 ETS2 OS A geologist, in attempting to prove a theory A. looks only for evidence that supports the theory B. limits his evidence to observations in easily accessible localities C. records any observations that prove or disprove the theory D. builds on previous concepts despite new evidence 9 E. supports and correlates all evidence with a geologic map 1600022 E 15 15580 32 02720299800111 ETS2 OS The earliest investigator in this field observed after one experiment that water boiled at 100 degrees centigrade (212 degrees F). He concluded that water would always boil at this temperature. His conclusion may be classified as A. a proven fact B. a scientific law C. a deliberate lie D. a haphazard guess 9 E. an invalid assumption 1600023 B 15 15585 32 02780310800111 ETS2 OS A satisfactory scientific hypothesis A. is a collection of accurate observations relating to the same phenomenon B. is an educated guess which explains a large number of observations or a scientific law and can be subjected to further experimental test C. is a summary, often in the form of an equation, of a series of related measurements D. is the name given to a theory which has survived a large number of experimental tests E. is necessary before any accurate scientific measurement can 9 be made 1600024 A 15 15593 32 03110278800111 ETS2 OS The scientific method A. begins with the formation of reasonable hypotheses B. is applied only to the natural sciences C. deduces facts only on the basis of the laws which have been discovered D. evolves laws to fit the theories which have been established E. proceeds in the following order; fact, law, hypothesis, 9 theory 1600025 B 15 15598 32 02660267800111 ETS2 OS Logic, both inductive and deductive, is a necessary part of scientific thinking; but its conclusion must A. be accepted beyond question B. always be tested by experiment C. be based upon a few observations D. never be used today E. be accepted whenever the scientist presenting the theory is an 9 authority in his field 1600026 A 15 15603 32 02910318800112 ETS2 OS A scientist thinks that he understands why a certain cause produces a certain effect, but he refuses to more than tentatively accept his explanation until he has collected adequate data. It is evident from the above alone that this scientist possesses A. scientific attitude B. common sense C. scientific knowledge D. the correct solution to his problem 9 E. a willingness to rationalize 1600027 D 15 15609 32 02720319800112 ETS2 OS A scientific observation A. deals only with living things B. is peculiar to the field of investigation C. provides no possibility of bein duplicated D. can be challenged on the basis of reproducibility 9 E. is conducted only in a laboratory 1600028 B 14 15613 31 02940295800111 ETS2 OS By obtaining knowledge through the logical processes of reason, we are using A. authoritarianism B. rationalism C. intuitionalism 9 D. experimentalism 1600029 EABACBBDE95 15616 52 80018002 1490 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2The following exercise follows the general pattern of scientific 2thinking. A scientist on observation of a given phenomenon 2formulates an hypothesis or several hypotheses, which are 2tentative explanations of the phenomenon. He then thinks about the 2hypothesis or hypotheses in terms of his data. Finally, he derives 2from his data and his thinking about the hypothesis or hypotheses 2a general conclusion, which is his best answer to the problem 2presented by the phenomenon. Be sure to read the directions 2carefully and to follow them explicitly. Base your judgments 2wholly on the information given in the selection. You may refer 2back to the selection as often as you wish. 2As the words imply, a continuous spectrum is a spectrum in which 2there is a continuous band of colors from one end to the other. 2This necessarily means that the light source is emitting all 2frequencies of light between the spectral limits. A bright-line 2spectrum is a spectrum in which there are one or more vertical lines 2of light in certain specific positions. This means that the light 2source is emitting light waves of certain specific frequencies. 2In the isolated atom the electrons have certain definite and 2characteristic motions, which are related to the emission or 2absorption of light waves of certain specific frequencies. Hence, 2when atoms are sufficiently far apart, as in a rarefied gas, and 2are heated to incandescence, the light waves emitted from them 2produce the bright-line spectrum characteristic of the elements 2of the luminous source. However, when the natural motions of 2electrons of each atom are altered by force due to the presence 2of nearby atoms, as in the case of a condensed gas, liquid, or 2solid, the light waves emitted, instead of being of certain 2specific frequencies, are of numerous different frequencies. 2Therefore, incandescent solids, liquids, and dense gases produce continuous spectra. Rarefied gases produce bright-line spectra. 2As previously stated, because of the forces exerted upon them by 2their neighbors, atoms of solids and liquids have their emitting 2frequency ranges greatly widened. For the same reason their 2absorbing frequency ranges are likewise widened. On the other 2hand, since the atoms of vapors and gases at ordinary or low 2pressures are comparatively free to emit waves of their own 2natural frequencies, they can absorb waves of those particular 2frequencies. Consequently, the absorption spectrum of a vapor is 2a spectrum in which there are dark lines corresponding to the 2bright lines in the bright-line spectrum that the vapor would yield if it were incandescent. 2The spectrum obtained from the glowing carbon of a carbon arc is 2continuous and has no vertical lines. When sodium metal is heated 2in a metal spoon held over the flame of a bunsen burner placed 2below the arc, sodium vapor is produced, which surrounds and to 2some extent obscures the arc. A dark line then appears in the 2spectrum of the arc. If the burner and spoon are removed and a tiny 2piece of sodium is inserted between the terminals of the arc, a 2bright yellow line instantly appears in the exact position 2previously occupied by the dark line. 2When light from the sun is observed by means of a spectroscope, the 2continuous spectrum contains a number of vertical lines, which 2appear dark by contrast with the rest of the spectrum. 2 2Problem: What causes the relatively dark lines of the solar 2spectrum? 2Below are given a series of hypotheses, each of which is followed 2by numbered statements. After the answer sheet number corresponding 2to that of each statement, blacken space 2 A. if the statement supports the hypothesis, and this statement 2 B. if the statement supports the hypotheses, but this statement 2 is not justified by the information given 2 C. if the statement contradicts the hypothesis, and this 2 statement is justified by the information given 2 D. if the statement contradicts the hypothesis, but this 2 statement is not justified by the information given 2 E. if the statement is not relevant to the hypothesis, or the 2 statement neither supports nor contradicts the hypothesis. 2Hypothesis I. Sodium atoms, when vaporized but not heated to 0 incandescence, absorb light waves of a definite frequency. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 Sodium is a metal which ignites easily when vaporized in air. 1 (Refer to hypothesis I). MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 When sodium vapor surrounds a carbon arc, a dark line appears in 2 the spectrum of the arc. (Refer to hypothesis I). MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 Sodium vapor under the conditions described absorbs light of a definite frequency, because the natural motions of the electrons of each of its atoms are altered by forces due to the presence of 3 nearby atoms. (Refer to hypothesis I). MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 Blacken space A if hypothesis I is true, or space B if it is false. 4 (Refer to hypotheses I). MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 Hypothesis II. Incandescent solids yield bright-line spectra. The atoms of a solid are SO closely packed together that the 5 natural motions of the electrons of its atoms are altered. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 6 Atoms of incandescent solids are far enough apart that the motions of the electrons are unaltered by atomic forces; hence, such atoms 6 yield bright-line spectra. (Refer to hypothesis ii). MACRO SUB-ITEM # 7 blacken space a if hypothesis ii is true, or space b if it is false. 7 (Refer to hypothesis ii). MACRO SUB-ITEM # 8 hypothesis III. The atmosphere of the sun contains atoms less incandescent than the atoms on the surface of the sun. A brilliant corona is observed during a total eclipse of the sun by the moon; hence the atmosphere of the sun is more incandescent 8 than its surface. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 9 9 Cooler than the rest of the surface. (Refer to hypothesis III). 1600030 D 15 15689 32 05560048800114 ETS2 OS A glowing splint placed in oxygen will burst into flame. Assume that if placed in other gases lacking in oxygen, the glowing splint is extinguished. A jar of oxygen and a jar of nitrogen were placed with their mouths separated by a glass plate. The plate was removed for a few seconds, then a glowing splint was placed in each jar. The splint burst into flame in both containers. This provides direct evidence that 3 ______ ________ A. the two gases intermingled B. the oxygen diffused into the nitrogen C. the nitrogen diffused into the oxygen D. oxygen is present in both jars 9 E. none of the above is correct 1600032 BACBABD 74 15698 51 0513049980011190 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2The following questions relate to one of the four theories listed 2below. After each item blacken the space 2 A. if the statement belongs to the atomic theory 2 B. if the statement belongs to the kinetic theory 2 C. if the statement belongs to the theory of ionization 0 D. if the statement belongs to the theory of isostacy MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 The molecules of a substance attract one anoTher. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 Matter is discontinuous. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 3 The charge of an ion is proportional to its valence. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 The distance between the molecules of a gas is extremely 4 great in comparison to their diameters. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 5 Compounds are formed by the union of atoms in simple ratios. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 6 6 Heat is molecular motion. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 7 There has been progressive subsidence in the Mississippi 9 deltaic region through long intervals of geologic time. 1600033 CDBCDB 64 15708 52 0272060880011690 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2The following questions are to be answered in accordance with the 2key 2 A. The statement has been proved by experiment or observation. 2 B. The statement is theoretical or hypothetical. 2 C. The statement is a definition. 2 D. The statement has been proved false by experiment or 0 observation. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 The mass of 1 cc. of water at 4 degrees C. is one gram. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 The gravitational attraction is the same at all places on the 2 surface of the earth. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 3 The number of different kinds of atoms is limited. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 The acceleration of a body is equal to the time rate of change 4 of velocity. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 5 The mass of a hydrogen atom is 100 times that of an electron. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 6 The number of molecules in a liter of a gas at 0 degrees C. and 76 cm. of mercury pressure is the same as the number of molecules in 9 a liter of any other gas at the same pressure and temperature. 1600034 A 14 15719 31 026905888003 2WVW The science that deals with the study of matter is A. chemistry B. zoology C. botany 9 D. physics 1600037 CCDCADBC 85 15721 52 0278027680011190 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2The following questions involve terms used in science. Select 2from the key the most closely related term for each of the items. 2 Key 2 A. deduction 2 B. theory 2 C. natural law 2 D. definition 0 E. none of these MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 Our senses observe and interpret within certain limitations. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 The atom is composed of electrons, protons, and usually neutrons. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 Natural philosophy is concerned with fundamental concepts of time and space, matter and energy, and their relationship with 3 each other. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 F = k x m x m 4 1 2 ------- 5 2 4 d MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 One of the explanations of the origin of the solar system is 5 known as the planetesimal. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 6 A conclusion drawn from many particular observations is known 6 as a special type of reasoning. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 7 Science frequently uses statements agreeing with all observations made so far or a tentative principle which is plausible on the 7 basis of observations. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 8 In every sample of any compound substance formed or decomposed the proportion by weight of the constituent elements is always the 9 same. 1600038 A 14 15735 31 80038004 2WVW Three of the following constitute advantages that may arise from the use of symbolism. Which one is a disadvantage? A. The symbol may become completely dissociated from the object it represents. B. Under certain conditions the symbol makes unnecessary the manipulation of the object it represents. C. Information can be stored. 9 D. Experience can be gained vicariously. 1600039 C 14 15741 31 80038004 2WVW A symbol, if it is to have value as a means of communication between one person or group and another, must possess which one of the following characteristics? A. It must suggest to the person using it some characteristic of the object or concept that it represents. B. It must suggest to the person using it as wide a variety of objects or concepts as possible. C. It must suggest the same object or concept to all persons using it in the same way. 9 D. It must have only one meaning regardless of how it is used. 1600040 D 15 15749 31 027802650279 0018 Which of the following sequences for the scientific theory is correct? A. facts-experiments-hypothesis-theory-laws B. hypothesis-facts-experiments-laws-theory C. facts-hypothesis-experiments-theory-laws D. facts-hypothesis-experiments-laws theory 9 E. none of the above 1600041 C 14 15753 31 0311 0026 A goal of chemistry is to be able to explain phenomena of matter on the basis of its 9 A. laws B. facts C. structure D. macroscopic properties. 1600042 A 14 15756 31 02650269 0026 A summarization of a large body of related facts is a(n) A. law B. theory C. example of deductive thinking 9 D. synthetic hypothesis. 1600043 D 14 15758 31 11570269 0026 All of the following are true of submicroscopic models except one A. could be mathematical B. could be pictorial C. use macroscopic phenomena to portray or explain ideas about parts of matter too small to be seen 9 D. become laws with sufficient passage of time. 1600044 E 15 15762 32 027606311288 0020 A sample of metal has a density of 6.75 g/cc. Its specific gravity is A. 6.75 g/cc B. 0.148 C. 1.48 g/cc D. 0.675 g/ml 9 E. 6.75 1600045 D 15 15765 52 031102761402 0019 The correct scientific reaction to a situation involving different theories concerning the same chemical and physical properties should be A. Always reject out of hand any new theory by young upstarts. B. When several cases of agreement of two theories with experiment are found, one may conclude that both theories are always equally valid. C. Always accept the word of a professor as gospel and not subject to change--since he makes out grades and gives the degrees. D. Seek to find an experimental measurement for a case which has differing predictions according to which theory is used. E. Form a hybrid of the two theories so that a given answer 9 is either 100% correct or at least 50% correct. 1652001 C 14 15776 31 000808198004 2 OS Water extinguishes a fire mainly by A. lowering the kindling temperature B. raising the kindling temperature C. lowering the temperature 9 D. removing the combustible material 1700001 B 15 15779 31 04360186800111 ETS2 OS An instrument which is used to measure liquid density is a A. hygrometer B. hydrometer C. pyrometer D. barometer 9 E. none of these 1700002 D 15 15782 31 01490158800111 ETS2 OS A device for the direct measurement of the specific gravity of a liquid is the A. burette B. optical pyrometer C. barometer D. hydrometer 9 E. hygrometer 1700003 D 15 15785 51 04400439800111 ETS2 OS Time is involved in all of these except 3 ______ A. watts B. horsepower C. rate of working D. calories 9 E. power 1700004 EAD 35 15788 31 0149065080011490 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2The key presents brief references to experiments 2and demonstrations of traditional significance in physical 2science. Recall the observations and conclusions of the total 2experiment and indicate which activity yields the most 2information toward explaining the situations described in the 2statement. 2 A. A pycnometer was filled with water and carefully weighed. 2 B. The extension produced in a spring by the rotation 2 of an attached weight was recorded. 2 C. A weight was suspended and then allowed to fall 2 in such a way as to leave equal time intervals marks 2 on sensitive paper. 2 D. The weight and temperature of a cup of water was 2 recorded before and after a known amount of electricty 2 had flowed through a resistance immersed in the water. 2 E. The weight and temperature of a cup of water was 2 recorded before and after a cube of ice was melted 0 in it. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 Farmers sometimes place a tube of water in cellars where 1 potatoes are stored. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 A hydrometer can be used to estimate the freezing temperature 2 of the coolant in an automobile radiator. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 The temperture of a mass of water will rise if placed in a 9 container and agitated. 1700005 C 15 15804 31 03850387800111 ETS2 OS A unit of work is the A. poundal B. coulomb C. erg D. esu 9 E. dyne 1700006 D 15 15806 31 01590387800111 ETS2 OS Energy may be defined as capacity for A. exerting force B. action C. great power D. doing work 9 E. producing motion 1700007 A 15 15808 31 03880389080011 ETS2 OS An erg is equal to a A. dyne-centimeter B. dyne C. gram-centimeter D. foot-pound 9 E. poundal 1700008 C 15 15810 31 03920385800111 ETS2 OS Measurement of which of the following quantities cannot be 3 ______ expressed in the units indicated? A. electricity--coulombs B. force--dynes C. work--horsepower D. pressure--millibars 9 E. acceleration--feet per day per hour 1700009 D 14 15814 31 01590387800111 ETS2 OS Energy is A. work B. a force C. power 9 D. ability to do work 1700010 D 15 15816 31 04190159800111 ETS2 OS Kinetic energy is A. energy of position B. weight times height C. force times distance 5 2 D. (1/2) mv 5 2 9 E. (mv )/r 1700011 D 15 15819 31 03840418800111 ETS2WVW Power may be measured in A. ergs B. dynes C. foot-pounds D. horse power 9 E. b.t.u. 1700012 CDBACCE 75 15821 31 0385014903911190 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2The following questions refer to various units of physical 2measurement in the metric system which have their counterpart in 2the english system of units. For each question select from the 2key the analogous unit or concept involved. 2 A. poundal 2 B. foot-pound per second 2 C. foot-pound 2 D. cubic inch 0 E. pound per cubic foot MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 joule MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 liter MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 3 watt MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 4 dyne MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 5 erg MACRO SUB-ITEM # 6 6 kilogram-meter MACRO SUB-ITEM # 7 5 3 9 gm./cm. 1700013 DBDC 45 15827 31 0385039101491190 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2The following questions refer to various units of physical 2measurement in the English system. For each question select from 2the key the analogous unit or concept involved. 2 A. ergs 2 B. dynes 2 C. liters 2 D. watts 0 E. none of these MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 foot-pound per second MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 poundal MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 3 horsepower MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 9 cubic inches 1700014 BDBBCDA 75 15832 31 0385014903921190 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2The following questions refer to units of measurement of fundamental 2quantities in physical science. For each question select from the 2key the term which relates to it. 2 A. mass 2 B. work 2 C. force 2 D. power 0 E. two of the above MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 joule MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 ft. lb./sec. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 3 erg MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 4 k.w.h. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 5 poundal MACRO SUB-ITEM # 6 6 watts MACRO SUB-ITEM # 7 9 gram 1700015 C 15 44510 31 The metric unit which is analagous to the cubic inch is the 9 A. joule B. newton C. liter D. watt E. pascal 1700016 C 15 15837 31 03840385800111 ETS2 OS A unit of power is the A. dyne B. erg C. watt D. foot-pound 9 E. gram-centimeter 1700017 B 15 15839 31 01140113800111 ETS2 OS Which of the following is a good definition of the pressure of a gas? A. The pressure of a gas is the force exerted by the gas against its containing walls B. The pressure of a gas is the force exerted by the gas against a unit area of its containing walls C. The pressure of a gas is the force exerted upon the gas by its containing walls D. Each of the above is a good definition of the pressure of a gas 9 E. None of the above is a good definition of the pressure of a gas 1700018 B 15 15846 31 03850159800111 ETS2 OS Suitable units for expressing energy are 9 A. watts B. joules C. meters D. newtons E. hours 1700019 B 15 15848 52 8003 2WVW Colorado River water contains 700 ppm of dissolved solids. If half of this is chloride ion, one liter of Colorado River water contains 5 - ______ grams of Cl . A. 0.7 g B. 0.35 g 5 -6 C. 3.5 x 10 g 5 -3 D. 1 x 10 g 5 -4 9 E. 7 x 10 g 1700020 C 15 15853 31 075507568003 2WVW 5 +1 A krypton ion (Kr ) gas laser emits light of several different wavelengths in the visible region. If the energy of the electronic transition associated with one of these wavelengths is 5 -19 3.82 x 10 Joule, what color would you expect the beam of light emerging from the laser to be? The wavelength ranges for the different colors in the visible spectrum are shown in the figure below. 5 8 -1 -34 (c = 3.00 x 10 m sec , h = 6.62 x 10 J sec) wavelength (nm) 400 500 600 700 : : : : : : : : :------------------------------: :v : : : y: : : :i : : : e: : : :o :blue : green : l:orange:red: :l : : : l: : : :e : : : o: : : :t : : : w: : : -------------------------------- 9 A. violet B. blue C. green D. yellow E. orange 1700021 D 15 15868 31 033007318003 2WVW 5 -1 If the first ionization energy of neon is 500 kcal mole , what type of electromagnetic radiation would you need to ionize a neon atom? (refer to the figure below, which shows the electromagnetic spectrum as a function of wave number, n) 5 -1 -14 -1 (1.00 kcal mole = 6.95 x 10 erg atom ; 10 -1 -27 c = 3.00 x 10 cm. sec. ; h = 6.62 x 10 erg sec.) 5 -1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 cm 1 10 10 10 10 10 10 10 10 10 | | | | | | | | | | -------------------------------------------------------------------- : : : : : : radio : : : : : : gamma waves : MW : IR :V: UV : : rays : : : : : : -------------------------------------------------------------------- A. microwave (MW) B. x rays C. infrared (IR) D. ultraviolet (UV) 9 E. visible (V) 1700022 B 15 15883 52 030603281233 0044 The 1970 standard established by the United States government for carbon monoxide emission for automobiles limits exhaust to 23.0 grams CO per vehicle mile. Assume that in a typical metropolitan area of 565,000 people there are 90,400 automobiles, driven an average of 15.6 miles per 24 hour period. How much CO (in tons) is (legally) discharged into the area's atmosphere per day? (1 ton = 2000 x 454 gr.) A. 0.0677 tons/day B. 35.8 tons/day 5 -9 C. 4.38 x 10 tons/day D. 0.146 tons/day 5 13 9 E. 2.95 x 10 tons/day. 1700023 A 15 15891 52 030603281233 0044 The 1970 standard established by the United States government for carbon monoxide emission for automobiles limits exhaust to 23.0 grams CO per vehicle-mile. Assume that in a typical metropolitan area of 571,000 people there are 91,300 automobiles, driven an average of 15.6 miles per 24 hour period. How much CO (in tons) is (legally) discharged into the area's atmosphere per day? (1 ton = 2000 x 454 grams) 5 -2 36.1 tons 6.83 x 10 tons 0.414 tons A. --------- B. ---------------- C. ---------- day day day 5 -9 13 4.33 x 10 tons 2.98 x 10 tons D. ---------------- E. ----------------. 9 day day 1700024 A 15 15901 32 015007950288 0028 Convert 2270 g to lb. 9 A. 5.00 lb B. 50.0 lb C. 10.0 lb D. 1,040,000 lb E. 2.27 lb 1700025 B 15 15903 32 087101490440 0020 All the systems of measurement use the same units for A. mass B. time C. force D. volume 9 E. length 1700026 E 15 15905 32 129412910144 0020 A foot equals A. 0.472 m B. 4.72 m C. 30.5 m D. 0.135 m 9 E. none of these 1700027 C 15 15907 32 039812951077 0020 A 50 mg pill has a mass of A. 0.00731 oz B. 0.0563 oz C. 0.00176 oz D. 0.00563 oz 9 E. none of these 1700028 A 15 15909 32 129612970546 0020 A fifth of whiskey contains A. 0.75 liters B. 0.84 liters C. 1.32 liters D. 1.06 liters 9 E. none of these 1700029 E 15 15911 31 043304180114 0020 A barometer measures A. volume of a gas B. density of mercury C. molecular motion D. temperature of the atmosphere 9 E. pressure of the atmosphere 1700030 A 15 15914 31 139001141391 0020 An apparatus for measuring the pressure of a gas in a vessel is a A. manometer B. gasometer C. Boyle's apparatus D. gas meter 9 E. none of these 1700031 A 15 15917 31 019203980067 0019 Which of the following is an intrinsic property of a substance? A. mass B. temperature C. volume D. pressure 9 E. none of these 1700032 C 15 15919 32 0019 If there are 10 globs in a blot, and I have 20 blots, how many globs do I have? 9 A. 2 B. 0.50 C. 200 D. 30 E. none of these 1700033 B 14 15921 31 0615 09 The wavelength of a wave is the wave velocity divided by the A. wave number C. wave amplitude 9 B. wave frequency D. value of the node 1700034 B 14 15924 31 0615 09 The frequency of any wave is A. the time it takes a whole wave to pass a particular point B. the number of crests which pass a stationary point in one second C. the number of wave nodes present in a given distance 9 D. the distance between two successive wave crests 1720001 C 15 15928 31 014901500151 ETS2 OS The metric system is superior to the English system of measurement in that A. measurements can be made more accurately with it B. 1000 cubic centimeters of water at 40 degrees C. weighs exactly 1000 grams C. multiples of the fundamental units are related by the factor 10 or a multiple of ten D. it includes familiar units of time E. one can get more kilometers per gallon of gasoline than 9 miles per gallon with any automobile 1720002 B 14 15935 31 03510019800111 ETS2WVW When two atoms react to form an ionic compound, we assume in accordance with the atomic theory that A. one or more pairs of electrons are shared in common between the two atom B. one or more electrons are transferred from one atom to the other C. the atoms are held together by the electrostatic force between protons and neutrons 9 D. the atoms are held together by the force of gravity 1720003 D 15 15941 31 80018002 11 ETS2 OS Which one of the following is not correct? 3 ___ A. there are 1000 milligrams in a gram B. there are 1000 milliliters in a liter C. there are 100 centimeters in a meter D. there are 100 millimeters in a centimeter 9 E. there are 1000 grams in a kilogram 1720004 B 14 15945 31 046308698004 2WVW A chemical balance is calibrated in A. cubic centimeters B. grams C. liters 9 D. inches 1720005 A 15 15947 31 088601500385 0018 Which of the following is a standard unit of length in the metric system? A. meter B. liter C. gram D. Celsius degree 9 E. none of these 1720006 D 15 15949 31 01450150 0028 The prefix meaning 1/1000 of a unit is: A. kilo- B. deci- C. centi- D. milli- 9 E. none of these 1720007 D 15 15951 31 044503850317 0020 Weight units are A. mass units B. grams C. metric units D. force units 9 E. size units 1720008 D 15 15953 31 0388 0020 A Joule is a 5 -2 -1 2 -2 9 A. kg m s B. newton m C. force unit D. kg m s E. erg 1720009 B 14 15955 32 019514001401 0019 What is the volume in cubic centimeters of a cube which is 100 mm along each edge? 5 2 3 2 3 9 A. 10 B. 10 C. 100 D. 100 1720010 B 14 15958 52 19441956 0055 One microlitre equals 5 -3 A. 10 litre B. 1 cubic millimetre C. 1 millilitre 5 -6 9 D. 10 cubic metre 1730001 C 15 15960 32 01430144800111 ETS2 OS A liter is to a cubic centimeter as a meter is to a A. centimeter B. dekameter C. millimeter D. decimeter 9 E. micron 1730002 B 15 15962 52 01880143800111 ETS2 OS One cubic inch is equivalent to approximately A. .048 cubic centimeters B. 2.54 cubic centimeters C. 6.5 cubic centimeters C. 6.5 cubic centimeters D. 16 cubic centimeters 9 E. 1000 cubic centimeters 1730003 C 15 15965 32 00390479800213 ETS2 OS Gold can be beaten so thin that a square piece of leaf 10 cm 5 3 on a side weighs 0.0193 g. The density of gold is 19.3 g/cm , so the thickness of the leaf must be 5 -7 A. less than 10 cm. 5 -3 B. greater than 10 cm. 5 -6 -3 C. between 10 cm. and 10 cm 5 -4 -3 D. between 5 x 10 and 10 cm. 5 3 6 9 E. between 10 and 10 cm. 1730004 BCC 35 15972 72 02030186 1390 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2The following items refer to the experimental use of a pycnometer 2(specific gravity bottle). In this case the object was to determine 2the density of an unknown solid in the form of small shot 2which could be poured into the bottle. Assume that the density of 5 3 water is 1 gm./cm. . The following data were collected 2Weight of empty bottle................................18.3 gm. 2Weight of bottle when filled with water...............43.3 gm. 2Weight of bottle when partly filled with shot.........67.2 gm. 2Weight of bottle with shot and water to fill 2the crevices..........................................77.3 gm. 0 Using the information given, answer the following questions. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 The volume of shot used was (in cc) A. 25.0 B. 14.9 C. 48.9 D. 10.1 1 E. none of these MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 5 3 The density of the unknown shot in gm./cm. was calculated by A. 49.9/25 B. 48.9/10.1 C. 48.9/14.9 D. 67.2/14.9 2 E. none of these MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 The best explanation of the use of a bottle stopper with a hole through the center is A. it helps to prevent breakage if hot water is used B. it allows for expansion when the temperature changes C. it permits complete filling of the bottle D. it helps to remind the student to keep the bottle upright while weighing 9 E. it admits air to the top of the water surface while weighing 1730005 C 14 15991 32 1944 0055 One metric ton of molten sulfur is loaded on a barge at the rate of 1200 tons per hour. The loading rate in kg per minute is 9 A. 20 B. 100 C. 20000 D. 10000 E. 2000 1730006 B 15 15994 31 030614471804 0042 One United State "standard" pound (avoirdupois) is equivalent to A. 543.6 grams B. 453.6 grams C. 354.6 grams 9 D. 534.6 grams E. 654.3 grams. 1730007 B 14 15997 31 18231291 0043 One liter-atmosphere equals: 9 A. 19.2 Joules B. 101 Joules C. 4.18 Joules D. 8.31 Joules. 1730008 B 15 15999 32 04200144 0018 The distance from the earth to the moon is 236,000 miles. What is the distance in meters? (1 km = 0.625 mile) 5 10 8 8 A. 3.78 x 10 m B. 3.78 x 10 m C. 2.36 x 10 m 5 5 8 9 D. 3.78 x 10 m E. 1.48 x 10 1730009 D 15 16003 32 0028 How many significant digits are in the number 0.00754? 9 A. six B. five C. four D. three E. none of these 1730010 A 15 16005 32 015004450441 0028 Convert 65 mg to kilograms A. 0.000065 kg B. 0.0000065 kg C. 65 kg 9 D. 65,000 kg E. 65,000,000 kg 1730011 C 15 16007 32 015004450441 0028 Convert 0.41 dg to cg 9 A. 0.041 cg B. 0.0041 cg C. 4.1 cg D. 41 cg E. 410 cg 1730012 D 15 16009 32 015004450441 0028 Add the following masses: 2.000000 kg, 450 mg, 30.0 cg, 0.21 dg. What is the total mass in grams? A. 2000.690 g B. 2000.501 g C. 2001.160 g 9 D. 2000.771 g E. 2.771 g 1730014 A 15 16014 32 01500445 0028 Convert 20.0 inches to meters 9 A. 0.508 m B. 0.254 m C. 2.54 m D. 5.08 m E. 50.8 m 1730015 D 15 16016 32 04710150 0028 Convert 21.2 quarts to mL 9 A. 20.0 mL B. 200 mL C. 2000 mL D. 20,000 mL E. 21.2 mL 1730016 E 15 16018 32 015005050391 0028 Convert 0.00500 mile/hr to cm/min. A. 1.13 cm/min B. 1340 cm/min C. 2.23 cm/min 9 D. 0.223 cm/min E. 13.4 cm/min 1730017 E 15 16020 32 079501500288 0028 Convert 26.0 mg to grams. 9 A. 260 g B. 26.0 g C. 2.60 g D. 0.260 g E. 0.0260 g 1730018 B 14 16022 32 044504710288 0026 Approximately how many grams in 4 pounds? 9 A. 1816 B. 4000 C. 114 D. 0.0088 1730019 C 15 16024 32 01430546 0020 500 cc equals 9 A. 50 L B. 0.05 L C. 0.500 L D. 5.00 L E. 500 L 1730020 E 15 16026 32 079512911292 0020 293 mg equals A. 2930 g B. 293 000 kg C. 2.93 g D. 0.0293 g 9 E. 0.000 293 kg 1730021 E 15 16028 32 042003901293 0020 A distance of 100 cm is approximately A. 12 inches B. 3 yards C. 1/10 of a mile D. 254 inches 9 E. 1 yard 1730022 D 15 16030 32 014412910390 0020 One meter is equal to A. 10 decimeters B. 1000 mm C. 100 centimeters D. all of the above 9 E. none of the above 1730023 C 15 16032 32 129812990195 0020 A box has the following dimensions: 50.0 cm by 0.100 m by 600 mm. The volume of the box is A. 30.0 ml B. 3000 cc C. 30.0 liters D. 300 liters 9 E. none of these 1730024 D 15 16035 32 053503980186 0020 80.0 ml of alcohol has a mass of 63.3 g. Its density is A. 1.26 g/cc B. 0.126 g/ml C. 0.802 g/cc D. 0.791 g/ml 9 E. none of these 1730025 B 15 16037 32 139613970390 0019 5 3 Given that 10 microns = 1 mm 5 8 10 Angstroms = 1 cm how many microns are in one Angstrom? 5 4 -4 5 -5 11 9 A. 10 B. 10 C. 10 C. 10 E. 10 1730026 D 15 16040 52 00140589 0040 A 10-carat diamond would weigh A. 200 mg B. 10 mg C. 10 g D. 2 g 9 E. no correct response is given. 1730027 A 14 16042 52 194419510439 0055 One btu/lb deg F equals A. 1 cal/g deg C B. 252 cal C. 252 cal x 454 g/lb 9 D. 252 cal/454g/lb 1730028 E 15 16044 52 071101 0064 A car is rated with a highway mileage of 41 miles per gallon of gasoline. Given that 1 mile = 1.6093 kilometers, how many liters of gasoline will be needed for a highway trip of 500 kilometers? 5 3 9 A. 74 B. 3.0 x 10 C. 2.0 D. 2.0 E. 29 1730029 C 15 16048 52 071101 0064 A soft drink bottler distributes its product in 2.00-liter bottles. What is the volume in quarts? 9 A. 1.89 B. 2.00 C. 2.11 D. 8.00 E. 9.39 1730030 D 15 16051 52 071101 0064 A typical freshman chemistry exam consists of pages measuring 8 and 1/2 by 11 inches. What is the approximate area (reported to one significant figure) of one side such a page in square meters? 9 A. 0.001 B. 2 C. 0.01 D. 0.06 E. 0.0006 1730031 B 15 16055 52 071101 0064 The density of lead, 11.2 g/cubic centimeter, when expressed 5 3 in lb/ft is: 9 A. 2.60 B. 699 C. 11.2 D. 0.179 E. 0.753 1730032 C 15 16057 52 071101 0064 A latex semigloss enamel paint is advertised as having a coverage 5 2 of 450 ft /gal when used on sealed surfaces. What is the average thickness of the coat of paint in millimeters? 9 A. 10.1 B. 188 C. 0.0905 D. 0.378 E. 1.01 1730033 E 15 16061 52 071101 0064 one cm is the same as A. 100 mm B. 2.54 in C. 1 mL D. 0.1 m 9 E. none of these 1730034 A 15 16063 52 071101 0064 Suppose that a standard snail's pace is measured to be 0.040 ft/min. The snail's pace measured in cm/sec would be: 9 A. 0.020 B. 0.010 C. 0.079 D. 0.19 E. 0.60 1730035 A 15 16066 52 071101 0064 A velocity of 98 ft/sec corresponds (in units of km/sec) to 5 -2 A. about 3 x 10 B. about 2 C. about 0.005 5 2 9 D. about 5 x 10 E. about 0.8 1730036 A 15 16069 52 071101 0064 In order to convert square feet into square centimeters the area in square feet should be multiplied by 9 A. 929 B. 30.5 C. 77.4 D. 366 E. 22.3 1730037 B 15 16072 52 071101 0064 5 3 A metallic sphere (V=4/3 pi r ) has a diameter of 0.200 inches and weighs 0.0066 oz. What is the density of the metal in g/cc? 9 A. 18 B. 2.7 C. 0.18 D. 3.6 E. 5.6 1730038 B 15 16075 52 071101 0064 One cubic centimeter is the same as 5 3 A. 100 mm B. 1 ml C. 0.4 in D. 1 liter 9 E. none of these 1731001 B 15 16078 52 OS82 The base units of the International System of Units (S.I.) refer to length, mass, time, temperature, electric current, amount of substance and luminous intensity. Which of the following DERIVED quantities can be gotten from mass and length only? 9 A. pressure B. density C. force D. concentration E. volume 1732001 E 15 16083 52 OS82 A nanometer is to a millimeter as a meter is to a _____meter. 9 A. centi B. deci C. deka D. kilo E. mega 1740001 DCE 35 16085 31 0286800180031290 ETS2WVW MACROITEM STEM 2Choose from the key list the device or mechanism 2that is most dependent upon the principle as stated. 2 A. Photoelectric cell 2 B. Photographic light meter 2 C. Optical pyrometer 2 D. Thermostat 0 E. Thermocouple MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 Two metals of different coefficients of linear expansion riveted or welded together will warp or bend under 1 changes in temperature. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 The color and intensity of light emitted from a heated 2 object depends on the temperature of the object. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 An electric current will flow through two wires of dissimilar metal if the junctions are kept at different 9 temperatures. 1740002 E 15 16093 52 01618001800312 ETS2WVW A room thermometer graduated in the Fahrenheit scale reads 40 degrees. Outside the window a Centigrade thermometer reads 1.8 degrees. The temperature difference in Fahrenheit degrees between the inside and outside is 9 A. 38.2 B. 35.2 C. 33.0 D. 12.2 E. 4.8 1740003 A 15 16097 52 01618001800312 ETS2WVW Using the appropriate formula, what is the Centigrade equivalent of 23 deg. F? A. -5 deg. C B. 30 5/9 deg. C. C. 73 2/5 deg. C. D. 99 deg. C. 9 E. -19 2/9 Deg. C. 1740004 E 15 16100 52 01618001800312 ETS2WVW A pilot takes the temperature in the cockpit of his plane and finds it to be 50 degrees Fahrenheit. He reads the outside air 3 __________ temperature on the Centigrade scale and finds it to be 10 degrees 3 __________ Centigrade. The temperature difference in degrees Fahrenheit between 3__________ __________ the inside and outside is A. 75.6 B. 23.3 C. 37.6 D. 12.3 9 E. there is no difference 1740005 A 15 16107 32 01618001800312 ETS2WVW One could take a bath comfortably in water at a temperature of 5 o o 9 A. 303 K B. 75 C C. 95 K D. 150 F E. 250 K 1740006 AE 25 16110 52 0161 5290 ETS2WVW MACROITEM STEM 2Answer the questions below according to the diagram below 2 I I 2 I I 2 100 degrees - - - - - b.p. - - - - - 185 degrees 2 I I 2 I I 2 I I 2 t" - - - - - - - - - - - - 145 degrees 2 I I 2 I I 2 I I 2 I I 2 I I 2 I I 2 C I I X 2 I I 2 I I 2 I I 2 I I 2 I I 2 20 degrees - - - - - - - - - - - - t 2 I I 2 I I 2 I I 2 0 - - - - - f.p. - - - - - 25 degrees 2 I I 2 I I 2C represents a centigrade thermometer and X a thermometer 2on which the boiling point of water at 76 cms. pressure has 0 been marked 185 degrees and the freezing point 25 degrees. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 When the Centigrade thermometer reads 20 degrees the corresponding reading t on the X thermometer is A. 32 degrees B. 37 degrees C. 57 degrees D. 67 degrees 1 E. 52 degrees MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 When the X thermometer reads 145 degrees, the corresponding reading t on the Centigrade thermometer is A. 50 degrees B. 64 degrees C. 72 degrees D. 75 degrees 9 E. 90 degrees 1740007 AC 25 16136 31 02860649 1390 ETS2WVW MACROITEM STEM 2A householder is interested in increasing the effiency of 2his heating system, consisting of a gas burner used in conjunction 2with a circulating hot water system. He knows that 2the combustion of the fuel used is approximated closely by the equation CH - 2O ---> CO + 2H O in which 4 4 2 2 2 CH is methane gas. The methane and air (20% oxygen) are forced 4 4 0 into the furnace from separate pipes. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 Some liquids heat more quickly than water; that is, they require less heat for the same temperature rise. Is there a great advantage in circulating such liquids? A. No; they would also release less heat on cooling. B. No; they would produce excessive heat throughout the house. C. No; they would boil at too low a temperature. D. Yes; less fuel would be needed for the same heating effect. E. Yes; they would retain their heat better and reduce 1 the amount of insulation needed. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 For most efficient transfer of heat, water pipes in a furnace should A. be coated with a white heat-resisting enamel B. be covered with asbestos C. have a rough blackened surface D. have a bright polished surface 9 E. be blacked inside and brightly polished outside 1740008 ECDAB 55 16152 52 OS MACROITEM STEM Use the key below to match the appropriate property to each of the units of measurement listed beyond the key. 0 A. mass B. length C. time D. temperature E. volume MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 cubic centimeter MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 second MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 5o 3 C MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 4 gram MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 9 kilometer 1740009 B 15 16156 52 OS86 The boiling and freezing points of water were determined and marked on the glass of a new, and as yet "blank" thermometer. If these two points are 9 cm apart, how far apart would the degree marking be if it were desired to make a Celsius thermometer? 9 A. 9/180 cm B. 0.09 cm C. 0.90 cm D. 0.562 cm E. 0.286 cm 1740010 C 15 16161 31 01610008800111 ETS2 OS The temperature at which water boils may be increased by A. decreasing the area of exposed surface B. insulating the container C. adding salt D. raising the gas flame 9 E. dissolving alcohol in the water 1740011 C 15 16164 31 01610159800111 ETS2 OS The temperature in a medium refers to A. the quantity of molecules present B. the total potential energy of the molecules C. the average kinetic energy of the molecules D. the total caloric content of the individual molecules 9 E. the average potential energy of the molecules 1740012 E 15 16168 31 04860114800131 ETS2 OS The absolute zero is considered to be -273 degrees C. because A. all gases liquefy before that temperature is reached B. that is the lowest temperature that has ever been reached experimentally C. the Centigrade and Fahrenheit scales come together at that point D. Dulong and Petit's law holds at this point E. the pressure of a constant volume of gas at 0 degrees decreases 1/273 for every degree C of temperature 9 decrease 1740013 C 15 16175 51 04870161800111 ETS2 OS The critical temperature of a substance is A. the temperature required to liquefy the gas at one atmosphere pressure B. the temperature at which the substance begins to decompose C. the highest temperature at which the sustance can be a liquid D. the temperature at which the liquid evaporates 9 E. the lowest temperature at which the substance may be liquefied 1740014 A 15 16181 31 01618001800311 ETS2WVW 5 o o o The freezing point is 32 F, or 0 C. The boiling point is 212 F, 5 o or 100 C. By which one of the following formulas could a 5 o o temperature reading in F be converted to its equivalent C reading? A. C = (5/9)(F - 32) C. C = (9/5)F + 32 E. C = (5/9)F - 32 9 B. F = (9/5)C - 32 D. F = (5/9)C - 32 1740015 C 15 16187 32 01618001800312 ETS2WVW What Fahrenheit temperature is equivalent to 373 degrees Kelvin? A. 32 degrees Fahrenheit B. 122 degrees Fahrenheit C. 212 degrees Fahrenheit D. 0 degrees Fahrenheit 9 E. 273 degrees Fahrenheit 1740016 C 15 16190 31 06548001800312 ETS2WVW If a sample of gas is heated in a rigid container A. it may change its weight B. it may increase in volume C. it must increase its pressure D. it must increase its density 9 E. it must increase its volume 1740017 B 14 16193 31 083608378003 2WVW Identify the thermometer scale on which the zero level is 273 degrees above the point of no molecular motion of matter A. Reamur B. Celsius C. Kelvin 9 D. Fahrenheit 1740018 B 15 16196 32 029901610441 0028 Convert 35.0 degrees C to degrees F A. 121 degrees F B. 95.0 degrees F C. 1.67 degrees F 9 D. 37.2 degrees F E. 51.4 degrees F 1740019 C 15 16198 32 029901610441 0028 Convert 900 degrees K to degrees C A. 673 degrees C B. 527 degrees C C. 627 degrees C 9 D. 1190 degrees C E. 1173 degrees C 1740020 D 15 16200 32 015001610288 0028 Convert 35.0 degrees C to degrees F. A. 121 degrees F B. 1.67 degrees F C. 37.2 degrees F 9 D. 95.0 degrees F E. 63.0 degrees F 1740021 A 15 16202 32 054412910299 0020 -22 degrees F equals A. -30 degrees C B. -97 degrees C C. -29.9 degrees C D. 6.6 degrees C 9 E. none of these 1740022 C 15 16204 32 054402991304 0020 5 degrees C equals A. -21 degrees F B. 15.4 degrees F C. 41 degrees F D. 278 degrees F 9 E. none of these 1740023 A 15 16206 32 043804981315 0019 Liquid hydrogen boils at 20 degrees K. What is the boiling temperature on the Fahrenheit scale? 9 A. -423 B. -253 C. -293 D. 293 E. -901 1740024 D 15 16208 32 016114471304 0035 5 o A temperature reading of -10 C is equivalent to 5 o o o 9 A. -10 F B. 283 K C. 483 R D. 14 F E. 273 K 1740025 B 15 16211 51 0161 1653 0034 The belief that an absolute zero of temperature exists depends on the fact that A. most gases cannot be cooled to below that temperature B. extrapolation of the V vs. T curve for all gases gives the same T at V = 0 C. at the absolute zero, all motion ceases D. all gases liquify before reaching the absolute zero 9 E. all of the above contribute to the belief 1740026 C 14 16217 72 1944 0055 5 o The freezing point of mercury is -39 C and the freezing point of 5 o cadmium is 321 C. If you devised a temperature scale using the 5 o freezing point of mercury as 0 N and the freezing point of cad- 5 o mium as 100 N, what would be the Celsius temperature correspond- 5 o ing to 90 N? 5 o A. -6.6 C 5 o B. 254 C 5 o C. 285 C 5 o 9 D. 324 C 1740027 A 15 16224 52 071101 0064 100.0 g of liquid water at 95.0 degrees C is mixed with l35.0 g of liquid water at 13.6 degrees C. Assuming that no heat is lost to the surroundings, what would be the resultant temperature of the mixture? 5 o o o o o 9 A. 48.2 C B. 42.4 C C. 38.7 C D. 35.5 C E. 54.3 C 1740028 C 15 16229 52 071101 0064 An increase in temperature of 15 degrees C corresponds to an increase in temperature of ____degrees F. 9 A. 15 B. 8.3 C. 27 D. 59 E. 32 1740029 A 15 16232 52 071101 0064 Experimentally it is found that 163 kJ of thermal energy (heat) is evolved when 10.0 g of Al O is formed from the elements. To what 4 2 3 5 o final temperature would 4.00 kg of water at 20 C be heated by absorbing this quantity of heat? 5 o (specific heat of water = 4.18 J/g- C) 5 o o o o o 9 A. 29.5 C B. 10.8 C C. 28.7 C D. 28.5 C E. 20.02 C 1740030 D 15 45141 52 071101 0064 5 o A 10.0-kg piece of iron at 50.0 C is placed in 1.00 kg water at 5 o 10.0 C. The iron and water will come to the same temperature. What is that temperature, assuming that no heat is lost to the 5 -1 o outside? (The specific heat of iron is 0.481 J g C) 5 o o o o o 9 A. 13.4 C B. 25.0 C C. 30.0 C D. 31.4 C E. 43.1 C 1760001 B 14 16245 72 02050206800113 ETS2 OS Six hundred grams of substance A at 50 degrees C was mixed with 600 grams of substance B at 30 degrees C in a calorimeter. The equilibrium temperature was 43 degrees C. Disregarding any heat change in the calorimeter, the specific heat of substance A can be calculated to be A. equal to that of substance B B. higher than that of substance B C. lower than that of substance B D. a comparison of the specific heats cannot be made from this 9 data 1760002 ADBCA 54 16252 51 0286800180031490 ETS2WVW MACROITEM STEM 2The following passage concerns the caloric theory 2of heat. The items concern an evaluation of the theory. 2Read the passage carefully before answering. 2The caloric theory of heat was the most widely accepted theory 2of heat in the early 19th century. It was recognized by a large 2majority of the leading men of science, many of whom contributed 2greatly to the advance of science in their time. It stated 2 A. heat was a fluid, caloric, which was made up of 2 particles or corpuscles. 2 B. the corpuscles were able to push their way between 2 the particles (molecules) of matter. 2 C. the corpuscles were mutually repellent (much as 2 the electrons of negative electricty). 2 D. all matter attracted the corpuscles but some matter 2 more strongly than other matter. 2 E. the fluid was indestructible and could not be created. 3 _____ ___ __ _______ 2Select from the key the most appropriate phrase. (Assume the 2caloric theory to postulate only the points given above.) 2 A. The statement is true and can be explained by both 3 ____ ___ 2 the caloric theory and the kinetic theory. 2 B. The statement is true and can be explained by the 3 ____ ___ 2 kinetic theory but not by the caloric theory. 2 C. The statement is false and can be shown to be false 3 _____ 2 by either the kinetic or caloric theories. 3 ______ 2 D. The statement is false but if true would be a point 3 _____ 0 in favor of the caloric theory. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 When two substances of unequal temperature are placed 1 in contact the colder one is warmed and the warmer one cooled. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 Only a certain amount of heat may be obtained from a body by friction, when that body is rubbed, even though the friction does not continue long enough to wear the 2 body away. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 3 Iron expands when it is heated. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 Two cakes of ice may be melted by friction if they are rubbed together rapidly even though the temperature 4 of the surroundings is below 32 degrees F. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 9 Milk when churned will rise in temperature. 1760003 B 14 16280 31 02860161800111 ETS2WVW Regions near large bodies of water are much less subject to wide variations of temperature than inland regions because of the A. low heat capacity of water B. high heat capacity of water C. low heat conductivity of water 9 D. high heat conductivity of water 1760004 D 15 16284 31 02868001800311 ETS2WVW Heat transfer by convection requires A. differences in thermal conductivity B. temperatures above freezing C. a change of state D. differences in density within the medium 9 E. that the medium be in the form of a gas 1760005 B 15 16288 32 043902860161 0020 How many calories of heat are required to raise the temperature of 20.0 g of water from 40 degrees to 60 degrees C? A. 40 cal B. 400 cal C. 20 cal D. 200 cal 9 E. none of these 1760006 B 15 16291 52 071101 0064 A coffee cup containing 100 cc of liquid water at 100 degrees F is heated to a final temperature of 180 degrees F. The number of joules absorbed by the water is 5 4 4 -10 A. 6.0 x 10 B. 1.9 x 10 C. 6.0 x 10 5 3 -10 9 D. 1.1 x 10 E. 1.9 x 10 1760007 B 15 16296 52 071101 0064 A 200 g metal bar requires 1.200 kcal to change its temperature from 0 degrees C to 100 degrees C. What is the specific heat of the metal in J/g-degree C? 9 A. 69.9 B. 0.251 C. 10.0 D. 0.0837 E. none of these 1760008 A 15 16299 52 071101 0064 200 g of copper shot at 25.0 degree C is added to 200 ml of water at 80.0 degree C. The final temperature of the mixture is 75.3 degree C. Assuming that the specific heat of water is 1.0 cal/ g-degree C and that no heat is lost to or gained from the surroundings, what is the specific heat of copper metal in cal/g-degree C? 9 A. 0.093 B. 0.10 C. 1.0 D. 10 E. none of these 1770001 E 15 16305 31 06630054800111 ETS2 OS The spectroscope A. is most useful to the chemist in studying the light emitted by incandescent solids B. is used for the analysis of x-rays C. is only useful for the analysis of molecules D. makes use of the tyndall effect E. causes light of different wave-lengths to follow 9 different paths through a prism 1770002 D 15 16310 31 03300627800111 ETS2 OS In the electromagnetic spectrum A. ultra-violet has longer wave lengths than the infra-red B. blue light is of higher frequency than x-rays C. radio waves have shorter wave lengths than gamma rays D. gamma rays have higher frequency than infra-red 9 E. cosmic rays are low-frequency radio waves 1770003 B 14 16315 31 033006638003 2WVW The characteristic color spectrum for an element is readily identified through the use of one of the following devices A. electroscope B. spectroscope C. microscope 9 D. optical bench 1770004 C 15 16318 51 00540615 0047 Small objects in a microscope can be observed with better resolution with blue light rather than red because: A. many men are red-green colorblind. B. blue light is more intense than red light. C. the wavelength of blue light is shorter than the wavelength of red light. D. the wavelength of red light is shorter than the wavelength of blue light. 9 E. blue light is dispersed more easily than red light. 1770005 C 14 16324 31 12 ETS2JPB Loudness in sound corresponds in light to A. color B. doppler effect C. brightness 9 D. frequency 1770006 D 14 16326 31 050504290054 0026 The speed of light in space always has the value A. 1000 kilometers per hour B. 32 feet per second 5 2 C. 3.4 x 10 meters per second 5 8 D. 3 x 10 m/sec. 9 E. 650 miles per hour 1770007 B 15 16329 31 042900541322 0020 The velocity of light in a vacuum is 5 8 10 A. 299 792.5 cm/s B. 3 x 10 m/s C. 3 x 10 km/s 5 10 8 9 D. 3 x 10 m/s E. 3 x 10 cm/s 1770008 E 15 16332 31 005413400159 0020 Light is A. a form of energy B. electromagnetic radiation C. photons D. A, B and C 9 E. none of these 1770009 C 15 16334 51 134101591202 0020 Which of the following has the greatest amount of energy per photon? A. x-rays B. ultraviolet light C. gamma rays D. infraredlight 9 E. visible light 1770010 A 15 16337 51 015913421291 0020 Energy equals Planck's constant times A. c/lamda B. mc 5 2 C. mc D. c/lambda 9 E. none of these 1770011 E 15 16339 51 062403650054 0020 Photons are A. the same as quanta B. particles of light C. have energy=hc/lambda 5 2 D. have energy = mc 9 E. all of these 1770012 A 15 16342 51 043606250663 0020 An instrument used to separate and display, in the order of increasing wavelengths, the component parts of light coming from a radiation source is A. a spectroscope B. an electromagnetic spectrum C. prism meter D. mass spectrograph 9 E. none of these 1770013 D 15 16346 51 134306641344 0020 When sunlight passes through a glass prism one sees a A. line spectrum B. absorption spectrum C. mercury spectrum D. continuous spectrum 9 E. emission spectrum 1770014 C 15 16349 31 059001590627 0034 Electromagnetic radiation increases in energy in the order 3 ______ A. ultraviolet < visible < infrared < x-ray B. x-ray < ultraviolet < visible < infrared C. visible < ultraviolet < x-ray < gamma ray D. ultraviolet < visible < x-ray < gamma ray 9 E. all electromagnetic radiation is of the same energy 1770015 B 14 16354 31 0615 05 The wavelength of any wave is A. the length of time it takes one wave to travel a set distance B. the distance between two successive crests of the wave C. the distance between two successive nodes of a wave 9 D. the point of zero amplitude on a wave 1770016 C 14 16358 31 0615 05 The wavelength of any wave is A. the wave frequency times the wave velocity B. the wave frequency divided by the wave velocity C. the wave velocity divided by the wave frequency 9 D. the wave frequency plus the wave velocity 1770017 B 14 16362 31 0615 05 The accepted symbol for wavelength is A. nu C. theta B. lambda D. psi 9 E. alpha 1780001 C 15 16364 52 01950158800112 ETS2 OS The volume of 50 grams of sulfuric acid, specific gravity, 1.86 is A. 83 ml. B. 1.86 times the molecular weight C. 26.9 ml. D. 26.9 g. 9 E. none of these values 1780002 BC 25 16367 52 01580015 1390 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2A piece of metal weighs 100 gm. in air, 60 gm. in water, and 70 gm. 5 3 when immersed in gasoline. (The density of water is 1 gm./cm. ) 0 Using this information, answer the following questions. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 The specific gravity of the above metal is A. 0.6 B. 2.5 C. 3.3 D. 10.0 1 E. none of these MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 the volume of gasoline displaced by the above piece of metal is 5 3 A. 10 cm. 3 B. 3/ cm. 5 3 C. 40 cm. 5 3 D. 50 cm. 9 E. none of these 1780003 C 14 16375 32 00088001800211 ETS2 OS One cubic foot of water weighs A. 33-1/3 lbs. B. 64.2 lbs. C. 62.4 lbs. 9 D. 8 lbs. 1780004 BBBDC 55 16377 52 0445019501581390 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2A piece of rock weighs 100 gm. in air. When it is immersed in 2water, the buoyancy force is 40 gm. and when it is immersed in an 2unknown liquid it weighs only 70 gm. 0 Based on this information, answer the following questions. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 The weight in gm. of the water displaced is equal to A. 30 B. 40 C. 60 D. 70 1 E. none of these MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 5 3 The volume in cm. Of the unknown liquid displaced is equal to A. 30 B. 40 C. 60 D. 70 2 E. none of these MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 5 3 The volume of rock in cm. A. 30 B. 40 C. 60 D. 70 3 E. None of these MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 The specific gravity of the unknown liquid is A. 30 B. 57 C. 70 D. 75 4 E. some other value MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 The density of the rock is 5 3 A. less than 62.4 lb./ft. 5 3 B. 1.75 gm./cm. 5 3 C. 2.50 gm./cm. 5 3 D. 1.67 gm./cm. 9 E. some other value 1780005 CB 25 16390 52 0446047801861390 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2Some boys playing with a floating rectangular raft noticed that it 2projected 1/10 ft. out of water, but when they got on it, the raft 2just barely floated. The combined weight of the boys was 187.5 lbs. 2The density of the water is 62.5 pounds per cubic foot. 0 Using this information, answer the following questions. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 When the boys got on the raft, the additional volume of water displaced was A. 18.75 cu. ft. B. .30 cu. ft. C. 3.0 cu. ft. D. 30 cu. ft. 1 E. none of these MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 The area of cross section of the raft must have been A. 3 sq. ft. B. 30 sq. ft. C. 6.25 ft. D. 18.75 sq. ft. 9 E. None of these 1780006 C 15 16399 31 01860435800111 ETS2 OS Which one of these is true concerning density? 5 3 A. The density of water in lb./per ft. has the same value 5 3 numerically when measured in gm./per cm. . B. Density and specific gravity have the same meaning. C. In metric units of measurement, density and specific gravity have the same numerical value. D. The density of water is greater than that of any other liquid. 9 E. Density is a ratio number. 1780007 C 15 16406 31 04338001800211 ETS2 OS Four of these are related in some way. Which one is not? 3 ___ A. hydrometer B. Archimedes C. barometer D. density 9 E. specific gravity 1780008 B 15 16409 32 04130008800112 ETS2 OS Comparing equal volumes of mercury and water, one cubic foot of mercury weighs A. 848.64 lbs. B. 968 lbs. C. 13.6 lbs. D. 462 lbs. 9 E. 1204 lbs. 1780009 B 14 16412 32 00088001800311 ETS2 OS 50 cubic centimeters of water weighs 9 A. 62.4 g B. 50 g C. 25 g D. 88 g 1780010 C 14 16414 32 04140186800112 ETS2 OS If coal has a specific gravity of 1.3, a cubic foot of coal weighs A. 62.4 lbs. B. 72 lbs. C. 81.12 lbs. 9 D. 2184.24 lbs. 1780011 A 14 16416 32 01860165800112 ETS2 OS If ice has a density of .9 then a cubic foot of ice weighs A. 56.16 lbs. B. 60.2 Lbs. C. 71.3 Lbs. 9 D. 43.08 Lbs. 1780012 C 14 16418 32 013800188001 ETS2 OS To standardize the concentration of a salt solution by adding salt until the solution will float an egg is based on the assumption that A. all eggs have equal volume B. all eggs have equal weight C. all eggs have equal density 9 D. all eggs are about the same shape 1780013 A 14 16422 32 01960478800113 ETS2 OS A paper bag is fully inflated with hydrogen and so weighted that it will float half way between the floor and ceiling of a high auditorium of still air. If the average air temperature of the auditorium is raised 10 degrees F., the bag will A. float lower B. float higher C. remain at the same height D. the bag cannot be made to float half way to the ceiling. It 9 will either rise all of the way or not rise at all. 1780014 B 15 16428 32 00390158800113 ETS2 OS Gold has a specific gravity of 19.3. What is the weight, in grams, of 10 cubic centimeters of gold? A. 19.3 B. 193 C. 393 D. 493 9 E. 593 1780015 C 15 16431 32 01950158800113 ETS2 OS If an object floats in water with exactly one-half its volume submerged, the specific gravity of the object A. cannot be determined unless the total volume is known B. cannot be determined unless the weight is known C. is one-half D. is one 9 E. is two 1780016 A 15 16435 32 00080186800212 ETS2 OS Water has a density of 62.4 lbs. per cubic foot. If the specific gravity of a piece of cork is .25, a cubic foot of cork weighs A. 15.6 lbs. B. 46.8 lbs. C. 62.15 lbs. D. 78 lbs. 9 E. None of these answers 1780017 E 15 16438 52 00080186800112 ETS2 OS Water has a density of 62.4 lbs. per cubic foot. A certain sample of ore has a specific gravity of 2.5. Therefore its density is A. 2.5 lbs. per cu. Ft. B. 2.5 grams per cu. ft. C. 24.76 lbs. per cu. ft. D. 64.9 lbs. per cu. ft. 9 E. 156 lbs. per cu. ft. 1780018 B 15 16442 32 01860158800112 2 OS If the density of a substance is 9 grams per cu. cm., its specific gravity is (density of water is 62.4 lb. per cu. ft.) 5 3 A. 9 gm. per cm. B. 9 C. 9 lb. per cu. ft. D. 561.6 9 E. 561.5 lb. per cu. ft. 1780019 A 15 16446 32 01580016800112 2 OS The specific gravity of aluminum is 2.6. The weight of 5 cu. ft. of aluminum is about A. 812.5 lbs. B. 5 lbs. C. 130 lbs. D. 13 lbs. 9 E. 32.5 lbs. 1780020 D 15 16449 32 80010186019512 2 OS A certain mineral has a density of 300 lbs/cu. ft. The volume of a block of it which weighs 450 lbs. is A. 450 cu. ft. B. 0.5 cu. ft. C. 2/3 cu. ft. D. 1.5 cu. ft. 9 E. 4.5 cu. ft. 1780021 CE 25 16452 52 0477019501861390 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM Using this information, answer the following questions. A mineral specimen weighs 300 gm. in air, 180 gm. when submerged 0 in water, and 210 gm. in gasoline. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 The volume of gasoline displaced by the mineral is 5 3 A. 30 cm. 5 3 B. 90 cm. 5 3 C. 120 cm. 5 3 D. 150 cm. 1 E. None of these MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 The density of the specimen in the preceding question is 5 3 A. 1.67 gm./cm. 5 3 B. 3.33 gm./cm 5 3 C. 0.40 gm./cm. 5 3 D. 1.0 gm./cm. 5 3 9 E. 1.50 gm./cm. 1780022 D 14 16460 31 80038004 2WVW An ice cube will float highest in A. alcohol B. gasoline C. fresh water 9 D. salt water 1780023 D 14 16462 31 011301868004 2 OS The property of a gas usually expressed in the units, grams - per - liter, is the A. specific gravity B. mole C. molar volume 9 D. density 1780024 E 15 16465 32 018610970015 0042 What is the density of a sample of metal that weighed 50.0 grams and which, on immersion, raised the water level in a graduated cylinder from 10.3 ml to 16.2 ml? 9 A. .12 g/ml B. 8 g/ml C. 85 g/ml D. 5.5 g/ml E. 8.47 g/ml. 1780025 C 15 16469 31 01860284 0028 The density of a substance divided by the density of some substance taken as a standard is the definition of: A. specific heat B. a calorie C. specific gravity 9 D. density E. none of these 1780026 E 15 16472 32 01860158 0028 Calculate the volume in milliliters at 18 degrees C occupied by 75 g of sulfuric acid. 5 o 5 18 C d = 1.83 g/ml 9 A. 140 ml B. 14 ml C. 0.024 ml D. 4.1 ml E. 41 ml 1780027 C 15 16475 32 01860158 0028 An experiment calls for 252 ml glycerol 5 o 5 20 C/4 sp gr = 1.26 . How many grams would be required? 9 A. 200 g B. 300 g C. 318 g D. 342 g E. 252 g 1780028 A 15 16478 32 01860158 0028 Calculate the number of milliliters at 25 degrees C in 0.0355 5 o 5 25 C/4 kg of ethyl ether. Sp gr = 0.71 9 A. 50 ml B. 25 ml C. 5.0 ml D. 2.5 ml E. 71 ml 1780029 C 15 16482 52 018601500288 0028 Carbon tetrachloride has a density of 1.59 g/ml. How many milliliters will 0.282 lb occupy? 9 A. 890 ml B. 390 ml C. 80.5 ml D. 17.8 ml E. 101 ml 1780030 C 15 16485 31 01860008 0020 The density of water is A. less than that of ice at 0 degrees C B. constant at all temperatures C. a maximum at 3.98 degrees C D. a minimum at 3.98 degrees C 9 E. none of these 1780031 A 15 16488 32 018601940195 0020 What is the density of a metal alloy, 1500 g of which has a volume of 300 cc? A. 5.00 g/ml B. 0.450 g/ml C. 0.500 g/cc D. 4.50 g/cc 9 E. none of these 1780032 C 15 16491 32 0020 Expressed with an accuracy of three significant figures, the number 345689.7 is 5 6 5 5 4 6 9 A. 3.46x10 B. 3.45x10 C. 3.46x10 D. 3.45x10 E. 3.45x10 1780033 B 15 16494 32 018613981399 0019 A piece of nickel weighing 44.5 g displaces 5.0 ml of water when submerged. The density of nickel is __________g/ml. 9 A. 0.11 B. 8.9 C. 4.45 D. 5.0 E. 1.1 1780034 C 14 16497 32 019201860398 0019 A substance X has a density of 3 g/ml. Substance Y has a density of 2 g/ml. If you had 250 g of X and 125 ml of Y, then it follows that you have A. a greater mass of X than Y B. a greater mass of Y than X C. equal masses of both substances 9 D. no way of telling how to compare the masses of the two 1780035 A 15 16502 32 043801860195 0019 A liquid has a density of 2.5 g/ml. What volume in ml would 500 mg of this substance occupy? 9 A. 0.20 B. 1.25 C. 2.5 D. 5.0 E. none of these 1780036 D 15 16505 32 047701860195 0035 A certain mineral has a density of 300 lbs/cu. ft. The volume of a block of it which weighs 450 lbs. is A. 450 cu. ft. B. 0.5 cu. ft. C. 2/3 cu. ft. 9 D. 1.5 cu. ft. E. 4.5 cu. ft. 1780037 B 14 16508 32 01860195 05 What is the volume of a cube which has a density of 4 g/cc and a mass of 5 grams? 9 A. 0.8 cc's B. 1.25 cc's C. 20.0 cc's D. 9 cc's 1780038 A 15 16510 32 01860195 05 5 3 What is the volume (in cm ) of a block of manganese which has a 5 3 density of 7.0 g/cm and a mass of 3.5 g? 9 A. 0.50 B. 2.0 C. 10.5 D. 24.5 E. 49.0 1780039 D 14 16513 32 01860195 05 The density of a 3 cc piece of boron is 4.0 g/cc. What is its mass? A. 0.75 g C. 7.0 g 9 B. 1.33 g D. 12.0 g 1780040 D 14 16515 32 01860195 05 An 8 cc block has a density of 2 g/cc. What is its mass A. 0.25 g C. 6.0 g 9 B. 4.0 g D. 16.0 g 1780041 B 14 16517 32 01860195 05 The density of a 2 cc block of metal is 6.0 g/cc. What is the density of a 4 cc block of this same metal 9 A. 3.0 g/cc B. 6.0 g/cc C. 8.0 g/cc D. 12.0 g/cc 1780042 B 14 16520 32 01860195 05 The volume of a 6 g block of metal is 2 cc's. What is the density? 9 A. 0.33 g/cc B. 3.0 g/cc C. 4.0 g/cc D. 12.0 g/cc 1780043 A 14 16522 32 01860195 05 The mass of a 5 cc block is 2 g. What is the density of this block? 9 A. 0.4 g/cc B. 2.5 g/cc C. 4.0 g/cc D. 10.0 g/cc 1780044 D 14 16524 52 1944 0055 5 3 3 A 100 cm graduated cylinder has water to the 35.0 cm mark; 5 -3 20.0g of sand (density = 2.65 g cm ) are added. What is the new level of water in the cylinder? 5 3 A. 88.0 cm 5 3 B. 55.0 cm 5 3 C. 53.0 cm 5 3 9 D. 42.5 cm 1780045 A 14 16529 52 1944 0055 Aluminum has a density of 2.7 g/cc. Copper has a density of 8.9 g/cc. An alloy made from 270 g Al and 89 g Cu has a density of 5 -3 A. 3.3 g cm 5 -3 B. 5.5 g cm 5 -3 C. 5.8 g cm 5 -3 9 D. 7.6 g cm 1780046 B 14 16533 52 19550138 0062 5 3 The volume of one mole of AgCl, the density of which is 5.56 g/cm : 9 A. 1/(5.56 x 143) B. 0.143/5.56 C. 5.5/14.0 D. 5.56 x 143 1780047 D 15 16536 52 071101 0064 A sulfuric acid solution has a density of 1.84 g/cc and contains 98% sulfuric acid, H SO by weight. How many milliliters of this 4 2 4 solution should be taken in order to supply 1000 g of H SO ? 4 2 4 5 3 3 2 A. 1.8 x 10 B. 1.9 x 10 C. 7.5 x 10 5 2 9 D. 5.5 x 10 E. none of these 1780048 C 15 16542 52 071101 0064 A solution prepared by dissolving 26.0 g of a substance in 101 ml of pure water has a density of 1.14 g/cc. What is the volume of this solution? 9 A. 89 ml B. 101 ml C. 111 ml D. 127 ml E. 145 ml 1780049 A 15 16545 72 071101 0064 How many grams of KOH are contained in 50.00 ml of a KOH solution that has a density of 1.46 g/cc and contains 45% KOH by weight? 5 2 9 A. 33 B. 15 C. 1.6 x 10 D. 1.6 E. 56 1780050 A 15 16548 52 071101 0064 A solution is prepared by dissolving 25 g of substance X in 100 ml of pure water. The resulting solution has a density of 1.136 g/cc. How many milliliters of this solution should be taken in order to provide 2 g of X? 9 A. 9 B. 4.0 C. 7 D. 8 E. 0.8 1780051 B 15 16552 52 071101 0064 At one time gold sold for $400/Troy ounce. If the density of gold is 19.3 g/cc, calculate the cost of 4.54 ml of gold at that price. (1 Troy pound = 12 Troy ounces = 373 g.) 9 A. $0.353 B. $1130 C. $33.4 D. $980 E. $3.03 1780052 E 15 16556 52 071101 0064 5 21 The planet Earth has a volume of 1.1 x 10 cubic meters and an average density of 5.5 g/cubic centimeter. What is the mass of the earth in kilograms? 5 20 30 A. 5.0 Mg B. 5.5 x 10 kg C. 4.2 x 10 kg 5 23 24 9 D. 2.0 x 10 kg E. 6.1 x 10 kg 1780053 B 15 16561 52 071101 0064 Mercury has a density of 13.6 g/ml. What volume, in cubic inches, would 34.0 pounds of mercury occupy? 9 A. 46.2 B. 69.3 C. 227 D. 448 E. 1160 1780054 B 15 44506 31 5 3 3 If a cube with a density of 6.0 g/cm has a volume of 3.0 cm , then its mass is 5 2 9 A. 2.0 g B. 18 g C. 0.50 g D. 1.6 x 10 g E. 0.22 g 1780055 B 15 44755 31 If a 2 cc block has a mass of 5 g, then its density is 9 A. 10 g/cc B. 2.5 g/cc C. 0.5 g/cc D. 5.0 g/cc E. variable 1780056 A 15 44853 51 If a 3 cc block has a mass of 2 g, then its density is ___ g/cc. 9 A. 0.67 B. 1.5 C. 3 D. 6 E. 2 1780057 D 15 45165 51 Calculate the mass of copper which occupies the same volume as 5 3 75.0 g of magnesium. The density of Cu = 8.96 g/cm and 5 3 and Mg = 1.74 g/cm . 9 A. 14.56 g B. 14.6 g C. 15 g D. 386 g E. 386.2 g 1900001 A 15 16564 31 03980067800111 ETS2 OS The mass of a substance is A. described as a property of a substance by virtue of which it possesses inertia B. the density of its particles C. dependent upon the gravitational pull of the earth or some other body D. a force which accelerates a body 9 E. its weight in any set of weight units 1900002 D 15 16569 51 00140066800114 ETS2 OS Which of the following is characteristic of carbon compounds? A. carbon atoms join other carbon atoms only in such manner as to form chain compounds. B. once a carbon compound is formed it cannot be chemically changed unless some atoms are removed. C. once a carbon compound is formed it cannot be chemically changed unless some atoms are added. D. many carbon compounds are soluble in water. E. carbon atoms may share from one to eight valence 9 bonds with other carbon atoms. 1900003 C 15 16576 32 04750504800111 ETS2 OS The particles of which all matter is composed are believed to be A. moving at the same rate regardless of the mass or physical state of the matter B. moving at different rates, the differences depending on the quantity or mass of the matter C. moving at different rates, the differences depending on the physical state and temperature of the matter D. moving at different rates, the differences depending on the weight of the matter observed 9 E. stationary and immovable 1900004 E 15 16583 31 01610195800111 ETS2 OS At constant temperatures, volume varies inversely with pressure for enclosed A. solids, liquid, and gases B. solids and liquids C. solids and gases, but not liquids D. liquids 9 E. gases 1900005 A 15 16586 31 03170293800111 ETS2 OS The attractive forces between molecules becomes less when A. temperature is raised at constant pressure B. temperature is lowered at constant pressure C. pressure is raised at constant temperature D. volume is decreased at constant temperature 9 E. volume is decreased at constant pressure 1900006 D 15 16590 31 04930494800111 ETS2 OS One can infer that the cooling of any substance results in a decrease in A. weight of the molecules B. decomposition of the molecules C. volume of the molecules D. number of collisions between the molecules 9 E. attractive forces between the molecules 1900007 ECAB 45 16594 31 0258052580011290 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2Select from the key the term that is best described in the 2questions below. 2 A. Diffusion 2 B. Immiscibility 2 C. Viscosity 2 D. Compressibility 0 E. Surface tension MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 It is almost as if the water were covered wIth a thin, stretched sheet of rubber, which must be ruptured before the water can make 1 contact with metal or glass. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 Observations suggest that the liquid moves by the sliding of one 2 layer over the other. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 If a heavy gas, like carbon dioxide, is placed in the bottom of a container, and a light gas, such as hydrogen, is placed on top of 3 the heavy gas, within a few hours the two will be completely mixed. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 Two liquids shaken together give a cloudy mixture with tiny globules of one liquid suspended in the other; when the shaking stops the globules coalesce, and the liquids separate into 9 distinct layers. 1900008 CDEA 45 16605 31 800405170803 90 2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2For each of the numbered items which follow, choose the option 2which best matches. 2 A. Boyle's law 2 B. Charles' law 2 C. Resonance 2 D. Adsorption 0 E. Absorption MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 The property of an atom or molecule of shifting its electronic 1 structure between two or more different patterns MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 A soaking up of one substance through the entire mass of another MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 3 The accumulation of one substance on the surface of another MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 The volume of a certain amount of dry gas is inversely proportional to the pressure, provided the temperature remains 9 constant 1900009 EDAB 45 16613 32 001905638004 90 2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2For each of the numbered items which follow, choose the option 2which best matches. 2 A. Valence 2 B. Allotrope 2 C. Ion 2 D. Radical 0 E. Ionic bonding MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 Bonding in which one or more electrons are transferred from one 1 atom to another MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 A group of atoms which usually behaves as if it were a single 2 atom MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 The number of electrons gained, lost, or shared by an atom in 3 bonding with one or more atoms MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 9 One of the two or more different forms of an element 1900010 C 14 16620 31 019601138004 2 OS Hydrogen is a gas which is A. colorless and quite soluble B. odorless and a supporter of combustion C. combustible and a reducing agent 9 D. both a catalytic and an oxidizing agent 1900011 BDAC 45 16623 31 023708208004 2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2For each of the numbered items which follow, choose the option 2which best matches A. covalent bond 2 B. period 2 C. radical 2 D. shell 0 E. chemical bond MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 A horizontal row of elements in the periodic table MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 A region about the nucleus of an atom in which electrons move MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 3 Bonding in which atoms share a pair of electrons MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 9 An atom or group of atoms with an unpaired electron 1900012 D 14 16629 31 01540159 0026 Energy added to matter may cause A. an increase in temperature B. a change of state C. a chemical reaction 9 D. any of the preceding answers depending upon the conditions. 1900013 E 15 16632 31 140203481426 0040 In which of the following pairs are both properties classified as chemical? A. odor, flammability B. melting point, color C. hardness, explodes upon heating D. odor, density 9 E. flammability, explodes upon heating 1900014 E 15 16636 31 159301720186 0040 Which of the following is not a property of both liquids and 3 ______ solids? A. density B. small degree of compressibility C. small degree of thermal expansion D. vapor pressure 9 E. melting point. 1900015 B 14 16640 52 19470415 0058 The element found in the largest number of known compounds is: 9 A. C B. H C. N D. O 1920001 B 15 16642 51 00940172800111 ETS2 OS When sulfur is heated A. the monoclinic variety changes to the rhombic B. at the melting point, the liquid is dark brown in color and very viscous C. monoclinic crystals are formed by allowing liquid sulfur, not heated much above its melting point, to freeze D. various isotopes of sulfur are formed as the temperature rises E. plastic sulfur is a mixture of the monoclinic and rhombic 9 varieties 1920002 A 15 16648 52 04990169800111 ETS2 OS All of the following would be contradictory to the kinetic theory except A. a gas that liquefies at 300 degrees below zero centigrade B. two solids that diffuse into each other C. a greater force of attraction between two molecules of steam at 212 degrees F. than between two molecules of water at the same temperature D. a material in which all molecular motion stops at 0 degrees C. 9 E. a solid which evolves heat as it changes to a liquid 1920003 E 15 16655 31 01130195800111 ETS2 OS When a given mass of gas is heated while its volume is held constant A. the gas condenses to a liquid B. the pressure of the gas decreases C. the pressure of the gas remains the same D. the kinetic energy of the molecules will decrease 9 E. the molecules will move faster 1920004 B 15 16659 31 01130438800111 ETS2 OS Indicate which of the following statements is most nearly correct with respect to the difference between a gas and a liquid. A. Gases are invisible, liquids are visible. B. Gases can be greatly compressed, liquids cannot. C. Molecules of a gas are smaller than molecules of a liquid. D. Molecules of a gas will diffuse, molecules of a liquid will not. E. Molecules of a gas have a higher kinetic energy than the 9 molecules of a liquid at the same temperature. 1920005 B 15 16666 31 03960397800111 ETS2 OS Great resistance to compression is a property of all A. solids, liquids, and gases B. solids, liquids, but not gases C. solids only D. solids and gases, but not liquids 9 E. liquids only 1920006 D 15 16669 31 02930113800111 ETS2 OS When the molecules of a confined gas are made to move faster, A. the volume of the gas decreases B. the temperature of the gas decreases C. the temperature of the gas remains constant D. the temperature of the gas increases 9 E. the gas condenses to a liquid 1920007 B 15 16673 52 02780113800111 ETS2 OS The hypothesis that gases expand and contract because the molecules expand and contract while remaining in contact is best refuted by A. the observation that all gases are transparent B. the observation that gases interdiffuse rapidly C. the theory that molecular diameters are constant D. the observation that the fog tracks of alpha particles through hydrogen are long and straight 9 E. the theory that gases are mostly empty space 1920008 C 15 16679 31 01130438800111 ETS2 OS The individual molecules of a substance which changes from a gas to a liquid to a solid, experience the greatest change in their A. kinetic energy B. mass C. potential energy D. volume 9 E. coefficient of expansion 1920009 D 15 16683 32 05370161800112 ETS2 OS A given amount of gas in a closed container is heated from room temperature to 100 degrees F.; disregarding the possible expansion of the container, according to the kinetic theory A. the gas has increased in weight B. the individual molecules of the gas have expanded C. the average distance between molecules has increased D. the average velocity of the molecules has increased 9 E. the pressure on the sides of the container has decreased 1920010 A 15 16689 31 04380169800111 ETS2 OS Which one of the following is true in the comparison of a liquid and a solid at the same temperature? A. Liquid molecules have a greater degree of freedom. B. Heat must be applied to make the molecules of a solid move. C. Liquid molecules vibrate about a fixed position. D. There is less space between the molecules of a liquid. 9 E. Liquid molecules are more dense. 1920011 E 15 16694 31 01130195800111 ETS2 OS When a given mass of gas is heated while its volume is held constant A. the gas condenses to a liquid B. the pressure of the gas decreases C. the pressure of the gas remains the same D. the kinetic energy of the molecules will decrease 9 E. the molecules will move faster 1920012 D 14 16698 31 025804388004 2 OS Three of the following statements about diffusion are true. Which one is false? A. Substances diffuse from regions of their greater concentration to regions of their lesser concentration. B. Small particles will difuse for more readily than large particles. C. Diffusion occurs more readily in a gas than in a liquid. 9 D. Diffusion is more readily visible in a liquid than in a gas. 1920013 B 15 16704 31 041305040588 0028 Mercury is an example of which one of the following states of matter at room temperature and atmospheric pressure: A. solid B. liquid C. gas 9 D. liquid and gas E. none of these 1920014 A 14 16707 31 02930113 0041 Molecules are, in general, farthest apart from one another in A. gases B. liquids 9 C. crystalline solids D. amorphous solids 1920015 D 14 16709 31 16550871 A portion of the universe isolated for study is called a A. phase C. heterogeneous mixture 9 B. homogeneous mixture D. system 1920016 D 15 16711 31 08710588 How many phases are present in the following system: a vessel containing water, pure copper, carbon tetrachloride, and air. Note: water and carbon tetrachloride do not mix. 9 A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 1920017 C 14 16714 51 189704900748 The triple point on the phase diagram for a substance A. is the only set of conditions under which none of the three phases of the substance can exist in equilibrium B. is the point above which three separate phases of the substance are in equilibrium C. is the intersection of the three two-phase equilibrium lines D. is the point below which the three phases of the substance 9 are in equilibrium 1920018 D 14 16720 51 1897 On a phase diagram of a substance, the areas between lines represent A. the conditions under which all three phases can exist in equilibrium with one another B. the conditions under which none of the three phases of the substance is present C. areas in which two phases exist 9 D. conditions under which only one phase exists 1920019 B 14 44658 51 189702450114 On a pressure-temperature phase diagram, the conditions under which two phases can exist in equilibrium with one another are indicated by A. the area delineated by two or more lines B. points on a line in the diagram C. the intersection of two lines D. the intersection of three lines 9 E. the horizontal axis 1920020 B 14 16729 51 189704900245 The triple point in a phase diagram represents A. the temperature at which the solid and liquid coexist in equilibrium with the vapor when the pressure is 1 atm. B. the temperature and pressure at which the solid, liquid, and vapor coexist in equilibrium. C. the region in a phase diagram in which one pure phase exists. D. the temperature of the normal boiling point of the 9 substance. 1920021 B 14 16735 51 18970558 Where, on a phase diagram, can you locate conditions where one phase only exists? A. on a line B. in an area bounded by lines C. at an intersection of two lines 9 D. at an intersection of three lines 1920022 A 14 16738 51 189705580245 Where, on a phase diagram, can you locate conditions where two phases coexist in equilibrium? A. on a line B. in an area bounded by lines C. at an intersection of two lines 9 D. at an intersection of three lines 1920023 D 14 16742 51 18970245 Where, on a phase diagram, can you locate conditions where all three phases may coexist in equilibrium? A. on a line B. in an area bounded by lines C. at an intersection of two lines 9 D. at an intersection of three lines 1920024 C 14 16746 51 189714090558 On a phase diagram of a substance, the lines represent conditions where how many phases may exist? 9 A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3 1920025 C 14 44481 31 1429 The temperature above which a gas cannot be liquefied, no matter how great the applied pressure, is called the A. triple point C. critical temperature E. dew point 9 B. normal boiling point D. condensation point 1920026 BA 25 16751 52 OS82 MACROITEM STEM Draw smooth curves through the points in the diagram below: | . | . | . | . | . | . |. 0 |_______________________ MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 This diagram describes phenomena associated with the behavior of A. acid-base equilibria C. ideal gases B. phase equilibria D. ideal solutions 1 E. heat transfer across a boundary MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 The correct labels for the axes of this diagram are x y A. temperature pressure B. pressure temperature C. volume temperature D. temperature solubility 9 E. enthalpy change concentration 1922001 A 15 16762 52 01950114800112 ETS2 OS A gas occupies 3 liters at S.T.P. Its volume at +546 degrees C. and at 380 mm. pressure will be A. 18 liters B. 3 liters C. 1.5 liters D. 4.5 liters 9 E. none of these answers 1922002 B 15 16765 72 02180025800113 ETS2 OS If the atomic weights of nitrogen and oxygen are 14 and 16 5 o respectively, the volume of 4.6g NO at 0 C and 4 2 0.5 atm pressure is A. 2.24 liters C. 8.96 liters E. 44.8 liters 9 B. 4.48 liters D. 224 ml 1922003 C 15 16769 31 06548001800312 ETS2WVW If the temperature of a fixed volume of gas is 0 deg. C., the temperature to which the gas must be raised to approximately double the pressure is 5 o o o o 9 A. 2 C B. 100 C C. 273 C D. 273 K E. 546 C 1922004 C 15 16773 31 03170113800111 ETS2 OS The force exerted on the walls of a vessel by a contained gas is caused by A. the repulsive forces between the molecules B. slight loss in average speed suffered by the molecules at the walls C. changes in the momentum which the molecules experience at the walls D. attraction between the walls and the gas 9 E. elastic collisions between molecules of the gas 1922005 E 15 16779 31 01140113800111 ETS2 OS The pressure exerted on the walls of a vessel by a confined gas arises from A. the repulsion between molecules B. a loss in speed when the molecules hit the walls C. the attraction of the walls for the gas molecules D. the stored-up energy of the molecules 9 E. the kinetic energy of the molecules 1922006 E 15 16784 32 01950161800111 ETS2 OS To state that the volume of a gas changes by 1/273 for each degree centigrade change in temperature can be true only if A. the volume is expressed in metric units B. the gas consists of only one element or compound C. the change in temperature is decreasing D. the temperature is expressed in absolute rather than in centigrade degrees 9 E. no chemical reaction is caused 1922007 E 15 16790 52 04990379800111 ETS2 OS The kinetic theory can be used to explain all of the following phenomena except A. the difference in riding quality between a flat and a properly inflated tire B. the presence of cooking odors in rooms adjacent to a kitchen C. Boyle's law D. Charles' law 9 E. artificially induced radioactivity 1922008 C 15 16795 31 01950113800111 ETS2 OS That the volume of an ideal gas is directly proportional to the absolute temperature is A. an inaccurate expression B. true if the centigrade scale of temperatures is used C. true if the pressure is held constant D. true if the volume is held constant 9 E. true without qualification 1922009 A 15 16799 32 01950113800111 ETS2 OS Which one of the following would not affect the volume of a single gas in a rubber balloon? A. chemical composition of the gas B. temperature of the gas C. pressure of the gas D. altitude of the balloon 9 E. more than one of the above 1922010 E 15 16803 31 04998001800211 ETS2 OS Of the following statements concerning the kinetic theory the one which is incorrect is A. matter is comprised of small discrete particles called molecules B. molecules are in motion in all substances except at the temperature of absolute zero C. for gases it is assumed that molecules are very far apart in relation to the size of the molecules D. for gases it is assumed that molecules exert practically no attraction on each other 9 E. all of the above statements are incorrect 1922011 C 15 16810 31 01130293800111 ETS2 OS Which one of these is not a characteristic of a gas molecule in motion? A. very high velocities B. a vast number of collisions per second C. a speed directly proportional to the mass of the molecule D. motion in straight lines between collisions 9 E. erratic motion as exemplified in the brownian movement 1922012 C 15 16815 51 00670509800111 ETS2 OS Which of the following is not a general property of gases? 3 ___ A. They mix homogeneously unless they react. B. When molecules collide with each other, there is no loss of energy in the gas. C. They are always clear and colorless. D. The molecular attraction between the molecules is less than it is for liquids and solids. E. The temperature of a gas is a measure of the average 9 kinetic energy of its molecules. 1922013 E 15 16822 31 01610113800111 ETS2 OS At a constant temperature, the volume of a constant mass of gas A. increases as the pressure increases B. decreases as the pressure increases C. is inversely proportional to the pressure D. is directly proportional to the pressure 9 E. two of the above are correct 1922014 B 15 16826 31 05100161800111 ETS2 OS Boyle's law which states that, at a constant temperature, pressure is inversely proportional to volume, can be applied A. to all liquids B. to all gases C. only to combinations of liquids and gases D. to any combination of liquids, gases, and solids 9 E. to all of these 1922015 D 15 16830 52 80010290051211 ETS2 OS For which one of the following does the kinetic theory offer the least satisfactory explanation? A. the growth of crystals B. the elasticity of solids C. heat as a form of molecular motion D. the magnetization of a magnet 9 E. the near incompressibility of liquids and solids 1922016 D 15 16834 51 04990517800111 ETS2 OS The kinetic-molecular theory A. is based on the law of constant proportions B. was originally derived from observations on crystals C. explains why large molecules exert a greater pressure than do the same number of small molecules at the same temperature in the same volume D. gives a satisfactory explanation of charles"law 9 E. explains the law of dulong and petit 1922017 A 15 16840 51 01130397800111 ETS2 OS Gases, in general, show abnormally large compressibilities A. at ordinary temperatures upon moderate increases in pressure B. at very large increases in pressure C. because the molecules occupy a definite volume D. because of the tendency of molecules to repel each other 9 E. because of Boyle's law 1922018 C 15 16845 51 01138001047211 ETS2 OS According to the gas laws, A. every gas, at constant pressure, expands to twice its former volume when the centigrade temperature is doubled. B. gases, at constant temperature, diffuse with speeds directly proportional to the square roots of their densities. C. The volume of a gas is not changed if it is heated from 0 degrees C to 273 degrees C,and at the same time the pressure is increased from 760 mm to 1520 mm. D. if gases are mixed, the pressure of each lowers the pressure of the other. E. if the law of Boyle is to hold, the gas must be kept 9 at constant pressure. 1922019 A 15 16854 52 02650499800111 ETS2 OS Deviations from the gas laws A. are not explained by the kinetic-molecular theory B. appear only when gases are exposed to very high pressures C. indicate that the molecules themselves occupy NO space D. result in gases being slightly more compressible under moderate increases than is in accordance with the law of Boyle 9 E. are present only in the conduct of the hypothetical perfect gas 1922020 D 15 16860 51 02180400800111 ETS2 OS Nitrogen is least significantly associated with A. the explosive industry B. dyes and the dyeing industry C. soil fertility D. poison war gases 9 E. proteins 1922021 E 15 16863 51 04110412000811 ETS2 OS Which one of the following pure compounds contains water vapor? A. dry ice B. hydrogen peroxide C. ammonia D. hydrogen chloride 9 E. none of these 1922022 A 15 16866 32 01130195018612 ETS2 OS A given mass of gas is enclosed in a suitable container so that it may be maintained at constant volume. This procedure necessarily implies that there can be no change in A. density B. pressure C. molecular kinetic energy D. total heat content 9 E. temperature 1922023 A 15 16870 51 02180449045111 ETS2 OS Nitrogen A. forms one of the most stable diatomic molecules known B. is used in the space above the mercury in thermometers because it liquefies at a very low temperature C. forms nitrites when heated with nearly all metals D. forms ammonia when heated to an extremely high temperature in the presence of platinum E. is used in electric light bulbs to eliminate oxidation of 9 the tungsten filament 1922024 A 15 16876 31 02120454044811 ETS2 OS Methane A. is the principal constituent of natural gas B. is formed when hydrogen is discharged at a graphite cathode C. requires three times its own volume of oxygen for complete combustion D. is the simplest branched-chain hydrocarbon 9 E. mixed with steam constitutes water gas 1922025 B 15 16880 51 01140113016111 ETS2 OS When the pressure on a given mass of gas is decreased A. the molecules of the gas will gain kinetic energy B. the temperature of the gas will decrease C. more collisions between gas molecules will occur D. the volume will decrease 9 E. the molecules will move more rapidly 1922026 D 15 16884 31 01130161800111 ETS2 OS A gas in a closed container is heated from room temperature to 5 o 100 C. Assume that the volume of the container remains unchanged. According to the kinetic molecular theory, the A. gas has increased in weight B. individual molecules of the gas have increased in size C. average distance between molecules has increased D. average velocity of the molecules has increased 9 E. pressure on the sides of the container has decreased 1922027 B 15 16890 31 01618001019511 ETS2 OS Increasing the temperature of a confined gas would A. decrease the pressure if the volume is also decreased B. increase the pressure if the volume were held constant C. increase the pressure if the volume were also increased D. increase the volume if the pressure were also increased 9 E. decrease the volume if the pressure were also decreased 1922028 E 15 16895 31 01130286800111 ETS2 OS When a given mass of gas is heated while its volume is held constant, A. the gas condenses to a liquid B. the pressure of the gas decreases C. the pressure of the gas remains the same D. the kinetic energy of the molecules will be reduced 9 E. the molecules will move faster 1922029 B 15 16899 32 02720113800111 ETS2 OS In a laboratory experiment in which the weight of 22.4 liters of oxygen was determined by collecting the gas over water A. 22.4 liters of oxygen were collected B. the vapor pressure of water was subtracted from the existing atmospheric pressure C. the collected oxygen was dried and weighed D. it was necessary to decompose all the potassium chlorate originally in the ignition tube 9 E. no pressure or temperature corrections were required 1922030 D 15 16906 31 02930113800111 ETS2 OS When the molecules of a confined gas are made to move faster, the A. volume of the gas decreases B. temperature of the gas decreases C. temperature of the gas remains the same D. temperature of the gas increases 9 E. molecular motion has no effect on the temperature 1922031 B 15 16910 51 01090397800112 ETS2 OS When air from a compressed air tank expands, the air is reduced in temperature mainly because A. convection takes place B. work is done at the expense of heat energy C. air is a good conductor of heat D. expansion increases the degree of molecular freedom E. the pressure of a gas is inversely proportional to the 9 absolute temperature 1922032 C 15 16915 31 02728001029312 ETS2 OS The experimental observation that the volume of a gas may be greatly decreased by applying pressure is best explained by the assumption that A. the average kinetic energy of gas molecules is directly proportional to the absolute temperature B. gas molecules collide without loss of kinetic energy C. gas molecules are small compared to the distance between them D. gas molecules exert almost no attraction on one another 9 E. none of the above explains the assumption 1922033 D 15 16922 31 02860195800112 ETS2 OS If, in heating a particular type of gas, the volume is maintained at a constant value, then the net result will be A. a fall in temperature of the contained gas B. inability of the gas to take on more heat C. a drop in the pressure of the contained gas D. an increase in the pressure of the contained gas 9 E. none of the above 1922034 B 15 16927 31 02728001025812 ETS2 OS Indicate the experimental or observational study giving best support for the statement "Molecules of a gas are in constant motion." A. winds exert pressure. B. Two gases interdiffuse quickly. C. Warm air rises. D. Heat is necessary to vaporize a substance. 9 E. Gases are highly compressible. 1922035 B 15 16932 52 01920351800113 ETS2 OS If we had a substance made up of atoms which had no attraction for one another, which of the following would be most nearly correct? A. Ten million atoms of this substance as a gas would occupy a much larger volume than 10 million molecules of the gas O , at the same temperature and pressure. 4 2 B. This substance would be a gas which could not be liquefied or changed to a solid. C. This substance could never exist as a gas at all but would be a solid or a liquid. D. If this substance were contained in a stoppered bottle and the temperature were increased, the pressure the substance exerts on the sides of the bottle would decrease. E. As a gas it would behave like any other gas since all gases 9 are of this type. 1922036 D 15 16943 52 80010114032113 ETS2 OS One liter each of four gases, W, X, Y, and Z, at standard conditions are passed into a one-liter container, where they combine to form a new gas (compound Q). The pressure of gas Q is found to be one atmosphere at 0 degrees C. What conclusions may be drawn? A. The number of molecules of Q formed is greater than the number of molecules in any one of the reactants. B. The number of molecules of Q formed equals the number of molecules of all the reactants. C. The number of molecules of Q formed is less than the number of molecules in any one of the reactants. D. The number of molecules of Q formed equals the number of molecules in any one of the reactants. 9 E. One mole of Q was formed. 1922037 A 14 16953 32 02728001018714 ETS2 OS Experimental evidence that a gas consists mostly of empty space is the fact that A. the density of a gas becomes greater when it is liquefied. B. gases exert pressure on the walls of their containers. C. gases are transparent 9 D. heating a gas increases molecular motion 1922038 C 15 16957 31 04450293800114 ETS2 OS The weight of a molecule of oxygen is 16 times as much as the weight of a molecule of hydrogen. One balloon is to be inflated with two liters of oxygen and another balloon of the same size with two liters of hydrogen. If both are kept at the same temperature, the pressure of the oxygen in the first balloon necessary to attain the same volume as the second balloon will be A. sixteen times as great as in the second B. one-sixteenth as great as in the second C. equal to that in the second D. four times as great as in the second 9 E. one-fourth as great as in the second 1922039 CD 25 16965 52 0196011480011390 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 0 Answer the following questions. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 A liter of hydrogen gas at 0 degrees C. and a pressure of one atmosphere weighs 0.09 gram. If hydrogen is placed in a rigid container and the temperature is raised from 0 degrees C. to 273 degrees c., the weight of the liter of gas will A. become 1/273 as great B. be reduced by one-half C. remain the same D. become twice as great 1 E. become 273 times as great MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 The pressure of the gas on the walls of the container will A. become 1/273 as great B. be reduced by one-half C. remain the same D. become twice as great 9 E. become 273 times as great 1922040 B 14 16973 51 087101930548 A system consists of nothing but gaseous H and gaseous N . 4 2 2 Which of the following is true? A. H and N do not mix 4 2 2 B. H and N form a homogenous mixture 4 2 2 C. H and N form a heterogenous mixture 4 2 2 D. H and N form two phases 94 2 2 1922041 A 15 16978 32 01130195800112 ETS2 OS A given mass of gas is enclosed in a suitable container so that it may be maintained at constant volume. This procedure necessarily implies that there can be no change in A. density B. pressure C. molecular kinetic energy D. total heat content 9 E. temperature 1922042 D 15 16982 31 01140438800111 ETS2 OS The vapor pressure of a liquid A. is the pressure at which its pressure is equal to that of the atmosphere B. decreases more rapidly with temperature as the temperature falls C. is the pressure necessary to cause bubble formation at atmospheric pressure D. is the pressure at which the rate of evaporation is equal to the rate of condensation 9 E. is normally large for electrovalent than for covalent compounds 1922043 B 15 16988 51 01090472800111 ETS2 OS When air from a compressed air tank expands, the air is reduced in temperature mainly because A. convection takes place B. work is done at the expense of heat energy C. air is a good conductor of heat D. expansion increases the degree of molecular freedom E. the pressure of a gas is inversely proportional to the 9 absolute temperature 1922044 B 15 16993 31 01130114800111 ETS2WVW When air is let out of a tire, the temperature of the air is reduced because A. the pressure of a gas is inversely proportional to the absolute temperature B. expansion increases the degree of molecular freedom C. work is done at the expense of heat energy D. air is a good conductor of heat 9 E. convection takes place 1922045 B 15 16998 31 02930195800111 ETS2 OS The number of molecules in equal volumes of all gases under the same conditions of temperature and pressure are A. widely different B. equal C. numerous D. comparatively few 9 E. unknown 1922046 D 15 17001 52 02760025800111 ETS2 OS According to theory, in a given mixture of oxygen and nitrogen, of uniform temperature throughout, A. all the molecules are moving at the same speed. B. all the molecules possess the same kinetic energy. C. the average speed of the nitrogen molecules is the same as the average speed of the oxygen molecules. D. the averrage kinetic energy of all the molecules in this mixture is the same as that of any other gas at the same temperature. E. the average kinetic energy of all the molecules in this mixture is the same as that of any other gas at 9 the same pressure. 1922047 C 15 17010 51 80010511029311 ETS2 OS Select the true statement or statements. 1. If a gas expands against an external pressure, without absorbing heat from the enviroment, then the average kinetic energy of the gas molecules is increased. 2. If a gas is compressed, without losing heat to the environment, then the average kinetic energy of the gas molecules is unchanged 3. If the volume of a gas remains constant while the gas absorbs a certain quantity of heat, then the average kinetic energy of the gas molecules is increased. The correct selection includes only A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 1 and 2 9 E. 2 and 3 1922048 D 15 17018 71 80010186016111 ETS2 OS Which of the following is the best statement of the reason for defining the term "pressure" as we do? A. The expansive force of a gas is its most characteristic property. B. The "elasticity" of a gas can be measured by observing the amount of force necessary to keep it confined in its volume. C. A gas of a given kind (e.g., hydrogen), at a specified density and temperature, always exerts the same force against its containing walls regardless of the shape or volume of that container. D. A gas of a given kind (e.g., hydrogen), at a specified density and temperature, exerts against a plane portion of its containing walls a force proportional to the area of that portion. E. A term can be defined in any way one pleases, the only admissible question is whether the term as defined 9 can be applied to anything. 1922049 B 15 17030 31 01610195800112 ETS2 OS When the temperature and the volume are held constant, the pressure of a gas remains unchanged. Which one of the following principles is most closely associated with the explanation of this? A. The addition of heat increases the speed of the molecules. B. Molecules collide without loss of kinetic energy. C. In an adiabatic change work is done at the expense of internal energy. D. At a given temperature, the pressure exerted by a confined gas is proportional to the number of molecules it contains. 9 E. The volume coefficient of expansion for gases is a constant. 1922050 C 15 17039 52 01140493800112 ETS2 OS The reduction in pressure as a gas is cooled in a container of constant volume is best explained on the basis that the molecules A. hit each wall of the vessel less often B. hit each wall of the vessel with less force C. hit each wall of the vessel with less force and less often D. contract 9 E. get closer together 1922051 B 14 17044 32 05330109800112 ETS2 OS When pumping air into an automobile tire, we notice the wall of the pump becomes quite warm to the touch. This is because A. the air being taken in is warmer than the air in the tire B. some of the mechanical energy of pumping is converted to heat C. the air molecules have increased their frictional drag 9 D. warm air rushes back into the pump from the tire 1922053 BBD 35 17050 31 0025034580011290 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2Read the following paragraph to answer the questions below. 2Chemists using oxygen, atomic weight 16 and molecular weight 32, 2as standard, and the known weight under standard conditions of 21 liter of oxygen 1.429 gms., show that the volume occupied by 232 gms. of oxygen equals 32/1.429 or 22.4 liters. When nitrogen 2is used, the weight of 22.4 liters is 28 instead of 32. the two 2numbers, 28 and 32, must be the relative weights of an equal number 2of molecules of the gases. In numbers, the molecular weight of any 2gaseous element or compound is the same as the weight in grams of 0 22.4 liters of the gas. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 The above paragraph makes particular use of the A. law of definite proportions B. law of Avogadro C. law of conservation of mass D. law of multiple proportions 1 E. law of Gay Lussac MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 If the density of hydrogen is .08987 gm./liter under standard conditions, 22.4 liters of hydrogen should weigh A. 1.008 gms. B. 2.016 gms. C. 4.064 gms. D. 32/.08987 gms. 2 E. None of these MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 If the atomic weight of chlorine is 35.5, 22.4 liters under standard conditions A. weigh 1.58 gm. B. weigh 35.5 gm. C. weigh 32 gm. D. weigh 71 gm. E. weigh an amount which cannot be determined without knowing 9 the weight of 1 liter 1922054 A 15 17067 31 01610114800111 ETS2 OS Which of the following statements is not correct? 3 ___ A. At constant temperature the pressure of a certain amount of gas increases with increasing volume. B. At constant volume the pressure of a certain amount of gas increases with increasing temperature. C. At constant pressure the volume of a certain amount of gas increases with increasing temperature. D. In dealing with gas laws the most convenient scale of temperature to use is the absolute or Kelvin. E. Equal numbers of molecules of all gases exert about the 9 same pressure at a certain temperature and volume. 1922056 D 15 17076 52 07078003 2WVW According to the kinetic molecular theory, for an equimolar mixture of two ideal gases, A and B, (where the molecular weights of A and B are different) A. all molecules have the same velocity B. the average molecular kinetic energy is greater for the lighter gas C. the average molecular kinetic energy is greater for the heavier gas D. the average molecular velocity is greater for the lighter gas E. the partial pressure exerted by the heavier gas is greater 9 than that exerted by the lighter gas 1922057 A 15 17084 52 070807098003 2WVW The effusion of different gases from a pinhole can be compared under the same conditions. Compared to oxygen (O ), the time 4 2 A. 4 times shorter C. 16 times shorter C. 16 times shorter D. 16 times longer 9 E. none of the above is correct 1922058 BDC 35 17089 31 8001019501611190 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2Mark the following questions according to the key below. (Assume 2an ideal gas.) 2 A. True without qualification 2 B. False 2 C. True if the temperature is constant 2 D. True if the volume is constant 0 E. True if the pressure is constant MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 The pressure of a gas varies directly as the volume MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 The pressure of a gas varies directly as the absolute temperature MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 9 The volume of a gas varies inversely as the pressure 1922060 A 14 17095 31 80038004 2WVW Which of the following is a physical property which determines the method of collection of a gas? A. solubility in water B. color C. ease of liquefaction 9 D. state 1922061 B 14 17098 32 011304968002 2 OS The gas which diffuses more rapidly than other bases under similar conditions is A. oxygen B. hydrogen C. nitrogen 9 D. chlorine 1922062 D 14 17100 31 011305388002 2 OS When an ideal gas expands adiabatically against a resisting pressure A. the temperatue remains constant B. energy is liberated C. the pressure increases 9 D. the environment remains unchanged 1922063 A 14 17103 32 05990884039851 9000 An unknown gas occupies a volume of 725 ml at STP and has a mass of 1.036 g. This gas could be 9 A. oxygen B. nitrogen C. carbon dioxide D. chlorine. 1922064 C 14 17106 32 01141543054651 9000 5 o A 10-liter tank contains argon at 1.0 atm pressure and 25 C. What pressure will be exhibited by the argon if the tank is 5 o heated to 250 C? 9 A. 10 atm B. 2.01 atm C. 1.75 atm D. 1.08 atm. 1922065 B 14 17110 32 01950114 51 9000 A balloon containing hydrogen gas at STP has a volume of 45 liters. What is its volume at 77 degrees C and 0.2 atm pressure? 9 A. 11.5 liters B. 57.7 liters C. 77 liters D. 288 liters. 1922066 A 14 17113 32 05530546088451 9000 How many moles of nitrogen gas are there in 4.42 liters volume at STP? 9 A. 0.197 B. 1.07 C. 4.4 D. 8.8 1922067 A 14 17115 32 05531097011351 9000 How many moles are present in a sample of gas which occupies 15.8 liters at 20 degrees C and 0.4 atm pressure? 9 A. 0.26 B. 3.9 C. 3.1 D. 0.32 1922068 C 14 17118 32 12010114016851 9000 Calculate the total pressure exerted by a mixture of gases composed of 7.0 g N , 20 g Ar, and 0.5 g H . the mixture is 4 2 2 5 o contained in a 5.0 liter vessel at 127 C. 9 A. 0.48 atm B. 2.08 atm C. 6.56 atm D. 10.0 atm. 1922069 A 15 17123 32 018606540288 0028 Calculate the density of carbon dioxide in grams per liter at 2.00 atmospheres and 0 degrees C. A. 3.92 g/l B. 0.880 g/l C. 0.509 g/l D. 1.96 g/l 9 E. 1.02 g/l 1922070 D 14 17126 31 01130707 0026 All of the following are a part of the kinetic molecular theory of gases except A. a gas is composed of molecules in ceaseless motion, colliding in perfectly elastic collisions. B. As the temperature is increased, the molecules move faster. C. The molecules of a gas are very small compared to the space they occupy. D. The pressure of a gas results from the close packing of the molecules in the container like the pressure exerted by 9 oranges packed tightly in a crate. 1922071 C 14 17133 31 070706540802 0026 The pressure-volume relationship expressed by Boyle's law can be explained by the kinetic molecular theory as follows A. When more pressure is applied to a gas, a greater volume of the gas dissolves in a liquid. B. The volume of a gas decreases as the pressure on the gas increases. C. When the volume of a gas is decreased the molecules are closer together causing more frequent collisions with the walls of the container. D. When the volume is decreased, the increased temperature causes the molecules to move faster and to hit the walls 9 of the container harder and more often. 1922072 A 14 17142 31 01810707 0026 According to the kinetic molecular theory, the heat of vaporization is used primarily A. to speed up the molecular motion B. to increase the potential energy of the molecules C. to move the molecules closer together 9 D. to melt a solid. 1922073 B 14 17146 32 152401340321 0009 In a synthetic atmosphere made up of He and O , the mole fraction 4 2 of He is 0.80. The weight % of He is: 9 A. 80 B. less than 80 C. greater than 80 D. cannot tell 1922074 E 15 17149 31 030614090884 0019 Which of the following represents standard conditions of temperature and pressure(STP)? A. 0 degrees F, 1 inch Hg B. 0 degrees K, 1 atm C. 0 degrees K, 1 mm Hg D. 0 degrees C, 1 mm Hg 9 E. none of the above 1922075 D 15 17152 31 14121291 0019 Atmospheric pressure is equal to A. the reciprocal of the volume times the gas constant B. the weight of a column of mercury at sea level C. the height of mercury in an inverted tube supported by weight of air above the surface of the mercury D. 760 mm 9 E. 760 atm 1922076 D 15 17156 31 011303400451 0040 Of the following gases the only one which does not consist of 3 ________ diatomic molecules at room temperature is B. nitrogen B. carbon monoxide C. oxygen D. helium 9 E. both B and D. 1922077 B 15 17160 31 080201130528 0035 Boyle's law, which states that at a constant temperature, pressure is inversely proportional to volume, can be applied to A. all liquids B. all ideal gases C. combinations of liquids and gases only D. any combination of liquids, gases, and solids. 9 E. to all of these. 1922078 B 14 17164 51 011404330113 When the pressure of a sample of gas is increased, the mercury level in a barometer which is measuring this pressure will A. drop C. remain constant 9 B. rise D. depend on yet other variables 1922079 A 14 17167 52 011404130321 A pressure of 760 mm of Hg equals A. 1 atmosphere C. 760 atmospheres 9 B. 273 torr D. 1 torr 1922080 D 14 17169 52 032101141790 A pressure of one atmosphere is equal to A. 1 torr C. 14.7 mm Hg per square inch 9 B. 1 cm Hg D. 760 torr 1922081 C 14 17171 51 139101140413 A U-tube manometer is open on the right arm and connected to a gas sample at the other arm. If the pressure of the gas increases A. the mercury level in the right arm drops B. there is no change in the levels of Hg C. the mercury level in the left arm drops 9 D. difference in mercury levels in the two arms decreases 1922082 B 14 17176 51 139104130114 A U-tube manometer is open on the left arm and connected to a gas sample on the other arm. If the mercury level in the left arm is higher than in the right, which of the following is true? A. The pressure of the gas is less than the prevailing atmospheric pressure B. The pressure of the gas is greater than the prevailing atmospheric pressure C. The pressure of the gas is equal to the prevailing atmospheric pressure D. One can derive nOne of the above information about the gas sample pressure unless a torricellian barometer 9 is used. 1922083 A 14 17184 51 139104130114 A U-tube manometer is open on the left and connected to a gas sample on the other arm. If the mercury level in the right arm is higher than in the left, which of the following is true? A. The pressure of the gas is less than the prevailing atmospheric pressure. B. The pressure of the gas is greater than the prevailing atmospheric pressure. C. The pressure of the gas is equal to the prevailing atmospheric pressure. D. One can derive none of the above information about the gas sample pressure unless a Torricellian barometer 9 is used. 1922084 C 15 17192 31 0706 Which of the following gases is the most nearly ideal? A. CO B. NO C. O D. ICl E. NH 94 2 3 1922085 B 14 17195 31 0706 Which of the following gases would you expect to deviate most from ideality? A. N B. NO C. O D. CO 94 2 2 2 1922086 C 15 17198 31 13900706 Which of the following factors causes a gas to deviate the most from ideal behavior? A. Polarity of the bonds in the molecule B. Mass of the molecules C. Polarity of the molecule overall structure D. Nonspherical shape of the molecules 9 E. Molecular electronic 1922087 D 14 17202 31 11390706 Carbon monoxide and nitrogen are both gases at room temperature. Which one of them is more ideal and why? A. Carbon monoxide because the bond is stronger B. Nitrogen because its mass is less C. Carbon monoxide because the bond is more polar 9 D. Nitrogen because the molecule is less polar 1922088 D 14 17207 31 11390706 CH and NH are both gasses, and CH is the more ideal gas 4 4 3 4 because A. the N-H bonds in NH are less polar than C-H bonds in CH 4 3 4 B. the NH molecules have greater mass than CH molecules 4 3 4 C. carbon is more electronegative than nitrogen D. CH molecules are less polar than NH molecules 94 4 3 1922089 D 14 17214 31 1429 Which of the following gases has the highest critical temperature? A. N B. H C. CH D. H O 94 2 2 4 2 1922090 B 14 17217 31 1429 Which of the following gases has the highest critical temperature? A. O B. HF C. CO D. He 94 2 2 1922091 D 14 17220 31 1429 Which of the following gases has the highest critical temperature? A. SO B. H C. O D. H O 94 2 2 2 2 1922092 A 14 17223 31 1429 Which of the following gases has the lowest critical temperature? A. H B. NH C. SO D. HCl 94 2 3 2 1922093 A 14 17226 31 1429 Which of the following gases has the lowest critical temperature? A. CH B. NH C. H O D. HF 94 4 3 2 1922094 D 14 17229 31 1429 Which of the following gases has the lowest critical temperature? A. NH B. H O C. HCl D. He E. O 94 3 2 3 1922095 B 14 17232 31 14271430 A gas can be most easily liquefied if it has A. low forces of intermolecular attraction B. high forces of intermolecular attraction C. molecules of large size 9 D. molecules of small size 1922096 B 14 17235 31 14300502 Which of the following properties has no effect on whether or not a gas can be liquefied? A. The temperature of the gas. B. The surface tension of the liquid phase. C. The pressure applied to the gas sample. 9 D. The intermolecular forces among gas molecules. 1922201 C 15 17239 32 01130305038001 ETS2 OS It is found that 2.00 liters of a gas at standard conditions weigh 4.50 grams. The gram-molecular weight of the gas (in grams) is 9 A. 4.50 B. 2.25 C. 50.4 D. 25.2 E. 9.0 1922203 B 15 17242 52 012800370113 0044 Determine the molecular weight of a compound given the following gas phase data: mass = 3.42 grams; temperature = 31.1 degrees C; pressure = 862 torr; and volume = 1.83 liters. 5 -3 9 A. 54.1 B. 41.1 C. 42.6 D. 420 E. 5.53 X 10 . 1922204 B 15 17246 32 070601280288 0028 If 2.00 g of a gas occupy 1.12 liters at STP, what is its molecular mass? 9 A. 4.00 amu B. 40.0 amu C. 10.0 amu D. 100 amu E. 400 amu 1922205 E 15 17248 32 070601280288 0028 Calculate the molecular mass of a gas if 1.00 g has a volume of 550 ml at 27 degrees C and 760 torr. 9 A. 33.6 amu B. 56.0 amu C. 40.7 amu D. 22.4 amu E. 44.8 amu 1922206 C 15 17251 32 012801130114 0019 What is the molecular mass of a gas if 10 grams of the gas occupies 82 liters at a pressure of 1 atmosphere and 25 degrees C? 9 A. 33.3 B. 3.3 C. 2.98 D. 29.8 E. 164 1922207 C 15 17254 32 088401130398 0019 At STP, 3.50 g of an unknown gas were found to occupy 2.24 liters. What is the mass of a mole of this gas? 9 A. 0.350 g B. 7.94 g C. 35.0 g D. 79.4 g E. none is correct 1922208 D 15 17257 52 022401131649 0038 In order to decide whether the formula of a gas is NO , or N O , 4 2 2 4 or N O , the best procedure is to find: 4 3 6 A. the structure of the N and O atoms B. the percentage composition of the compound C. the relative volumes of oxygen and nitrogen in the compound D. the weight of a fixed volume of the gas at a known pressure and temperature E. the nature of the acid produced when the gas reacts with 9 water 1922209 C 14 17264 32 07060128 0003 The molecular weight of a gas, 7.98 g of which occupies 4.48 liters at STP, is: 9 A. 4.00 amu B. 20.2 amu C. 39.9 amu D. 83.8 amu 1922210 B 14 17266 32 07060128 0003 The molecular weight of a gas, 44.3 g of which occupies 16.8 liters at 0 degrees C and 700 torr, is: 9 A. 46.7 amu B. 64.2 amu C. 79.3 amu D. 84.0 amu 1922211 A 15 17269 52 0128 What is the molecular weight of a gas if 11.2 grams occupy 11.2 liters at 380 torr and 0 degrees C? A. 45 g/mole C. 90 g/mole E. 5.6 g/mole 9 B. 22.5 g mole D. 11.2 g/mole 1922212 D 15 17272 52 0128 A 2240 ml container confines 10.0 grams of gas at 2.00 atm and 273 degrees C. What is the molecular weight of this gas? A. 4.00 g/mole C. 50.0 g/mole E. 10.0g/mole 9 B. 25.0 g/mole D. 100 g/mole 1922213 B 15 17275 52 0128 Exactly 25.0 grams of a 5.6 liter sample of an unknown gas at 278 degrees C is found to exert a pressure of 2.02 atm. The molecular weight of the gas is A. 0.020 g/mole C. 51.0 g/mole E. 4.00 g/mole 9 B. 100 g/mole D. 10.0 g/mole 1922214 C 15 17279 52 0128 A 3.60 liter flask contains 10.0 grams of an unknown gas at a pressure of 1.02 atm and 87 degrees C. what is the molecular weight of the gas? A. 980 g/mole C. 80 g/mole E. 8.0 g/mole 9 B. 240 g/mole D. 19 g/mole 1922215 B 14 17283 52 0128 An 11 ml sample bulb at a temperature of 57 degrees C is filled with a 0.020 g gas sample whose pressure is found to be 82 torr. The molecular weight of the gas is 9 A. 79 g/mole B. 456 g/mole C. 1260 g/mole D. 790 g/mole 1922216 D 14 17287 52 0128 A 0.20 gram sample of an unknown gas confined in a 160 ml container at a temperature of 47 degrees C is found to exert a pressure of 0.55 atm. What is the molecular weight of the gas? 9 A. 227 g/mole B. 8.7 g/mole C. 298 g/mole D. 60 g/mole 1922217 D 14 17291 52 0128 At a temperature of 277 degrees C, a 0.200 gram sample of a compound is found to exert a pressure of 380 torr when it is confined in a volume of 820 ml. What is the molecular weight of the compound? 9 A. 550 g/mole B. 290 g/mole C. 3.40 g/mole D. 22.0 g/mole 1922401 B 15 17295 51 80010189006612 ETS2 OS Suppose 2 liters of a gaseous element X combine with 3 liters of a gaseous element Y to form 3 liters of a gaseous compound. If one assumes that the separate and independent particles of elementary gases are atoms, what conclusion necessarily follows? A. gases X and Y do not have the same number of atoms in equal volumes. B. There are more atoms of gas X than gas Y per liter. C. There are fewer atoms of gas X than gas Y per liter. D. Equal volumes of gases contain the same number of atoms. 9 E. None of these is a necessary conclusion. 1922402 A 15 17303 51 80010293039811 ETS2 OS In computing the kinetic energy of a gas molecule, it is necessary to consider both the velocity of the molecule as well as A. its mass B. the number of atoms in the gas molecule C. the kinds of atoms in the gas molecule D. its physical properties 9 E. all of the above 1922403 A 15 17307 52 80010161011413 ETS2 OS If both the volume and the absolute temperature of a gas under standard conditions were tripled, the pressure would be A. unchanged B. three times as great C. six times as great D. nine times as great 9 E. one-ninth as great 1922404 E 15 17311 52 01950161800113 ETS2 OS If the volume and the absolute temperature of a given mass of gas were both reduced to one-half their former value, the pressure exerted by the gas would be A. one-half as great B. one-fourth as great C. twice as great D. four times as great 9 E. unchanged 1922405 C 15 17315 52 01950445800113 ETS2 OS To triple the volume of a given weight of gas at 27 degrees C, keeping pressure constant, raise the temperature to A. 81 degrees C. B. 273 degrees C. C. 900 degrees absolute D. 627 degrees absolute 9 E. 546 degrees absolute 1922407 B 15 17319 52 01140113800113 ETS2 OS To halve the pressure on a given mass of gas at 27 degrees C, keeping its volume constant, change the temperature to A. 54 degrees C. B. 150 degrees absolute C. 13.5 degrees C. D. 600 degrees absolute 9 E. -27 degrees C. 1922408 E 15 17323 72 04290025800113 ETS2 OS The mean velocity of oxygen molecules at 0 degrees C is 460 m/s. If the molecular weight of oxygen is 32 and the molecular weight of helium is 4, then the mean velocity of a helium molecule at 0 degrees C is (in m/s) 9 A. 230 B. 326 C. 650 D. 920 E. 1300 1922409 A 15 17327 72 01138001054613 ETS2 OS 5 o One liter of a gas has a pressure of 1 atmosphere at 0 C. What will be the volume of the same quantity of gas at 570 mm Hg 5 o and 27 C (in liters) 9 A. 1.47 B. 1.21 C. 1 D. 0.68 E. 0.825 1922410 A 15 17331 72 01138001016113 ETS2 OS A gas in a 200 cc container has a pressure of 60 torr at 27 deg C. If the temperature is raised to 127 deg C and the container expands to 250 cc, what will be the pressure of the gas? 9 A. 64 torr B. 100 torr C. 36 torr D. 56 torr E. 226 torr 1922411 D 15 17335 52 05490161800113 ETS2 OS A certain mass of gas is confined in a cylinder and occupies a volume of 5 cubic feet when the absolute temperature (K degrees) is 1000 degrees. If the applied pressure on the piston is kept constant and the absolute temperature of the gas is lowered to 800 degrees (F degrees), the volume occupied by the gas is, in cubic feet, A. 1 B. 2 C. 4.3 D. 4 9 E. 6.2 1922412 C 15 17340 52 01860025800113 ETS2 OS The density of oxygen at 273 degrees C and a pressure of 2 atmospheres is 5 3 A. 0.002 gm/cm 5 3 B. 0.007 gm/cm 5 3 C. 0.0014 gm/cm 5 3 D. 0.0056 gm/cm 5 3 9 E. 0.0098 gm/cm 1922413 AB 25 17344 52 0113032180011390 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 0 Answer the following questions. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 A certain specimen of gas has a volume of 1.5 liters, at 0 degrees C and atmospheric pressure. At 0 degrees C. and a pressure of 3 atmospheres, this specimen of gas will occupy a volume of A. 0.5 liter B. 1.0 liter C. 1.5 liters D. 3.0 liters 1 E. 4.5 liters MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 The same specimen of gas, at 273 degrees C. (=546 degrees absolute) and a pressure of 3 atmospheres, will occupy a volume of A. 3.5 liter B. 1.0 liter C. 1.5 liters D. 3.0 liters 9 e 4.5 liters 1922414 C 15 17351 32 01140300800112 ETS2 OS Assuming that the pressure remains constant in both cases, if a particular type of gas occupies 273 cc of space at 0 degrees C, at a temperature of 10 degrees C it will occupy a space of A. 263 cc. B. 273 cc C. 283 cc. D. 278 cc. 9 E. 293 cc. 1922415 E 15 17355 32 01950161800112 ETS2 OS If the volume and the absolute temperature of a certain mass of gas were both doubled, the pressure would be A. one-half as great B. twice as great C. one-fourth as great D. four times as great 9 E. unchanged 1922416 E 15 17358 32 01950012800112 ETS2 OS If the volume and absolute temperature of a given mass of gas were both reduced to one-half their former value, the pressure would be A. one-half as great B. one-fourth as great C. twice as great D. four times as great 9 E. unchanged 1922417 C 15 17362 32 01140526800112 ETS2 OS If the pressure is constant and a gas has a volume of 10 liters 5 o o at 20 C, its volume at 20 C will be (in liters) 9 A. 5 B. 20 C. 10.7 D. 9.36 E. 8.24 1922418 C 15 17365 32 01610195800112 ETS2 OS If the temperature of a fixed volume of gas is 0 degrees C, the temperature to which the gas must be raised to approximately double the pressure is A. 2 degrees C. B. 100 degrees C. C. 273 degrees C. D. 273 degrees A. 9 E. none of these 1922419 A 15 17369 32 04860114800112 ETS2 OS If the volume and the absolute temperature of a given mass of gas under standard conditions were each tripled, the pressure would be A. unchanged B. three times as great C. six times as great D. nine times as great 9 E. changed by some quantity other than the above three 1922420 B 15 17373 32 01610195800112 ETS2 OS If the temperature of a gas is 0 degrees C, the temperature to which the gas must be raised to approximately double the volume while maintaining the pressure constant is A. 273 K B. 273 degrees C. C. 2 degrees C. D. 100 degrees C. 9 E. none of these 1922421 B 15 17377 31 03980195800112 ETS2 OS A certain mass of gas has a volume of 200 cc under a barometric pressure of 76 cm of mercury. If this gas is subjected to an additional pressure of 4 cm of mercury, without changing its temperature, its volume will be approximately A. 280 cc B. 190 cc C. 3800 cc D. 120 cc 9 E. none of these 1922422 D 15 17382 52 07068003 2WVW What is the volume occupied by 0.200 mole of an ideal gas at 380 torr and 300 deg K? 5 -1 -1 (R=0.0820 liter atm mole deg ) A. 1.73 liters B. 3.67 liters C. 8.20 liters D. 9.84 liters 9 E. 16.4 liters 1922423 A 15 17386 31 06548003 2WVW A gas in volume V at a pressure P is allowed to expand at 4 1 1 constant temperature, so that its new volume V is 3(V ). 4 2 1 its new pressure is A. P /3 B. P x V C. P x V /V D. P E. 3(P ) 94 1 1 1 1 2 1 1 1 1922424 D 15 17391 52 8003 2WVW What is the volume occupied by 0.200 mole of an ideal gas at 380 torr and 300 deg. K? A. 1.73 liters B. 3.67 liters C. 8.20 liters D. 9.84 liters 9 E. 16.4 liters 1922425 D 15 17394 52 8003 2WVW A sample containing 1.6 gram of O and 2.02 gram of Ne are placed in 4 2 an 8.2 liter flask. What is the total pressure of the gas mixture at 27 deg. C.? A. 0.15 atm. B. 0.30 atm. C. 0.40 atm. D. 0.45 atm. 9 E. 0.60 atm. 1922426 B 14 17398 32 019501138002 2 OS If the volume which a certain number of gas molecules occupies remains constant as the temperature is lowered, then the pressure exerted by this number of molecules A. remains constant B. steadily decreases C. steadily increrase 9 D. first increases and then decreases 1922427 A 14 17402 52 0706 0003 At 380 torr and 0 degrees C, an 11.2-liter container will hold how many moles of an ideal gas? 9 A. 0.25 B. 0.50 C. 1.00 D. 2.00 E. 11.2 1922428 B 14 17405 32 019500258002 2 OS The volume of 16 grams of oxygen at standard temperature and pressure is A. 1 liter B. 11.2 liters C. 16 liters 9 D. 22.4 liters 1922429 D 14 17407 32 019500258002 2 OS The volume occupied by 3 moles of oxygen at standard temperatures and pressure is A. 1 liter B. 22.4 liters C. 3 liters 9 D. 67.2 liters 1922430 C 14 17410 31 011401138002 2 OS Doubling the pressure of a gas at the same time that its Kelvin temperature is doubled, causes its volume to A. increase B. decrease C. remain the same 9 D. increase by 100 per cent 1922431 B 15 17413 52 072706548003 2WVW A sample of pure argon gas (Ar) occupies a volume of 0.082 liter at 0.30 atm when the temperature is 27 deg C. how many moles of Ar are there in the sample? 5 -1 -1 (At. Wt Ar=40; R=0.082 liter atm mole deg ) 5 -3 -5 A. (1.0 x 10 )/40 = 2.5 x 10 5 -3 B. 1.0 x 10 5 -2 C. 1/90 (about 1.1 x 10 ) 5 -2 D. 4.0 x 10 9 E. 22.4 1922432 B 15 17420 52 070607278003 2WVW In an 18-liter mixture of gases whose temperature and pressure were 825 deg C and 1520 torr the partial pressure of helium was 76 torr. Calculate the number of moles of helium in the mixture. 5 -1 -1 (R=0.082 liter atm mole deg ) A. 0.0050 B. 0.020 C. 0.080 D. 0.32 9 E. 0.80 1922433 B 14 17425 31 07950113141209 0041 One gram of any gas at 0 degrees C and atmospheric pressure occupies 22.4 liters. 9 A. True B. False 1922434 D 14 17427 31 141205530113 0041 At 0 degrees C and atmospheric pressure, 1 mole of any gas occupies a volume A. that depends upon the mass of its molecule B. that depends upon its formula mass C. of Avogadro's number of liters 9 D. of 22.4 liters 1922435 D 15 17431 32 019507061790 0042 What is the volume occupied by 0.200 mole of an ideal gas at 380 torr and 300 degrees K? A. 1.73 liters B. 3.67 liters C. 8.20 liters 9 D. 9.84 liters E. 16.4 liters 1922436 D 15 17434 32 109714070114 0042 A sample containing 1.6 gram of O and 2.02 gram of Ne are placed 4 2 in an 8.2 liter flask. What is the total pressure of the gas mixture at 27 degrees C? 9 A. 0.15 atm B. 0.30 atm C. 0.40 atm D. 0.45 atm E. 0.60 atm 1922437 E 15 17438 32 021801141201 0042 Nitrogen gas was placed in a 22.4-liter container at 273 degrees absolute. The resulting pressure of the nitrogen was 2 atmospheres. Calculate the number of grams of nitrogen in the container. 9 A. 5.6 B. 2.8 C. 28 D. 1.4 E. None of these. 1922438 C 15 17442 32 120101860114 0042 Calculate the density, in grams per liter, of oxygen at 546 degrees C. and 760 mm. pressure A. 0.715 B. 0.357 C. 0.476 D. 16 9 E. can not be calculated from this data. 1922439 D 15 17445 32 044501130161 0042 Given a constant mass of an ideal gas, if both the Kelvin temperature and the volume are halved, what will be the new pressure relative to the original pressure? 9 A. 3/2 B. 2/3 C. 5/1 D. 6/1 E. the same. 1922440 C 15 17448 32 019507060161 0047 The volume of an ideal gas is reduced by one half at constant temperature. Which of the following statements is true? A. The average speed of the molecules increase. B. The average speed of the molecules decrease. C. The number of collision of molecules with unit area of the wall increase by a factor of two. D. The number of collisions of molecules with unit area of the wall remains constant. 9 E. None of the above. 1922441 C 15 17454 52 01140195 0047 At the upper level of the troposphere (the atmosphere closest to the earth) about 7 miles above sea level, the air pressure is 190 mm of Hg and the temperature about -55 degrees C. What would be the volume of one mole of air? The average molecular weight of air is 29 and the gas constant is 0.082 1 atm 5 -1 -1 deg mole . A. 7.15 liters B. 22.4 liters C. 71.5 liters 9 D. 142.0 liters E. 73.0 liters. 1922442 A 14 17460 51 141204130433 When the atmospheric pressure decreases, the mercury level in a barometer measuring it will A. drop C. remain constant 9 B. rise D. depend on yet other variables 1922443 A 15 17463 52 070606540288 0028 A gas occupies a volume of 200 ml at 400 torr. To what pressure must the gas be subjected in order to change the volume to 20.0 ml? The temperature remains constant. A. 4000 torr B. 400 torr C. 40.0 torr D. 800 torr 9 E. 1600 torr 1922444 A 15 17467 32 088406540288 0028 A given mass of gas occupies a volume of 200 ml at 273 degrees C and 3.00 atmospheres. What volume would the gas occupy at standard temperature and pressure? 9 A. 300 ml B. 1200 ml C. 333 ml 600 ml E. 100 ml 1922445 D 15 17470 32 06540288 0028 At 27 degrees C the volume of a given gas is 600 ml. Holding the pressure constant, what would be the volume of the gas if placed in a room at 0 degrees C? 9 A. 660 ml B. 819 ml C. 300 ml D. 546 ml E. 136 ml 1922446 C 15 17473 52 088406540288 0028 If 2.00 g of a gas occupy 1.12 liters at STP, what is the molecular mass of the gas? 9 A. 100 amu B. 4.00 amu C. 40.0 amu D. 10.0 amu E. 1.00 amu 1922447 D 15 17476 52 019501960161 0020 A volume of hydrogen was measured to be 1.00 liter at a temperature of 80 degrees C and a pressure of 700 torr. What volume will the gas occupy at STP? A. 0.812 liters B. 1.19 liters C. 1.34 liters D. 0.713 liters 9 E. none of these 1922448 C 15 17480 52 088401610113 0020 Given 10.0 liters of a gas at STP, what would the temperature of the gas be if the pressure is increased to 3.00 atmospheres and the volume is decreased to 5.00 liters? A. 290 degrees K B. 186 degrees C C. 410 degrees K D. no change in temperature 9 E. not enough information is available to solve the problem 1922449 D 15 44407 52 0224 0020 Which of the following formulas does NOT describe the behavior of one mole of an ideal gas? A. V =(P /P )x(T /T )x V 4 2 1 2 2 1 1 B. P V = P V at constant T 4 1 1 2 2 C. PV/T = a constant D. none of these 9 E. all of these 1922450 C 15 17488 31 011413890317 0020 Pressure can be expressed in A. grams per unit area B. atmosphere per liter C. force per unit area D. mass of mercury per unit area 9 E. all of these 1922451 D 15 17491 32 019501130161 0020 The volume of a gas is 100 ml at a temperature of 25 degrees C and a pressure of 760 torr. Its volume at the same temperature but at a pressure of 500 torr is 9 A. 200 ml B. 100 ml C. 66.0 ml D. 152 ml E. none of these 1922452 C 15 17495 32 011301140195 0020 1.00 liter of a gas is initially at one atmosphere pressure and room temperature. What is the new volume if the pressure is increased to 2 atmospheres and the temperature remains constant? A. 2 liters B. 50 ml C. 500 ml D. the same 9 E. none of these 1922453 E 15 17499 32 016101130195 0020 If the temperature of a gas is decreased but the volume is held constant A. the average kinetic energy increases B. the density of the gas decreases C. the average velocity of the molecules increases D. the gas molecules make more collisions with the walls of the vessel 9 E. none of the above 1922454 E 15 17504 32 039801130114 0020 A mass of oxygen gas occupies 10.0 liters under a pressure of 800 torr. What volume will this same mass of gas occupy at a pressure of one atmosphere? assume the temperature to remain constant. A. 80.0 liters B. 100 liters C. 95.0 liters D. 105 liters 9 E. none of these 1922455 A 15 17508 32 053701140113 0020 Two three-liter containers are connected by a closed valve. One container has a pressure of 600 torr of hydrogen and the other a pressure of 1200 torr of hydrogen. Both gas samples are at the same temperature. What is the final pressure in both containers when the valve is opened? A. 900 torr B. 1800 torr C. 1200 torr D. 1000 torr 9 E. none of these 1922456 C 14 17513 32 053201140195 0009 A certain mountain rises to 14,100 feet above sea level. The pressure at the top is about 17.7 inches (of mercury). If you blew up a balloon at sea level, where the pressure happened to be 29.7 inches, and carried it to the top of the mountain, by what factor would its volume change? A. there would be no change B. 29.7 - 17.7 9 C. 29.7/17.7 D. 17.7/29.7 1922457 D 15 17518 52 055301130321 0019 There are-------------moles of a gas in 3.5 liters at 5 atmospheres and 182 degrees C. A. 3.5/22.4 B. (3.5)(5)/22.4 C. (3.5)(8/5)(5) D. (3.5)(3/5)(5)/22.4 9 E. 22.4/35 1922458 A 15 17521 32 011310970553 0019 A gas sample occupies a volume of 16.4 liters at 27 degrees C and 0.30 atm. How many moles of the gas are present? 9 A. 0.20 B. 0.45 C. 3.5 D. 5.0 E. none is correct 1922459 B 15 17524 32 109701130195 0019 A sample of gas occupies 8 liters. If the pressure increases by a factor of 4 and the absolute temperature is doubled, what will be the new volume in liters? 9 A. 1 B. 4 C. 16 D. 64 E. none is correct 1922460 A 14 17527 32 011301860884 0019 A gas has a density of 5.4 g/liter at 0 degrees C and 2 atm of pressure. What will be its density at STP? A. 2.7 g/liter B. 5.4 g/liter C. 10.9 g/liter 9 D. none is correct 1922461 D 15 17530 32 027214080195 0019 During an experiment, 350 ml of oxygen were collected over water at 22 degrees C and a barometric pressure of 749 mm. Which of the following will give the volume of dry oxygen at STP? (Vapor pressure of water at 22 degrees C = 20 mm.) 273 degrees K 749 mm A. 350 ml x ------------- x ------ 295 degrees K 760 mm 295 degrees K 760 mm B. 350 ml x ------------- x ------ 273 degrees K 729 mm 273 degrees K 729 mm C. 350 ml x ------------- x ------ 293 degrees K 760 mm 273 degrees K 729 mm D. 350 ml x ------------- x ------ 295 degrees K 749 mm 9 E. none of the above is correct 1922462 B 15 17540 32 011401611097 0019 At a pressure of 2.0 atm, 0.30 moles of hydrogen was found to occupy a volume of 3.7 liters. What was the temperature in degrees centigrade of the sample? 9 A. 17 B. 27 C. 37 D. 67 E. none is correct 1922463 C 15 17543 32 016107060553 0019 At what temperature would two moles of a perfect gas occupy 82 liters and exert a pressure of 1 atmosphere? A. 5 degrees K B. 50 degrees K C. 500 degrees K 9 D. 1000 degrees K E. none of these 1922464 E 15 17546 32 019501610398 0035 If the volume and the absolute temperature of a certain mass of gas were both doubled, the pressure would be A. one-half as great B. twice as great C. one-fourth as great 9 D. four times as great E. unchanged 1922465 D 15 17549 32 019501140161 0035 To triple the volume of a given weight of gas at 27 degrees C, keeping pressure constant, raise the temperature to A. 81 degrees C B. 273 degrees C C. 546 degrees K 9 D. 900 degrees K E. 627 degrees K 1922466 E 15 17552 32 119905530114 0035 A one liter vessel contains three moles of a gas at 273 degrees C. The pressure in the cylinder expressed in atmospheres is A. 33.6 atm. B. 100.8 atm C. 145.6 atm. 9 D. 67.2 atm. E. 134.4 atm. 1922467 D 15 17555 32 054201140195 0035 A balloon occupies 1000 ml under a pressure of 1 atmosphere and a temperature of 0.0 degrees C. Calculate the volume it will occupy under a pressure of 2 atmospheres and at a temperature of 273 degrees C. 9 A. 500 ml B. 2000 ml C. none of these D. 1000 ml E. 4000 ml 1922468 B 15 17559 32 016103920113 0034 If the temperature of a given quantity of gas is held constant and its pressure is doubled, its volume will B. double B. be reduced to one half the orginal volume C. not be affected D. be divided by 1/2 9 E. reduced to one fourth the original volume 1922469 C 15 17563 32 019503920113 0034 If the volume of a given quantity of gas is held constant and its temperature is raised, the pressure will A. double B. be reduced C. be increased D. be reduced to one half the original pressure 9 E. impossible to tell from the facts given 1922470 D 15 17567 32 011401130161 0034 If the pressure of a given quantity of gas is held constant and its temperature is lowered from 300 degrees K to 200 degrees K, the volume will A. be reduced to one half the original volume B. be raised to three halves the orginal volume C. be doubled D. be reduced to two thirds the original volume E. be reduced by an amount that cannot be predicted from the 9 data given 1922471 B 14 17573 32 1429 0003 The critical temperature of H O is higher than that of O because 4 2 2 the H O molecule has: 4 2 A. fewer electrons than O B. a dipole moment 4 2 9 C. two covalent bonds D. a linear shape 1922472 A 14 17577 52 07060884 0003 The volume occupied at STP by 1.00 g of C H (g) is: 4 3 8 9 A. 0.508 liter B. 0.988 liter C. 1.01 liters D. 22.4 liters 1922473 B 14 17580 32 0706 0003 The volume occupied by 0.100 mole of an ideal gas at 0 degrees C and 0.250 atm pressure is (in liters): 9 A. 0.448 B. 0.560 C. 4.48 D. 8.96 E. 2.24 1922474 C 14 17583 32 0706 0003 The volume occupied by 0.500 mole of an ideal gas at 273 degrees C and 1.00 atm pressure is: 9 A. 5.60 liters B. 11.2 liters C. 22.4 liters D. 44.8 liters 1922475 C 14 17586 32 0706 0003 A sample of Cl gas having a volume of 0.750 liter at 20 degrees 4 2 C and 725 torr has a weight equal to: 5 3 9 A. 1.60 x 10 g B. 10.6 g C. 2.11 g D. 0.320 g 1922476 C 14 17589 32 0706 0003 The molar volume of acetylene (C H ) at 300 degrees K and 0.450 4 2 2 atm pressure is: 9 A. 22.4 liters B. 26.2 liters C. 54.7 liters D. 105 liters 1922477 A 14 17592 32 0706 0003 The density of carbon monoxide at STP is: A. 1.25 g/liter B. 0.800 g/liter 9 C. 22.4 g/liter D. 28.0 g/liter 1922478 A 14 17594 51 06160612 0003 The x-ray diffraction picture of a liquid shows: A. a concentric-ring pattern B. a regular spot pattern 9 C. parallel straight lines D. lines radiating from a point 1922479 C 14 17597 52 07060884 0540 What is the volume at standard temperature and pressure of 45 grams of nitrogen(II) oxide gas, which has the molecular formula NO ? ( atomic weights N = 14 , O = 16 ) A. 22.4 liters C. 33.6 liters 9 B. 11.2 liters D. 44.8 liters 1922480 A 14 17601 52 07060884 0540 What is the volume at standard temperature and pressure of 18 grams of gaseous oxygen diflouride , OF ? 4 2 A. 7.5 liters C. 22.4 liters 9 B. 11.2 liters D. 33.6 liters 1922481 A 14 17605 52 07060884 0540 What is the volume at standard temperature and pressure of 8.8 grams of carbon dioxide gas, CO ? ( atomic weights C = 4 2 12, O = 16) A. 4.5 liters C. 7.1 liters 9 B. 2.2 liters D. 7.1 liters 1922482 B 14 17609 52 07060884 0540 What is the volume at standard temperature and pressure of 8 grams of methane gas, CH ? ( atomic weights C = 12 , H = 4 4 1.0) A. 5.6 liters C. 16.8 liters 9 B. 11.2 liters D. 22.4 liters 1922483 C 14 17613 52 07060884 0540 What is the volume at standard temperature and pressure of 16 grams of gaseous sulfur dioxide, SO ? ( atomic weights O 4 2 = 16, S = 32) A. 22.4 liters C. 5.6 liters 9 B. 11.2 liters D. 16.8 liters 1922484 D 14 17617 52 07060884 0540 What is the volume at standard temperature and pressure of 10 grams of gaseous hydrogen fluoride, HF ? ( atomic weights H = 1.0, F = 19) A. 22.4 liters C. 33.6 liters 9 B. 44.8 liters D. 11.2 liters 1922485 A 14 17620 52 07060884 0540 What is the volume at standard temperature and pressure of 7.3 grams of gaseous hydrogen chloride, HCl? ( atomic weights H = 1.0 , Cl = 35.5 ) A. 4.5 liters C. 11.2 liters 9 B. 5.6 liters D. 22.4 liters 1922486 D 14 17623 52 07060884 0540 What is the volume at standard temperature and pressure of 8.1 grams of gaseous hydrogen bromide, HBr? ( atomic weights H = 1.0 , Br = 80 ) A. 22.4 liters C. 5.6 liters 9 B. 11.2 liters D. 2.2 liters 1922487 A 14 17626 52 07060884 0540 What is the volume, in liters, at STP of 9.2 g gaseous nitrogen(IV) oxide, NO ? 4 2 9 A. 4.5 B. 5.6 C. 6.9 D. 10.1 E. 112 1922488 D 15 17630 52 07060884 0540 What is the volume at standard temperature and pressure of 14 grams of nitrogen gas, N ? ( atomic weight N = 14 ) 4 2 A. 22.4 liters C. 33.6 liters E. 5.6 liters 9 B. 44.2 liters D. 11.2 liters 1922489 A 15 17634 52 07060884 0540 At standard temperature and pressure, what volume will 28 grams of nitrogen gas, N , occupy? ( Atomic weight N = 14 ) 4 2 A. 22.4 liters C. 33.6 liters E. 5.6 liters 9 B. 44.2 liters D. 11.2 liters 1922490 C 15 17638 52 0706 0540 A sample of oxygen gas, O , has a volume of 33.6 liters at 4 2 standard temperature and pressure. How many grams are present? A. 24 grams C. 48 grams E. 12 grams 9 B. 32 grams D. 64 grams 1922491 A 15 17642 52 0706 0540 A sample of nitrogen gas, N , has a volume of 22.4 liters at 4 2 standard temperature and pressure. How many grams does it weigh? ( atomic weight N = 14 ) A. 28 grams C. 7 grams E. 42 grams 9 B. 14 grams D. 56 grams 1922492 B 15 17646 52 0706 0540 A sample of fluorine gas, F , has a volume of 11.2 liters at 4 2 standard temperature and pressure. How many grams does it weigh? ( Atomic weight F = 19 ) A. 38 grams C. 9.5 grams E. 28.5 grams 9 B. 19 grams D. 57 grams 1922493 C 15 17650 52 0706 0540 OS85 Which of the following quantities of matter contains the same number of particles (atoms, molecules, or ions) as 0.1 mole of He atoms ? A. 0.8 gram of O molecules 4 2 B. Avogadro's number of marbles 5 22 C. 6.02 x 10 atoms of Na D. 0.05 gram-atom of H molecules 4 2 5 +2 9 E. 2.0 grams of Ca ions 1922494 C 14 17656 51 05490317 The pressure of a gas is a measure of A. the speed of a gas molecule B. the number of gas molecules in a sample C. the force exerted by a gas on a specified area D. the total energy of a gas sample which is dependent on 9 the temperature of that sample 1922495 B 15 17660 52 0549 An 8.2 liter sample of Cl gas is found to contain 0.10 mole 4 2 of the gas at a temperature of 27 degrees C. The pressure of the gas is A. 3.3 atm C. 0.027 atm E. 3.0 atm 9 B. 0.30 atm D. 37.0 atm 1922496 D 15 17664 52 0549 A 4.10 liter sample of NO gas confined at a temperature of 127 degrees C is found to contain 0.333 mole of the gas. The pressure of the sample is A. 0.0420 atm C. 0.847 atm E. 1.18 atm 9 B. 0.370 atm D. 2.66 atm 1922497 C 15 17668 52 0549 A 0.60 mole sample of NH gas is found to occupy a volume of 4 3 16.4 liters at a temperature of 77 degrees C. The pressure of the gas is A. 0.34 atm C. 1.05 atm E. 0.0023 atm 9 B. 0.23 atm D. 0.95 atm 1922498 A 14 17672 52 0114 What is the pressure exerted by a 10 mole sample of H at 4 2 0 degrees C which is confined in a 22.4 liter vessel? 9 A. 10 atm B. 5.0 atm C. 3.0 atm D. 1.0 atm 1922499 B 14 17676 52 0114 Calculate the pressure in a cylinder of argon gas if the cylinder has a volume of 15.0 liters and contains 12.5 moles of the gas at a temperature of 27 degrees C. 9 A. 40.0 atm B. 20.5 atm C. 10.1 atm D. 1.00 atm 1922501 B 15 17679 32 19660884 BRHM The volume of 16 grams of oxygen at STP is: A. 1 liter B. 11.2 liters C. 16 liters D. 160 liters 9 E. insufficient information to do the calculation 1922502 A 15 17682 31 01610114019511 ETS2 OS Which of the following statements is not correct? 3 ___ A. At constant temperature the pressure of a certain amount of gas increases with increasing volume. B. At constant volume the pressure of a certain amount of gas increases with increasing temperature. C. At constant pressure the volume of a certain amount of gas increases with increasing temperature. D. In dealing with gas laws the most convenient scale of temperature to use is the absolute or kelvin. E. Equal numbers of molecules of all gases exert about the 9 same pressure at a certain temperature and volume. 1922601 D 15 17691 52 04100711 2WVW A sample containing 1.6 g of O and 2.02 g of Ne are placed 4 2 in a 8.2-liter flask. What is the total pressure of the gas mixture at 27 deg C? 5 -1 -1 (At. Wt O=16.0, Ne=20.2; R=0.082 liter atm mole deg ) A. 0.15 atm B. 0.30 atm C. 0.40 atm D. 0.45 atm 9 E. 0.60 atm 1922602 E 15 17696 32 077101130168 0042 What is the partial pressure in torr of the gas B H in a 4 2 6 mixture of gases containing 7.0 g B H , 4.0 g CH and 7.0 g C H 4 2 6 4 2 4 at standard conditions? 3 9 A. 190 B. 380 C. 25.3 D. 570 E. 253 1922603 C 15 17701 52 129107710445 0042 When equal weights of helium gas and methane gas are added to an empty container at 25 degrees C, the fraction of the pressure exerted by the helium is: A. 1/2 total pressure B. 1/5 total pressure C. 4/5 total pressure D. 1/2 total pressure x 273/298 9 E. 4/5 total pressure x 273/298 1922604 B 15 17705 52 109713060771 0044 A 7.20 g sample of pure Cu(NO ) was placed in an evacuated 4 3 2 container and heated until it completely decomposed as follows: 2 Cu(NO ) -----> 2 CuO + O + 4 NO 4 3 2 (s) 2(g) 2(g) If the total pressure in the container is now 930 torr, what is the partial pressure of O ? 4 2 A. 35.7 torr B. 186 torr C. 133 torr 9 D. 159 torr E. 310 torr. 1922605 B 15 17711 52 011301680771 0044 A gas mixture contains an equal number of CO molecules and CO 4 2 molecules, and no others. Assuming ideal gas behavior, which of the following statements is true? A. The total mass of CO is the same as the CO. 4 2 B. Since CO molecules have more mass, they have more inertia 4 2 and contribute more to the pressure. C. The average velocity is the same for CO and CO . 4 2 9 D. None of the above. 1922606 C 15 17719 52 011417900168 0044 The total pressure of a mixture of gases is 1420 torr. The mixture is analyzed and found to contain only 3.47 moles of H S, 2.22 moles of O , and 4.80 moles of N . What is 4 2 2 2 the partial pressure of O in torr? 4 2 5 4 4 -2 9 A. .142 x 10 B. .315 x 10 C. 301 D. .332 x 10 E. 639. 1922607 C 15 17725 52 011401811790 0044 Suppose 4.60 grams of CH OH and 5.20 grams of CH O are injected 4 3 2 into a large evacuated container maintained at 25 degrees C. After all the CH OH and CH O have vaporized, the total pressure 4 3 2 is found to be 329 torr. What is the partial pressure of CH O? 4 2 (MW's: CH OH - 32.0, CH O - 30.0 g/mole) 4 3 2 A. 382 torr B. 0.056 torr C. 177 torr 9 D. 283 torr E. 152 torr. 1922608 C 15 17733 52 109711491408 0044 A sample of O was collected over water at 47.2 degrees C when 4 2 the barometric pressure was 783 torr. The volume of the gas as it was collected was 2.67 liters. What would the volume of dry O be at STP? (The vapor pressure of H O at 47.2 is 81.8 torr) 4 2 2 A. 3.04 liters B. 2.21 liters C. 2.10 liters 9 D. 14.2 liters E. 3.22 liters. 1922609 C 15 17739 52 179001610114 0044 A 1.91 liter tank containing O at 320 torr is connected to a 4 2 2.11 liter tank containing O at 199 torr, and the contents 4 2 allowed to mix, at constant temperature. The final pressure in torr is: 9 A. 488 B. 103 C. 257 D. 520 E. 2.74 1922610 A 15 17744 52 140717900134 0044 A 2.69 liter flask contained He at 711 torr. A 3.60 liter flask contained ar at 790 torr. The contents of the two flasks were mixed by opening a stopcock connecting them. What is the mole fraction of He in the mixture? (assume constant temperature, ideal gas behavior, and neglect the volume of the connecting stopcock.) 9 A. .402 B. .526 C. .598 D. .474 E. 1.28 1922611 E 15 17749 52 109713060771 0044 A .800 g sample of pure (NH ) CO was placed in an evacuated 4 4 2 3 container and heated until it completely decomposed as follows: (NH ) CO -----> 2 NH + CO + H O 4 4 2 3 3(g) 2(g) 2 (g) If the total pressure in the container is now 652 torr, what is the partial pressure of H O? 4 2 A. 6.33 torr B. 130 torr C. 239 torr 9 D. 5.43 torr E. 163 torr. 1922612 A 15 17755 52 011301680771 0044 A gas mixture contains an equal number of CO molecules and CO 4 2 molecules, and no others. Assuming ideal gas behavior, which of the following statements is true? A. The partial pressures of CO and CO are the same. 4 2 B. The total mass of CO is the same as the CO. 4 2 C. If the temperature is increased at constant volume, the pressure due to CO will rise more rapidly than that of 4 2 co. D. Since CO molecules have less mass, they have higher velocity, make more frequent impacts, and hence contribute more pressure. 9 E. None of the above. 1922613 C 15 17765 52 088407710654 0028 Exactly 380 ml of oxygen are collected over water at 27 degrees C and 627 torr. Compute the volume of dry oxygen at STP. Vapor 3 ___ pressure of water at 27 degrees C is 27 torr. 9 A. 546 Ml B. 286 ml C. 273 ml D. 1090 ml E. 137 ml 1922614 C 15 17769 31 011401680771 0020 The total pressure of a mixture of gases is A. always constant B. increased as the temperature is lowered C. equal to the sum of the partial pressures of the individual gases D. inversely propotional to the square of the vapor pressures 9 E. none of the above 1922615 B 15 17773 52 109714070771 0019 A 100 ml sample of nitrogen at 0.5 atm and 50 degrees C is placed in an evacuated 200 ml flask at 50 degrees C. Helium at 50 degrees C is then added until the total pressure is 750 mm of Hg. The partial pressure of nitrogen in the mixture is _____ mm Hg. 9 A. 380 B. 190 C. 750-380 D. 750-190 E. 760 1922616 C 15 17778 32 016807710134 0019 In a gas mixture, the partial pressure of gas A is 380 mm Hg, when the total pressure is equal to 1140 mm Hg. What is the mole fraction of gas A? 9 A. 3.0 B. 0.30 C. 0.33 D. 3.3 E. 0.432 1922617 D 14 17781 31 129105530114 0009 When equal numbers of moles of two gases at the same temperature are mixed in a container, the pressure of the gaseous mixture is A. given by Gay-Lussac's law of combining volumes B. the product of the pressures each gas would have if alone C. the difference of the pressures each gas would have if alone in the container 9 D. the sum of the pressures each would have if alone 1922618 A 15 17787 32 002508840114 0035 If 200 ml of oxygen and 400 ml of nitrogen, measured at STP, are forced into a 100 milliliter container at 25 degrees C, the total pressure will be 9 A. 6 atm. B. 3 atm C. 5 atm. D. 2 atm. E. 4 atm. 1922619 D 15 17790 52 016801130771 0042 A mixture of gases contains 4.0 g each of SO , O and CH . 4 2 2 4 5 o At 27 C the total pressure is 644 mm Hg. The partial pressure in mm Hg of the CH is 4 4 9 A. 161 B. 184 C. 92 D. 368 E. 215 1922620 A 14 17794 52 1947 0058 A mixture of O (g) and O (g) had a volume of 1 liter at STP. The 4 3 2 O (g) was completely converted to O (g) and the volume expanded to 4 3 2 1.10 liters at STP. Calculate the % volume of O (g) in the ori- 4 3 ginal mixture. 9 A. 20 B. 15 C. 10 D. 5 1922621 C 15 17799 52 0771 What is the partial pressure of helium when 8.0 grams of He and 16 grams of oxygen are in a container with a total pressure of 2.00 atm? 9 A. 1.33 atm B. 0.67 atm C. 1.60 atm D. 1.0 atm E. 1.7 atm 1922622 B 15 17802 52 07710445 What weight of hydrogen gas (in grams) would give a partial pressure of 0.67 atm when confined in a container with 8.0 g of helium at 2.0 atm total pressure of both gasses? 9 A. 2.67 B. 2.0 C. 1.0 D. 5.33 E. 1.33 1922623 E 15 17805 52 0771 The total pressure exerted by oxygen and nitrogen in a container is 4 atm and the partial pressure of the oxygen is 0.5 atm. What is the partial pressure of nitrogen? 9 A. 2.0 atm B. 4.5 atm C. 2.5 atm D. 8 atm E. 3.5 atm 1922624 B 15 17809 52 0771 A 2.0 liter vessel contains nitrogen at 2.2 atm and has a total internal pressure of 4.4 atm. What is the partial pressure of the remaining gas? 9 A. 1.1 atm B. 2.2 atm C. 6.6 atm D. 2.0 atm E. 1.2 atm 1922625 E 15 17812 52 0771 When 3.0 liters of argon at 2.0 atm is mixed with 2.0 liters of xenon at 1 atm and the final volume is 5.0 liters, what are the partial pressures of the gasses? A. 0.4 atm Xe 3.3 atm Ar D. 3.3 atm Ar 2.5 atm Xe B. 1.2 atm Xe 0.4 atm Ar E. 1.2 atm Ar 0.4 atm Xe 9 C. 1.2 atm Ar 2.5 atm Xe 1922626 D 15 17816 52 0771 A 4.0 liter container of N at 2.5 atm and a 3.0 liter 4 2 container of Ne at 4.0 atm are allowed to mix at constant temperature without any change in total volume. What are the respective partial pressures? A. 2.5 atm N , 4.0 atm Ne B. 4.4 atm N , 9.3 atm Ne 4 2 2 C. 3.3 atm N , 3.0 atm Ne D. 1.4 atm N , 1.7 atm Ne 4 2 2 E. 0.83 atm N , 1.3 atm Ne 94 2 1922627 B 15 17823 52 0771 A 2.0 liter vessel contains a 1.0 liter bulb of N at 1.0 4 2 atm and the rest of the space is occupied by Cl gas also at 4 2 1.0 atm. If the bulb breaks, what is the resulting partial pressure of the N in the vessel? 4 2 9 A. 1.0 atm B. 0.5 atm C. 2.0 atm D. 0.7 atm E. 1.5 atm 1922628 E 15 17829 52 0771 The original pressures of helium and methane are each 760 torr when in separate 2 liter compartments of a box. When the partition is removed, what is the partial pressure of the methane in the box? A. 760 torr C. 1520 torr E. 380 torr 9 B. 1140 torr D. 330 torr 1922701 C 14 17833 31 119707061410 0043 The value of the ideal-gas constant R in joules per mole-degree is: 9 A. 101 B. 19.2 C. 8.31 D. 4.18 1922702 D 15 17835 52 019507061790 0044 What is the volume occupied by .277 mole of an ideal gas at 5 o 764 torr and 14.1 C? A. 0.154 liters B. 0.319 liters C. 3.13 liters 9 D. 6.49 liters E. 0.00854 liters. 1922703 C 15 17838 52 011401130161 0044 The pressure of a gas in a 25.0 liter tank is 709 torr. If the gas is transferred to a 43.9 liter container at the same temperature, what is the final pressure of the gas (in torr)? A. 709 torr B. 0.00495 torr C. 404 torr 9 D. 0.531 torr E. more information is required. 1922704 A 15 17842 52 011407060128 0044 5 o What is the pressure on 2.85 grams of an ideal gas at 10.8 C occupying 7.71 liters? (The molecular weight of the hypothetical gas is 20.1 grams per mole.) A. 326 torr B. 2.33 torr C. 0.0162 torr D. 0.429 torr 9 E. 61.6 torr. 1922705 C 15 17846 72 018601130287 0044 Determine the density (g/liter) of a gas, given the following data: 5 -1 o MW = 53.2 grams mole ; pressure = 782 torr; temperature = 42.5 C A. 15.7 B. .473 C. 2.11 D. 1610 9 E. more information is required 1922706 A 15 17851 52 139201611097 0044 Absolute zero is defined as the temperature at which: A. a straight line graph of P vs. T for a confined sample of an ideal gas intersects the T axis. B. The density of a liquid equals that of its vapor. C. Mercury freezes solid. D. A straight line graph of V vs. 1/P intersects the 1/P axis. 9 E. None of the above. 1922707 A 15 17856 52 011401130161 0044 The pressure of a gas in a 25.0 liter tank is 720 torr. If the gas is transferred to a 47.4 liter container at the same temperature, what is the final pressure of the gas (in torr)? 5 2 -3 -1 A. 3.80 x 10 B. 2.63 x 10 C. 5.00 x 10 5 2 9 D. 7.20 x 10 E. more information is required. 1922708 B 15 17861 52 011301610195 0044 A 46.4 liter vessel containing hydrogen gas at a fixed temperature and pressure and a 23.2 liter vessel containing oxygen gas at the same temperature and pressure are mixed in a reaction chamber and sparked. After the temperature and pressure of the resulting gas(es) are returned to the initial temperature and pressure, what is the total volume (in liters) of the gas(es)? (assume all the water is present as water vapor.) A. 23.2 B. 46.4 C. 92.8 D. 2.07 9 E. more information is required. 1922709 D 15 17868 52 016107061790 0044 At what temperature will 0.171 mole of an ideal gas at 501 torr occupy 6.78 liters? 5 2 -2 A. 3.19 x 10 degrees C B. 2.16 x 10 degrees C 5 -3 1 C. 1.36 x 10 degrees C D. 4.63 x 10 degrees C 5 5 9 E. 2.42 x 10 degrees C. 1922710 C 15 17873 52 070606470114 0044 A fixed amount of an ideal gas undergoes the following changes: Initial conditions Final conditions P = 782 torr P = ? torr 4 1 2 T = 40.5 degrees C T = 6.8 degrees C 4 1 2 V = 47.2 liters V = 17.3 liters 4 1 2 what is the value of P ? 4 2 47.2 (40.5 + 273) 47.2 6.80 A. 782 x ---- x ------------ B. 782 x ---- x ---- 17.3 (6.80 + 273) 17.3 40.5 47.2 (6.80 + 273) 17.3 (40.5 + 273) C. 782 x ---- x ------------ D. 782 x ---- x ------------ 17.3 (40.5 + 273) 47.2 (6.80 + 273) 17.3 (6.80 + 273) E. 782 x ---- x ------------. 47.2 (40.5 + 273) 9 1922711 B 15 17885 52 019507061790 0044 What is the volume occupied by 15.6 grams of an ideal gas at 701 torr and 31.8 degrees C? The molecular weight of the hypothetical gas is 62.1 grams per mole. 5 -3 A. 8.97 X 10 liters B. 6.82 liters C. 0.712 liters 9 D. 1.41 liters E. 0.147 liters. 1922712 D 15 17889 52 132202930706 0044 Using modern vacuum techniques, a 3.02 liter flask was evacuated 5 -9 to 2.27 x 10 torr at 15.4 degrees C. How many molecules of an ideal gas would be present under these conditions? 5 -9 17 32 A. 5.44 x 10 B. 8.94 x 10 C. 1.11 x 10 5 11 12 9 D. 2.29 x 10 E. 4.31 x 10 . 1922713 A 15 17894 52 018601130287 0044 Determine the density of a gas given the following data: molecular weight = 65.9 grams per mole; pressure = 821 torr; temperature = 45.8 degrees C. 5 3 A. 2.72 g/liter B. 19.0 g/liter C. 2.07 x 10 g/liter 5 -1 9 D. 3.67 x 10 g/liter E. more information is required. 1922714 A 15 17899 52 018601131790 0044 The density of a gas is 3.31 grams per liter at 36.6 degrees C and 792 torr. What is the density of the gas at STP? A. 3.61 g/l B. 0.425 g/l C. 0.462 g/l 9 D. 23.7 g/l E. 3.31 g/l. 1922715 C 15 17902 52 139201611097 0044 Absolute zero is defined as the temperature at which: A. a straight line graph of V vs. 1/P intersects the 1/P axis. B. All gases must liquify. C. A straight line graph of P vs. T for a confined sample of an ideal gas intersects the T axis. D. A straight line graph of P vs. 1/V intersects the 1/V axis. 9 E. None of the above. 1922716 E 15 17907 52 070602650706 0044 Which one of the following statements is a required postulate for the theoretical derivation of the ideal gas law? A. When a molecule penetrates the wall and sticks there, all its kinetic energy gets transferred to the wall. B. The mass of the molecules is so small that it can be neglected. C. Molecules are spherical in shape and incompressible. D. Because of Van Der Waal's forces all molecules are attracted to each other, especially at short distances. E. The average kinetic energy of the molecules is proportional 9 to the absolute temperature. 1922717 B 15 17915 32 0706 0288 0028 Calculate the mass in grams of 5.60 liters of O gas at STP. 4 2 9 A. 16.0 G B. 8.00 g C. 4.00 g D. 56.0 g E. 32.0 g 1922718 B 15 17918 31 051701950161 0020 The law that relates the volume of a gas to the temperature at constant pressure is A. Boyle's law B. Charles's law C. Gay-Lussac's law D. Dalton's law 9 E. Avogadro's law 1922719 D 15 17921 52 019505420161 0020 The initial volume of a balloon is 6.00 liters at a temperature 5 o of 270 C and 760 torr. What is its volume in liters if the 5 o temperature is increased to 400 C with no change in pressure? 9 A. 3.81 B. 4.05 C. 4.87 D. 7.44 E. 8.89 1922720 A 15 17925 51 0517 0020 Charles' Law states A. V /T = V /T 4 1 1 2 2 B. V T = V T 4 1 1 2 2 C. P V = P V 4 1 1 2 2 D. V T = a constant 4 1 1 9 E. none of these 1922721 D 15 17928 31 114501131146 0020 Avogadro's law states A. all gases contain the same number of molecules B. equal volumes of gases at the same pressure have the same temperature C. equal volumes of gases at the same pressure contain equal numbers of molecules D. equal volumes of gases at the same temperature and pressure contain equal numbers of molecules 9 E. none of these 1922722 C 15 17934 52 011308840351 0020 A 2-liter cylinder of oxygen gas at STP contains A. more molecules than a 2-liter cylinder of hydrogen at STP B. fewer molecules than a 2-liter cylinder of carbon dioxide at STP C. the same number of atoms as a 2-liter cylinder of argon at STP D. all of the above 9 E. none of the above 1922723 A 15 17939 51 011305360114 0020 Gases approach ideal behavior when A. the pressure is low and the temperature is high B. the temperature is low and the pressure is high C. when both the temperature and the pressure are low C. when both the temperature and the pressure are high 9 E. none of these 1922724 E 15 17943 31 080201130114 0020 Boyle's law states A. gases are in constant random motion B. the pressure of a gas is proportional to the temperature if the volume remains constant C. the volume of a gas is directly proportional to the pressure if the temperature remains constant D. all of the above 9 E. none of the above 1922725 C 15 17948 31 0802 0020 Boyle's law says A. P/V=k B. V/P=k C. V=k/P D. V=kP 9 E. none of these 1922726 D 14 44962 31 019505531504 0009 The volume of a mole of gas is A. 22.4 L, regardless of T and P. B. directly proportional to pressure and absolute temperature C. directly proportional to pressure, inversely proportional to absolute temperature D. inversely proportional to pressure, directly proportional to absolute temperature E. inversely proportional to pressure, inversely proportional to 9 absolute temperature 1922727 E 15 17955 31 016101130195 0019 If the temperature of a gas sample is decreased but the volume is held constant A. the density of the gas decreases B. the average kinetic energy increases C. the average velocity of the molecules increases D. the number of collisions of the molecules with the walls increases 9 E. none of the above is correct 1922728 B 13 17960 32 034001141406 0019 A welder has a cylinder of helium. The cylinder has a volume of 32 liters and the gas is under a pressure of 110 atm at 27 degrees C. The cylinder will burst if the pressure reaches 200 atm. Which of the following is false? A. The pressure of the gas is 8360 cm of mercury B. The welder can safely heat the cylinder to 327 degrees C C. The helium could fill a 3500 liter balloon at 27 degrees C 9 and 1 atm of pressure 1922729 C 15 17966 52 131912010113 0019 Which expression is best suited for the calculation of the temperature when the pressure, volume, and amount of gas are known? A. T = PV/nRT B. PV/T = constant C. PV/nR = T D. V is proportional to T 9 E. none of the above 1922730 E 15 17970 31 119714101174 0019 The value of the molar gas constant R A. is 0.08203 under all circumstances B. is dependent on the units used for the pressure and the volume but not dependent on the units used for moles and temperature C. changes as the temperature changes D. is dependent upon the particular gas being studied 9 E. none of the above is correct 1922731 D 15 17975 32 129901131201 0019 When the universal gas constant, R, has the value 0.082, it is expressed in units of A. proportional quantities 5 liters K B. ----------- 4 atm mole 5 liters mole C. ----------- 4 atm K 5 liters atm D. ---------- 4 K mole 9 E. R is a dimensionless quantity 1922732 C 15 17980 31 143307061434 0019 The factor PV/nRT for an ideal gas will show A. a negative deviation from unity at low pressures B. a positive deviation from unity at high pressures C. no deviation at any pressure D. a positive deviation from unity at low pressures 9 E. a negative deviation from unity at high pressures 1922733 D 15 17984 31 019507061388 0035 That the volume of a given mass of an ideal gas is directly proportional to the absolute temperature is A. an inaccurate expression. B. true if the centigrade scale of temperature is used. C. true if the volume is held constant. D. true if the pressure is held constant. 9 E. true without qualification. 1922734 B 14 17989 32 06540706 0003 When an ideal gas undergoes unrestrained expansion, no cooling occurs, because the molecules: A. are below the inversion temperature B. exert no attractive forces on each other C. do work equal to the loss in kinetic energy 9 D. collide without loss of energy 1922735 C 14 17993 31 07060161 0003 The absolute temperature of an ideal gas: A. is proportional to the average potential energy of the molecules B. is proportional to the average speed of the molecules C. is proportional to the average kinetic energy of the molecules 9 D. is inversely proportional to the partial pressure 1922736 D 14 17998 32 0161 0003 One way to increase the average speed of the molecules of an ideal gas is to: A. decrease the temperature B. expand the gas against a piston C. expand the gas into a vacuum 9 D. add heat, holding v and p constant 1922737 D 14 18001 31 01611429 0003 The critical temperature is: A. the temperature below which a gas undergoes cooling when expanded into a vacuum B. the temperature at which a gas liquefies at 1 atm pressure C. the temperature at which the average kinetic energy of the molecules is a maximum D. the temperature above which it is impossible to liquefy a 9 gas 1922738 B 14 18006 31 01610706 0003 The behavior of a real gas approaches that of an ideal gas when: A. the temperature is low B. the temperature is high 9 C. the pressure is high D. the volume is low 1922739 A 14 18009 31 011301950114 0041 When a gas is forced into a smaller volume without a change in temperature, its pressure increases because its molecules A. strike each square centimeter of the container walls more often B. strike each square centimeter of the container walls at higher speeds C. strike each square centimeter of the container walls with greater force 9 D. have more energy 1922740 B 15 18015 52 1966 GRHL 5 -2 Stated with appropriate units, the number 4.46 x 10 is A. the gas constant, R. B. the number of liters per mole of an ideal gas at STP. C. the number of moles per liter of an ideal gas at STP. D. degrees Fahrenheit at STP 9 E. none of the above. 1922741 E 15 45329 51 Absolute zero is the temperature at which: A. gaseous helium liquefies. B. a straight-line graph of P versus 1/V intersects the 1/V axis. C. a straight-line graph of V versus 1/P intersects the 1/P axis. D. a graph of P versus V at constant T intersects the V axis. 9 E. a straight-line graph of P versus T intersects the T axis. 1922742 C 15 45334 71 The pressure of 4.0 L of nitrogen in a flexible container is decreased to one-third of its original pressure, and its absolute temperature is decreased by one-half. The volume is now: 9 A. 1.0 L B. 4.0 L C. 6.0 L D. 8.0 L E. 24 L 1922801 C 15 18020 32 02930025800113 ETS2 OS The weight of a molecule of oxygen is 16 times as much as the weight of a molecule of hydrogen. One balloon is to be inflated with 2 liters of oxygen and another balloon of the same size with 2 liters of hydrogen measured under standard conditions. If both are kept at the same temperature, the pressure in the first balloon necessary to attain the same volume as the second balloon is A. sixteen times as great as in the second B. one-sixteenth that in the second C. equal to that in the second D. four times as great as in the second 9 E. one-fourth as great as in the second 1922802 A 15 18028 51 04990114800112 ETS2 OS On the basis of the kinetic theory, gas pressure is explained by the A. change in momentum when the molecules collide with the walls of the container B. change in kinetic energy with changes in the temperature of the gas C. assumption that the molecules exert little or no attractive force on one another D. assumption that the molecules collide without loss in kinetic energy E. assumption that the distances between molecules are large 9 compared to their diameters 1922803 E 15 18035 51 02930196800112 ETS2 OS If the molecules in a tank of hydrogen have the same average speed as the heavier molecules in a tank of oxygen, we may be sure that A. the pressure is the same in the two cases B. the hydrogen is at the higher temperature C. the hydrogen exerts the greater pressure D. the temperature is the same in the two cases 9 E. the oxygen is at the higher temperature 1922804 A 15 18040 32 01610293800112 ETS2 OS From the generalization that "all gases at the same temperature have the same average molecular kinetic energy," it is possible to deduce that at the same temperature A. heavy molecules should move more slowly than light molecules B. light molecules should move more slowly than heavy molecules C. light molecules move at the same speed as heavy molecules D. the relative speeds of light and heavy molecules have no relation to the molecular kinetic energies 9 E. more than one of the above could be considered correct 1922805 B 15 18048 72 01090511800113 ETS2 OS When the temperature of the air is increased from 20 degrees C to 30 degrees C., the approximate increase in the average kinetic energy of the molecules according to the kinetic molecular theory would be A. 0.34 percent B. 3.4 percent C. 10 percent D. 50 percent 9 E. none of these 1922806 E 15 18052 52 01610398800113 ETS2 OS Two gases, X and Y, at the same temperature are in containers of different sizes. The mass of an X molecule is greater than that of a Y molecule. It follows, therefore, that A. Y molecules have a higher average speed than X molecules B. the average kinetic energy of X molecules is greater than that of Y molecules C. the pressure exerted by the gas in the smaller container is greater than the pressure of the other gas D. the molecules are closer together in the smaller container E. the information given does not warrant any of the above 9 statements 1922807 A 14 18060 52 05430168800113 ETS2 OS An unglazed pottery jug has walls that are porous. If such a jug were corked and placed in a room containing equal parts of several gases, after a reasonable time the jug would contain a mixture of the gases. The gas that would represent the greatest component of the mixture would be the one with the A. lowest density B. lowest temperature C. highest specific heat D. highest molecular weight 9 E. highest valence 1922808 B 14 18066 52 01610544800113 ETS2 OS To raise the temperature of 1 gm. of gas 1 degree C. would require A. more heat if the gas were not allowed to expand on heating B. more heat if the gas were allowed to expand on heating C. the same amount of heat regardless of the above conditions of confinement D. the answer depends upon the kind of gas employed and thus 9 cannot be answered with the above data 1922809 E 15 18072 32 01610114800114 ETS2 OS If the temperature of a confined gas were kept constant, then A. the volume would increase as the pressure increased B. the pressure would decrease as the volume increased C. the volume and the pressure would be directly proportional D. the volume would decrease as the pressure increased 9 E. more than one of the above are correct 1922810 B 14 18077 31 011304048003 2WVW At the same temperature and pressure, the gas which has the highest density is 3_______ A. carbon monoxide B. chlorine C. sulfur dioxide 9 D. hyrogen sulfide 1922811 CA 25 18080 52 0541054201091390 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2A meteorologic balloon, inflated with helium when the air 2temperature is 20 degrees C. and the barometric pressure is 1000 5 3 millibars, has a volume of 10 m . 0 Using this information, answer the following questions. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 5 o If the air temperature should decrease to 0 C, (pressure 5 3 remaining constant) the volume of the balloon (in m ) would be A. 1/0.7 B. 10.0 C. 9.30 D. 0.00 E. Some value appreciably different than any of the preceding 1 choices MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 If the balloon should be allowed to rise until it reached a height 5 o of 3,048 m, where the air temperature is 0 C and the barometric 5 3 pressure is 700 millibars, the volume of the balloon (in m ) would be 9 A. 13.3 B. 14.6 C. 15.0 D. 6.5 E. 7.0 1922812 CAD 35 18093 51 0527052801131290 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM Van Der Waals' equation states (for one mole of gas) 5 2 [P + (a/V )]x(V-b) = RT 0 Using this information, answer the following questions. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 5 2 The term (a/V ) represents A. the volume occupied by the gas molecules B. the mean velocity of the gas molecules C. the attractive force between molecules D. the universal gas constant 1 E. none of these MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 The constant "b" represents A. the volume occupied by the gas molecules B. the mean velocity of the gas molecules C. the attractive force between molecules D. the universal gas constant 2 E. none of these MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 The constant "R" represents A. the volume occupied by the gas molecules B. the mean velocity of the gas molecules C. the attractive force between molecules D. the universal gas constant 9 E. none of these 1922813 B 15 18104 31 01130265800112 ETS2WVW From the generalization that, "The pressure of a gas approaches zero as its temperature approaches -273 degrees C," it is possible to deduce that A. at a temperature of -273 degrees C. all gases would become solids. B. at a temperature of -273 degrees C. the gas molecules would lose their kinetic energies completely. C. at a temperature of -273 degrees C. the gas would have absolutely no weight. D. at a temperature of -273 degrees C. the gas would have absolutely no volume. 9 E. More than one of the above could be correct. 1922814 B 14 18112 31 019602618003 2WVW If a container is filled with hydrogen and another container of the same size is filled with carbon dioxide, both containers will, at the same temperature and pressure, contain the same A. number of atoms B. number of molecules C. weight of gas 9 D. number of neutrons 1922815 B 14 18116 52 044500258003 2WVW The weight of two liters of oxygen gas at standard temperature and pressure is about A. 1.43 grams B. 2.86 grams C. 16.0 grams 9 D. 32.0 grams 1922816 C 14 18119 52 018605698003 2WVW The density of krypton gas (atomic weight = 83.8) in grams per liter is A. 1.28 B. 1.88 C. 3.7 9 D. 7.5 1922817 D 14 18121 32 044502188003 2WVW The weight in grams of 22.4 liters of nitrogen (atomic weight = 14) is A. 3 B. 7 C. 14 9 D. 28 1922818 C 15 18123 72 0161010980011390 ETS2 OS 5 o o When the temperature of the air is increased from 20 C to 30 C, the approximate increase in the average kinetic energy of the molecules will increase by the approximate factor 9 A. 1.0003 B. 1.003 C. 1.03 D. 1.50 E. 1.10 1922819 C 14 18134 72 1885 The mean free path of the molecules in a gas at 1 atm pressure and 5 o 25 C is A. directly proportional to the square of their diameters. B. the same as at 10 atm pressure. C. inversely proportional to their collision frequencies. 9 D. independent of their diameters. 1922820 C 14 18138 52 According to the Kinetic Molecular Theory, the average kinetic energy of gaseous molecules A. depends on the kind of molecules and the temperature. B. depends on the kind of molecules and is independent of the temperature. C. depends on the temperature and is independent of the kind of molecules. D. is proportional to the first power of the average velocity 9 of the molecules. 1922821 B 14 18144 31 011301148002 2 OS Real gases will approach the behavior of an ideal gas at A. low temperatures and high pressures B. high temperatures and low pressures C. low temperatures and low pressures 9 D. high temperatues and high pressures 1922822 C 15 18147 52 051107068003 2WVW 5 -1 -1 Given, R=1.98 cal mole deg , calculate the average kinetic energy in two moles of an ideal gas at 300 deg K. A. 594 cal B. 1190 cal C. 1780 cal D. 2500 cal 9 E. 3560 cal 1922823 A 15 18150 72 19741975 How does the average speed of the molecules of a given gas at constant temperature compare with their most probable speed? The average speed A. is greater. B. is less. C. is the same. D. may be greater, equal, or less, depending on the temperature. 9 E. is constant 1922824 D 15 18154 52 025804911314 0042 What is the relative rate of diffusion of O as compared to CH ? 4 2 4 5 1/2 1/2 9 A. 2/1 B. 1/2 C. 2 /1 D. 1/2 E. the same. 1922825 A 15 18157 52 070816480113 0044 According to Graham's law of gas effusion, helium gas will effuse x times as fast as SO . What is the value of x? 4 2 9 A. 4.00 B. 16.0 C. 0.250 D. 256 E. 0.0624 1922826 B 15 18160 52 1648 0161 0044 If 90.0 liters of H effuse through a porous partition in 30.0 4 2 min., what volume of C F will effuse through the same partition 4 2 4 at the same temperature and pressure in 20.0 min? (MW's: H = 2.02, C F = 100) 4 2 2 4 9 A. 1.21 B. 8.53 C. 422 D. 2970 E. 46.9 1922827 D 15 18165 52 011301281648 0044 Given: Gas MW (grams/mole) C H 26.0 4 2 2 H 2.02 4 2 What is the rate of effusion of C H compared to H ? 4 2 2 2 9 A. 3.59 B. 0.0777 C. 12.9 D. 0.279 E. 0.928 1922828 C 15 18169 52 070816480113 0044 According to Graham's law of gas effusion, helium gas will effuse x times as fast as C H . What is the value of x? 4 2 4 9 A. .143 B. .378 C. 2.65 D. 112 E. 7.00 1922829 E 15 18172 52 011301281648 0044 Given: Gas MW(grams/mole) O 32.0 4 2 Ne 20.2 What is the rate of effusion of O compared to Ne? 4 2 9 A. 1.26 B. .613 C. 1.58 D. .631 E. .795 1922830 C 15 18176 52 1648 0161 0044 If 42.0 liters of Ar effuse through a porous partition in 21.0 min., what volume of HCl will effuse through the same partition at the same temperature and pressure in 10.0 min? (MW: Ar - 39.9, HCl - 36.5) 9 A. 19.1 B. 21.9 C. 20.9 D. 18.3 E. 4.78 1922831 A 15 18180 72 164801131458 0044 Two hypothetical gases effuse into a glass tube 120 cm long. Gas A (MW=9.00) enters at the end marked 0 cm; gas B (MW=25.0) enters the end marked 120. The point at which the gases meet is marked by a white deposit. How far from the end marked 0 cm is the deposit located? 9 A. 75.0 cm B. 31.8 cm C. 45.0 cm D. 3.53 cm E. 88.2 cm. 1922832 C 15 18185 52 042902931791 0044 5 o The root mean square velocity of SO molecules at 25 C is 736 4 2 miles per hour. What is the rms velocity in miles per hour of 5 o HBr molecules at 25 C? 5 --- 7 (hint: v = /3RT R = 8.314 x 10 erg/(deg mole)). rms V 3 _____ m 9 A. 2920 mph B. 827 mph C. 655 mph D. 583 mph E. 736 mph 1922833 C 15 18192 52 019501140161 0044 Two rigid vessels of equal volume are at the same temperature and pressure. One contains H (gas) and the other contains He(gas). 4 2 Which of the following statements is correct? A. A rise in temperature will decrease the density in both cases to the same extent, but the increased molecular velocity will compensate and lead to the pressure remaining constant. B. The two vessels contain the same mass of gas. C. The helium vessel is reduced to half its volume by pushing in the walls. As a result, the helium pressure is doubled and the helium makes more impacts per unit wall area than the hydrogen. D. If both vessels are cooled, the helium, because it is denser, will condense at a higher temperature. E. The average momentum transferred per molecule per impact is 9 the same for both gases. 1922834 C 15 18204 52 049102580113 0020 5 235 The relative rates of diffusion of the two gases UF and 4 6 5238 UF are 4 6 A. 352/349 B. square root of 349/square root of 352 C. square root of 352/square root of 349 D. 1.43 9 E. 1.86 1922835 B 15 18209 51 138513950293 0020 A person is able to smell perfume because perfume molecules A. are small B. are in constant random motion C. do not collide with other molecules D. travel faster than other molecules 9 E. none of these 1922836 E 15 18212 51 138602930429 0020 The kinetic-molecular theory says A. gas molecules are widely separated from one another B. the velocity of gas molecules increases with increasing temperature C. gas molecules move at different speeds D. gases contain molecules or atoms 9 E. all of these 1922837 C 15 18216 51 029304941387 0020 Molecular collisions are A. rare 5 2 B. equal to (1/2)mv C. perfectly elastic D. more frequent at lower pressures 9 E. all of these 1922838 B 15 18219 52 051113880429 0020 Kinetic energy is A. the same as heat energy B. proportional to the square of the average velocity C. inversely proportional to the temperature D. constant at all temperatures 9 E. none of these 1922839 B 15 18222 51 042902930161 0020 The average velocity of molecules A. is proportional to kinetic energy B. increases with an increase in temperature C. is the same for H and O at the same temperature 4 2 2 D. all of these 9 E. none of these 1922840 A 15 18226 52 042902930161 0020 The velocity of a hydrogen molecule at 25 degrees C is A. approximately 4 times the velocity of oxygen molecules at the same temperature B. equals the velocity of oxygen molecules at the same temperature C. the same at all temperatures 5 -2 D. is approximately 4.6 x 10 m/s 9 E. decreases at higher temperatures 1922841 C 14 18231 51 139201610299 0020 At the absolute zero of temperature A. molecular motion ceases B. the kinetic energy of molecules is zero 5 o C. the temperature is -273.15 C 9 D. all the above 1922842 B 13 18234 52 011301611395 0009 Your lecturer opens a bottle of hydrogen sulfide gas, H S, and a 4 2 bottle of gaseous diethyl ether, C H O, at the same time. Both 4 4 10 gases are at the same temperature and pressure. Which of the two should you be able to smell first? (Both have characteristic odors.) A. the ether B. H S C. both at the same time 4 2 9 D. neither gas would escape into the room 1922843 D 15 18241 31 138601610113 0019 According to the kinetic molecular theory, the absolute temperature of any gas is proportional to: A. the mass of the molecules only B. the potential energy of the molecules C. the randomness of the molecules D. the kinetic energy of the molecules 9 E. none of the above is correct 1922844 C 15 18245 31 011301610494 0019 When a definite amount of gas is enclosed in a vessel at constant temperature, the pressure exerted by it remains constant for any length of time. This fact leads to the postulate of the kinetic molecular theory that: A. the molecules of the gas are constantly colliding with one another and with the wall of the container B. the collisions between molecules and the wall of the container are inelastic C. the collisions between molecules and the wall of the container are elastic D. the molecules of the gas move in straight lines 9 E. none of the above is correct 1922845 A 15 18253 51 140505940588 0019 It is observed experimentally that gases are almost infinitely expansible. From this one can reasonably postulate that A. matter is discontinuous, i.e. composed of discrete particles B. molecules are too small to be seen C. molecules have energy which increases with temperature D. molecular collisions are inelastic E. matter is continuous, i.e. Composed of units which are 9 linked together in chains or sheets 1922846 C 15 18259 52 016101130500 0019 If the temperature of a certain gas sample is increased from 273 degrees K to 819 degrees K, the average momentum of the molecules is expected to A. double B. triple C. increase by a factor of square root of 3 D. increase by a factor of 546 9 E. remain unchanged 1922847 C 15 18263 52 012812910429 0019 The molecular masses of X and Y are equal. The average velocity of X at 200 degrees K is _____ that of Y at 400 degrees K. A. One half B. square root of 2 times faster than C. 1/square root of 2 times D. twice 9 E. the same as 1922848 D 15 18267 52 011301280429 0019 Two gases A and B are compared at 0 degrees C. The molecular mass of A is 25 times that of B. The average velocity of A is ________ that of the average velocity of B. 9 A. 25 times B. 1/25 C. 5 times D. 1/5 E. none is correct 1922849 D 15 18271 52 011314110398 0019 Two gases, X and Y, are examined at 20 degrees C. It is found that the velocity of X is three times that of Y. It may be concluded that the mass of X is ________ times that of Y. A. Square root of 3 B. 1/square root of 3 C. 9 D. 1/9 9 E. none correct 1922850 E 15 18275 32 14130511 0019 The average kinetic energy of H at 10 degrees C is ________ 4 2 the average kinetic energy of 0 at 50 degrees C. 4 2 A. higher than B. the same as C. 32/2 smaller than D. 50/10 larger than 9 E. 283/323 smaller than 1922851 B 15 18279 52 141613860423 0040 According to the kinetic molecular theory, the heat of vaporization goes primarily to A. speed up molecular motion B. increase the potential energy of the molecules C. move the molecules closer together D. melt the substance 9 E. both A and B. 1922852 B 15 18283 31 070701130511 0040 Which of the following is not a basic part of the kinetic theory 3 ______ of gases? A. Gas particles are in constant motion. B. Large gas particles have more average kinetic energy than small ones at the same temperature. C. The collisions of gas particles with the container walls result in NO loss of energy. D. Frequent collisions occur between the particles making up the gas. 9 E. Both C and D. 1922853 D 15 18290 31 049901130438 0040 Which of the following statements is correct for both gases and liquids according to the kinetic theory of matter? A. Constituent particles are in constant motion. B. Constituent particles move in straight lines between collisions. C. The speed of the constituent particles increases with temperature. D. More than one response is correct. 9 E. Energy is gained when molecules collide. 1922854 A 15 18296 31 049901130438 0040 According to kinetic theory, a difference between liquids and gases is A. distance between molecules B. average kinetic energy at a given temperature C. the molecules of one are in constant motion 9 D. both A and B E. both B and C. 1922855 B 15 18300 31 138611470442 0040 According to the kinetic molecular theory, in most solids A. there is no motion of the molecules B. there is generally some vibrational movement of the molecules C. the molecules generally revolve around each other and the lattice points D. the molecules are packed together in a rather haphazard fashion 9 E. both B and C. 1922856 D 15 18305 31 051104420113 0040 The kinetic energy of the following gas molecules is the same. Which one is moving the fastest? A. CO B. O C. NH D. H 4 2 2 3 2 9 E. all move the same speed. 1922857 A 15 18308 31 049905110161 0040 If the temperature of object A is higher than that of object B it is true that A. the average kinetic energy of the molecules in object A is greater than that of the molecules in object B B. the average kinetic energy of the molecules in object A is less than that of the molecules in object B C. the average kinetic energy of the molecules in objects A and B is the same D. it is impossible to predict which set of molecules has the greatest kinetic energy 9 E. no correct response is given. 1922858 D 15 18316 31 138604420317 0040 Which of the following is not a postulate of the kinetic 3 ______ molecular theory? A. Matter is composed of molecules in constant motion. B. As the temperature is increased, the molecules move faster. C. All molecules exert an attractive force on one another. D. The molecules of a gas or vapor are quite close together. 9 E. Both A and B. 1922859 B 15 18321 31 049901130494 0040 Which of the following statements concerning gases is not 3 ______ consistent with the kinetic theory? A. The molecules are in constant motion. B. The molecules collide infrequently because of great distances between them. C. Any molecular collisions are perfectly elastic. D. The speed of the molecules increases with increasing temperature. 9 E. Both A and D. 1922860 E 15 18327 31 049904420494 0040 In a sample of liquid at constant temperature, the kinetic theory 3 ____________________ tells us that A. all molecules are moving with the same speed B. the molecules are separated by relatively long distances C. the average speed and energy of the molecules is independent of the temperature D. the molecules are arranged orderly E. constituent particles move in straight lines between 9 collisions. 1922861 C 15 18333 51 016105110293 0035 The temperature in a medium refers to A. the quantity of molecules present. B. the total potential energy of the molecules. C. the average kinetic energy of the molecules. D. the total caloric content of the individual molecules. 9 E. the average potential energy of the molecules. 1922862 D 15 18337 31 029301130161 0035 When the molecules of a confined gas are made to move faster, A. the volume of the gas decreases. B. the temperature of the gas decreases. C. the temperature of the gas remains constant. D. the temperature of the gas increases. 9 E. the gas condenses to a liquid. 1922863 C 15 18341 31 031701130500 0035 The force exerted on the walls of a vessel by a contained gas is caused by A. the repulsive forces between the molecules. B. slight loss in average speed suffered by the molecules at the walls. C. changes in the momentum which the molecules experience at the walls. D. attraction between the walls and the gas. 9 E. elastic collisions between molecules of the gas. 1922864 A 15 44968 51 051102930398 0035 In computing the kinetic energy of a gas molecule, it is necessary to consider both the velocity of the molecule as well as A. its mass. B. the number of atoms in the gas molecule. C. the kinds of atoms in the gas molecule. D. its physical properties. 9 E. the types of chemical bonds in the molecule 1922865 D 15 18351 31 027601680511 0035 According to theory, in a given mixture of oxygen and nitrogen, of uniform temperature throughout A. all the molecules are moving at the same speed. B. all the molecules possess the same kinetic energy C. the average speed of the nitrogen molecules is the same as the average speed of the oxygen molecules. D. the average kinetic energy of all the molecules in this mixture is the same as that of any other gas at the same temperatures. E. the average kinetic energy of all the molecules in this mixture is the same as that of any other gas at the same 9 pressure. 1922866 C 15 18360 31 144501131388 0035 Which one of these is not a characteristic of a gas molecule in motion? A. Very high velocities. B. A vast number of collisions per second. C. A speed directly proportional to the mass of the molecule. D. motion in straight lines between collisions. 9 E. Erratic motion as exemplified in the brownian movement. 1922867 E 15 18365 32 042902930128 0035 The mean velocity of an oxygen molecule at 0 degrees C is 460 meters/sec. If the molecular weight of helium is 4, then the mean speed of a helium atom (molecule) at 0 degrees C is A. 230 m/sec. B. 326 m/sec. C. 650 m/sec. 9 D. 920 m/sec. E. 1300 m/sec. 1922868 B 15 18369 31 030913860511 0035 Which one of the following is NOT an assumption of the kinetic theory of gases? A. Gas particles are negligibly small. B. Gas particles undergo a decrease in kinetic energy when passed from a region of high pressure to a region of lower pressure. C. Gas particles are in constant motion. D. Gas particles exert NO attraction for each other. 9 E. Gas particles undergo elastic collisions. 1922869 D 15 18375 52 164814090491 0035 SO effuses through a small hole (under prescribed conditions of 4 2 temperature and pressure) at the rate of 4 ml/min. The rate (in ml/min.) at which helium effuses through the same hole under the same conditions is: A. 2 B. 1 C. 64 D. 16 E. none of these 9 Atomic weights: S = 32, O = 16, He = 4 1922870 D 15 18380 52 016101140258 0035 At any given temperature and pressure the relative diffusion rates of CH and CS are (h = 1, C = 12, O = 16, S = 32) 4 4 2 9 A. 1 to 2 B. 2 to 5 C. 4 to 1. D. 2 to 1 E. 1 to 4 1922871 D 15 18383 32 011305370429 0035 A given amount of gas in a closed container is heated from room temperature to 100 degrees F; disregarding the possible expansion of the container, according to the kinetic theory A. the gas has increased in weight. B. the individual molecules of the gas have expanded. C. the average distance between molecules has increased. D. the average velocity of the molecules has increased. 9 E. the pressure on the sides of the container has decreased. 1922872 A 15 18389 32 019501140113 0035 At constant volume the pressure of gas Y increases with increasing temperature because as the temperature increases A. molecules of Y move faster. B. the molecular volume of Y increases. C. the mass of Y molecules increases. D. molecular collisions are more elastic. 9 E. molecules are closer together. 1922873 E 15 18394 31 059413860189 0034 Which of the following is not a basic postulate of the kinetic 3 ___ molecular theory A. The molecules of a gas are in a state of perpetual random motion B. Gases consist of discrete particles of matter called molecules C. The temperature of a gas is a measure of average kinetic energy of the molecules D. The collisions between molecules of a gas are perfectly elastic 9 E. Most gaseous elements consist of diatomic molecules 1922874 D 15 18401 51 029013860113 0038 Which of the following is explained by the kinetic-molecular theory of gases? A. The combustibility of gases B. The color of gases C. The chemical activity of gases D. The high compressibility of gases 9 E. The molecular weights of gases 1922875 A 14 18405 52 01130258 0038 Which will require the longer time for one liter of the gas to diffuse through a small opening? (Chlorine: GMW = 71; ammonia: GMW = 17) A. Chlorine, because of its greater density B. Chlorine, because its molecule Cl has fewer atoms than 4 2 ammonia, NH 4 3 9 D. there should be no difference 1922876 D 14 18410 72 1974 At the same temperature, the molecules of which gas have the highest average velocity? A. O B. CCl C. CO D. C H E. C H 94 2 4 2 2 4 2 6 1922877 A 14 18413 72 0708 An equimolar mixture of CH and CO is allowed to effuse through a 4 4 2 small hole into a vacuum. At a later time the gas remaining will contain A. more CO than CH . C. an equimolar mixture of CH and CO . 4 2 4 4 2 B. more CH than CO . D. pure CH . 94 4 2 4 1922878 C 14 18419 72 197519769033 The figure below illustrates the distribution of molecular velocities as predicted by the Maxwell distribution law. | | fraction | of | molecules | that have | T(1) = 1000 K a | 1 velocity | 1 1 =c | 1 122 | 1 221 2 T(2) = 2000 K | 1 2 1 2 | 1 2 1 22 | 1 2 1 2 | 1 2 1 22 | 1 2 1 22 | 1 2 1 22 | 1 2 11 22 | 122 11 2222 |12 1111 --------------------------------------------- c(velocity) The abscissa value corresponding to the peak of each curve represents A. the mean velocity of the molecules. B. the temperatures at which molecules have greatest velocities. C. the velocity possessed by more molecules than any other velocity. 9 D. the root mean square velocity. 1922879 C 14 18433 72 1885 In the design (or construction) of a vacuum system, large diameter tubing is essential for the main manifold. The property of gas molecules being considered in this instance is A. collision diameter. B. root mean square velocity. C. mean free path. 9 D. average molecular weight. 1922880 C 14 18437 72 Methane, CH , has a higher thermal conductivity than O , Ar, CO 4 4 2 2 or Cl under the same conditions of temperature and pressure because of 4 2 its low molecular weight and consequent A. lower vibrational energy. B. lower heat capacity. C. higher molecular velocity. 9 D. smaller molecular diameter. 1922881 B 14 18442 52 04290708138605 CWHS 5 4 If the velocity of an oxygen molecule is 4.24 x 10 cm/sec 5 o at 0 C, what is the average velocity of CO molecules at 4 2 the same temperature-pressure conditions (in cm/sec). 5 4 4 4 4 9 A. 3.10 x 10 B. 3.62 x 10 C. 4.66 x 10 D. 5.81 x 10 1922882 D 15 18448 51 19660708 NGLS Graham's Law states the relationship between the _______ of a gas and its diffusion rate at a constant temperature. A. volume C. number of molecules 9 B. pressure D. molecular mass 1922883 B 15 45343 71 What is the ratio of the average kinetic energy of O to that of 4 2 CH at 298 K? 4 4 5 1/2 1/2 1/2 1/2 9 A. 2:1 B. 1:1 C. 1:2 D. (32) :(16) E. (16) :(32) 1922901 D 14 18451 31 070601130293 0009 The fact that the ideal gas law only approximately describes the behavior of a gas can be partly explained by the idea that A. R is not really a constant B. gas molecules really do have zero volume C. the kinetic energy of gas molecules is not really directly proportional to the absolute temperature 9 D. gas molecules really do interact with each other 1922902 A 14 18456 31 140407060161 0009 Real gases behave most nearly like the ideal gas law says they do at A. high temperatures, low pressures B. low temperatures, high pressures C. high temperatures, high pressures 9 D. low temperatures, low pressures 1922903 B 15 45073 51 143214310706 0009 5 2 The van der Waals equation, P = RT/(V-b) - a/V , incorporates the following correction(s) to the ideal gas law in order to account for the properties of real gases: A. the possibility of chemical reaction between molecules B. the finite volume of molecules C. the quantum behavior of molecules D. average kinetic energy is inversely proportional to temperature 9 E. the infrared absorption spectra of gases 1922904 B 15 18466 31 140407060114 0019 Real gases approach perfect gas behavior at A. low pressures and temperatures B. low pressures and high temperatures C. high pressures and low temperatures D. high pressures and high temperatures 9 E. temperatures just above the boiling points of their liquids 1922905 B 14 18470 31 08020114 0019 Boyle's law if least likely to be obeyed at A. high temperatures B. high pressures C. in small samples 9 D. none of the above is correct 1922906 E 15 18473 32 14260706 0019 Which of the following would be most likely to behave as an ideal gas? A. HCl B. SO C. H O (vapor) D. NH E. O 94 2 2 3 2 1922907 E 15 18476 52 14291430 0019 The critical temperature of nitrogen is -147 degrees C and that of oxygen is -119 degrees C. At -100 degrees C ________ can be liquefied. 9 A. nitrogen B. oxygen C. both D. all gases E. neither 1922908 A 15 18479 51 143103091386 0019 Certain corrections are made on the assumptions of the kinetic molecular theory to explain the deviations of the real gases from ideal behavior. These corrections are: A. pressure and volume corrections only B. pressure, volume and temperature corrections C. pressure corrections only 9 D. volume and temperature corrections only 1922909 B 15 18484 51 143213361427 0019 The term a in the van der waals equation is: A. a measure of the diameters of the molecules of the gas B. a measure of intermolecular attractions between molecules C. a measure of density of the gas D. a measure of velocities of molecules of the gas 9 E. none of the above is correct 1922910 A 15 18488 52 143205400195 0035 5 2 n a Van Der Waal's equation states (P + ----)(V-nb) = nRT. Using 5 2 V this information, indicate what the term nb represents. A. The volume occupied by the gas molecules. B. The mean velocity of the gas molecules. C. The attractive force between molecules. D. The universal gas constant. 9 E. None of these. 1922911 A 14 18495 31 1430 0003 The liquefaction temperature of a gas increases as the pressure is increased because at higher pressures: A. the average speed of the molecules is higher B. the average speed of the molecules is lower C. the average intermolecular distance is higher 9 D. the average intermolecular distance is lower 1922912 C 14 18500 72 1432 The constant b in the van der Waals' equation is proportional to A. the radius of one molecule. B. the force of attraction between two molecules. C. the excluded volume per mole. 9 D. the temperature. 1922913 DA 25 18503 52 OS82 MACROITEM STEM Draw a smooth curve through the points in the diagram below: |. | . | . | . | . | . |. 0 |__________________ MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 This diagram describes phenomena associated with A. reaction kinetics D. the critical point B. acid-base equilibria E. Raoult's Law 1 C. solubility MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 The correct labels for the axes of this diagram are x y A. temperature density B. volume density C. temperature pressure D. pressure mole fraction 9 E. density pressure 1922914 A 15 45347 71 In the van der Waals equation of state for 1 mol of gas, 5 a (P + -- )(V - b) = RT 4 2 4 V the effect of intermolecular forces is accounted for by: 5 2 2 9 A. P + a/V B. P C. V - b D. b E. (P + a/V )(V - b) 1923001 B 14 18513 31 04110192 0026 According to the chemical definition of a pure substance, which of the following could be a pure substance? 9 A. milk B. quartz C. chalk D. air 1924001 C 15 18516 31 01530008800111 ETS2 OS The rate of evaporation of water into the air of a room may be decreased by A. increasing the temperature B. placing the water in a pan of larger diameter C. increasing the humidity of the room D. decreasing the pressure over the water surface 9 E. increasing the molecular motion of the water 1924002 E 15 18521 31 05010502800111 ETS2 OS The best explanation for the nearly spherical shape of raindrops is based on A. evaporation B. gravity C. capillary action D. the brownian movement 9 E. surface tension 1924003 C 15 18524 51 04120397800111 ETS2 OS If a saturated vapor is compressed at constant temperature, A. the pressure rises B. the vapor density increases C. the vapor begins to condense D. the pressure falls 9 E. the system obeys boyle"s law 1924004 E 15 18527 31 04470444800111 ETS2 OS The hydraulic press A. does more work than is done upon it B. must make use of water as the liquid C. gives better results when the atmospheric pressure is high D. shows an application of Charles' law 9 E. shows an application of Pascal's principle 1924005 C 15 18531 52 04910153800111 ETS2 OS The rate of evaporation of water may be increased by all of these steps except A. increasing the temperature B. placing the water in a pan of larger diameter C. increasing the humidity of the room D. decreasing the pressure over the water surface 9 E. increasing the molecular motion of the water 1924006 D 14 18536 51 01140130800111 ETS2 OS The pressure of a given saturated vapor depends on A. the volume of the space to be filled B. the amount of liquid to be vaporized C. the density of the liquid only 9 D. the temperature only 1924007 D 15 18539 31 05350493800112 ETS2 OS An alcohol rub cools the skin. This cooling effect A. is an illusion arising from the effect of wetness B. occurs because the skin is too dry C. occurs because the alcohol is at a lower temperature D. is the result of rapid evaporation of the alcohol 9 E. is the same for any liquid 1924008 C 15 18543 51 04120161800113 ETS2 OS A pure liquid and its vapor, maintained at a constant temperature, are contained in a tall cylinder fitted with a piston which exerts a pressure just equal to the vapor pressure of the liquid. If the pressure on the piston is doubled, the piston will A. drop until the volume of the vapor is half its original volume B. not change its position C. drop until it touches the surface of the liquid, condensing all the vapor D. drop until the volume of the vapor and the volume of the liquid are each one-half of their original volumes 9 E. none of the above 1924009 A 15 18551 52 01530505800111 ETS2 OS Evaporation from a liquid results in A. a decrease in the average speed of the molecules of the liquid B. an increase in the temperature of the liquid C. an increase in the rate of collision between molecules of the liquid D. an increase in the average speed of the molecules of the liquid 9 E. a decrease in the amount of vapor above the liquid 1924011 A 14 18556 31 04380433800111 ETS2 OS Two liquids, a and b, are introduced into two barometer tubes, the temperature of each being the same. It is noticed (1) that in both cases a little of the liquid does not evaporate, and (2) that the mercury in the tube containing a is more depressed than that in the tube containing b. it follows from this that the vapor pressure of liquid a A. is greater than that of liquid b B. is less than that of liquid b C. the same as that of liquid b D. cannot be estimated relative to that of liquid b 9 from the information given above 1924012 B 15 18564 31 04120293800112 ETS2 OS The vapor collecting in the space above a liquid in a container is considered to saturate the space when A. the density of the vapor equals the density of the liquid B. molecules leave and enter the liquid at equal rates C. no more molecules leave the liquid D. the liquid boils 9 E. the vapor density is equal to 1 1924013 C 15 18569 31 04950483800112 ETS2 OS The apparently aimless, continuous movement of very small particles which is known as the "Brownian movement" is caused by A. the influence of the earth's magnetic field B. the pull or attraction of the electron shell of the substance C. collision or jostling about by molecules D. the influence of an electric field E. repulsion between protons of the particles and the 9 electrons of the surrounding media 1924014 C 15 18575 52 04930008800112 ETS2 OS Water will keep cool in an unglazed earthenware jug because A. the jug absorbs cold air B. water vapor from the atmosphere condenses on the jug C. there is a large surface from which the water can evaporate D. the jug cools the water 9 E. earthenware material is always cool 1924015 B 14 18579 31 015904380499 0026 As a pure liquid is heated, its temperature increases and it becomes less dense. Therefore, A. its potential energy increases B. its kinetic energy increases C. both its potential energy and kinetic energy increase 9 D. it necessarily undergoes a chemical change. 1924016 B 14 18583 31 047110970161 0009 To convert a sample of air into a liquid, you would probably have to A. increase the temperature and pressure of the sample B. decrease the temperature and increase the pressure of the sample C. cool it to 0 degrees K 9 D. the task is an impossible one 1924017 A 14 18587 52 019211491403 0009 Which substance should have the highest vapor pressure at any given temperature? A. C H B. C H C. C H D. C H E. C H 94 2 6 3 8 4 10 5 12 6 6 1924018 C 15 18590 52 051104230286 0040 As a pure liquid is heated, its temperature increases and it becomes less dense. Therefore: A. its potential energy increases B. its kinetic energy increases C. both its potential and kinetic energy increase D. its potential energy increases while kinetic energy decreases 9 E. its potential energy remains constant. 1924019 B 14 18595 31 04380652 Liquids have A. stronger intermolecular forces than solids B. more random molecular motion than solids C. more molecular order than solids D. very long range molecular attractive forces 9 E. symmetry 1924020 B 14 18598 31 13590438 Ordering of molecules in a liquid phase is A. greater than in the solid phase of the same substance B. short range and limited C. nonexistent 9 D. high in some liquids and random in others 1924021 B 14 18601 31 0438 The molecules in a liquid are A. in constant random motion, unconfined by any molecular order or attraction. B. in constant random motion, but are attracted to neighboring molecules. C. are held in a rigid spatial array, and only vibrate within that array. 9 D. motionless. 1924022 C 14 18606 51 14270438 Intermolecular forces in liquids are A. the greatest of any phase because of the fluidity of liquids B. the least of any phase because the molecules in a liquid are always in constant random motion C. intermediate between those of gases and solids 9 D. equal to zero 1924023 D 14 18610 51 07610438 The molecular theory for gases was at one time thought to apply to liquids. Which of the following assumptions about gases is least applicable to liquids? A. the phase is fluid. B. molecules in the phase exhibit random motion. C. molecules in the phase have a large distribution of energies. D. molecules in the phase have negligible attraction for 9 one another. 1924024 B 14 18616 51 04380524 What property of a liquid explains the fact that a liquid may be used to measure air pressure as in a barometer? A. random molecular motion C. intermolecular attraction 9 B. low compressibility D. portions of the phase are ordered 1924025 C 14 18620 51 04380067 What property of a liquid explains the fact that liquids have a vapor pressure associated with them? A. low compressibility B. fluidity of the phase C. some molecules have energies high enough to overcome molecular attractions 9 D. the phase conforms to the shape of its container 1924026 D 14 18625 31 05020438 The phenomenon of surface tension in a liquid is caused by A. the regions of short range molecular order which are found in liquids B. the high kinetic energy of some molecules in the liquid C. the small compressibility of liquids D. the imbalance of attractive forces on molecules at the 9 surface 1924027 D 14 18630 51 0502 Surface tension accounts for which of the following observations? A. Liquids can be used in hydraulic brakes. B. A drop of ink diffuses slowly through water. C. Water has a definite vapor pressure at 25 deg C. D. The top of a column of liquid mercury is rounded 9 instead of flat. 1924028 C 14 18635 51 15460555 The horizontal plateau on the cooling curve of a liquid represents A. the cooling of the liquid to its freezing point. B. a period of time when no heat is gained or lost from the substance. C. the freezing of the liquid at constant temperature. 9 D. the warming of the solid to its melting point. 1924029 D 15 18640 51 OS82 Draw a smooth curve through the points in the diagram below: | . | | | . | | | . |. |__________________ This curve could possibly describe which of the following phenomena? A. The behavior of an ideal gas at constant temperature. B. The behavior of an ideal gas at constant pressure. C. The reactant concentration (y-axis) for a first-order reaction with respect to time. D. The vapor pressure (y-axis) of a liquid with respect to temperature. E. The function (PV)/(nRT) for an ideal gas (y-axis) with 9 respect to pressure. 1924030 E 15 18649 51 11490438 The vapor pressure of a liquid depends on A. only the temperature of the liquid. B. only the volume of the liquid. C. only the intermolecular forces in the liquid. D. both the temperature and the volume of the liquid. E. both the temperature and the intermolecular forces of 9 the liquid. 1924031 B 14 18654 51 05110438 When a liquid in an insulated vessel vaporizes A. the average kinetic energy of molecules in the liquid phase increases B. the average kinetic energy of molecules in the liquid phase decreases C. the intermolecular forces are increased in the liquid 9 D. the surface tension of the liquid is decreased 1924032 B 14 18659 51 05110438 When a liquid evaporates from an insulated container, the average kinetic energy of molecules remaining in the liquid phase A. increases until it equals the kinetic energy of the molecules in the vapor B. decreases steadily C. decreases until it equals the kinetic energy of the molecules in the vapor 9 D. remains the same 1924201 D 14 18664 31 00080130 0041 Pure water is not 9 A. polar B. a good solvent C. a compound D. saturated 1924202 A 15 18666 52 024511490161 0044 A sealed container partly filled with water is allowed to come to equilibrium. The vapor pressure in the space above the water depends upon which of the following? A. The value listed in The vapor pressure tables as a function of temperature. B. The nature of the interior wall of the vapor space. C. The volume of water. D. The nature of the other gases in the vapor space. 9 E. None of the above. 1924203 D 15 18672 31 025804380652 0020 Diffusion in liquids is explained by A. surface tension B. capillary attraction C. vibrations of atoms D. molecular motion 9 E. all of these 1924204 A 15 18675 31 000811480336 0020 Water rises in a capillary tube because A. water wets the glass B. water has a low vapor pressure C. water has a high boiling point D. glass is an extremely pure substance 9 E. none of these 1924205 A 15 18678 31 043801530293 0020 A liquid evaporates A. because of the motion of the molecules B. when a vessel containing the liquid is exposed to the atmosphere C. when molecules escape from the surface of the liquid D. all of these 9 E. none of these 1924206 E 15 18682 31 11490161 0020 The vapor pressure of water A. is constant at a given temperature B. increases with temperature C. decreases with temperature D. is due to the pressure of water molecules in the gas phase 9 E. all of these 1924207 B 15 18685 51 019211490165 0020 Which of the following substances has the lowest vapor pressure? A. water at 25 degrees C B. ice at 0 degrees C C. ether at room temperature D. water at 100 degrees C 9 E. chloroform at room temperature 1924208 D 15 18688 52 114904380161 0020 The vapor pressure of a given liquid is constant at a given temperature and does not depend on the size or shape of the container A. as long as some liquid is present B. because a dynamic equilibrium is established C. because pressure is a per-unit-area phenomenon D. all of the above 9 E. none of the above 1924209 B 15 18693 31 114904380498 0020 When the vapor pressure of a liquid equals the atmospheric pressure A. no more liquid remains B. the liquid boils C. sublimation occurs D. condensation occurs 9 E. none of these 1924210 C 15 18696 32 083911500114 0020 Foods can be cooked faster by A. using less water in the pan B. adding heat more rapidly C. increasing the pressure above the food D. decreasing the pressure above the food 9 E. none of these 1924211 C 14 18699 31 049804381149 0009 The boiling point of any liquid is: A. 100 degrees C B. the temperature at which as many molecules leave the liquid as return to it C. the temperature at which the vapor pressure is equal to the external pressure D. the temperature at which NO molecules can return to the bulk 9 of the liquid 1924212 D 14 18704 31 049001610114 0009 The triple point is A. the temperature above which the liquid phase cannot exist B. usually found at a temperature very close to the normal boiling point C. the temperature at which the vapor pressure of a liquid is three times the value at 25 degrees C D. the value of temperature and pressure at which solid, liquid 9 and gas may exist in equilibrium 1924213 B 15 18710 31 049804381149 0019 The boiling temperature of a liquid is A. the temperature at which the molecules leaving the liquid is the same as the rate of molecules returning B. the temperature at which the vapor pressure is equal to the atmospheric pressure C. 100 degrees C D. the temperature at which the vapor pressure is greater than atmospheric pressure E. the temperature at which NO molecules of the liquid can 9 return to the body of the liquid 1924214 E 15 18717 52 141414370087 0019 Which of the following statements is true of Henry's law? A. valid for dilute solutions B. valid for solvent C. is expressed by P = kx D. A, B and C are true 9 E. A and C are true 1924215 C 15 18720 31 008702041307 0040 Which of the following is characteristic of solutions? A. heterogeneous B. constant composition C. variable composition D. both A and B 9 E. both A and C 1924216 D 15 18723 31 159314020662 0040 Which of the following could best be called a physical property of some substance? A. color B. flammability C. density D. both A and C 9 E. both B and C. 1924217 C 15 18726 31 049815930161 0040 The boiling point of a liquid is best described as a particular A. vapor pressure B. vapor pressure at a specific temperature C. temperature D. vapor pressure at a specific altitude 9 E. both A and D. 1924218 A 15 18729 31 114901611593 0040 The vapor pressure of a liquid depends upon A. the temperature of the liquid B. the volume of the liquid C. the container of the liquid D. the boiling point of the liquid 9 E. the altitude of the liquid. 1924219 D 15 18732 51 114915930317 0040 The magnitude of the vapor pressure of a liquid at constant temperature depends on A. the size of the container B. the atmospheric pressure C. the boiling point of the liquid D. the nature of the forces between liquid molecules 9 E. the surface area of the liquid 1924220 C 15 18736 31 049815930161 0040 The normal boiling point of any liquid is defined as A. the temperature at which the liquid boils B. 100 degrees C C. the temperature at which the vapor pressure equals one atmosphere of pressure D. the temperature at which there is equilibrium 9 E. both B and C. 1924221 C 15 18740 31 043815930786 0040 Which of the following is a liquid at room temperature? A. I B. Cl C. Br D. S 4 2 2 2 9 E. both B and C. 1924222 C 14 18742 51 006716191416 0009 The property of water that is most critical to the regulation of body temperature is A. high specific heat B. high boiling point 9 C. high heat of vaporization D. high surface tension 1924223 C 15 18745 51 142901920438 0035 The critical temperature of a substance is A. the temperature required to liquefy the gas at one atmosphere pressure. B. the temperature at which the substance begins to decompose. C. the highest temperature at which the substance can be a liquid. D. the temperature at which the liquid evaporates. E. the lowest temperature at which the substance may be 9 liquefied. 1924224 C 15 18751 31 051614300237 0035 Van Der Waals' forces A. cause the high melting point of most salts B. hold together the atoms in a diamond crystal. C. are responsible for the liquifaction of covalent compounds. D. disappear when gases are liquified. 9 E. promote the supercooling of liquids. 1924225 B 15 18755 32 043802860160 0035 When a liquid is heated in an open vessel, its temperature rises until A. it is completely vaporized. B. its vapor pressure equals atmospheric pressure. C. the latent heat is all absorbed. D. the kindling temperature is reached. 9 E. the air is saturated with vapor. 1924226 B 14 18759 32 011408100171 0038 When atmospheric pressure in the laboratory is 752 torr, distilled water in an open vessel will boil: A. at 100 degrees C B. at less than 100 degrees C C. at more than 100 degrees C 9 D. when its vapor pressure reaches 760 mm. 1924227 A 14 18763 52 195401770498 0061 When liquid air evaporates, the order of increasing boiling point 3 __________ (order of evaporation) for O , N , and Ar is: 4 2 2 A. N , Ar, O B. Ar, N , O C. O , N , Ar D. Ar, O , N 94 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 1924228 D 14 18768 72 1890 The force opposing the motion of a spherical particle of radius r moving at a speed of v through a viscous medium with a coefficient f viscosity (eta) is approximately f=6 (pi)(eta)rv. This is called A. Graham's Law of Effusion. B. Fick's First Law of Diffusion. C. The barometric formula. D. Stokes' Law. 9 E. Boyle's Law. 1924229 A 14 18773 31 00080186 2 OS At about 4 degrees centigrade, water has its maximum A. density B. vapor pressure C. specific heat 9 D. volume 1926001 B 15 18775 31 05070169800111 ETS2 OS The expansion of a solid on heating is due to A. an increase in the size of the particles of the solid B. an increase in the agitation of the particles of the solid C. the addition of caloric to the solid D. application of the kinetic-molecular theory 9 E. none of the above 1926002 D 15 18779 31 01900128800111 ETS2 OS A hydrate A. is a moist compound B. is a liquified element C. is usually an organic compound D. loses mass if heated sufficiently 9 E. is produced when an hydroxide and an acid react 1926003 B 14 18782 31 04810416800114 ETS2 OS The center of gravity of any mass seeks the lowest point. The potential energy of any system tends toward a minimum. These statements are A. equivalent B. closely related, but not equivalent C. both correct, but unrelated 9 D. mutually contradictory 1926004 D 15 18786 31 8001 13 ETS2WVW The diagram represents a rectangular annealed brass plate in which there is cut a rectangular hole, of dimensions (at 0 degrees C.) as indicated. If now the temperature of the plate is raised to 150 degrees C, I---------------------------------------I I I I I I I I I-------------------I I I I b I I I I a I I I I-------------------I I I I I I I I i---------------------------------------i A. a will increase, while b decreases. B. Both a and b will decrease. C. b will increase while a decreases D. both a and b will increase. E. The new dimensions of the hole will depend upon the original outside dimensions of the plate itself. 93 _____ ______ 1926005 C 15 18802 51 05880244800111 ETS2 OS Concerning matter in the crystalline state A. a high electrical conductivity is evidence of an electrovalent compound B. the density is always higher than that of the same substance in the liquid state C. low melting point is usually characteristic of molecular crystal D. all elements fall in the category of atomic crystals with covalent bindings 9 E. the vapor pressure is equal to 760 torr. At the melting point 1926006 C 15 18809 51 01140407800111 ETS2 OS Changes in pressure have only a slight effect on reactions between solids. The best explanation of this is that A. molecules of solids move very slowly B. solids are not appreciably reactive C. solids are not appreciably compressible D. in solids molecular freedom is limited 9 E. none of the above is a satisfactory explanation 1926007 E 15 18814 72 071507168003 2WVW Zinc metal crystallizes with a unit cell very close to a hexagonal close packed array of hard spheres. Predict the density in g/cc if the distance between the centers of the neighboring zinc atoms is 0.266 nanometers. (At. Wt Zn=65.4; number of zinc atoms effectively located inside the hexagonal close packed unit cell=6; volume of hexagonal close 5 3 packed unit cell containing atoms of radius r equals 34.0 (r ) 9 A. 1.0 B. 1.6 C. 4.2 D. 5.0 E. 8.2 1926008 B 15 18823 72 071907188003 2WVW A variety of stoichiometric compounds, known as interstitial 3 ____________ compounds, can be produced by atoms of nonmetals such as hydrogen, 3_________ boron, carbon, and nitrogen occupying some or all of the vacant holes in the close packed structures of certain metals. Zirconium metal (Zr, Z=40) forms interstitial compounds, particularly with nitrogen. If zirconium metal adopts a face-centered cubic close packed structure, what is the simplest stoichiometric formula of the interstitial compound formed with nitrogen, if the nitrogen atoms two thirds of the available tetrahedral holes? A. ZrN B. Zr N C. ZrN D. Zr N E. Zr N 94 3 4 2 3 2 4 3 1926009 E 15 18833 51 1 071607289020 95 2WVW The crystal structure of fluorite, CaF , is shown in the Figure 20. 4 2 if sodium monoxide, Na O, adopts an antifluorite structure, which 4 2 3 ____________ of the following sets of coordination numbers for the Na(+1) and O(-2) ions in sodium monoxide is correct? 3 _______ Na(+1) O(-2) 3 ______ _____ A. 3 6 B. 4 4 C. 8 4 D. 6 6 9 E. 4 8 1926010 C 15 18841 52 071607178003 2WVW Strontium metal exists in three different crystalline forms known as alpha, beta, and gamma strontium. The alpha form, which exists at 25 deg. C., has a face centered cubic unit cell with an edge of 4.2 Angstrom. What is the density of alpha-strontium? (At.Wt. Sr=88) 5 -3 A. 0.42 g cm 5 -3 B. 2.0 g cm 5 -3 C. 8.0 g cm 5 -3 D. 28 g cm 5 -3 9 E. 88 g cm 1926011 D 15 18847 51 8003 2WVW In the band theory for solids, a large band gap implies the material is A. a conductor B. an intrinsic semiconductor C. an impurity semiconductor D. an insulator 9 E. both answers B and C 1926012 E 15 18850 51 8003 2WVW A one-fold rotation axis means that we should rotate ______ degrees to obtain a view similar to the original view. A. 60 B. 90 C. 120 D. 180 9 E. 360 1926013 D 15 18853 51 8003 2WVW A two-fold rotation axis means that we should rotate ______ degrees to obtain a view similar to the original view. 9 A. 60 B. 90 C. 120 D. 180 E. 360 1926014 C 15 18856 51 8003 2WVW A three-fold rotation axis means that we should rotate _____ degrees to obtain a view similar to the original view. A. 60 B. 90 C. 120 D. 180 9 E. 630 1926015 B 15 18859 51 8003 2WVW A four-fold rotation axis means that we should rotate ______ degrees to obtain a view similar to the original view. A. 60 B. 90 C. 120 D. 180 9 E. 360 1926016 A 15 18862 51 8003 2WVW A six-fold rotation axis means that we should rotate ______ degrees to obtain a view similar to the original view. A. 60 B. 90 C. 120 D. 180 9 E. 360 1926017 E 15 18865 51 8003 2WVW A center of symmetry means that if we rotate _____ degrees and reflect through the mirror plane perpendicular to the rotation we obtain a view similar to the original view. A. 30 B. 45 C. 60 D. 90 9 E. 180 1926018 D 15 18868 51 8003 2WVW A four-fold inversion axis means that if we rotate _____ degrees and reflect through the mirror plane perpendicular to the rotation axis, we obtain a view similar to the original view. A. 30 B. 45 C. 60 D. 90 9 E. 120 1926019 E 15 18872 51 8003 2WVW A three-fold inversion axis means that if we rotate ______ degrees and reflect through the mirror plane perpendicular to the rotation axis, we obtain a view similar to the original view. A. 30 B. 45 C. 60 D. 90 9 E. 120 1926020 C 15 18876 51 8003 2WVW A six-fold inversion axis means that if we rotate ______ degrees and reflect through the mirror plane perpendicular to the rotation axis, we obtain a view similar to the original view. A. 30 B. 45 C. 60 D. 90 9 E. 120 1926021 B 15 18880 51 8003 2WVW Electron diffraction experiments can provide all necessary information regarding the symmetry, bond ______, and bond ______ of a molecule. A. Orders - lengths B. lengths - angles C. strengths - angles D. distances - strengths 9 E. displacements - geometry 1926022 C 14 18884 31 050405888002 2 OS The state of matter characterized by both a definite shape and a definite volume is A. fluid B. liquid C. solid 9 D. gas 1926024 D 14 18886 31 15931932 05 Isomorphism is defined as a condition in which A. one compound has two different amorphous structures B. one compound has two different crystalline structures C. two different compounds have the same amorphous structure D. two different compounds have the same crystalline 9 structure 1926025 B 14 18891 31 15931933 05 Polymorphism is defined as a condition in which A. one compound has more than one amorphous structure B. one compound has more than one crystalline structure C. two different compounds have the same amorphous structure D. two different compounds have the same crystalline 9 structure 1926026 B 14 18896 51 0715 0524 The unit cell is defined as the smallest portion of a crystal which A. contains one formula unit of the compound B. is repeated throughout the crystal C. shows the coordination number of one ion 9 D. contains a complete molecule 1926027 B 14 44521 51 0715 0524 The unit cell is defined as that portion of a crystal lattice which A. contains one formula unit of the compound B. is the smallest repetitive unit with the full symmetry of the lattice C. shows the maximum coordination number for every ion D. contains at least one of every kind of atom in the formula unit 5 3 9 E. one cm of the substance 1926028 C 14 18905 52 1949 0060 Orthorhombic S and monoclinic S are: 9 A. isomeric B. homologous C. allotropic D. allelomorphic 1926029 C 14 18907 52 0172 Heat is supplied at a constant rate to a solid sample initially at 0 degrees C. The temperature of the system after ten minutes is 25 deg C. After 12 minutes the temperature is 30 deg C and ceases to rise with further heat input. After fifteen minutes, the temperature begins to rise again and reaches 55 at twenty minutes. What is the melting point of the initial solid? ( in deg C) 9 A. 0 B. 25 C. 30 D. 55 1926030 C 15 18913 52 044511530286 A block of ice requires 33,356 J of heat to melt it at its melting point. What is the weight of the ice? (/\H for water = 333.2 J/g) 4 -- f 9 A. 10 g B. 18 g C. 100 g D. 148 g E. 36 g 1926031 D 14 18916 52 04451151 A piece of ice required 159.6 calories of heat to melt it at its melting point. How much does the ice weigh? 9 A. 18 g B. 15.9 g C. 5.0 g D. 2.0 g 1926201 D 14 18919 31 017201691698 0041 The lowest melting points are usually found in solids held together by A. covalent bonds C. metallic bonds E. polar bonds 9 C. ionic bonds D. Van Der Waals bonds 1926202 C 14 18922 31 085205890067 0041 Graphite and diamond are different in physical properties because A. they are composed of different elements B. diamond is pure carbon while graphite contains traces of other substances C. their crystal structures are different 9 D. their atomic weights are different 1926203 A 14 18926 52 01691178 0043 The following solid consists of ions: A. CaB O B. BI C. B H D. BF 94 2 4 3 2 6 3 1926204 C 15 18928 52 016914180172 0044 Solids can be divided into four categories: molecular, such as SO (solid), H O (ice, iodine, CCl (solid); 4 2 2 4 network, or covalent; such as diamond (carbon), silicon, silicon carbide; metallic, such as copper, iron, sodium; ionic, such as table salt (NaCl), potassium iodide(KI), calcium carbonate(CaCO ). 4 3 Which of the following statements about the properties, structures, etc., of these different categories of solids is incorrect? 3_________ A. The bonding between atoms in a metal is ascribed to the sharing of an electron 'sea" by a positive ion lattice. B. The bonding between carbon atoms in diamond is similar to that between carbon atoms in the ethane molecule. C. Silicon carbide, like most covalent solids, has a low melting point. D. Molecular crystals are usually soft whereas metals range from soft to hard. E. Solid benzene, like most molecular solids, has a low melting 9 point. 1926205 B 15 18942 31 078701690170 0020 The process in which a solid goes directly to a gas is called A. effusion B. sublimation C. fusion D. melting 9 E. condensation 1926206 A 15 18944 31 115100080439 0020 The heat of fusion for water is A. 80 cal/g B. 540 cal/g C. the same as the heat of vaporization D. the same as the heat of liquefaction 9 E. none of these 1926207 A 15 18947 51 023701690355 0020 Covalent solids A. are very hard B. are very soft C. are good conductors of electricity D. have molecules as structural units 9 E. have very low melting points 1926208 E 15 18950 32 000502441159 0020 Which of the following forms an ionic crystal? 9 A. Fe B. SiO C. N D. CO E. AgBr 1926209 B 15 18952 32 006202441160 0020 Metallic crystals conduct an electric current because of A. the covalent bonding B. the sea of electrons C. the high boiling points D. the ionic attraction between atoms 9 E. tne movement of ions 1926210 E 15 18955 52 001602071415 0019 The specific heat of aluminum (atomic mass = 27.0) is expected by the law of Dulong and Petit to be about A. 27.0 cal/gram deg B. 0.29 cal/gram deg C. 3.1 cal/gram deg D. 6.4 cal/gram deg 9 E. none of the above is correct 1926211 C 14 18959 31 055501701417 0019 A wet towel hung out at -5 degrees C freezes solid but then becomes soft and dry. This is an example of 9 A. fusion B. liquefaction C. sublimation D. disintegration 1926212 E 15 18962 31 159301860172 0040 Which of the following is not a physical property of matter 3 ______ A. melting point B. density C. color D. odor 9 E. all are physical properties 1926213 B 14 18965 51 161104980114 0009 A chemistry handbook normally gives the pressure at which the boiling point of a pure substance is measured but generally does not indicate the pressure for the melting point. Why? A. both melting point and boiling point are always measured at the same pressure B. the melting point is usually nearly independent of pressure C. solids are more often impure and therefore have variable melting points 9 D. all melting points are measured at one atmosphere 1926214 A 14 18972 31 0169 0003 One would expect a low molar heat of fusion for: A. a molecular solid B. a covalent solid 9 C. an ionic solid D. a metallic solid 1926215 B 14 18974 51 1701 05 A substance which melts over a wide temperature range is A. Crystalline C. cubic closest-packed 9 B. amorphous D. hexagonal closest-packed 1926216 A 14 18977 51 17010336 05 Window glass is an example of which kind of solid? A. amorphous C. hexagonal closest-packed 9 B. crystalline D. face-centered cubic closest-packed 1926217 B 14 18980 52 19441952 0055 The gram atomic weight of potassium is 39.1 grams. The density of 5 -3 potassium is 0.861 g cm . the gram atomic volume of potassium is then calculated as follows: 5 -3 A. (39.1 g/g At. Wt)x 0.861 g cm 5 -3 B. (39.1 g/g At. Wt)/ 0.861 g cm 5 -3 C. (0.861 g cm )/(39.1 g/g At wt) 5 -3 9 D. (1/39.1 g/g At. Wt) x (1/0.861 g cm ) 1926401 B 14 18987 31 135917010169 0041 Short-range order is never present in A. crystalline solids B. amorphous solids 9 C. liquids B. gases 1926402 A 14 45643 31 170101690879 0041 An amorphous solid is closest in structure to A. a liquid C. an ionic crystal E. an insulator 9 B. a covalent crystal D. a semiconductor 1926403 D 14 18991 31 071610041698 0041 Defects in crystal structure are not involved in A. the flow of electrons in a semiconductor B. the flow of holes in a semiconductor C. the mechanical strength of a solid 9 D. the mechanism of van der waals bonding 1926404 C 14 18994 31 049502441178 0041 The individual particles in an ionic crystal are 9 A. atoms B. molecules C. ions D. electrons 1926405 A 14 18996 31 049502440351 0041 The individual particles in a covalent crystal are 9 A. atoms B. molecules C. ions D. electrons 1926406 B 14 18998 31 049500660293 0041 The individual particles in the Van Der Waals crystal of a compound are 9 A. atoms B. molecules C. ions D. electrons 1926407 C 15 19000 52 001511611798 0042 Strontium metal exists in three different crystalline forms known as alpha -, beta-, and gamma-strontium. The alpha form, which exists at 25 degrees C, has a face centered cubic unit cell with an edge of 4.2 Angstrom. What is the density of alpha-strontium? (At. Wt. Sr = 88) 5 -3 -3 -3 A. 0.42 g cm B. 2.0 g cm C. 8.0 g cm 5 -3 -3 9 D. 28 g cm E. 88 g cm 1926408 C 15 19006 52 024414540767 0042 A crystal of anhydrous KNO is composed of: 4 3 A. molecules of KNO , 4 3 B. atoms of potassium, nitrogen and 3 atoms of oxygen alternately spaced in the crystal C. a geometrical pattern of potassium ions and nitrate ions in the crystal D. potassium nitrate molecules alternately spaced with water molecules E. molecules of KNO and water combined into larger molecules. 94 3 1926409 C 15 19013 52 109714090224 0047 A sample of iron oxide prepared under certain laboratory conditions has the formula Fe O. This is due to some of the 4 .97 5 ++ lattice sites of Fe not being occupied. Electrical neutrality 5 ++ is conserved by an appropriate nuber of Fe ions being converted 5 3+ to Fe . Let us consider a portion of the iron oxide that contains 16 g of oxygen atoms. What would be the number of 5 2+ 3+ moles of Fe and Fe in this portion if the oxygen ions has a charge of -2. 5 2+ 3+ 2+ 3+ A. 0.5 Fe ; 0.5 Fe B. 0.97 Fe ; 0.03 Fe 5 2+ 3+ 2+ 3+ C. 0.91 Fe ; 0.06 Fe D. 1.0 Fe ; 0.0 Fe 5 2+ 3+ 9 E. 0.0 Fe ; 1.0 Fe 1926410 B 14 19025 51 03750169 0043 The activity of a pure solid is: 9 A. 0 B. 1 C. -1 D. -2. 1926411 B 15 19026 72 001515950026 0044 Cu metal crystallizes in a face centered cubic unit cell with the length of an edge equal to 3.62 Angstroms. Assuming the atoms are identical hard spheres, calculate the atomic radius of the metal. 5 .5 .5 .5 .5 A. 3.62 B. 2 x 3.62 C. 2 x 3.62 D. 3 x 3.62 E. 1.5 x 3.62 4 ---- --------- --------- --------- 94 2 4 2 2 1926412 B 15 19033 72 001515950026 0044 Cs metal crystallizes in a body centered cubic lattice with the unit cell edge length equal to 6.17 angstroms. Assuming the atoms are identical hard spheres, calculate the atomic radius of the metal. (Hint: the square roots of 2 and 3 are 1.414 and 1.732 respectively.) (1.732)(6.17) (1.732)(6.17) 6.17 (1.414)(6.17) A. ------------- B. ------------- C. ---- D. ------------- 2 4 2 4 9 E. none of the above. 1926413 C 15 19040 71 159507150026 0044 Most metals crystallize in the body centered cubic (bcc), the face centered cubic (fcc), or the hexagonal closest packed (hcp) lattice. Select the one right statement below; where 3 _____ a = edge length of unit cell, and r = atomic radius A. in fcc there are 6 atoms per unit cell. B. In fcc, a times the square root of three = 2r. C. In bcc there are 8 nearest neighbors at a distance 2r. D. in fcc there are 10 nearest neighbors at distance 2r. 9 E. In bcc there are 6 nearest neighbors at distance 2r. 1926414 A 15 19048 72 07150186 0044 Pd metal crystallizes in a face centered cubic unit cell with the length of an edge equal to 0.387 nm. What is the density (g/cc) of Pd metal? (AW of Pd = 106.) 9 A. 12.1 B. 27.2 C. 90.9 D. 0.165 E. 6.06 1926415 B 15 19051 72 071501860351 0044 The length of a unit cell of Ag metal is 4.07 Angstroms and its density is 5.31 grams/cc. How many atoms of Ag are present in 5 -8 the unit cell? (1 Angstrom = 10 cm) 9 A. 9 B. 2 C. 4 D. 14 E. 5 1926416 E 15 19055 72 01861595 0044 TlBr crystallizes in the CsCl lattice with the length of an edge equal to 3.87 Angstroms. What is the density of TlBr? (MW of TlBr = 284.) A. 122 g/cc B. 488 g/cc C. 32.6 g/cc 9 D. .111 g/cc E. 8.16 g/cc. 1926417 A 15 19058 72 07150186 0044 NaI crystallizes into the NaCl unit cell. The density is equal to 4.14 g/cc. What is the length of an edge of the unit cell of NaI in nanometers (nm)? 5 7 9 A. 0.622 B. 0.117 C. 0.392 D. 5.25 x 10 E. 24.1 1926418 A 15 19062 51 016902931147 0020 In solids, the molecules can A. vibrate about fixed positions B. have any kind of motion C. move freely relative to other molecules D. have translational kinetic energy 9 E. none of these 1926419 CBAD 44 19065 52 07161593800290 OS MACROITEM STEM Choose the best answer in the key for each of the descriptions of a solid pure substance. KEY 3 ___ A. Covalent B. Molecular C. Ionic 0 D. Metallic MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 High melting point, brittle, soluble in water. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 Low melting point, insoluble in water. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 Insoluble in water, high melting point, and the 3 solid is a non-conductor of electricity. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 Insoluble in water, the solid is a conductor of 9 electricity and it has a high melting point. 1926420 B 15 19072 31 087901690351 0040 The lattice points in a solid A. are always occupied by molecules B. may be occupied by atoms C. cannot be occupied by atoms 9 D. are always occupied by single atoms E. are sharp. 1926421 A 15 19075 31 078101730169 0040 Which of the following types of solids is the hardest? A. atomic solids B. ionic solids C. nonpolar molecular solids D. polar molecular solids 9 E. cannot be determined from given information . 1926422 D 15 19078 31 00140716 0040 Each carbon atom in the diamond structure is located so that it has A. one nearest neighbor B. two nearest neighbors C. three nearest neighbors D. four nearest neighbors 9 E. six nearest neighbors 1926423 C 14 44582 72 001501790026 0009 A certain metal crystallizes in a face-centered cubic unit cell. On the assumption that atoms are spherical, the relationship between the atomic radius (r) of the metal and the length (a) of one edge of the unit cell is: 5 1/2 A. 2r = a C. 4r = (2) x a E. r = a 5 1/2 1/2 9 B. 2r = (2) x a D. 4r = (3) x a 1926424 C 14 19086 51 130115721595 0009 The number of closest neighbors in a body-centered cubic lattice is 9 A. 4 B. 6 C. 8 D. 12 1926425 D 15 19088 31 141801690173 0035 Molecular solids are usually: A. good electrical conductors B. quite hard C. quite brittle 9 D. volatile E. heavy 1926426 A 15 19090 31 024403170351 0035 In a molecular crystal the forces holding together the atoms within a given molecule are: A. covalent C. metallic bonds E. London forces 9 B. ionic bonds D. Van Der Waals' forces 1926427 D 14 19093 31 000501690793 0035 Ionic solids tend to be A. good electrical conductors C. volatile E. malleable 9 B. soft D. brittle 1926428 E 15 19095 31 000500660237 0035 One way that ionic compounds differ from covalent compounds is that ionic compounds A. usually form well-defined crystals, covalent usually do not. B. are all soluble in water, covalent are all insoluble. C. never contain carbon, covalent always contain carbon. D. are generally more volatile than covalent compounds. 9 E. none of these. 1926429 B 14 19100 32 1894 05 Hexagonal closest packing in a crystal is found when the particles of the substance are A. six-sided C. nonequivalent spheres 9 B. equivalent spheres D. molecules composed of six atoms 1926430 A 14 19103 32 1892 05 Cubic closest packing in a crystal is found when the particles of the substance are A. equivalent spheres C. molecules composed of eight atoms 9 B. nonequivalent spheres D. eight-sided 1926431 C 14 19106 32 18921894 05 The basic difference between hexagonal closest packing and cubic closest packing is that A. the atoms are more closely packed in one of these structures than in the other B. the coordination number of nearest neighbors is different C. the repetition of the layers is ordered differently D. the atoms are arranged in six-sided layers in the 9 former and in squares in the latter 1926432 B 14 19112 51 0716 05 The type of packing that is assumed by atoms (or ions) in a crystal is determined by A. the oxidation states of the atoms B. the different sizes of the atoms C. the kind of compound that is formed 9 D. physical properties of the crystal 1926433 C 14 19116 52 194801860715 0059 5 3 The density of diamond is 3.515 grams per cm . Diamond and Si possess the same structure. The unit cell edge lengths of diamond and Si are 3.567 A and 5.430 A respectively. Atomic weights are: C = 12.011 and Si = 28.086. density of Si may be calculated as follows: 5 3 (3.567) 12.011 A. 3.515 x -------- x ------; 5 3 (5.430) 28.086 5 3 (5.430) 12.011 B. 3.515 x -------- x ------; 5 3 (3.567) 28.086 5 3 (3.567) 28.086 C. 3.515 x -------- x ------; 5 3 (5.430) 12.011 3 (5.430) 28.086 D. 3.515 x -------- x ------. 5 3 9 (3.567) 12.011 1926434 C 14 19128 72 195501651893 0062 Crystal system of ice: 9 A. isometric B. tetragonal C. hexagonal D. orthorhombic 1926435 A 14 19130 72 19551957 0062 In which type of unit cell is the percentage of "empty" space the greatest? A. simple cubic B. body-centered cubic E. fluorite type 9 C. face-centered cubic D. hexagonal close packing 1926436 D 14 19133 72 19550344 0062 Which solid is relatively soft and a good electrical conductor? A. Cr B. NaCl C. P D. K 94 4 1926437 A 14 19135 72 19550852 0062 Which substance meets the requirements: hexagonal, soft, high melting point? 9 A. graphite B. quartz C. ice D. tungsten 1926438 D 15 19137 52 If a metal forms a face-centered crystalline structure with unit cell edge length of x, the atomic radius of the metal may be calculated as follows: _ __ _ _ _ A. xV2 B. V2x C. xV2 D. xV2 E. /x 3 ___ ___ ___ _ 9 4 2 4 V 2 1926439 B 14 19142 72 19550943 0062 NaCl crystallizes in a face-centered cubic crystal lattice. The crystallographic coordination number of Na in NaCl is 9 A. 1 B. 6 C. 8 D. 4 E. 12 1926440 C 15 19145 72 159507150725 0044 NaBr crystallizes into a lattice structure equivalent to that of NaCl but with a unit cell edge length equal to 5.80 Angstroms. If the ionic radius of Br is 1.95 Angstroms, what is the ionic radius of Na? A. 3.07 Angstroms B. 2.90 Angstroms C. .950 Angstroms 9 D. 1.90 Angstroms E. 3.85 Angstroms. 1926441 C 15 19150 72 159501860715 0044 Cu metal crystallizes in a face centered cubic lattice with four atoms per unit cell. The density of Cu is 8.92 g/cc. What is the length of an edge of the unit cell of Cu metal (in nanometers)? 5 8 9 A. 0.0907 B. 3.06 x 10 C. 0.362 D. 0.474 E. 0.456 1926442 B 15 19155 52 OS83 Identical spheres are arranged in three different patterns: simple cubic (SC), body centered cubic (BCC) and face centered cubic (FCC). The coordination number of each sphere (the number of nearest-neighbor spheres) is SC BCC FCC A. 8 6 12 B. 6 8 12 C. 12 8 6 D. 8 6 12 9 E. 6 12 8 1926443 B 15 45469 71 How many atoms are there in a body-centered cubic unit cell of tungsten? 9 A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 6 E. 8 1926444 D 15 45471 71 Calcium fluoride crystallizes in a face-centered cubic lattice. The fluoride ions occupy the interstitial sites in the unit cell, and the calcium ions occupy the faces and corners of the unit cell. The total number of ions in the unit cell is: 9 A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8 E. 12 1926445 B 15 45475 71 What is the simplest formula of a solid containing A, B, and C atoms in a cubic lattice in which the A atoms occupy the corners, the B atoms the body-center position, and the C atoms the faces of the unit cell? A. ABC B. ABC C. ABC D. A BC E. A BC 94 3 6 8 6 4 3 1926446 A 15 45480 71 5 o An atomic face-centered cubic crystal is 3.92 A on an edge and has 5 3 a density of 21.5 g/cm . What is its atomic weight? 9 A. 195 B. 207 C. 48.8 D. 108 E. 63.5 1926447 A 15 45484 71 Silver crystallizes in the face-centered cubic system. If the edge 5 o of the unit cell is 4.07 A, what is the radius of a silver atom in 5 o -8 angstroms (1 A = 10 cm)? 9 A. 1.44 B. 1.76 C. 2.04 D. 2.88 E. 3.52 1926448 DCBB 45 45488 71 MACROITEM STEM Answer the next four questions using the following information: Lithium chloride crystallizes in a face-centered cubic structure. 5 -8 The unit cell length is 5.14 x 10 cm. The chloride ions are touching each other along the face diagonal of the unit cell. The 0 lithium ions fit into the holes between the chloride ions. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 How many lithium ions are there in this unit cell? 1 A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 What is the mass of LiCl in a unit cell? 5 -23 -22 -22 A. 7.04 x 10 g C. 2.82 x 10 g E. 5.63 x 10 g 5 -22 -22 2 B. 1.41 x 10 g D. 4.22 x 10 g MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 What is the density of the lithium chloride? A. 1.04 g/cc C. 2.42 g/cc E. 3.78 g/cc 3 B. 2.08 g/cc D. 3.11 g/cc MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 What is the radius of the chloride ion? -8 -8 -8 A. 1.29 x 10 cm C. 2.23 x 10 cm E. 2.76 x 10 cm -8 -8 9 B. 1.82 x 10 cm D. 2.56 x 10 cm 1926449 E 15 45502 71 Which of the following as a solid has a crystal structure containing discrete (or separate) molecules? A. potassium C. quartz E. hydrogen chloride 9 B. glass D. carborundum, SiC 1930001 E 15 19161 52 01868001800211 ETS2 OS Which of the following statements would tell you most about whether a given portion of matter is a pure substance or a mixture? A. It all dissolves in the same solvent. B. Solutions of different concentrations are found to possess different properties. C. When heated unevenly, the portion which is hottest melts first. D. The matter is observed, under a microscope, to be composed of particles of different sizes. E. The large particles are found to be of greater density than 9 the small particles. 1930002 A 15 19169 72 01090187800111 ETS2 OS Nitrogen and oxygen, the principle constituents of the air, are present in a practically constant ratio of 3.2 grams of nitrogen to every one gram of oxygen. The two elements can also be made to combine chemically, forming the compound nitric oxide, which contains seven grams of nitrogen to every eight grams of oxygen. Both air and nitric oxide are colorless gases. An experimental method for showing that one is a compound and the other is a mixture, would be to A. compress and cool a sample of each gas until liquefaction took place B. examine a sample of each gas under the microscope C. weigh equal volumes of each gas D. add a sample of one gas to a sample of the other, and let them stand overnight E. let them both stand undisturbed for a long period of time, and then to carefully remove samples from both the top and 9 bottom of the containers for examination 1930003 CAEBA 55 19181 52 0189006680011190 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2For the following items, choose the best answer from the key 2below. 2 A. Element 2 B. Compound 2 C. Mixture 2 D. Solution 0 E. Two of the above MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 Granite MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 A noble metal MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 3 Air MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 4 Silica MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 9 Graphite 1930004 A 15 19184 31 01920193800112 ETS2 OS A substance may be considered to be homogeneous when A. every particle is like every other particle B. it is composed of particles whose properties may be quite different C. its density is 1 g/cc D. it is composed of two different elements 9 E. its density approaches that of water 1930005 C 15 19189 31 01940168800111 ETS2 OS All alloys can be termed A. isotopes B. elements C. mixtures D. compounds 9 E. polymers 1930006 CDABCAB 74 19191 52 0087017880011290 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2Suppose that four samples of different materials in powdered form 2are subjected to the following treatments 2A. When heated, sample A melted at a relatively low temperature. 3 ______ 2When sample A was dissolved in water, no reaction took place with 3 ________ 2the water, and the solution thus obtained would not conduct an 2electric current. 2B. When an attempt was made to dissolve sample B in carbon 3 ________ 2disulfide, a solvent, a black residue remained undissolved. When 2the carbon disulfide was poured off from the black residue and 2allowed to evaporate, a yellow residue remained. 2C. When sample C was heated it melted at a much higher temperature 3 ________ 2than sample A. when sample C was dissolved in water, no reaction 2was observed to take place, but the solution thus obtained did 2conduct an electric current. 2D. Sample D was subjected to experimentation. Evidence was obtained 3 ________ 2which showed that all of the atoms of D have the same atomic 2number, although there was some variation in mass. 2After each item number on the answer sheet, blacken the one 3 ___ 2lettered space which designates the sample material to which the 0 item correctly refers. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 When in solid form, positive and negative ions of this sample are 1 held together by electrostatic forces. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 All of the atoms in the sample are atoms of the same element. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 3 This sample evidently consists of a non-ionic or covalent compound. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 4 This sample is evidently a mixture. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 5 This sample is evidently an ionic or electrovalent compound. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 6 The molecules of this compound evidently have little attraction 6 for each other. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 7 9 The constituents of this sample are chemically uncombined. 1930007 EDAD 45 19214 51 0438018680011190 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2The following questions involve properties of certain substances. 2Select from the key the substance which has the property indicated 2by each item. 2 A. Carbon dioxide 2 B. Water 2 C. Oil 2 D. Mercury 0 A. Ethyl alcohol MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 A liquid which is miscible with water MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 The listed substance having the greatest density MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 3 The substance having the lowest boiling point MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 A substance capable of floating an alloy whose specific gravity 9 Is 10 1930008 D 15 19220 31 01090025800111 ETS2 OS Under normal conditions air and oxygen differ in A. state B. color C. odor D. density 9 E. taste 1930009 D 14 19222 31 019202868004 2WVW A pure substance Z can be separated into pure substances X and Y only by heating. Which of the following is true? A. X and Y must be elements; Z must have been an element. B. X and Y must be compounds; Z must have been a compoiund. C. X and Y must be elements; Z must have been a mixture. D. X and Y could be either elements or compounds, Z must have 9 been a compound. 1930010 BCCDBABCC94 19228 31 0168018980011290 ETS2WVW MACROITEM STEM 2After each item number on the answer sheet, blacken space 2 A. if the item is true only of mixtures 2 B. if the item is true only of elements 2 C. if the item is true only of compounds 0 D. if the item is true of both elements and compounds MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 Consists of a single variety of atoms. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 Always have a definite and constant composition. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 Its formation from simpler materials is always accompanied 3 by a loss or gain of energy. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 Are identified by specific physical and chemical 4 properties. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 5 A planned arrangement results in the periodic classification. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 6 6 Properties of the components are retained in the material. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 7 7 Can be approximately classified as metals or non-metals. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 8 8 Can be approximately classified as covalent or ionic. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 9 9 Have a definite composition of unlike atoms. 1930011 ABCABBADC94 19238 31 0189006680011290 ETS2WVW MACROITEM STEM 2After each item on the answer sheet, blacken space 2 A. if the item is true only of elements 2 B. if the item is true only of compounds 2 C. if the item is true only of mixtures 0 D. if the item is true of both elements and compounds MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 Consists of the same atomic species MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 Have properties entirely different from those of the constituents MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 Have properties, dependent on the ratios of the substances 3 present MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 Are listed according to increasing atomic numbers on the 4 periodic chart MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 Energy is gained or lost when formed from simpler 5 materials MACRO SUB-ITEM # 6 6 Usually classified as covalent or electrovalent MACRO SUB-ITEM # 7 7 Usually classified as metals, non-metals or inert gases MACRO SUB-ITEM # 8 8 Are homogeneous, that is, the same throughout MACRO SUB-ITEM # 9 9 Physical means 1930012 A 15 19248 31 04570458800111 ETS2 OS An alum A. has the general formula M (SO ) 4 2 4 3 B. does not necessarily contain aluminum C. is an anhydrous salt D. gives off CO when heated with cream of tartar 4 2 E. one variety, commonly called alundum, is commonly used 9 as an abrasive 1930013 D 15 19253 52 06900414800111 ETS2 OS Select the true statement or statements. A. Bituminous coal contains fixed nitrogen. B. Anthracite coal is over 90% carbon C. When melted, coke becomes coal tar. The correct selection includes only A. A B. B C. C D. A and B 9 E. B and C 1930014 B 14 19257 31 80038004 2WVW A chemical property of a substance is its A. color B. combustibility C. density 9 D. state 1930015 CBE 35 19259 31 080106838004 90 2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2For each of the numbered items which follow, choose the option 2which best matches. 2 A. Exothermic 2 B. Endothermic 2 C. Element 2 D. Catalyst 0 E. Molecule MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 A substance which can't be decomposed by ordinary chemical means. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 Pertaining to a reaction which occurs with the absorption of heat. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 The smallest portion of a substance that can have a stable, 9 independent existence. 1930016 CAEB 45 19265 31 058800668004 90 2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2For each of the numbered items which follow, choose the option 2which best matches 2 A. matter 2 B. compound 2 C. density 2 D. element 0 E. atom MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 The weight of a material per unit volume MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 Anything which occupies space and has weight MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 The smallest part of an element that can enter into combination 3 with other elements MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 A substance which can be decomposed into two or more simpler 9 substances by ordinary chemical means 1930017 CAEB 45 19271 31 078704388004 90 2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2For each of the numbered items which follow, choose the option 2which best matches. 2 A. Precipitate 2 B. Reducing agent 2 C. Filtration 2 D. Distillation 0 E. Specific gravity MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 The process of removing suspended material from a liquid by allowing the liquid to pass through a material such as paper or 1 layers of sand MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 An insoluble product formed by chemical action between the 2 solutions of two soluble substances MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 The ratio of the density of a substance to the density of a 3 standard of reference such as water MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 9 A substance which supplies electrons during a chemical reaction 1930018 D 14 19279 31 010901688004 2 OS A reason that air is a mixture is that A. it becomes warm as it is compressed B. it can be liquified C. it supports combustion 9 D. its compositon varies 1930019 D 14 19282 31 04110154 0026 The chemist attemps to purify matter because A. only by purifying matter can he precisely characterize the components of nature B. the behavior of matter in chemical changes would be unpredictable unless pure matter is involved C. he fundamentally opposes bacteria 9 D. two of the above answers. 1930020 C 14 19287 31 01720192 0026 Which one of the following properties may be used to specifically identify a given substance? 9 A. temperature B. mass C. melting point D. volume. 1930021 E 15 19290 31 079800870193 0020 Air, water, pure carbon, and a solution of sugar in water are similar in that they are all A. heterogeneous B. compounds C. in the same state of matter D. mixtures 9 E. homogeneous 1930022 B 15 19293 31 058800870066 0040 In which of the following sequences are the classifications of matter listed in order of decreasing complexity? A. homogeneous, element, solution B. homogeneous, solution, compound C. pure substance, compound, solution D. solution, element, compound 9 E. solution, homogeneous, compound 1930023 D 15 19297 31 008702040588 0040 Which of the following classifications of matter may be associated with a variable composition? A. pure substance B. homogeneous matter C. solution D. both B and C 9 E. both A and B 1930024 A 15 19300 31 130701650018 0040 Which of the following is an example of heterogeneous matter? A. water containing crushed ice B. a sample of pure table salt C. a sample of salt water D. a pure sample of iron 9 E. an ice cube. 1930025 E 15 19303 31 093700660588 0040 Which of the following classifications of matter could not possibly contain heteroatomic molecules? A. pure substance B. homogeneous matter C. compound D. solution 9 E. no correct response is given. 1930026 D 14 19306 31 144510970192 0041 Of the following characteristics of a sample of a substance, the one that is not a physical property is its 9 A. color B. density C. hardness D. temperature 1930027 B 15 44757 31 Choose the option in the key below which best matches the statement following the key: A. exothermic C. element E. molecule 9 B. endothermic D. catalyst 1932001 C 15 19309 32 00180152800111 ETS2 OS For which one of the following reasons may we consider the dissolving of salt in water to be a physical change? A. The salt becomes invisible. B. The water combines with the salt. C. The residue from evaporation of the solution is unaltered. D. The residue from evaporation of the solution is not salt. E. None of the above; this is actually a chemical change, and 9 the above are not applicable. 1932002 D 15 19315 52 00110153800112 ETS2 OS A certain material on extraction with water left a solid residue. The water extract on evaporation also formed a solid residue. These facts definitely show that the original material was A. an electrolyte B. an element C. a compound D. a mixture 9 E. a salt 1932003 A 15 19319 32 00080173800111 ETS2 OS The hardness of water cannot be removed by which of the following? 3 ______ A. boiling B. addition of Na CO to precipitate CaCO 4 2 3 3 C. distillation D. addition of MgCl 4 2 9 E. use of ion-exchange minerals or resins 1932004 C 15 19324 31 01770025800111 ETS2 OS The fractional distillation of liquid air is used commercially to obtain A. dry ice B. ammonia C. oxygen D. carbon dioxide 9 E. hydrogen 1932005 A 15 19327 32 00188001800211 ETS2 OS A chalk and salt mixture could be separated into its component substances by A. adding water, stirring and filtering B. adding water and boiling C. adding water, and distilling D. adding water, boiling, and cooling 9 E. subliming the salt out of the mixture 1932006 C 14 19331 31 018900668004 2WVW Elements and compounds found in the same area but not chemically combined form A. an amino acid B. a compound C. a mixture 9 D. a molecule 1932007 B 14 19334 31 032108228004 2WVW The atmosphere surrounding the earth is an example of A. a compound B. a mixture C. a molecule 9 D. an element 1932008 B 14 19336 31 008700188004 2WVW A saturated solution of salt is an illustration of A. the law of definite composition B. a mixture C. a compound 9 D. a nonhomogeneous solution 1932009 A 14 19339 31 019201688004 2WVW A substance was separated from a mixture. It was flammable, did not dissolve sugar, had a boiling point of 81 deg. C., had a density of less than 1, and had a definite odor. This substance was probably which of the following? A. alcohol B. sodium chloride C. water 9 D. ammonia and water 1932010 C 14 19343 32 016904388004 2 OS Depending upon the situation, there are many ways of separating insoluble solids from liquids. Which of the following is not one of these ways A. pour the liquid off the top of the solid B. skim the solid off the top of the liquid C. use fractional crystallization 9 D. filter the substance 1932011 B 15 19347 31 016801570504 0028 Which one of the following is not an example of the formation of 3 ___ a mixture? A. mixing of hydrogen and oxygen B. igniting of hydrogen and oxygen to form water C. dissolving of sodium chloride in water D. dissolving of sugar in water 9 E. dissolving ethyl alcohol in water 1932012 D 15 19351 31 117001930192 0020 Sea water A. is a homogeneous mixture B. is a solution C. contains many dissolved substances D. all of these 9 E. none of these 1932013 B 15 19353 31 008701690194 0020 Solutions of solids in solids are called A. amalgams B. alloys C. heterogeneous mixtures D. brass 9 E. none of these 1932014 D 15 19355 31 016800870169 0020 Which of the following mixtures cannot be a solution? A. gases in gases B. solids in solids C. gases in liquids D. solids in liquids 9 E. solids in gases 1932015 B 15 19358 31 008707900552 0020 Which of the following solutions is a nonelectrolyte? A. salt in water B. sugar in water C. sea water D. ammonium chloride in water 9 E. none of these 1932016 E 15 19361 31 016813070193 0020 A mixture is A. always heterogeneous B. sometimes a single substance C. always a liquid D. never homogeneous 9 E. none of these 1932017 B 15 19363 32 055200870168 0020 If a sugar solution is mixed with a salt solution, the result is A. a pure substance B. a mixture C. heterogeneous D. a new compound 9 E. none of these 1932018 B 14 19366 32 039301680192 0009 One way to definitely show that gasoline is a mixture of substance would be to A. measure its density B. measure the temperature during boiling 9 C. burn it D. filter it 1932019 B 14 19369 52 027401680714 0009 The chemical analysis of a mixture of gases is most likely to involve A. density measurements B. mass spectroscopy 9 C. boiling point measurements D. fractional crystallization 1932020 D 14 19372 31 078705880164 0009 Which one of the following processes does not remove suspended matter from water? A. sedimentation B. coagulation 9 C. filtration D. chlorination 1932021 C 15 19375 31 019305880087 0040 Which of the following is an example of homogeneous matter? A. concrete B. muddy water C. salt water D. wood 9 E. water containing crushed ice. 1932022 B 14 19378 52 152801681565 0009 To separate a mixture of monosaccharides, you would probably use a(n): A. centrifuge B. column chromatograph 9 C. mass spectrometer D. electrolytic cell 1932023 A 14 19381 32 19550087 0062 A salt solution is: A. a homogeneous mixture B. heterogeneous and consists of one phase C. a compound 9 D. a heterogeneous mixture 1934001 C 15 19383 31 01920351800111 ETS2 OS A substance composed of only one kind of atoms is A. a colloid C. an element E. a solution 9 B. a complex D. a compound 1934002 C 15 19385 32 05660195800111 ETS2 OS Ozone A. is an isotope of oxygen B. is an important constituent of the atmosphere C. has a volume two-thirds of that of the oxygen from which it was formed D. absorbs heat when it is decomposed 9 E. is used industrially in the production of high temperatures 1934003 B 14 19389 31 049501898004 2WVW The smallest particle of an element is a/an A. molecule B. atom C. compound 9 D. amino acid 1934004 B 14 19391 31 018901928004 2WVW An element may be defined as a substance, all the atoms of which have the same A. atomic weight B. atomic number C. radioactivity 9 D. number of neutrons 1934005 B 14 19394 31 80038004 2WVW Tritium is a radioactive form of A. helium B. hydrogen C. nitrogen 9 D. carbon 1934006 C 14 19396 31 018903988004 2 OS The element with the lowest atomic mass is 9 A. oxygen B. aluminum C. hydrogen D. magnesium E. boron 1934007 D 14 19398 31 081200198004 2 OS The symbol k+ represents one A. atom of krypton B. atom of potassium C. ion of krypton 9 D. ion of potassium 1934008 B 14 19400 31 019602930926 0041 Hydrogen atoms are held together to form hydrogen molecules by A. ionic binding B. covalent binding 9 C. electron spin D. polar molecules 1934009 A 14 19402 31 035101890066 0041 Atoms of two different elements A. may form no compounds together. B. Can form only one compound together C. can always form more than one compound together D. must have the same valence if they are to form a compound 9 together 1934010 C 14 19406 31 018900660014 0041 The element contained in the greatest number of compounds is 9 A. hydrogen B. oxygen C. carbon D. sulfur 1934011 A 14 19408 31 115900941503 0043 The form of sulfur which is stable at room temperature and normal atmospheric pressure is: 9 A. orthorhombic B. hexagonal C. monoclinic D. amorphous. 1934012 A 14 19411 51 00940114 0043 When liquid sulfur at one atmosphere pressure is very slowly cooled, unless supercooling occurs, the first solid to appear is: A. monoclinic sulfur B. rhombic sulfur 9 C. hexagonal sulfur D. "metallic" sulfur. 1934013 D 15 19414 31 034103510263 0040 Atoms of an elemet A. must be indentical to each other in all aspects. B. may differ in the number of electrons they contain C. may differ in the number of protons they contain D. may differ in the number of neutrons they contain 9 E. both D and B. 1934014 A 15 19418 32 071101 0064 Which of the following represent elements: O, O , O , P, P , S, S 4 2 3 4 8 A. all are chemical elements B. only O, P, and S C. only O , P, and S D. only O , O , P , and S 4 2 2 3 4 8 E. only O , P , and S 94 2 4 8 1934015 C 14 19423 32 195404150064 0061 The most abundant rare gas in earth's atmosphere is: 9 A. He B. Ne C. Ar D. Kr E. Xe 1936001 D 15 19425 32 80018002 11 ETS2 OS When water is decomposed into its elements, the volume of hydrogen produced is twice as great as the volume of oxygen. The weight of the hydrogen is A. twice as much B. half as much C. one-quarter as much D. one-eighth as much 9 E. one-sixteenth as much 1936002 A 15 19429 51 00660263800111 ETS2 OS All of these terms apply to an important class of chemical compounds except 3 ______ A. pairs of shared electrons B. formation of ionized solutions C. atoms forming rings of various sizes D. formation of homologous series 9 E. atoms forming chains 1936003 E 15 19433 31 04450087800111 ETS2 OS The following are the common names of the materials indicated A. Ca(OH) is quick lime 4 2 B. a mixture of CaCO and CaO is mortar 4 3 C. CaCO is slaked lime 4 3 D. KHCO is baking powder 4 3 E. a solution of Ca(OH) is lime water 94 2 1936004 DCDEB 55 19438 52 1 012800429009129095 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 0 The following questions refer to Figure 9. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 the molecular weight of magnesium oxide is A. 20 B. 21 C. 22 D. 42 1 E. none of the above. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 The number of protons and neutrons in ion number four is A. 9p, 9n B. 7p, 10n C. 8p, 9n D. 8p, 10n 2 E. 7p, 8n MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 The atomic weight of atom number one is A. 12 B. 13 C. 24 D. 25 3 E. 26 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 Atom number two is A. of positive valency B. ionized C. inactive D. a reducing agent 4 E. non-metallic in character MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 Ion number three in the compound has been A. oxidized and is now a negative ion B. oxidized and is now a positive ion C. reduced and is now a negative ion D. reduced and is now a positive ion 9 E. made neutral 1936006 D 15 19452 51 00080128800111 ETS2 OS Water is not used as the standard 3 ___ A. of specific gravities B. of specific heats C. in calibrating thermometer scales D. of molecular weights 9 E. of the metric system of weights 1936007 D 15 19455 31 00660189800111 ETS2 OS A compound A. is any substance that can be obtained in crystalline state B. can only be obtained by the direct combination of its constituent elements C. varies slightly in composition according to the proportion of the two elements combined together D. is made up of two or more elements combined in unchangeable proportions by weight E. is always more stable at low temperature than high 9 temperature 1936008 B 14 19461 31 018900668004 2WVW Two or more elements chemically combined form a/an A. amino acid B. compound C. enzyme 9 D. atom 1936009 A 14 19463 31 018900668004 2WVW When active elements combine to form compounds, the compounds A. are very stable B. are very unstable C. form with great difficulty 9 D. reverse themselves 1936010 B 14 19466 31 006302618004 2WVW Which choice is a compound? A. carbon B. carbon dioxide C. hydrogen 9 D. nitrogen 1936011 D 14 44485 31 006603510945 0041 In general, in a covalent compound, A. electrons are transferred from one atom to another B. only atoms with the same atomic number are present C. there must be at least one carbon atom D. adjacent atoms share electron pairs 9 E. electronegativity differences are quite large 1936012 C 14 19471 31 040802441178 0041 Sodium chloride crystals consist of NaCl molecules B. Na and Cl atoms 5 + - - + 9 C. Na and Cl ions D. Na and Cl ions 1936013 B 14 19474 31 006609430020 0041 Every simple chemical compound A. is either an acid or base B. contains the same number of positive and negative valences C. is a member of the periodic table 9 D. contains at least one hydrogen atom 1936014 B 15 19477 31 003701930192 0018 Homogeneous substances composed of two or more simpler substances whose proportions are fixed and invariable by weight are called A. elements B. compounds C. mixtures 9 D. metals E. none of these 1936015 C 15 19480 31 00870504 0028 Ammonia water would be classified according to which one of the following states of matter: A. solid in a gas B. gas in a solid C. gas in a liquid 9 D. liquid in a gas E. liquid in a liquid. 1936016 B 15 19483 31 018901680037 0026 Pure water is A. an element C. a mixture E. always heterogeneous 9 B. a compound D. a solution 1936017 D 15 19485 31 006601920943 0020 A compound is A. a pure substance that may be broken down into simpler substances by physical means B. a substance that cannot be broken down into simpler substances by chemical means C. a heterogeneous substance D. a pure substance that can be broken down into simpler substances by chemical means 9 E. the smallest part of a molecule 1936018 D 15 19490 31 003701920943 0019 A compound represents A. a heterogeneous substance B. a pure substance that may be broken down into simpler substances by physical means C. a substance that cannot be broken down into simpler substances by chemical means D. a pure substance that can be broken down into simpler substances by chemical means E. a homogeneous substance which is the smallest particle of an 9 element 1936019 C 15 19496 31 006601890135 0040 A pure substance a is found to change upon heating into two new pure substances b and C. from this we may conclude that A. A and B are both elements. B. B and C are both compounds. C. A is a compound, B and C may or may not be elements. D. A is an element, B and C are compounds. 9 E. A is a diatomic element 1936020 B 15 19501 31 018909360937 0040 Molecules of compounds have one characteristic that is different from molecules of elements. This characteristic is that A. only compound molecules are homoatomic. B. only compound molecules are heteroatomic. C. only compound molecules may be heteroatomic or homoatomic. D. compound molecules are always heavier than element molecules 9 E. element molecules are always heavier than compound molecules 1936021 D 15 19507 31 019205880066 0040 Which of the following statements relating to the various subclassifications of matter is incorrect? 3 ________ A. All elements are pure substances. B. All compounds are pure substances. C. All compounds have heteroatomic molecules. D. All pure substances are compounds. 9 E. All elements are homonyclear 1936022 E 15 19512 31 132600660075 0040 Which of the following is not a binary compound? 3 ______ A. sodium hydride B. lead dioxide C. phosphorus pentachloride D. calcium iodide 9 E. sodium cyanide 1936023 C 14 19515 31 031702930462 0009 The forces most suited to account for the fact that atoms often combine to form molecules are 9 A. nuclear B. magnetic C. electrical D. polar 1938001 C 14 19517 31 005607978004 2 OS The common name for sulfuric acid is A. muriatic acid B. nitrose acid C. oil of vitriol 9 D. oil of sulfur 1938002 D 14 19519 31 001801898004 2 OS Common table salt contains the elements A. hydrogen and oxygen B. carbon and oxygen C. aluminum and chloride 9 D. sodium and chloride 1938003 A 14 19521 31 020980028004 2 OS Muriatic acid is the name for the technical grade of A. hydrochloric acid B. hydrofluoric acid C. hydrobromic acid 9 D. hydriodic acid 1950001 B 15 19523 32 01540155800111 ETS2 OS Which of the following alterations of a substance would indicate that this substance had undergone a chemical rather than a physical change? A. a change in density B. change in odor or taste C. change in volume D. change in viscosity 9 E. all of these indicate that the change was chemical 1950002 E 15 19528 32 01578001800212 ETS2 OS Which one of these represents a physical change rather than a chemical one? A. bleaching clothes B. destructive distillation C. roasting meat D. synthesis of nitrates 9 E. none of the above 1950003 C 15 19531 31 01650166800112 ETS2 OS Consider the following changes (a) the grinding of wheat to flour; (b) the drying of clothes; (c) the drying of paint; (d) the making of "burnt" toast; (e) the melting of ice. How many of these are strictly physical changes? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 9 E. 5 1950004 C 15 19535 31 01690113800111 ETS2 OS When a solid is changed to a gas or back again without melting, the process is called A. osmosis B. electrolysis C. sublimation D. boiling 9 E. dissociation 1950005 B 15 19538 31 00080171800111 ETS2 OS Chemically pure water may be made by A. electrolysis B. distillation C. filtering D. boiling 9 E. catalysis 1950006 D 15 19540 51 01548001800211 ETS2 OS A chemical change is one in which A. the substances alter their state (gas, liquid solid) B. heat is always given off C. new substances are formed the total energy of which is the same as the total energy of the reactants D. the identities of the substances are changed E. new substances are formed the total weight of which is 9 always slightly less than the total weight of the reactants 1950007 A 15 19546 31 00090094800111 ETS2 OS Which one of the following is true concerning the heating of various substances in laboratory experiments? A. Iron and sulfur combined on heating. B. Halite remained unchanged on heating. C. Steel wool decreased in weight on heating. D. Sodium bicarbonate gained weight on heating. 9 E. Heat always produces a chemical change. 1950008 E 15 19551 32 01780087800111 ETS2 OS Which one of the following is the best example of a chemical change? A. Defrosting a refrigerator B. Filtering drinking water C. Liquefying air D. Adding anti-freeze to a car radiator 9 E. Passing an electric current through a solution 1950009 D 15 19555 31 01790180800111 ETS2 OS The combining of a substance with a definite amount of water during crystallization is called A. sublimation B. saturation C. evaporation D. hydration 9 E. ionization 1950010 E 15 19558 51 01780089800111 ETS2 OS A chemical change is always produced in A. changes of state of matter B. crystallization of salts from saturated solutions C. osmosis through a semi-permeable membrane D. solution of a solute in a liquid 9 E. passing an electric current through an electrolyte 1950011 B 15 19562 31 01810171800111 ETS2 OS The process of vaporizing a liquid and condensing the vapor is known as A. precipitation B. distillation C. sublimation D. extrapolation 9 E. interpolation 1950012 CAACDBAD 84 19565 32 0162008080011190 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2For each of the practices or observations indicate from the 2following list the kind of change involved. 2 A. Oxidation-reduction 2 B. Ionization 2 C. Neutralization 0 D. Physical change MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 Use of baking soda in leavening dough MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 Deterioration of rubber tires in storage MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 3 Use of chlorine in purifying water MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 4 Using ground limestone on certain kinds of soil MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 5 Beating an egg until it becomes light and foamy MACRO SUB-ITEM # 6 6 The sour taste of vinegar MACRO SUB-ITEM # 7 7 Production of heat in a gas range MACRO SUB-ITEM # 8 9 Production of heat in an electric range 1950013 BCADDDBB 84 19572 32 0162008080011190 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2For each of the practices or observations indicate from the 2following list the kind of change involved 2 A. OxidatIon-reductIon 2 B. ionization 2 C. Neutralization 0 D. Physical change MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 The sour taste of old milk MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 Use of soda to relieve distress after over-eating MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 3 Discoloration of fruit which is left in open air MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 Death or injury resulting from snapping an electric light switch 4 While standing in a tub of water MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 5 Whipping cream with an electric beater MACRO SUB-ITEM # 6 6 Making maple sugar from sap MACRO SUB-ITEM # 7 7 Injury to skin caUsed by strong soaps and washing powders MACRO SUB-ITEM # 8 9 use of vinegar in removing hard water stains from glassware 1950014 BCEA 45 19580 52 0080016280011190 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM Many chemical and physical changes are involved in daily 2activities. 2For the following items select from the key the type of change most 2closely related to the statement. 2 A. Ionization 2 B. Neutralization 2 C. Oxidation-reduction 2 D. Physical change 0 E. None of these MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 Soil is often sweetened with lime. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 3 _________ 2 Many families burn gas. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 3 The fission of uranium led to the development of the atomic bomb. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 3 _______ During thunderstorms flashes of lightning occur. 93 _______ __ _________ _____ 1950015 E 15 19588 31 00878001800211 ETS2 OS Which of the following would yield the most reliable evidence in determining or distinguishing whether a substance had merely gone into solution, or had actually undergone a chemical change? A. a change in mass B. a change in viscosiy C. a change in miscibility D. whether or not the substances would separate upon boiling 9 E. none of the above. 1950016 E 15 19593 31 00080190800111 ETS2 OS Which of the following statements is not true? 3 ___ A. Water is a polar compound. B. Water molecules may form hydrogen bonds with other water molecules. C. Water will conduct electricity to a small extent. D. Water ionizes to form hydronium ions and hydroxide ions. E. Water combines with other compounds to form hydrates by a 9 process called hydrolysis 1950017 BBD 35 19599 32 0009009480011190 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2A mixture of iron and sulfur was heated until the reaction ceased. 2When the product was tested with a magnet it was found to be 2magnetic. A sample of pure iron sulfide was tested with the magnet 2and found to be non-magnetic. Using this information , answer the 0 following questions. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 Which of the following assumptions would explain the magnetic properties of the product? A. An excess of sulfur is present in the product. B. There was not enough sulfur in the reactants. C. There was not enough iron in the reactants. 1 D. The relative amounts of iron and sulfur are not important. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 The product obtained in the reaction was a A. compound B. mixture C. physical change D. chemical change 2 E. change of state MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 The formation of the iron sulfide is an example of a A. compound B. mixture C. physical change D. chemical change 9 E. change of state 1950018 BDCED 55 19611 31 06530286 1290 ETS2WVW MACROITEM STEM 2For the following items select from the key that portion of the 2curve in the diagram which furnishes the desired information. 2The relationships between the addition or removal of heat and the 2consequent changes in the temperature and physical state of 210 grams of water may be represented schematically as follows 2 * 2 * g 2 * 2 | * 2 100 |---------------------------**************** 2 t | *| e f | 2 e | * | | 2 m | * | | 2 p | * | | 2 | * | | 2 d | b c * | | 2 e 0 |---****************** | | 2 g | *| | | | 2 | * | | | | 2 C -10 |* | | | | 3 -------------------------------------------------- 2 a 50 850 1850 7250 2 heat (calories) ___________________________________________________________ 2 A. a b 2 B. b c 2 C. c e D. e f 0 E. f g MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 The heat of fusion MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 The heat of vaporization MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 3 The specific heat equals 1 cal./gm./deg. C. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 4 The volume change is The greatest MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 the vapor pressure and atmospheric pressure are approximately 9 equal 1950019 C 15 19633 31 05030493800111 ETS2 OS The principle of most direct significance in the operation of mechanical refrigeration is that A. evaporation is a cooling process B. it is impossible to convert heat wholly into work C. cooling results when a vapor expands against the attractive forces between the molecules D. the volume occupied by a given mass of gas is inversely proportional to the pressure applied 9 E. none of the above applies to refrigerators 1950020 A 15 19639 51 05150412800111 ETS2 OS Substances do not deliquesce unless A. the vapor pressure of their concentrated aqueous solutions is less than the pressure of the water vapor in the atmosphere B. their vapor pressure is less than the pressure of the atmosphere C. they form dilute solutions which are saturated D. they give off water of hydration E. they are present in an atmosphere the humidity of 9 which is 100 percent 1950021 C 15 19645 52 03930394800111 ETS2 OS Gasoline, a mixture of hydrocarbons, burns to carbon dioxide and water. In order to maintain a dirigible, or lighter-than-air airship, at a constant weight, the procedure used is to condense water vapor present in the exhaust gases from the engines and allow the co2 to escape. However, only about 70% of the water vapor need be condensed. Why? A. Water is denser than gasoline. B. Dirigibles filled with helium are heavier than those filled with hydrogen. C. The water contains oxygen from the atmosphere. D. Gasoline is about 70% carbon. 9 E. The gasoline is not completely burned in the engines. 1950022 A 15 19654 51 01820113800111 ETS2 OS Activated charcoal A. is used in gas masks because it absorbs gases with high critical temperatures B. catalyzes the oxidation of poison gas by air C. is used to improve the wearing qualities of tires D. is used to reduce iron ore to iron 9 E. is used in gunpowder 1950023 D 15 19658 31 04820113800111 ETS2 OS The spontaneous process whereby two gases intermingle so as to form a homogeneous mixture is known as A. cohesion B. sublimation C. condensation D. diffusion 9 E. osmosis 1950024 B 15 19661 31 04880489800111 ETS2 OS Osmosis is A. another name for dialysis B. the flow through a semipermeable membrane of solvent from dilute to concentrated solutions C. the flow, as above, from concentrated to dilute solutions D. the rise of liquids in tubes by capillary attraction 9 E. the flow of ions through the membrane of the primary cell 1950025 ABCEDE 65 19666 31 0020022480011190 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2To answer the following questions, select from the key the idea most 2closely related to that expressed by each question. 2 A. Valence 2 B. Radical 2 C. Compound formation 2 D. Formula of a compound 0 E. None of these MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 The number of electrons lent, borrowed, or shared MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 Certain atoms within a molecule are held together by 2 Sharing electrons and behave as a unit MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 3 The number of electrons lent must equal The number borrowed MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 4 A combination of two atoms of an element MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 5 The total plus valence must equal The total negative valence MACRO SUB-ITEM # 6 9 A charged atom 1950026 BDABCD 65 19674 32 0020019680011190 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2Select from the key the most closely related description. 2 A. Valence of zero 2 B. Acquires or has a positive valence 2 C. Acquires or has a negative valence 2 D. Shares electrons 0 E. Shares electrons and may form chains MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 The behavior of hydrogen in the formation of water MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 Carbon MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 3 Neon MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 4 An element which lends electrons MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 The SO radical 54 4 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 6 9 The formation of gas molecules 1950027 CBEE 45 19680 32 0020026380011190 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2Select from the key the most closely related description. 2 A. Acquires or has a positive valence 2 B. Acquires or has a negative valence 2 C. Valence of zero 2 D. Shares electrons and may form chains 0 E. Shares electrons MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 Argon MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 An element which borrows electrons MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 3 The formation of hydrogen molecules MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 9 The formation of water molecules 1950028 EBCE 45 19685 31 OS85 MACROITEM STEM The following questions involve the highest oxidation state of the 3 _______ elements. For each element select the proper highest oxidation state. 0 A. +1 B. +2 C. +3 D. +4 E. +5 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 Phosphorus MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 Calcium MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 3 Aluminum MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 9 Vanadium 1950029 E 15 19689 51 03510293800111 ETS2 OS A group of atoms within a molecule which are held together by sharing electrons and which behave as the unit during chemical reaction is termed A. a compound B. a mixture C. a salt D. an alloy 9 E. a radical 1950030 D 15 19693 31 02930351800111 ETS2 OS The formation of molecules through combination of atoms does not occur in 3 ___ A. oxygen B. hydrogen C. nitrogen D. helium 9 E. iodine 1950031 ACBDAC 64 19696 32 0014048080011490 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2The following questions contain pairs of statements which are 2either in agreement with other or not in agreement, and either 2one of the statements may be true or false. For each item select 2from the key the correct response. 2 A. Statement I and II are in agreement and both false. 2 B. Statement I and II are in agreement and both true. 2 C. Statement I and II are not in agreement; I true, II false. 0 D. Statement I and II are not in agreement; I false, II true. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 I. Carbon is always of positive valence. 1 II. Carbon always lends electrons in chemical reactions. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 I. the activity of rock folding in the lithosphere has never been observed. II. The deformation (rock folding) takes place too rapidly to be 2 observed. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 I. At absolute zero the molecules of a substance do not move with respect to each other. 3 II. No heat energy is possessed by a substance at absolute zero. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 I. If an air mass expands isothermally, its temperature will rise. 4 II. Heat must be added in the isothermal expansion of air. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 I. If a metal is oxidized its valence is lowered. 5 II. An oxidizing agent lends electrons to the metal it oxidizes. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 6 I. Any body having mass possesses inertia. II. The gravitational pull of the earth determines the mass of a 9 body. 1950032 A 14 19713 31 040703518004 2WVW Chemical reactions occur in part because every atom A. tends to complete its outer electron shell B. contains an even number of electrons C. contains an odd number of protons 9 D. requires another atom 1950033 D 14 19716 31 025805558004 2WVW Diffusion of one substance through another can usually be hastened by one or several of the following means. By which means, however, would diffusion tend to be retarded? A. Heating B. Agitation C. Rarefaction 9 D. Freezing 1950034 A 14 44992 31 029302588004 2WVW Two groups of molecules are in a fluid state. One moves through the other. The process is called A. diffusion C. respiration E. separation 9 B. mitosis D. excretion 1950035 B 15 44396 32 5 + A solution which contains K , when subjected to the Bunsen flame test produces a color which is 9 A. yellow B. violet C. crimson D. green E. orange 1950036 DABC 45 19724 31 0484025880011190 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2To answer the following questions, indicate the most closely related 2word or phrase from the key below. 2 A. Condensation 2 B. Crystallization 2 C. Diffusion 2 D. Distillation 0 E. Evaporation MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 A process in which a liquid is changed to a gas and back again MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 A change of state from a gas to a liquid MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 The formation of a definite arrangement of molecules, atoms, 3 or ions MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 The process by which a substance is equally distributed through 9 all parts of another substance 1950037 CA 25 44512 31 MACROITEM STEM For each of the practices or observations indicate from the following list the kind of change involved: A. oxidation-reduction B. ionization C. neutralization D. physical change 0 E. precipitation MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 Use of soda to relieve distress after over-eating MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 9 Discoloration of fruit which is left in open air 1950038 D 14 19731 31 80038004 2WVW When a lighted splint is placed in a tube of carbon dioxide, the splint A. glows brightly B. causes a loud pop C. remains the same 9 D. goes out 1950040 B 14 19734 31 078703518004 2 OS The process by which two or more separate kinds of atoms or molecules mix because of their atomic or molecular motion is A. adsorption B. diffusion C. occusion 9 D. absorption 1950041 A 14 19737 32 000900148004 2 OS A small sample of iron sulfide is changed to a powder and shaken with carbon disulfide. This results in A. no change B. the solution of the sulfur C. the solution of the iron 9 D. the production of hydrogen sulfide 1950042 C 14 19741 31 009403028004 2 OS Burning sulfur produces a substance whose odor is A. like that of rotten eggs B. like that of boiled cabbage C. choking 9 D. bitter 1950043 C 14 19743 31 079901258004 2 OS The tarnish on silver is silver A. oxide B. hydroxide C. sulfide 9 D. sulfate 1950044 B 14 19745 31 003200948004 2 OS A piece of copper strip inserted into the hot vapors of sulfur reacts in a manner which shows sulfur A. burns B. supports combustion C. is a reducing agent 9 D. readily solidifies 1950045 D 14 19748 31 009403518004 2 OS The type of sulfur composed of long chains of sulfur atoms is A. rhombic sulfur B. monoclinic sulfur C. lambda-sulfur 9 D. mu-sulfur 1950046 B 14 19750 31 009408008004 2 OS Slow cooling of carefully melted sulfur produces A. rhombic sulfur B. monoclinic sulfur C. plastic sulfur 9 D. lac sulfur 1950047 A 14 19752 31 001400948004 3 OS The form of sulfur prepared by evaporation from a carbon disulfide solution is A. rhombic B. monoclinic C. plastic 9 D. amorphous 1950048 B 14 19754 31 040305358004 2 OS Solid iodine produces a solution with a deep brown color when dissolved in A. water B. alcohol C. carbon tetrachloride 9 D. carbon disulfide 1950049 B 14 19757 31 018904038004 2 OS The element which may be collected as a solid on the bottom of a cooled dish is A. fluorine B. iodine C. bromine 9 D. chlorine 1950050 D 14 19759 31 024400948004 2 OS Crystalline sulfur is readily soluble in A. cold water B. hot water C. alcohol 9 D. carbon disulfide 1950051 C 14 19761 31 016100948004 2 OS The temperature at which melted sulfur becomes so thick that it hardly flows from an inverted tube is aproximately 5 o o o o 9 A. 96 C B. 115 C C. 250 C D. 445 C 1950053 C 14 19764 31 019008138004 2 OS Any hydrate may be converted to the anhydrous form by A. recrystallization B. evaporation from solution C. heating 9 D. exposing it to air 1950054 C 14 19767 31 003201098004 2 OS The black deposit formed when a piece of copper is heated in air is A. soot B. carbon C. cupric oxide 9 D. cupric hydroxide 1950055 B 14 19769 31 045804458004 2 OS As blue cupric sulfate is heated its weight A. increases B. decreases C. remains the same 9 D. increases in direct proportion to the rising temperature 1950056 C 14 19772 31 016901138004 2 OS When a solid is changed to a gas, without melting, the process is called A. diffusion B. boiling C. sublimation 9 D. osmosis 1950057 C 14 19774 31 011301618004 2 OS In order for a gas to be liquefied it must be A. above its critical temperature and above its equilibrium vapor pressure B. above its critical temperature and below its equilibrium vapor pressure C. below its critical temperature and above its equilibrium vapor pressure D. below its critical temperature and below its equilibrium 9 vapor pressure 1950058 B 14 19780 31 000804048004 2 OS A water solution of chlorine exposed to sunlight A. explodes B. liberates oxygen C. liberates hydrogen 9 D. forms a peroxide 1950059 D 14 19782 31 019604048004 2 OS A jet of hydrogen will burn in chlorine and form A. water B. ammonia C. carbon dioxide 9 D. hydrogen chloride 1950060 B 15 44654 31 000801748004 2 OS Water with temporary hardness A. will lather with soap after standing a while B. may be softened by boiling C. cannot be softened by washing soda D. regains its hardness quickly 9 E. may be softened by thawing out 1950061 D 14 19787 31 006700778004 2 OS A property of a material determined by its behavior when heated with an acid is described as A. its melting point B. its boiling point C. a physical property 9 D. a chemical property 1950062 A 14 19790 31 000802448004 2 OS The presence of water of crystallization in a compound may be detected by A. heating B. dissolving C. feeling 9 D. weighing 1950063 D 14 19792 31 019600258004 2 OS When hydrogen is mixed with oxygen at ordinary temperatures, what happens A. an explosion occurs B. a hydride is formed C. water is formed 9 D. there is NO apparent reaction 1950064 D 14 19795 31 082606688004 2 OS When a student introduced some barium chloride into the flame of his Bunsen burner, the flame became green in color. This result is best explained by the fact that A. chlorine is a green-colored gas B. chlorine is an oxidizing agent C. an atom of barium has more electrons than an atom of chlorine D. when electrons return to a lower energy level, radiant 9 energy may be emitted 1950065 D 14 45028 31 010801968004 2 OS If an electric spark were passed through a tube filled only with hydrogen A. the hydrogen would explode B. the hydrogen would condense C. water vapor would form D. no chemical reaction would occur 9 E. the hydrogen will decompose into simpler substances 1950066 B 14 19804 31 009400328004 2 OS When sulfur and copper are heated together A. copper sulfate is formed B. copper sulfide is formed C. copper sulfite is formed 9 D. no reaction occurs 1950067 A 14 19807 31 002700168004 2 OS A solution of zinc chloride should not be stored in a tank made of A. aluminum B. silver C. copper 9 D. lead 1950068 D 14 19809 32 025808328004 2 OS Which one of the following is an example of diffusion A. the flow of water in a river B. movement of traffic on a busy highway C. raindrops falling from clouds 9 D. apparent disappearance of smoke from a candle 1950069 B 15 44858 32 029305298004 2 OS Molecules of dye can move at the rate of 200 miles per hour but they may actually require weeks to diffuse an inch up a tube of water. This phenomenon can be accounted for A. because the dye molecules move upward slowly due to the pull of gravity B. because other molecules impede upward movement of the dye molecules by colliding with them and changing the direction of their motion C. because the walls of the tube retard diffusion of the dye D. because of adhesion between dye molecules 9 E. because of the hydrophobic nature of dye molecules 1950070 D 14 19819 32 019202588004 2 OS Of the following substances, the one least likely to enter a typical cell in significant amounts by the process of diffusion is A. oxygen B. glycerol C. nitrate ion 9 D. a protein 1950071 D 14 19822 31 048801128004 2 OS Osmosis occurs whenever A. there is a solution involving two substances of different molecular weights B. one substance is dissolved in another, with a membrane between two parts of the solution C. a membrane separates two regions of a fluid D. a membrane permeable to solvent but not to solute separates 9 two differently concentrated regions of the solvent 1950072 C 15 19828 32 012502488004 2 OS Silver tarnishes when it reacts with A. ammonia C. hydrogen sulfide E. water 9 B. carbon dioxide D. nitrogen 1950073 A 14 19830 32 036401598004 2 OS According to einstein, the release in energy in a chemical reaction is accompanied by a decrease in mass. This loss in mass in the usual laboratory demonstration A. is much too small to be measured B. is readily measurable C. was satisfactorily explained prior to einstein's contribution 9 D. was found only after einstein's contribution 1950074 B 15 19835 31 064704630154 0028 Which one of the following is not an example of a chemical 3 ___ change? A. souring of milk B. dissolving of salt in water C. rusting of iron D. burning of oil 9 E. digestion of a candy bar 1950075 A 15 19839 31 06470157 0028 Which one of the following is not an example of a physical 3 ___ change? A. burning of coal B. removing coal from underneath the ground C. cutting of wood D. tearing a piece of paper 9 E. spilling a quart of milk 1950076 C 15 19843 31 01540302 0019 Which one of the following describes a chemical change? A. boiling of water B. adding sugar to water C. burning of wood D. melting of lead 9 E. evaporation of sea water 1950077 C 15 19846 31 1044 0040 An explosive is a substance which A. reacts with oxygen B. always contains chlorine C. decomposes almost instantaneously upon shock D. contains ammonia 9 E. no correct response is given. 1952001 D 15 19849 51 01540164800112 ETS2 OS Which one of the following is the best example of a chemical change? A. the disappearance of dry ice B. adding alcohol to water C. evaporating salt water D. chlorination of drinking water 9 E. distilling water 1952002 E 15 19853 51 00060013800111 ETS2 OS Chlorine A. unites with hydrogen to form the hydrogen halide of greatest stability B. can be made by electrolysis of its compounds with the nonmetallic elements C. unites with hydrogen by a chain reaction D. loses electrons more easily than bromine E. is often produced commercially by the electrolysis of 9 molten potassium chloride 1952003 B 15 19858 51 00570043800111 ETS2 OS Sulfur dioxide A. is a stable compound whose density is almost equal to that of oxygen B. is obtained by the combustion of iron pyrites C. yields a monoprotic acid when it dissolves in water D. is only liquefied with great difficulty 9 E. contains sulfur with an oxidation state of +2 1952004 C 15 19863 51 01820183800111 ETS2 OS Charcoal is made by a process known as A. carbonation B. organic synthesis C. destructive distillation D. hydration 9 E. oxidation 1952005 B 15 19865 51 01840185800111 ETS2 OS The Cottrell process is A. a method of preparing colloids B. a method of imparting a charge to particles, suspended in the air, SO that they are driven to a plate of opposite charge C. a method of dialysis D. a method of increasing the humidity of the air E. an interesting theoretical method of precipitating colloids, 9 but one that has NO practical application 1952006 D 15 45022 51 Two different molecular forms of the same element are called A. isotopes C. different oxidation states E. compounds 9 B. isomers D. allotropes 1952007 B 15 19871 31 01090497800111 ETS2 OS Moving air seems cooler to a person than still air, because A. moving the air gives it a lower temperature B. moisture from the body is evaporated more rapidly C. impact of air on the face give the impression of coolness D. moving air has the greater specific heat 9 E. still air has the greater specific heat 1952008 AEED 45 19876 51 1 045201099005119095 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2The following questions refer to Figure 5. In the Linde 2process for making liquid air, the gas, thoroughly 2freed from water vapor, is first compressed to a high pressure 5 2 (some 2000 lbs./in. ) by a pump (p in Figure 5). It is then 2cooled in an ice-water bath w. The cool air then passes 2into an expansion chamber e, being driven through the inner of 2two tubes and escapes at the bottom through a small adjustable 2hole h. It is drawn back through the outer tube by the suction 2side of the double-acting pump. The expansion cools the air. 2Thus the incoming stream of air is cooled by the outgoing one, 2and this cooling process is progressive, so that, if heat is 2prevented from getting into the expansion chamber from outside, 2the expanding air eventually cools itself to a temperature 2below its boiling point, when drops of liquid form by condensation 2and fall into the vacuum vessel at the bottom, where it is kept 2until needed. Using this information, answer the 0 following questions. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 Which of the following occurs when the incoming air is compressed? A. The temperature of the air increases. B. Power is produced to run generators. C. The air is immediately liquefied. D. The temperature of the air decreases. 1 E. Oxygen is separated from nitrogen. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 The cooling effect of the expansion of the air is a phenomenon which A. occurs only because the temperature is already at a low point. B. is a peculiarity of air. C. occurs because the gas was originally under a low pressure. D. is caused by a liquefaction of part of the air. 2 E. occurs when any gas expands. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 The principal reason for removing water vapor from the incoming air is to A. produce pure liquid air B. prevent formation of rust in the apparatus C. prevent formation of steam which would cause deterioration of the piston in p D. prevent formation of ice which would cause the water in w to change to ice 3 E. prevent formation of ice which would clog the air tubes MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 The main purpose for the liquefaction of air is to A. produce nitrogen for commercial use B. produce oxygen for commercial use C. produce liquid air for commercial refrigeration D. attain extremely low temperatures 9 E. demonstrate that air can be liquefied 1952009 A 14 19906 31 081501898004 2 OS Lamps used for roadway illumination contain vapor of the element A. sodium B. potassium C. lithium 9 D. magnesium 1952010 A 14 45025 31 019600238004 2 OS Electric light bulbs may be frosted by exposing the inside surface to A. hydrogen fluoride C. cryolite E. ice 9 B. freon D. hydrogen iodide 1952011 B 15 19910 31 000800238004 2 OS Drinking water is subjected to fluoridation in order to A. destroy bacteria B. prevent tooth decay C. prevent goiter D. destroy portions of the enlarged thyroid 9 E. improve the taste 1952012 B 14 19913 32 043801138004 2 OS The cooling effect of an electric refrigerator is due to the following change of state A. gas to liquid B. liquid to gas C. liquid to solid 9 D. solid to gas 1952013 A 14 19916 31 128400150351 0041 When they combine chemically with metal atoms, nonmetal atoms A. gain electrons to become negative ions B. lose electrons to become positive ions C. remain electrically neutral D. form van der Waals bonds 9 E. are reduced 1952014 C 14 19920 51 015903510159 0041 Chemical energy is stored within atoms, molecules, and ions as A. activation energy B. electron kinetic energy 9 C. electron potential energy D. thermal energy 1952015 A 14 19923 31 009401091331 0043 The combustion of sulfur produces predominately A. SO B. SO C. H SO D. S O E. H S 94 2 3 2 3 2 3 2 1952016 B 15 19925 31 01540600 0028 C H O + heat -----> 12 C + 11 H O 4 12 22 11 2 What type of ordinary chemical reaction is depicted by the above equation? A. combination B. decomposition C. replacement 9 D. halogenation E. neutralization 1952017 D 14 19929 31 015401570135 0026 Which of the following is a chemical change? A. the purification of alcohol by distillation B. freezing of water C. dissolving of sodium chloride in water 9 D. tarnishing of silver dinnerware. 1952018 B 15 19932 32 016501540834 0020 Which of the following involves a chemical change? A. melting ice B. burning paper C. magnetizing an iron bar D. sawing a piece of wood 9 E. extracting cream from milk 1952019 E 15 19935 32 01571213 0020 An example of a physical change is A. souring of milk B. burning of paper C. digestion of food D. rusting of iron 9 E. none of these 1952020 C 15 19938 31 015401350834 0040 Which of the following is not a chemical change? 3 ______ A. burning of magnesium B. exploding of some nitroglycerine C. pulverizing of some sulfur D. rusting of iron 9 E. neutralization of an acid 1952021 D 15 19942 31 015702930407 0040 When a substance undergoes a physical change it is always true that A. it melts. B. a new substance is produced. C. heat is evolved. D. the molecules of the substance remain unchanged. 9 E. gas is given off. 1952022 D 15 19945 31 015701540653 0040 Which of the following represents a physical change in matter? A. Ice melts. B. A solid is crushed. C. A substance burns. D. Both A and B 9 E. both A and C 1952023 D 15 45203 51 All of the following reactions are described as decomposition reactions EXCEPT: A. 2KClO (s) ---> 2KCl(s) + 3O (g) 4 3 2 B. HCOOH(l) ---> H O(l) + CO(g) 4 2 C. 2HgO(s) ---> 2Hg(l) + O (g) 4 2 D. POCl (l) + 3H O(l) ---> H PO (aq) + 3HCl(aq) 4 3 2 3 4 E. Ni(CO) (l) ---> Ni(s) + 4CO(g) 94 4 1952024 A 15 45209 71 All of the following reactions are called combination reactions EXCEPT: A. Cl (g) + H O(l) ---> HOCl(aq) + HCl(aq) 4 2 2 B. MgO(s) + CO (g) ---> MgCO (s) 4 2 3 C. C H (g) + Br (l) ---> C H Br (l) 4 2 4 2 2 4 2 D. CuSO (s) + 5H O(l) ---> CuSO . 5H O(s) 4 4 2 4 2 E. 3H (g) + N (g) ---> 2NH (g) 94 2 2 3 1954001 A 14 19948 31 031703510527 0041 The chief cause of the repulsive force that keeps atoms from meshing together despite any attractive forces that may be present is A. electrostatic repulsion between the electrons B. the uncertainty principle C. the exclusion principle 9 D. conservation of energy 1954002 E 15 19952 31 018903511305 0020 The smallest part of an element that can enter into combination with other elements is A. a molecule B. a gram C. a mole D. the electron 9 E. an atom 1954003 E 15 19955 32 019213060413 0020 A substance that cannot be decomposed by chemical means is A. sugar B. air C. water D. salt 9 E. mercury 1954004 A 15 19957 31 049501890351 0020 The smallest particle of an element that can enter into combination with other elements is A. an atom B. a crystal C. a solid D. a molecule 9 E. none of these 1954005 E 15 19960 31 058305130293 0020 Dalton's Atomic Theory, as modified by subsequent discoveries, says A. atoms unite to form molecules B. all matter is made up from atoms C. all atoms of the same element have a limited number of mass values D. an element is made up of similar atoms 9 E. all of above 1954006 C 14 19964 31 018903510185 0009 An element is: A. a collection of atoms with identical numbers of neutrons B. a collection of atoms with identical nuclear masses C. a collection of atoms with identical nuclear charges 9 D. one of the following: air, earth, fire, water 1954007 C 14 19968 31 052714360462 0009 What kind of force holds an electron in the vicinity of the nucleus of an atom? A. gravitational B. magnetic 9 C. electrical D. the chemical bond 1954008 D 15 19971 31 03510342 0035 The fundamental nature of the atom, that is, the factor or factors which seem(s) to distinguish it from all other kinds of atoms is A. the charge of the electrons in the electron cloud. B. the atomic weight of the atom. C. the charge of the neutrons within the atom. D. the positive charge on the nucleus of the atom. 9 E. more than one of the above. 1954009 B 15 19976 32 035103420263 0035 An atom has 3 protons and 4 neutrons in its nucleus. The number of electrons in its orbitals is 9 A. 4 B. 3 C. 7 D. 12 E. unpredictable. 1954010 C 15 19978 31 035113010263 0035 The chemical nature of the atom is determined by the A. atomic weight. B. number of neutrons. C. number of electrons. D. weight of the protons. 9 E. size of the neutrons. 1954011 C 15 19981 31 141405130351 0035 Which one of the following statements about atomic theory is incorrect? A. There are particles in the nucleus which add mass to the atom but do not affect the electrical charge. B. The volume of an atom is not determined by the space occupied by the nucleus. C. Each atom is composed of a negatively charged nucleus. D. Almost the entire mass of the atom is concentrated in the nucleus. E. The atomic number of an atom is the same numerically as the 9 number of protons in the nucleus. 1954012 A 15 19988 31 033701890263 0035 Given only the atomic number of an element, which of the following quantities could you find? A. The number of electrons. B. The atomic weight. C. The number of neutrons in the nucleus. D. The number of isotopes. 9 E. All of the above. 1960001 C 15 19992 31 03510463800111 ETS2 OS The chemical nature of the atom is determined by the A. atomic weight B. number of neutrons C. number of electrons D. weight of the protons 9 E. size of the neutrons 1960002 A 15 19995 32 02920445800111 ETS2 OS Avogadro's Law is of importance in the A. determination of the relative weights of molecules B. prediction of solar eclipses C. determination of the pressure of a gas when the temperature is known D. prediction of intensity of discharge of electrons across a spark gap E. determination of the rate of disintegration of radioactive 9 substances 1960003 D 15 20001 31 03510097800113 ETS2 OS If an atom containing 3 protons and 4 neutrons combines with a second atom with 9 protons and 10 neutrons, the ion of the second atom in the compound will have A. 12 protons B. 4 protons C. 10 protons D. 9 protons 9 E. none of these 1960004 DACCBAE 75 20005 51 0513051180011290 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2The following questions involve certain theoretical principles. 2Select from the key the most closely related principle. 2 A. Atomic theory 2 B. Kinetic Theory 2 C. First law of thermodynamics 2 D. Adiabatic change 0 E. Isothermal change MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 An increase in volume of a gas without adding heat from An external 1 source. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 Atoms combine in simple ratios by weight. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 The heat from burning food could be transformed into mechanical 3 energy. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 The ratio of the work in joules to the heat in calories is a 4 constant. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 Molecules are perfectly elastic and rebound without energy loss 5 after collision. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 6 6 The smallest particle of an element taking part in a reaction. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 7 A decrease in pressure of a gas with the addition of heat from an 9 external source so that PV = k. 1960005 E 15 20015 52 02920195800111 ETS2 OS Avogadro's Law A. led to the discovery of the law of combining volumes B. states that at S.T.P. equal volumes of all gases contain equal numbers of atoms C. states that the product of the molecular weight and the specific heat of all gases at S.T.P. is approximately 6 D. states that the avogadro number is 22.4 E. explains why the volumes of reacting gases are in the ratio 9 of small whole numbers 1960007 D 15 20021 52 00310407800112 ETS2 OS In chemical equations where two gases combine to form a gaseous product, the relationship of the volumes of the reacting substances to that of the product formed is shown by the A. molecular weight B. subscripts C. equality between the sum of the volumes of reactants and the volume of the product D. ratios of the coefficients 9 E. valence of the substances 1960008 C 15 20027 52 071101 0064 Given two pure substances (I and II) containing elements A and B. Substance I has a mass of 2.25 g and contains 0.900 g of B. Substance II is analyzed as 40.0% B and 60.0% A by weight. These data A. illustrate the law of multiple proportions B. prove that either I or II is an element C. illustrate the Law of Definite Composition D. prove that either I or II is a mixture E. show that the formulas of I and II are AB and AB 94 3 1960009 E 15 20034 32 01960404800112 ETS2 OS Since one volume of hydrogen reacts with one volume of chlorine to produce two volumes of hydrogen chloride A. one molecule of each of the reacting elements combine to form one molecule of hydrogen chloride B. each molecule of hydrogen chloride contains two atoms of hydrogen C. the volume of a gas produced in any reaction is equal to the sum of the volumes of the gaseous reactants D. the relation is an example of the law of combining weights E. one molecule of hydrogen reacts with one molecule of chlorine 9 to form two molecules of hydrogen chloride 1960010 A 14 20042 32 082908068004 2 OS In double replacement, the reaction will go to completion if A. one of the products is a gas B. one of the products is soluble C. one of the products ionized 9 D. the products formed are highly ionized 1960011 C 15 20045 31 051302650351 0040 Atoms are generally believed in because of A. many direct observations of them B. one chemical law which indirectly verifies their existence C. several chemical laws which indirectly verify their existence D. the periodic table relationships 9 E. chemical reactions occur. 1960012 D 15 20049 31 051313200345 0040 Which of the following pieces of evidence support our belief in atoms? A. Law of multiple proportions B. Law of constant composition C. Law of conservation of matter D. both A and B 9 E. both B and C 1960013 B 14 20052 52 1682 0961 0041 Of the following natural laws, that with the least application to chemistry is the law of A. conservation of energy B. conservation of momentum 9 C. conservation of mass D. definite proportions 1962001 C 15 20055 32 02640265800111 ETS2 OS At the present time, the law of conservation of mass is actually A. a theory B. a hypothesis C. a law in itself D. a special case of a more general law 9 E. none of these 1962002 B 15 20058 32 00420031026411 ETS2 OS The equation Mg + O ---> MgO is incorrect because 4 2 it is not in accord with A. Avogadro's law B. the law of conservation of mass C. the law of definite proportions D. the law of multiple proportions 9 E. Boyle's law 1962003 E 15 20062 31 015904230284 0028 The energy an object possesses due to its relative position is: A. radiant energy B. electrical energy C. chemical energy 9 D. kinetic energy E. potential energy 1962004 A 14 20065 31 001500451323 0041 When a piece of metal is oxidized, the resulting oxide is A. heavier than the original metal B. the same weight as the original metal C. lighter than the original metal D. sometimes heavier and at other times lighter, depending upon 9 the metal 1964001 D 15 20069 52 01760066800111 ETS2 OS CuSO . 5H O is considered a chemical compound because 4 4 2 A. it gives off water when heated B. when it is powdered it loses its characteristic blue color C. the water in the compound evaporates rapidly D. it always contains 5 molecules of water per molecule of CuSO 4 4 9 E. it becomes opaque when heated 1964002 E 15 20075 51 01960025800112 ETS2 OS An electric spark is passed through a mixture containing 16 grams of oxygen gas and 4 grams of hydrogen gas. After the explosion, there is in the container A. 16 grams of water and 4 grams of hydrogen B. 8 grams of water and 12 grams of oxygen C. 6 grams of water and 14 grams of oxygen D. 20 grams of water 9 E. 18 grams of water and 2 grams of hydrogen 1964003 D 15 20080 51 01970198800112 ETS2 OS In the formation of CaO, the relative combining weights are 5 gm. of Ca to 2 gm. of O. If 10 gm. of Ca and 6 gm. of O are taken for the experiment, A. no reaction should occur B. the per cent of oxygen in the CaO would be greater C. CaO should be formed 4 2 D. some oxygen is left after CaO is formed 9 E. the extra oxygen acts as a catalyst 1964004 C 14 20085 31 026505688004 2 OS The Law of Definite Proportions applies to the definite compositon by weight of A. atoms B. elements C. compounds 9 D. mixtures 1964005 E 15 20087 52 070401980288 0026 Two compounds are formed from the elements A and B. One of the compounds is 25% A and 75% B by weight. The other compound is 50% A and 50% B by weight. For a fixed weight of A in the two compounds, the ratio of the weights of B in the two compounds is 9 A. 4:3 B. 1:1 C. 2:3 D. 1:2 E. 1:3 1964006 B 15 20091 32 026113180345 0020 Carbon dioxide is always found to contain 27.3 percent of carbon. This statement obeys the law of A. multiple proportions B. constant composition C. Einstein D. conservation of mass-energy 9 E. all of these 1964007 C 15 20094 31 006601891320 0020 The existence of two different compounds composed of the same two different elements is explained by A. the law of definite composition B. the law of constant composition C. the law of multiple proportions D. Avogadro's law 9 E. all of the above 1964008 C 14 20098 31 026501891320 0009 The law that relates the different weights of one element that combine with a fixed weight of another element is the law of A. conservation of matter B. constant composition 9 C. multiple proportions D. equivalent proportions 1964009 C 15 20102 52 003200061284 0019 Copper and chlorine combine in different ratios to yield more than one compound. In one, 1.792 g of copper combine with 1.000 g of chlorine. Which of the following might represent the mass of copper combining with 1.000 g of chlorine in another compound: 9 A. 2.792 g B. 1.000 g C. 0.896 g D. 0.792 g E. none of these 1964010 B 15 20107 31 051313200307 0040 The law of multiple proportions is an example of evidence supporting the atomic theory. This law provides what type of evidence? A. Direct evidence B. Indirect evidence C. Direct observation of atoms D. both A and C 9 E. both B and C 1964011 C 15 20111 31 040803450513 0040 Sodium chloride, NaCl, is 39% Na and 61% Cl everywhere pure NaCl is found. This means that NaCl obeys the law of A. multiple proportions B. conservation of matter C. constant composition 9 E. conservation of momentum 1964012 C 15 20115 31 034505130568 0040 Which law states that a particular substance always has the same elements present in the same proportions by weight? A. Law of multiple proportions B. Law of conservation of matter C. Law of constant composition D. Law of conservation of energy 9 E. Law of gravity. 1964013 B 15 20119 32 034505131097 0040 Which of the following would be most useful to you if you wanted to verify the law of constant composition? A. Analysis information about two compounds that contains the same elements in different proportions B. A number of samples of a pure compound collected from many locations in the world C. The total weights of the reactants and products of a reaction D. The percentage of each isotope contained in one sample of an element 9 E. The total moles of the reactants and products of a reaction. 1964014 B 14 20127 32 016804070806 0035 A mixture of iron and sulfur was heated until the reaction ceased. When the product was tested with a magnet it was found to be magnetic. A sample of pure iron sulfide was tested with the magnet and found to be non-magnetic. Using this information, state which of the following assumptions would explain the magnetic nature of the product. A. An excess of sulfur is present in the product. B. There was not enough sulfur in the reactants. C. There was not enough iron in the reactants. 9 D. The relative amounts of iron and sulfur are not important. 1964015 C 14 20135 52 019604450189 0038 If it is known that (1) 1.008 g hydrogen reacts with 8.000 g oxygen, (2) 12.15 g of element X reacts with 35.46 g chlorine, and (3) 1.008 g hydrogen reacts with 35.46 g chlorine, it is reasonable reasonable to assume that the weight of element X which will react with 8.000 g oxygen will be 9 A. 24.30 g. B. 1.008 g. C. 12.15 g. D. 35.46 g. 1964016 B 14 20140 31 026501890066 0041 The law that states that the elements making up a chemical compound are always combined in the same weight ratios is called A. The law of conservation of mass B. The law of definite proportions C. Avogadro's law D. the atomic theory 9 E. the Pauli Principle 1964017 A 15 20144 52 071101 0064 Which of the following pairs could be used to illustrate the Law of Multiple Proportions? A. Au O and Au O B. O and O C. Au O and Fe O 4 2 2 3 2 3 2 3 2 3 D. H O and OH E. Au O and AuCl 94 2 2 2 3 3 1964018 A 15 20148 52 071101 0064 Three different samples containing only elements A and B are analyzed: Sample #1 weighs 24.00 g and contains 3.00 g of B. Sample #2 is 12.5% B by weight. Sample #3 is composed of 11.375 pounds of A and 1.625 pounds of B. It is likely that: A. all three samples are identical compounds. B. only samples #1 and #2 are identical and #3 is a different compound. C. only samples #2 and #3 are identical and #1 is a different compound. D. each of the three samples is a different compound. 9 E. at least one of the samples is a mixture. 1980001 D 15 20156 32 03150316800112 ETS2 OS Krauskopf states that, "electricity and magnetism, just in the fact of their existence, do violence to our intuitive ideas of matter, space, and the nature of force." In making this statement he probably had in mind the fact that A. we cannot formulate laws which can be used to make valid predictions B. they really exist only in our minds as scientific abstractions C. they have not been fruitful in extending research D. they act without contact across intervening space 9 E. they do not alter the space around them 1980002 C 15 20164 51 07148003 2WVW The equation governing the deflection of a positive ion under the influence of a magnetic field of strength H in a mass spectrometer is 5 2 m/e = ((Hr) )/2V where m is the mass of the positive ion, e its charge, r the radius of the circular path described by the ion, and V the accelerating electrical voltage. If all the following positive molybdenum ions have been accelerated by the same electrical voltage, V, which one of the ions would be deflected the most from its original line-of-flight under the influence of the magnetic field in a mass spectrometer? A. mass 94, charge +1 B. mass 99, charge +1 C. mass 99, charge +2 D. mass 100, charge +1 9 E. mass 100, charge +2 1980003 B 14 20174 31 001904638004 2 OS Ions are A. chemically stable and electrically neutral B. chemically stable and electrically charged C. chemically unstable and electrically charged 9 D. chemically unstable and neutral 1980004 B 14 20177 32 001901858004 2 OS The ability of an ion to polarize or deform another ion with which it comes in contact will be greatest if it has A. high ionic charge and large radius B. high ionic charge and small radius C. low ionic charge and large radius 9 D. low ionic charge and small radius 1980005 A 14 20181 31 035101858004 2 OS An atom or group of atoms with an unbalanced electrostatic charge is A. an ion B. a radical C. covalent 9 D. neutral 1980006 B 14 20183 31 015902630731 0041 The energy that must be expended in order to remove an electron from an atom is called A. electron affinity B. ionization energy 9 C. valence D. heat of vaporization 1980007 B 14 20186 31 016004621367 0043 Moderate electrical conductivity is exhibited by: A. SiO B. graphite C. diamond D. CO 94 2 2 1980008 D 14 20188 31 09380041 0026 If two objects repel each other A. they are probably unlike charged B. their potential energy increases as they are moved closer together C. their potential energy increases as they are moved further apart 9 D. they must necessarily be like charged. 1980009 D 15 20192 31 017801040192 0034 Good conductors may be defined as substances that have A. high melting and boiling points B. high densities C. the ability to resist the flow of an electric current D. the ability to allow the flow of an electric current 9 E. all of the above 1980010 A 14 20196 52 1946 0057 An ohm is the resistance of a column of mercury 106.3 cm long and 5 2 1 mm cross section at 0 degree C. The resistance of a column of 5 2 mercury 10.63 cm long and 1 cm cross section at 0 degree C is: 5 -3 9 A. 10 ohm B. 0.1 ohm C. 1 ohm D. 10 ohms 2000001 E 15 20200 52 05730351800111 ETS2 OS A uranium atom can be seen with A. an ordinary microscope B. a high power microscope C. a 200-in. Telescope D. an electron microscope 9 E. none of these instruments 2000002 DCCDDACAC94 20203 31 0658066180011490 ETS2WVW MACROITEM STEM 2To answer the following questions, use the key below 2 A. The statement is true but the reason is false. 3 ____ _____ 2 B. The statement is false but the reason is true. 3 _____ ____ 2 C. The statement is true and the reason is true. 3 ____ ____ 2 D. The statement is false and the reason is false. 03 _____ _____ MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 Low voltage x-rays are more dangerous than high voltage x-rays 1 because they carry more energy. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 High voltage x-rays have great penetrating power because they 2 are high energy rays. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 Scientists knew that if barium was produced by neutron bombardment of uranium that fission had been attained, because a lighter element 3 had been made from a heavier one. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 Scientists knew that in a fission reaction if one neutron caused the release of more than one neutron, a chain reaction would result, because the released neutrons certainly would bring about fission 4 in other atoms. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 It is known that under certain conditions of energy, neutrons will bring about fission in any element because the binding energy value 5 of all nuclei is the same. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 6 Gamma rays are more dangerous to the personnel of a nuclear reaction plant than are the beta rays because they are made up of 6 positively charged particles. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 7 The isotopes of an element cannot be separated from each other by chemical methods, because the atomic number of an element is somewhat responsible for an element's chemical behavior and all the 7 isotopes of an element have the same atomic number. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 8 When a neutron is projected into the nucleus of a U-238 atom, it causes the atom to change immediately into a plutonium atom because in a nuclear reactor plutonium is obtained from neutrons bombarding 8 U-238. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 9 Graphite is used as a moderator in a nuclear reactor because 9 graphite is an excellent absorber of neutrons. 2000003 C 15 20228 31 05131649 0035 An important forward step in the development of atomic theory occurred with proof that the atom is mostly empty space. The experimental procedure involved A. the radioactive disintegration of certain substances. B. The Wilson cloud chamber. C. The use of alpha particles to bombard gold foil. D. Aston's mass spectrograph. 9 E. The use of a zinc sulfide fluorescent screen. 2000004 ADCBE 55 20234 52 OS83 MACROITEM STEM Match the idea to the person who first put forth the idea A. The mass of the products of a chemical reaction equals the mass of the reactants. B. The composition of natural copper carbonate is the same as that of copper carbonate synthesized in the laboratory. C. Elements are composed of indivisible particles called atoms. D. Electricity, like matter, consists of particles. 0 E. The atom consists of a dense, positively charged nucleus. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 Lomonosov MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 Stoney MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 3 Dalton MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 4 Proust MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 9 Rutherford 2100001 A 15 20241 32 00190066800112 ETS2 OS The stability of an ionic compound such as potassium chloride is due to A. the electrostatic force of attraction between the ions B. the difficulty in ionizing further an already ionized atom C. its high energy D. the fact that the formation of the compound is accomplished by the absorption of a considerable quantity of radiation or heat E. the fact that the energy lost in the formation of the negative 9 ion far exceeds that gained in forming the positive ion 2100002 CAB 35 20248 31 0351026380011290 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2A certain neutral atom is composed of 21 electrons, 21 protons, and 224 neutrons. Based on this information, answer the following 0 questions. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 What is the approximate relative weight? A. 21 B. 24 C. 45 D. 42 1 E. 66 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 What is the atomic number? A. 21 B. 24 C. 45 D. 42 2 E. 66 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 Of what element is it an isotope? A. calcium B. scandium C. chromium D. neon 9 E. zinc 2100003 BCBDDABEB95 20254 31 0341026380011190 ETS2WVW MACROITEM STEM 2To answer the following questions, select from the key the correct 2particle. 2 A. neutron 2 B. electron 2 C. proton 2 D. atom 0 E. molecule MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 A particle which travels in elliptical orbits MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 Another name for the hydrogen ion MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 3 A nearly weightless particle found in all elements MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 4 The molecule of bromine contains only one of what other particle? MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 5 A particle particularly important in the kinetic theory MACRO SUB-ITEM # 6 6 A particle not found in a certain one of the known elements MACRO SUB-ITEM # 7 3 ___ ___ 7 A particle discussed in the elementary theories of magnetism MACRO SUB-ITEM # 8 A particle for active gaseous elements, containing exactly 8 two other particles MACRO SUB-ITEM # 9 9 A particle important in the operation of a thermocouple 2100004 C 15 20264 31 03420097800111 ETS2WVW The nucleus of an atom consists of A. electrons and protons B. electrons, protons, and neutrons C. protons and neutrons D. electrons and neutrons 9 E. protons only 2100005 D 14 20267 31 03518001800311 ETS2WVW The factor which seems to distinguish an atom of one element from an atom of any other element is A. the charge of the electrons in the electron cloud B. the atomic weight of the atom C. the charge of the neutrons within the atom 9 D. the positive charge on the nucleus of the atom 2100006 A 15 20271 31 03510579800111 ETS2WVW The most common, or so-called "classical method," by which the inner structure of atoms has been studied, has been by A. bombardment of these atoms with small particles or with high-frequency electromagnetic radiation B. the use of these atoms as projectiles hurled into the nucleus of heavy molecules C. whirling these atoms again and again through an electric field in a cyclotron D. the bombardment of alpha particles from radium with a stream of these atoms E. speeding up these atoms by placing them between two electrodes in an evacuated tube, and giving the electrodes strong charges of opposite sides or 9 polarities 2100007 C 15 20281 31 034103518004 2 OS The number of neutrons in an atom whose atomic number is 4 and whose atomic mass is 9 is 9 A. 13 B. 9 C. 5 D. 4 2100008 A 15 20283 31 05640342800111 ETS2WVW A deuteron is A. the nucleus of heavy hydrogen B. a neutron C. an electron with a positive charge D. an atom of a recently discovered element 9 E. a type of large molecule 2100009 A 15 20286 31 03580340800111 ETS2WVW An alpha particle is A. a helium nucleus B. an electron C. a radioactive element D. a negative particle 9 E. a hydrogen atom 2100010 A 15 20288 31 04640159800111 ETS2 OS Radiant energy consists of A. photons B. protons C. neutrons D. positrons 9 E. electrons 2100011 BDAAB 54 20290 31 80018003 1190 ETS2WVW MACROITEM STEM 2After each item number on the answer sheet, blacken space 2 A. if the item is true of cathode rays only 2 B. if the item is true of positive rays only 2 C. if the item is true of both cathode and positive rays 0 D. if the item is true of neither MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 Consist of the residue of molecules which have lost one or more 1 electrons MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 Move toward the electrode which has the same charge as they 2 themselves bear MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 3 Consist of a stream of electrons MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 Are identical, irrespective of metal in the anode or cathode 4 or gas in the tube MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 9 Vary with gas or material in the tube 2100012 CCBDA 55 20298 31 80018003 1190 ETS2WVW MACROITEM STEM After each item number on the answer sheet, blacken space 2 A. if the item is true of cathode rays only 2 B. if the item is true of positive rays only 2 C. if the item is true of both cathode and positive rays 0 D. if the item is true of neither MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 Are deflected by magnetic or electrical fields MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 Magnitude of their charge is either equal to or a multiple 2 of the fundamental charge on the electron MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 May have a mass equal to that of the proton if the gas in the 3 tube is hydrogen MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 4 Are uncharged particles MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 9 Mass is 1/1850 of that of the hydrogen atom 2100013 B 15 20306 31 03510097800112 ETS2WVW An atom has 3 protons and 4 neutrons in its nucleus. The number of electrons in the neutral atom is A. 4 B. 3 C. 7 D. 12 9 E. unpredictable 2100014 CBADBB 65 20309 31 0351026380011190 ETS2WVW MACROITEM STEM 2The following questions refer to particles of matter 2for each item select from the key the most 2appropriate response. 2 A. atom 2 B. electron 2 C. ion 2 D. neutron 0 E. proton MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 A dissociated particle in a solution MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 Particles which are paired to form valence bonds in carbon 2 compounds MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 3 The inert gas molecules contain only one of these particles MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 An uncharged particle which is undisturbed in ordinary 4 chemical reactions MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 5 A particle causing an ammeter to give a reading MACRO SUB-ITEM # 6 9 The particle with the smallest weight 2100015 DBCCB 55 20316 51 0185057480011190 ETS2WVW MACROITEM STEM 2The following questions begin with a phrase specifying something 2to be measured, determined, or produced. After the exercise 2number on the answer sheet, blacken the one lettered space which 3 ___ 0 designates how this goal is to be accomplished. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 The amount of electric charge on a single electron A. Use an electroscope B. Use a cathode tube C. Use a fog-track apparatus D. Use Millikan's oil drop apparatus 1 E. Use the mass spectrograph of aston MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 Whether the nucleus of an atom is small as compared with the total volume of the atom A. Use Millikan's oil drop appraratus. B. Shoot alpha particles through gold foil or use the fog-track apparatus. C. Use a zinc-sulfide fluorescent screen. D. Use the mass spectrograph of aston. 2 E. Use the geiger counter. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 Whether or not a given element has isotopes A. Seek chemical reactions which will separate different forms. B. Use the fog-track appratus. C. Use the mass spectrograph of aston. D. Use a centrifuge SO that the heavier atoms will be separated from the lighter ones. 3 E. Use a zinc-sulfide fluorescent screen. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 Whether or not a given particle, known to be an electron or a positron, is the latter rather than the former A. Observe its path in a zinc-sulfide fluorescent screen. B. Use the mass spectrograph of aston. C. Observe its path in a fog-track apparatus in the presence of a magnetic field. D. Pass the particle through beryllium foil and observe the result. E. Observe the direction in which it circles around the nucleus 4 of the atom. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 Whether or not neutrons are present A. Use the Geiger counter. B. Look for evidence of collisions in which there is no fog-track up to the collision. C. Use the oil drop apparatus of Millikan. D. Use deuterons in the atom smashing experiment. E. Compare the observable path of the neutron with that 9 of the electron and proton. 2100016 DBBAADAC 85 20342 31 80018003 1190 ETS2WVW MACROITEM STEM 2The following questions refer to the particles which are important 2in our theories of matter. For each item select from the key the 2most appropriate response. 2 A. atom 2 B. electron 2 C. molecule 2 D. neutron 0 E. proton MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 The particle most important in the continuance of chain 1 reactions in the fission of uranium. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 The particle most responsible for the reading of a light meter 2 when exposed to suitable radiation. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 The particle of which there is a deficiency when a glass rod 3 is charged positively. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 A particle most frequently discussed in theories of 4 "states" of matter. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 5 A particle most helpful in explaining how a gas exerts pressure. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 6 A particle which accounts for chlorine and many other 6 elements being assigned an "average" atomic weight. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 7 7 A particle which exists in an ionized state in table salt. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 8 The smallest particle which can exist and still retain all of 9 the properties of the compound. 2100017 B 15 20354 31 03980263800111 ETS2WVW Which one of these has the smallest mass? A. neutron B. electron C. ion D. proton 9 E. atom 2100018 C 15 20356 31 04950351800111 ETS2WVW The number of different fundamental particles which seem to have some part in the make-up of atoms is A. 4 B. 2 C. 3 D. 8 9 E. more than 10 2100019 A 15 20359 31 03510357800111 ETS2WVW Rutherford developed his nuclear theory of atomic structure because A. most alpha particles passed through gold foil without serious deflection but a very few were violently deflected B. the atomic numbers of the elements were in the same order as their atomic weights C. of the enormous amounts of energy liberated by nuclear disintegration D. because radium condenses drops from supercooled water vapor E. because the frequency of x-rays was proportional to the 9 square root of the atomic number 2100020 BCBDD 55 20367 31 0341026380011190 ETS2WVW MACROITEM STEM 2To answer the following questions, select from the key 2the correct particle. 2 A. neutron 2 B. electron 2 C. proton 2 D. atom 0 E. molecule MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 A particle which travels in elliptical orbits MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 Another name for hydrogen ion MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 3 A nearly weightless particle found in all elements MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 4 The molecule of bromine contains only one of what other particle? MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 9 A particle particularly important in the kinetic theory 2100021 ABEDBA 65 20373 31 0341026380011190 ETS2WVW MACROITEM STEM To answer the following questions, select from the key 2the correct particle. 2 A. neutron 2 B. electron 2 C. proton 2 D. atom 0 E. molecule MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 A particle not found in a certain one of the known elements. 13 ___ MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 A particle discussed in the elementary theories of magnetism. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 A particle, for active gaseous elements, containing 3 exactly two other particles. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 4 A particle which may be ionized in chemical reactions. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 5 A particle important in the operation of a thermocouple. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 6 9 A particle which helped explain discrepancies in atomic weights. 2100023 C 14 20381 32 026303518004 2 OS The number of electrons in an atom whose atomic number is 3 and whose mass number is 7 is A. 10 B. 7 C. 3 D. 4 9 E. 2 2100024 CEBD 45 20383 31 034100978004 2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2For each of the numbered items which follow, choose the option 2which best matches. 2 A. electron 2 B. proton 2 C. neutron 2 D. group 0 E. nucleus MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 A neutral particle found in the nucleus of an atom MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 the postively-charged, dense central part of an atom MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 3 A positively-charged particle found in the nucleus of an atom MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 9 A vertical volume of elements in the periodic table 2100025 D 14 44855 31 035180048002 2 OS The atom can be seen by means of A. a transmission electron microscope B. a Geiger counter C. a spectroscope D. a tunnelling electron microscope 9 E. magnetic resonance imaging 2100026 C 14 20390 31 034203518004 2 OS The nucleus of an atom is composed of A. neutrons and electrons B. protons and ions C. protons and neutrons 9 D. neutrons and ions 2100027 C 14 20392 32 035104048004 2 OS An atom of chlorine, atomic number 17, and atomic weight 35, contains in its nucleus A. 35 protons C. 17 protons E. 17 electrons 9 B. 17 neutrons D. 18 protons 2100028 B 14 20395 32 034203530341 0041 5 27 The nucleus of the aluminum isotope Al contains 4 13 A. 13 neutrons B. 14 neutrons 9 C. 27 neutrons D. 40 neutrons 2100029 C 14 20398 31 0358 0097 0041 An alpha particle consists of A. two protons B. two protons and two electrons 9 C. two protons and two neutrons D. four protons 2100030 A 14 20400 51 12850263 0041 A beta particle is 9 A. an electron B. a photon C. a proton D. a neutron 2100031 D 15 20402 51 04950358 0041 Of the following, the one that is not an elementary particle is the A. electron B. proton C. neutron 9 D. alpha particle E. beta particle 2100032 B 14 20405 31 034200970341 0043 A tritium nucleus consists of: A. one proton and two electrons B. one proton and two neutrons C. one neutron and two protons 9 D. one proton and three neutrons. 2100033 C 15 20408 52 035102630398 0044 A neutral atom which has 53 electrons and an atomic mass of 111 has A. no other isotopes. B. an atomic number of 58 C. a nucleus containing 58 neutrons. D. a nucleus containing 53 neutrons. 9 E. a nucleus containing 58 protons. 2100034 A 15 20412 52 026303980351 0044 A neutral atom which has 58 electrons and an atomic mass of 121 has: A. a nucleus containing 63 neutrons. B. a nucleus containing 63 protons. C. no other isotopes. D. a nucleus containing 58 neutrons. 9 E. an atomic number of 63. 2100035 A 14 20416 31 03510263009751 9000 All neutral atoms contain equal numbers of A. electrons and protons B. protons and neutrons 9 C. positrons and electrons D. neutrons and electrons. 2100036 B 15 20419 31 058703420351 0018 The ------------ of an atom is the total number of neutrons plus protons in the nucleus. A. atomic number B. mass number 9 C. nuclear charge D. none of these 2100037 E 15 20422 32 01850342 0018 5 3+ The charge on the nucleus of Al is 9 A. +16 B. +10 C. +27 D. +3 E. +13 2100038 E 15 20424 31 035703581127 0018 In the Rutherford gold foil experiment the fact that most of the alpha particles were not deflected by the gold foil indicates that A. the nucleus is positively charged. B. the nucleus is negatively charged. C. atoms are solid spheres touching each other in the solid state. D. gold is very dense. 9 E. None of these 2100039 B 15 20429 31 026300990337 0018 The number of electrons in a neutral atom is equal to the A. atomic weight B. atomic number C. number of neutrons present D. atomic weight minus the number of protons 9 E. number of neutrons present plus the number of protons 2100040 E 15 20433 31 035702720342 0020 Rutherford's experiment demonstrated that A. atoms are mostly empty space B. nuclei are very small C. nuclei have positive charges D. the mass of the atom is mostly in the nucleus 9 E. all of these 2100041 B 15 20436 31 058700970341 0020 The mass number is A. the atomic mass B. sum of protons + neutrons in an atom C. sum of protons, electrons, and neutrons in an atom D. the molecular mass 9 E. none of these 2100042 C 14 20439 51 149714980342 0009 By about how many orders of magnitude (powers of ten) is the diameter of an atom larger than that of a nucleus? 9 A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 10,000 2100044 A 15 44832 32 035305780398 0019 The e/m value for a certain isotope was found from mass 5 6 spectrometric measurements to be 2.5 x 10 coulombs/gram. If the 5 -19 charge on the isotopic ion were known to be 1.6 x 10 coulombs, the mass of the ion would be equal to 5 -19 1.6 x 10 A. ----------- g 5 6 2.5 x 10 5 6 2.5 x 10 B. ----------- g 5 -19 1.6 x 10 5 6 -19 C. 2.5 x 10 x 1.6 x 10 g 5 -24 D. 2.5 x 1.6 x 10 g 5 -24 2.5 x 10 E. ----------- g 9 1.6 2100045 D 15 20450 31 035703420513 0040 Rutherford's gold-foil experiment was instrumental in establishing the concept of A. an atom B. a molecule C. subatomic particles D. a nucleus in an atom 9 E. electrons in a atom. 2100046 E 15 20453 31 026300970398 0040 Which of the following sequences gives a correct listing of the fundamental subatomic particles in order of increasing weight? A. proton, electron, neutron B. electron, neutron, proton C. neutron, electron, proton D. proton, neutron, electron 9 E. electron, proton, neutron. 2100047 C 15 20457 31 034203510097 0035 The nucleus of the atom consists of A. electrons and protons. B. electrons, protons, and neutrons. C. protons and neutrons. D. electrons and neutrons. 9 E. protons only. 2100048 C 15 20460 32 079711780097 0035 Another name for the positive ion of the hydrogen atom is 9 A. neutron. B. electron. C. proton. D. atom. E. molecule. 2100049 A 15 20462 31 049503420358 0034 Which particle is identical to a helium nucleus? A. alpha particle B. beta particle C. gamma ray D. proton 9 E. neutron 2100050 C 15 20464 31 059115711202 0034 Which of the following is undeflected by a magnetic field? A. alpha particle B. beta particle C. gamma ray D. proton 9 E. more than one of the above 2100051 B 14 20467 31 026803570069 0041 The basic idea of the Rutherford atomic model is that the positive charge in an atom is A. spread uniformly throughout its volume B. concentrated at its center C. readily deflected by an incoming alpha particle 9 D. the same for all atoms 2100052 B 14 20471 72 19540342 0061 A species containing two neutrons and one proton is: 5 2 3 3 7 A. H B. H C. He D. Li 94 1 1 2 3 2110001 CACA 45 20474 31 0659026380011290 ETS2WVW MACROITEM STEM 2In the early days of cathode-ray study, during the process of 2experimentation, the results listed below were noted. These results 2gave rise to certain inferences. From the key of inferences given 2below, select the one that would be most likely to arise as a result 3 ____ ______ 2of the evidence or experimental result described in each item. 2 A. Cathode rays possess considerable kinetic energy. 2 B. Cathode rays possess considerable potential energy. 2 C. Cathode radiation travels approximately in straight lines. 2 D. Cathode radiation carries a strong negative charge. 0 E. Cathode radiation carries a strong positive charge. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 Experiments showed that obstacle in the path of cathode rays 1 produced sharp shadows. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 Experiments showed that a piece of platinum placed at the point 2 where the rays converged, quickly become red-hot. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 Experiments showed that the rays can be focused on a point by using a cathode with a concave surface, somewhat as light is 3 focused, by a concave mirror MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 Experiments showed that if a tiny paddle wheel is placed on a runway in the tube, with the vanes in the path of the rays--it will 9 move rapidly away from the cathode. 2110002 A 15 20490 31 05760574800111 ETS2WVW Perrin placed a pair of coaxial cylinders in the path of a stream of cathode rays in a tube, so that the rays passed through holes into the inner cylinder. He found that A. the inner cylinder received a negative charge B. the outer cylinder received a negative charge C. both cylinders received a negative charge D. one cylinder or the other (but not both) received a negative charge 9 E. one cylinder or the other or both received a negative charge 2110003 D 15 20497 32 02630317800111 ETS2 OS All of these present experimental evidence for the electron theory of matter except A. when a rubber rod is rubbed with fur, the rod becomes charged. B. hot filaments in radio tubes emit a stream of charged particles. C. radium disintegrates into other forms, the end product being lead. D. every body in the universe attracts every other body with a measurable force. 9 E. certain substances dissociate in solution and become ions. 2110004 A 15 20504 31 05740113800111 ETS2WVW Which of the following is not true of cathode rays? A. They change in character as the gas in the tube is changed. B. They travel in straight lines unless deflected by a magnetic or an electric field. C. They can be brought to a focus. D. They cause some materials to fluoresce. 9 E. They cast shadows of obstacles placed in their path. 2110005 D 15 20509 31 06160015800111 ETS2WVW X-rays emerge from a metal target when it is struck by A. radiation of long wave length B. high-velocity alpha particles C. high-velocity neutrons D. high-velocity electrons 9 E. cosmic rays 2110006 D 14 20512 31 05740263800111 ETS2WVW By the term "cathode rays" we refer to A. stream of positive ions B. electromagnetic waves of very short wave length C. a beam of x-rays 9 D. a stream of electrons 2110007 D 15 20515 31 03980263800111 ETS2WVW The mass of an electron is A. the same as the mass of the hydrogen atom B. dependent upon the atomic weight of the atom from which it was separated C. the same as the mass of a proton D. about one two-thousandth the mass of a hydrogen atom 9 E. about four times the mass of a hydrogen atom 2110008 C 15 20520 31 05740595800111 ETS2WVW Cathode rays are A. the most effective projectiles in the disintegration of atoms B. particles which go from cathode to anode in the electrolysis of aqueous solutions C. very light negatively charged particles which travel from cathode to anode in a crookes tube D. similar to the alpha particles of radium except for their speed 9 E. differ from x-rays only in their wave-length 2110009 D 15 20526 31 05740626800111 ETS2WVW Cathode rays are A. electromagnetic waves B. photons C. neutrons D. electrons 9 E. protons 2110010 D 15 20528 31 06160574800111 ETS2WVW The basic difference between an x-ray tube and a cathode-ray tube is that A. the cathode ray tube contains a vacuum. B. the x-ray tube has both a cathode and an anode. C. the cathode-ray tube contains electrodes. D. the x-ray tube stops the flow of electrons. E. the x-ray tube produces a stream of electrons from the 9 cathode. 2110011 A 15 20533 31 06160263800111 ETS2WVW X-rays result from the bombardment of a suitable target by high speed A. electrons B. ions C. protons D. neutrons 9 E. atoms 2110012 D 15 20535 31 06260330800111 ETS2 OS Which of the following does not appear on the electromagnetic spectrum? A. cosmic rays B. hertzian waves C. x-rays D. seismic waves 9 E. ultra-violet rays 2110013 B 15 20538 31 03980263800111 ETS2WVW Which one of these has the smallest mass? A. neutron B. electron C. ion D. proton 9 E. atom 2110014 D 15 20540 31 05740593800113 ETS2WVW When a narrow beam of cathode rays is deflected in a magnetic field, it spreads out, according to Thomson, into a broad fan-shaped luminosity in the gas; thus the rays are not all equally deflected. The most probable explanation of this effect is that A. the magnetic field is not accurately homogeneous, but is stronger in some places than in others B. the magnetic field is not uniform in direction C. the mass and charge are not the same for all the particles in the beam, only the ratio m/e being constant 3 ___ D. the particles do not all have the same velocity E. minute variations in the density of the gas in the tube 9 produce a dispersion of the rays in the magnetic field 2110015 B 15 20550 31 03510357800111 ETS2WVW In 1911 Rutherford bombarded gold foil with alpha particles. This experiment helped to establish the electron theory by showing A. the mass of the atom B. that the atom is mostly empty space and the plus charge is concentrated C. the number of protons present in the mucleus D. the charge of an electron 9 E. the presence of charged particles derived from atoms 2110016 C 15 20556 31 01850263800111 ETS2WVW When the ratio of the charge to the mass (e/m) of the electron was calculated, which one of the following assumptions was made about the electron? A. The charge on the electron was positive. B. The electron was a material particle. C. The electron had no weight. D. The electron always moves with the velocity of light. 9 E. The charge on the electron was negative. 2110017 A 15 20561 31 00020019800111 ETS2WVW In relative weight, a sodium ion compared to a sodium atom A. is about the same B. is heavier C. is considerably lighter D. cannot be compared because an ion has NO weight 9 E. cannot be compared because an ion is an electrical charge 2110018 D 14 20565 31 015901968004 2 OS The particle which occupies the first energy level in the hydrogen atom is known as the A. neutron B. nucleus C. electron 9 D. K electron 2110019 A 15 20568 32 A positron has a mass number of 9 A. 0 B. 1 C. 3 D. 16 E. 1837 2110020 B 15 20570 31 109402630185 0040 The particles making up canal rays are A. negatively charged and heavier than electrons B. positively charged and heavier than electrons C. negatively charged and lighter than electrons D. positively charged and lighter than electrons 9 E. NO correct response is given. 2110021 B 15 20574 31 049501890263 0035 A nearly weightless particle found in all elements is the 9 A. neutron. B. electron. C. proton. D. atom. E. molecule. 2110022 D 15 20576 32 018502631390 0035 When the charge on the electron was determined, which technique or apparatus was used? A. Electroscope. B. Cathode tube. C. Fog-track apparatus. D. Millikan's oil drop apparatus. 9 E. Mass spectrograph of Aston. 2111001 A 15 20579 31 03260282800111 ETS2WVW The principle underlying the operation of a photoelectric cell A. Radiation may cause some substances to emit electrons. B. Electrons may be emitted from certain substances at high temperatures. C. A changing magnetic or electro-magnetic field may produce a flow of electrons. D. Radiation may be re-radiated at different wave lengths. E. Electrons may cause radiations to be emitted from 9 some substances. 2111002 ABBBC 55 20585 31 0054034480011490 ETS2WVW MACROITEM STEM 2To answer the following questions select from the key the most 2appropriate statement. 2 A. Statement true; reason true and bears directly on the statement 3 _________ ____ ______ ____ 2 B. Statement true; reason false. 3 ______________ ______ _____ 2 C. Statement true; reason true, but does not have any 3 _________ ____ ______ ____ 2 bearing on the statement. 2 D. Statement false; reason true but with no bearing on 3 _________ _____ ______ ____ 2 the statement. 2 E. Statement false; reason false 03 _________ _____ ______ _____ MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 A current results when light falls on a photoelectric cell because certain substances emit electrons when light 3_______ 1 strikes them. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 Potassium is used in a photoelectric cell because it is a metal. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 3 _______ Photoelectric cells may be used as exposure meters in photographic work because the current in the cell is 3 _______ proportional to the amount of incident light and not to 3 the frequency of the vibration. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 A simple photoelectric cell has an uncoated plate charged negatively because such a plate is necessary to 3 _______ 4 attract the protons released by the incident light. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 Light striking a photoelectric cell sets up an electric current because light is a longitudinal vibration. 93 _______ 2111003 E 15 20603 51 05750572800111 ETS2WVW Planck introduced the quantum postulate into the theory of radiation in order to account for A. discontinuous spectra B. interference C. the constitution of radiation out of finite, corpuscle-like "chunks" of energy, each of which is propagated with great speed in a straight line D. the ejection of electrons from matter by light, a phenomenon which indicates in rather direct fashion that the spatial distribution of energy in a light "wave" is discontinuous E. the distribution of energy in the spectrum of a black body, a phenomenon which does not involve any obvious discontinuity, but which can be accounted for 9 quantitatively by the postulate 2111004 C 15 20613 31 05110630800111 ETS2WVW The maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons from an illuminated surface increases A. when the light intensity increases B. when the light intensity decreases C. when the light frequency increases D. when the light frequency decreases 9 E. independently of light intensity and frequency 2111005 E 15 20617 31 03260263800111 ETS2WVW In the photo-electric effect, the maximum speed of an electron ejected by a photon is determined A. entirely by the frequency of the light falling on the metal surface B. entirely by the number of photons falling on the metal surface C. entirely by the nature of the metal surface D. by the frequency of the light and the number of photons falling on the metal surface E. by the nature of the metal surface and the frequency 9 of light falling on the surface 2111006 A 15 20624 31 03260590800111 ETS2WVW The principle underlying the operation of a photoelectric cell is A. radiation may cause some substances to emit electrons. B. electrons may be emitted from certain substances at high temperatures. C. a changing magnetic or electro-magnetic field may produce a flow of electrons. D. radiation may be re-radiated at different wave lengths. E. electrons may cause radiations to be emitted from some 9 substances. 2111007 A 14 20630 31 03260263800111 ETS2WVW The photoelectric effect involves the A. emission of electrons from an illuminated metallic surface B. emission of light when radioactive material strikes a zinc sulfide screen C. process of developing photographs using the electric current 9 D. emission of visible light by high voltage electricity 2111008 BABDCBAB 84 20635 31 80018003 1190 ETS2WVW MACROITEM STEM 2After each item number on the answer sheet, blacken space 2 A. if the item is true of the photoelectric effect 2 B. if the item is true of the Edison effect 2 C. if the item is true of both effects 0 D. if the item is true of neither effect MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 Electrons are emitted from a heated filament. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 Electrons are emitted from a metal or compound when 2 exposed to light. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 The conductor which is to receive the electrons must be connected to the positive terminal of the battery or 3 direct current source. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 The metal which emits the electrons must be connected 4 to the positive terminal of the direct current source. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 5 The flow of electrons is unidirectional. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 6 6 Forms the basis of the radio tube. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 7 The effect is often used to operate a relay which in 7 turn may operate the electric switch on various devices. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 8 9 A grid may be employed to regulate the flow of electrons. 2111009 D 15 45404 71 Which of the following processes represents the ionization energy of iodine? 5 + - A. I (s) ---> I (g) + e 4 2 2 5 + - B. I (g) ---> I (g) + e 4 2 2 5 + - C. I(s) ---> I (g) + e 5 + - D. I(g) ---> I (g) + e 5 + - 9 E. I(l) ---> I (l) + e 2111010 B 15 20647 31 00150326800113 ETS2WVW If a certain metal gives a photoelectric effect under visible light of a certain color C, one should expect the effect to occur, for that metal, A. under light of any color on the red side of C in the spectrum B. under light of any color on the violet side of C in the spectrum C. under light of any color whose wave length is an integral multiple of that of C D. under light of any color whose frequency is an integral multiple of that of C E. under any kind of light whose energy quanta are integral 9 multiples of h 2111011 ABEBAEA 75 20655 71 0571057280011190 ETS2WVW MACROITEM STEM 2To answer the following questions, mark 2 A. if it states an observable or experimentally determinable 2 characteristic of the photoelectric effect, and is in 2 accordance with both the classical and the quantum theory 2 of light. 2 B. if it states an observable or experimentally determinable 2 characteristic of the photoelectric effect, and is in 2 accordance with the quantum theory of light but not with the 2 classical theory 2 C. if, while it is not experimentally testable in any fairly 2 direct way, it is a true statement about the photoelectric 2 effect according to both the classical and quantum theories 2 D. if, while it is not experimentally testable in any fairly 2 direct way, it is a true statement about the photoelectric 2 effect according to the quantum theory, though not 2 according to the classical theory of light. 2 E. if it is, according either to experimental results or to the 2 quantum theory, not a true statement about the photoelectric 0 effect. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 The average kinetic energy of the liberated electrons increases if 1 one increases the intensity of the light. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 When light falls upon a metal, it exerts an influence upon the electrons within the metal, and may succeed in ejecting them from 2 it. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 In light of very low intensity, the average amount of energy flowing across a square centimeter in a second may be so small that, considering a region of the size of an atom and assuming uniform distribution of the energy, years would be required for enough energy to flow through such a region to give an electron comparable with that measured in the photoelectric effect. Yet such light 3 falling upon a metal may instantly eject electrons from it. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 When light falls upon a metal, interactions with electrons occur only in the form of encounters between a single electron and a 4 definite, localized, and indivisible portion of the light. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 The speeds with which electrons leave a body in the photoelectric 5 effect may be increased by using light of shorter wave length. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 6 Electrons can be ejected from a metal only by light whose frequency 6 corresponds to a line in the bright line spectrum of that metal. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 7 Positive charges are never ejected from a body by the photoelectric 9 effect. 2111012 E 15 20688 72 05718003 2WVW If the kinetic energy of a photoelectric electron ejected from sodium by ultraviolet light of wavelength 300 nm is 5 -19 3.3 x 10 J, what is the critical wavelength for the photoelectric effect in sodium? 5 8 -1 -34 (c = 3.0 x 10 m sec , h = 6.6 x 10 J sec) 5 -6 -6 9 A. 6.0x10 nm B. 3.0x10 nm C. 300 nm D. 500 nm E. 600 nm 2111013 D 15 44377 52 02638001800313 ETS2WVW Find the maximum velocity of a photoelectron which can be stopped by 5 17 3 volts negative potential. (Assume e = 5 x 10 e.s.u./gm for the 3 _ m electron and 1 volt = 1 e.s.u. Of potential). 3 ___ 300 5 9 8 7 A. 3 x 10 cm/sec C. 3 x 10 cm/sec E. 3 x 10 cm/sec 5 9 8 9 B. 1 x 10 cm/sec D. 1 x 10 cm/sec 2111014 D 15 20701 52 05718003 2WVW If the kinetic energy of a photoelectric electron ejected from 5 -13 cesium metal by 5000 A light is 9.9 x 10 erg, what is the minimum energy required to eject an electron from the surface of 3_______ ______ cesium metal and leave the electron at rest? (note KE=h(f1 - f2), where f1 is the incident light frequency, f2 is the minimum frequency for the photoelectric effect in cesium, and H is Planck's constant) 5 10 -1 (c = 3.0 x 10 cm. sec ; 5 -27 h = 6.6 x 10 erg sec.) 5 -27 A. 6.6 x 10 erg 5 -13 B. 3.0 x 10 erg 5 -13 C. 9.9 x 10 erg 5 -12 D. 3.0 x 10 erg 5 -12 9 E. 9.9 x 10 erg 2111015 D 14 20712 51 15400263038051 9000 Emission spectra (line spectra) are produced when an electron A. reverses its spin B. escapes from the atom C. spirals into the nucleus 9 D. changes its atomic energy level 2111016 D 15 20715 52 OS83 The magnitude of the charge on an electron is A. 1 coulomb 5 19 B. 1.60 x 10 coulombs 5 -28 C. 9.11 x 10 coulomb 5 -19 D. 1.60 x 10 coulomb -23:5 9 E. 6.02 x 10 coulomb 2111017 A 14 20719 31 051302630654 0026 Experimental evidence to indicate that cathode rays have charge is A. that their path is curved in a magnetic field B. that they have no effect on an electroscope C. that they have been assigned a negative charge 9 D. that gravity affects their path. 2111018 B 14 20723 31 051302630654 0026 Regardless of the metals used as cathodes, the cathode rays had the same charge to mass ratio. This indicates that A. there is no difference between one metal and another B. electrons are a part of all matter C. the nucleus of an atom contains protons 9 D. electrons are negatively charged. 2111019 C 14 20727 31 001901850513 0026 A submicroscopic particle of +1 charge could be a(n) 9 A. electron B. neutron C. ion D. atom E. alpha particle. 2111020 B 15 20729 31 12850263 0020 Beta particles are A. particles with a -2 charge B. the same as electrons C. particles with NO mass or charge D. particles with a -1 charge and a mass of 1 9 E. larger than alpha particles 2111022 D 15 20732 31 026303981316 0020 An electron has a mass of A. 0.00054874 amu 5 -28 B. 9.11 x 10 g C. almost zero D. all of these 9 E. none of these 2111023 D 15 20735 51 142002630185 0019 Millikan's oil drop experiment is used to determine precisely A. the exact size of the oil drop B. the charge to mass ratio of the oil drop C. the magnitude of the gravitational force D. the minimum value of the charge of an electron 9 E. none of the above 2111024 D 14 20739 51 027209970590 0019 Which of the following experiments gives the conclusive proof of the quantum nature of radiation? A. Rutherford's scattering experiment B. Thomson's cathode ray experiment C. Einstein's experiment on the photo electric effect 9 D. none of the above 2130001 C 14 20743 51 04950097 0041 The particle that most closely resembles the proton is the A. positron B. neutron C. antiproton 9 D. positive sigma hyperon 2130002 B 15 20745 31 01850342 0018 5 - The charge on the nucleus of O is 4 2 9 A. 6+ B. 8+ C. 2- D. 2+ E. none of these 2130003 D 15 20748 31 033701850342 0020 The positive charge on the nucleus is called A. moseley's number B. the atomic weight C. the neutron concentration D. the atomic number 9 E. none of these 2130004 C 15 20751 31 018900970342 0020 Tin is element 50. This means that A. its mass is 50 amu B. its mass number is 50 C. it has 50 protons in its nucleus D. it has 50 neutrons in its nucleus 9 E. none of these 2150001 D 15 20754 31 03410351800131 ETS2WVW The loss of a neutron from an atom A. changes the chemical nature of the atom B. changes the charge on the atom C. changes the physical properties of the atom D. reduces the mass number of the atom 9 E. causes the subsequent loss of an electron 2150002 C 15 20758 31 03410351800111 ETS2WVW The loss of a neutron from an atom A. changes the chemical nature of the atom B. changes the charge of the atom C. changes the mass number of the atom D. reduces the atomic number of the atom 9 E. causes the subsequent loss of an electron 2150003 A 15 20762 31 00650097034111 ETS2WVW Which one of these is correct concerning the neutron? A. The atomic weight of an atom equals the sum of the weights of the protons and the neutrons. B. Every element contains one or more neutrons. C. The neutron prevents the attractive forces of the protons and electrons from causing them to come together. D. The neutron like the electron is of negligible weight relative to the total weight of the atom. E. The atomic number equals the number of neutroms present 9 in the atom. 2150004 D 14 20769 32 03410342058751 9000 The number of neutrons contained in the nucleus of a particular atom is equal to its A. atomic weight B. mass number C. atomic number 9 D. mass number minus the atomic number 2150005 E 15 20772 31 039803410495 0018 A subatomic particle that has an atomic mass of 1 and a charge of 0 is A. a beta particle B. an alpha particle C. an electron 9 D. a proton E. a neutron 2150006 C 15 20775 31 06570341 0028 A neutral particle having a mass of approximately one atomic mass unit is A. an electron B. a proton C. a neutron 9 D. a meson E. none of these 2150007 A 15 20778 31 040713380341 0020 The reaction which chadwick studied when he discovered neutrons was A. Be + alpha particles B. Be + protons C. boron + electrons D. boron + alpha particles 9 E. beryllium + electrons 2150008 B 15 20781 31 034105910592 0040 Which of the following fundamental particles is not affected by electric or magnetic fields? A. protons D. both A and B B. neutrons E. both A and C 9 C. electrons 2150009 A 15 20784 31 049501890341 0035 A particle not found in a certain one of the known elements is the 9 A. neutron. B. electron. C. proton. D. atom. E. molecule. 2150010 D 14 20786 52 1944 0055 Which particle has the largest rest mass? A. electron B. positron C. proton 9 D. neutron 2200001 E 15 20788 52 03570358800112 ETS2 OS According to Rutherford, "atoms of matter are not solid spheres, but empty structures consisting of extremely minute particles separated by relatively great distances." however, from cloud chamber observations, it was noted that fast-moving alpha particles passing through a gas may be slowed down and even stopped without ever hitting one of these minute particles in the center of the atoms of the gas! this can be explained by assuming that A. Rutherford was not exactly correct, and that there is really a thin sort of matter within the atom as well as the minute particles B. the alpha particles passing through the gas lost their initial kinetic energy, and therefore their slowing down was not due to any action of the gas C. while the atoms of the gas may consist of empty structures containing only minute particles separated by relatively great distances, nevertheless there is probably a tenuous membrane stretched between the outer surfaces of the atoms which acts to slow down and stop the alpha particles D. the alpha particles contain great quantities of static electricity charge which react with the minute particles within the atoms of the gas to slow down and stop these particles E. powerful electric fields exist within the atoms of the gas itself, and that it is these fields which may slow down 9 or stop the particles 2200002 E 15 20807 31 03660351800112 ETS2 OS Cannizzaro apparently considers that the most valid criterion for the correctness of an atomic theory is A. its degree of conformity to Avogadro's theory B. its degree of internal consistency C. that it provide a mechanical model understandable at the gross level, for phenomena occurring at a level too minute to be directly observed D. its consistency with all known chemical and physical phenomena 9 E. its degree of simplicity 2200003 C 15 20814 31 03660065800112 ETS2 OS How may the statement, "the atomic weight of nitrogen is 14," be interpreted in cannizzaro's sense? A. An atom of nitrogen weighs 14 units. B. In a compound of nitrogen and hydrogen, the nitrogen has 14 times the weight of the hydrogen. C. A liter of nitrogen has 14 times the weight of a liter of hydrogen. D. No smaller weight of nitrogen than 14 grams is ever found in a molecular weight (in grams) of any compound of nitrogen. E. A gram of nitrogen contains 14 times as many atoms as a gram 9 of hydrogen. 2200004 D 15 20822 51 02760351800111 ETS2WVW Which one of these is explained on the basis of atomic theory rather than on kinetic theory? A. The explanation of heat of fusion B. That the energy of particles may be expressed in terms of 5 2 (1/2) mv C. Changes in the state of matter D. Conservation of mass 9 E. The meaning of temperature 2200005 C 15 20827 51 05130189800111 ETS2WVW The atomic theory assumes all of these except A. the average mass of atoms of the same kind is definite, but different from that of any other kind of atom. B. the number of different kinds of elements is limited. C. atoms lose their identity in chemical reactions. D. atoms possess kinetic energy. 9 E. all elements are composed of small discrete particles. 2200006 E 15 20833 51 05830513800113 ETS2WVW Dalton's atomic theory offers a reasonably satisfactory explanation for one of the following statements. You are to 3 ___ determine which one this is. A. When hydrogen combines with oxygen, a large amount of energy is liberated. B. Forces holding the atoms together in a molecule of nitroglycerine are so small that the compound is explosive. C. The weight of carbon dioxide produced by burning a given amount of carbon can be accurately predicted. D. Hydrogen atoms combine with oxygen atoms more readily than with chlorine atoms. E. Four atoms of hydrogen combine with one atom of carbon, 9 but two atoms of hydrogen combine with one atom of oxygen. 2200007 CCBD 45 20843 31 1 80019012 119095 ETS2WVW MACROITEM STEM 2The following questions refer to Figure 12. After each exercise 2number on the answer sheet, blacken the one lettered space which 0 designates the correct answer. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 This is an historically famous experiment performed by A. Moseley B. Thomson C. Rutherford D. Millikan 1 E. Urey MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 Gold was used because it A. can be obtained as a nugget B. is a lightweight atom C. is malleable and can be prepared easily into a very thin sheet D. is yellow 2 E. was believed to be different from other atoms MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 Particles used as projectiles in this experiment were A. electrons B. alpha particles C. beta particles D. gamma rays 3 E. neutrons MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 The experiment gives excellent evidence that nuclei are A. very close together and positively charged B. very close together and neutral in character C. very far apart and neutral in character D. very far apart and charged positively 9 E. very far apart and charged negatively 2200008 E 15 20856 51 80018003 12 ETS2WVW According to Rutherford's calculations, the deflection d of an alpha particle of mass m, initial speed v, and charge 2e moving initially so as to pass at a distance of p an atomic nucleus of charge ne, is given by the equation 5 2 2 cot (d/2)= v /(2ne ) The derivation of this equation is based upon the assumption A. that the probability of a given deflection is proportional to the target area presented by the region capable of producing such a deflection. B. that the probability of a given deflection is the same as the fraction of particles which experience that deflection. C. that multiple scattering does not occur. D. that the force on an alpha particle varies inversely as the square of its distance from an atomic center. E. that multiple scattering does not occur, and that the force on an alpha particle is inversely proportional to the 9 square of its distance from an atomic center. 2200009 C 15 20869 51 80018003 12 ETS2WVW Rutherford's formula for the probability p of a deflection between angles X and Y for an alpha particle traversing a metal foil of thickness t is 5 2 4 2 4 p = (4 x (3.14) x t x (n ) x(e )/(m ) x (u )) x 4 2 2 5 2 2 ((cot x/2) - (cot y/2) ) the quantities t, N (number of atoms per cubic centimeter), e, m, and u can be determined independently. The quantity N can best be determined A. from the atomic weight of the metal B. by observing the fraction of particles deflected through angles between X and Y (for some given values of X and Y) C. by measuring the deflection of some one alpha particle D. from the value of the charge of an electron E. by dividing some interval (X and Y) into equal parts and calculating the probability of a deflection for each part of the interval, comparing these with the net probability 9 for the interval as a whole 2200010 A 15 20883 31 05930357800114 ETS2WVW Thomson and Rutherford, in discussing the constitution of atoms, assume that the elements out of which atoms are built are charged particles. Which of the following does not constitute part of the 3 ___ evidence for this view? A. Coulomb's law for the electrostatic force between point charges B. the fact that all conductors contain charges that are free to move C. the fact that the properties of dielectrics are accounted for by the hypothesis of their "polarization" in electric fields D. the ejection of alpha and beta particles in radioactive decay E. the identity of the properties of cathode rays derived from 9 various sources 2200011 D 15 20893 31 05830513800116 ETS2WVW Dalton's atomic theory is A. a good example of absolute truth B. a good example of the static view of science C. correct, and led to more scientific discoveries D. partially in error, but led to more scientific discoveries 9 E. neither correct nor in error. Nothing more was done about it. 2200012 E 15 20897 31 06070287800116 ETS2WVW A physicist, using the accumulated data concerning the nature of the atomic nucleus, constructed a model of the nucleus of a certain atom. In doing this, he used the physical laws known to describe the behavior of large-scale phenomena. He discovered, however, that the theoretical behavior of his model did not agree with the actual behavior of the atomic nucleus. After checking carefully his original data, checking carefully his mathematics, and trying models of the nuclei of the atoms of several different elements, the results still did not agree. If all of the statements in the above paragraph are accepted as true, the most acceptable conclusion would be that A. the physical laws describing the behavior of large-scale phenomena were incorrect. B. the atomic nucleus behaved independently of natural laws. C. he must have made a mistake in the way that he constructed his model. D. the accepted system of mathematics was incorrect. E. the physical laws operating in the case of the large-scale phenomena and the small-scale phenomena may not be entirely 9 consistent with one another. 2200013 CAEDA 55 20912 31 0097034180011290 ETS2WVW MACROITEM STEM 2The following questions refer to various processes related to 2atomic or molecular structure. For each item select from the key the 2changes involved in the process. 2 A. Only electron changes between atoms 2 B. Alteration in the number of protons and neutrons 2 C. Alteration only in the number of neutrons 2 D. Changes in arrangement of all particles in the atom 2 E. No change in relation to the number of electrons, protons, 0 or neutrons in the atom MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 Differences between two isotopes of the same element MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 Electrolytic conduction MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 3 Fractional distillation MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 4 Fission MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 9 Rubbing a Rubber rod with a piece of wool 2200014 ADCABBE 75 20921 51 0357035100151490 ETS2WVW MACROITEM STEM 2For each of the items, mark 2 A. if it should be regarded as supported by the agreement 2 of Rutherford's calculations with experimental data. 2 B. if it is a presupposition of Rutherford's calculations 2 which is in no need of support, since its validity is 3 _____________________ 2 guaranteed by purely mathematical considerations. 2 C. if it is presupposed either in Rutherford's calculations 2 or in his general considerations concerning the structure 2 of atoms and is in no need of support from Rutherford 3 _____________________________________ 2 because it is implied by physical considerations other 2 than Rutherford's 2 D. if it is implied by other considerations than Rutherford's 2 and must be regarded as true, but is hard to reconcile 3 _________________ 2 with Rutherford's results, and so points the way to further 3 _________________________ 2 investigation. 2 E. if it is a presupposition of Rutherford's calculations which 2 cannot be regarded as supported by any arguments set forth 2 by Rutherford or by other considerations understood at 2 the time, but is rather a pure assumption which remains 0 for further testing. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 The scattering of particles by thin foils of metal is produced in such a way that the observed deflection of any particle through a large angle must have been produced at a single encounter with an 1 atom. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 An atom must contain negative charges in the form of "electrons" 5 -8 or light particles, arranged within the atomic radius of 10 cm. 2 In such a way as to form a stable configuration. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 Atoms are composed of electrically charged particles, the negative charges occuring in corpuscles of very small mass and the atom as a 3 whole normally being electrically neutral. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 The mass and a large part of the positive or negative charge in an 4 atom is concentrated in a very minute volume at its center. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 The atoms in a metal foil can be regarded as practically fixed in 5 position during an interaction with an alpha particle. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 6 A body whose acceleration varies inversely as the square of its distance from a point and is always directed away from that point, 6 moves in a hyperbola with that point as a focus. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 7 The force between two point charges at distances of the order of 5 -12 magnitude of 10 cm. or more, is correctly predicted by 9 Coulomb's law. 2200015 B 15 20954 31 05830513800111 ETS2WVW Four of the following five statements are assumptions which make up Dalton's atomic theory. You are to select the one which was not 3 ___ formulated as one of Dalton's assumptions, but which is the result of other research. A. Every element consists of tiny particles. B. The tiny particles in some elements consist of two or more atoms. C. The atoms of any one element are all exactly alike. D. In general, atoms combine in simple ratios. E. Atoms of one element may combine with atoms of another element 9 to form a new substance or compound. 2200016 B 15 20963 31 03510185800111 ETS2WVW In a neutral atom, the total positive charge on the nucleus is equal to the total A. positive charge of all electrons B. negative charge of all electrons C. charge, both positive and negative D. charge of all neutrons and protons 9 E. charge of all protons and electrons 2200017 C 15 20967 31 05130351800111 ETS2WVW Which one of the following statements about atomic structure is incorrect? 3_________ A. There are particles in the nucleus which add mass to the atom but do not affect the electrical charge. B. The volume of an atom is not determined by the space occupied by the nucleus. C. Each atom is composed of a negatively charged nucleus. D. Almost the entire mass of the atom is concentrated in the nucleus. E. The atomic number of an atom is the same numerically as the 9 number of protons in the nucleus. 2200018 C 15 20975 31 03510263800111 ETS2WVW According to our ideas of atomic structure, we say that it takes more electrical energy to remove an electron from a helium atom than from a hydrogen atom because A. helium initially has two electrons B. the helium nucleus has a greater mass C. the helium nucleus has a greater charge D. when hydrogen converts to helium (as in the stars) energy is released 9 E. helium has neutrons in its nucleus 2200019 A 15 20981 31 03370351800111 ETS2WVW In order to determine the atomic number of any atom, it is 3 ___ sufficient to know the number of A. protons in the nucleus B. neutrons in the nucleus C. protons minus the number of electrons D. protons minus the number of neutrons 9 E. neutrons plus the number of protons 2200020 E 15 20986 51 04950592800112 ETS2WVW The quantity u, the initial speed of the alpha particles, can best be measured by A. sending the same beam of alpha particles through metal foils of different thickness, and comparing the average deflection with the thickness in each case. B. sending the same beam of alpha particles through metal foils of different thickness, and comparing the various results for the fraction of particles deflected through a given angle. C. determining the minimum thickness of a given substance required to stop all of the alpha particles. D. determining the force exerted by the beam of alpha particles upon a static electric charge of known magnitude at a given distance from the beam, and the rise in temperature produced in a block of metal when the beam falls upon the block and is completely stopped. E. subjecting the beam of alpha particles to electric and magnetic fields at right angles to the beam, adjusting the intensities e and H until no deflection is produced, and applying the law that the electric force on a charge q 9 moving with speed u is eq, the magnetic force Hqu. 2200022 A 15 21002 31 05930041800112 ETS2WVW Thomson's concept of the arrangement of electric charges in the atom is derived chiefly from considerations concerning A. the spectra of elements B. the theory of multiple scattering of alpha and beta particles C. the periodic table D. the possible stable arrangements of charges 9 E. the photoelectric effect 2200023 A 15 21007 31 03570272800112 ETS2WVW Which of the following is a piece of evidence, not available to Rutherford at the time of his experiments on alpha particle scattering, which today provides overwhelming confirmation of the view that atoms are built of charged particles? A. The existence of an uncharged particle, the neutron, which can be scattered by atomic nuclei, but which follows a scattering law quite different from that of the alpha and beta particles. B. The identity of alpha particles with charged atoms of helium. C. The identity of beta particles with the particles composing cathode rays. D. The success of Bohr's theory of the atom in accounting for the periodic table of the elements. E. The formula for the wave lengths in the line spectrum of 9 hydrogen. 2200024 C 15 21018 51 05830065800112 ETS2WVW In order to determine the atomic weight of an element by Dalton's method, it is sufficient to know A. the composition by weight of a compound of the element B. whether compounds of the element are binary, ternary, etc. C. both the composition by weight of a compound of the element, and the class (i.e., binary, ternary, etc.) to which the compound belongs D. the composition by weight of a large number of compounds of the element E. the density of the element relative to that of the standard 9 element 2200025 C 15 21026 51 05940292800112 ETS2WVW Avogadro postulates that molecules are composed of more than one "elementary molecule" since A. the different gaseous elements have different specific densities. B. some gases apparently contract when combining. C. his postulate about number of molecules in a volume of gas would otherwise be inconsistent with the ratios between combining volumes of gases. D. his postulate about the number of molecules in a volume of gas would otherwise be inconsistent with the ratios between total volumes of component gases and the volumes of the compound gases. 9 E. this is the simplest hypothesis possible. 2200026 A 15 21035 51 02920594800112 ETS2WVW Avogadro postulates an equal number of molecules in equal volumes of gas under the same conditions primarily on the grounds that A. the laws of combining volumes of gases can be deduced directly from this postulate B. the laws involving temperature, pressure and volume of gases can be deduced directly from this postulate C. Dalton's observed atomic weights are inconsistent with Dalton's hypotheses about chemical combination D. this furnishes an adequate explanation of the simple combining ratios by volume observed in gas reactions E. correct molecular weights are obtainable by application of 9 the postulate 2200027 BEAE 45 21044 31 0351039880011190 ETS2WVW MACROITEM STEM 2The following questions are concerned with the men or experiments 2which helped to establish the electron theory of matter. For each 2question select from the key the most closely related idea. 2 A. The mass of the atom. 2 B. That the atom is mostly empty space and the plus 2 charges concentrated. 2 C. Measure of the number of protons present in the nucleus. 2 D. Revealed the presence of charged particles derived 2 from atoms. 0 E. None of these. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 Rutherford bombarded gold foil with alpha particles in 1911 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 Moseley's experiments of 1914 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 3 Aston's spectrograph MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 9 Millikan's oil drop experiment 2200028 DBEDAC 65 21052 31 0398058005741190 ETS2WVW MACROITEM STEM 2The following questions refer to various features of atomic 2structure. For each item select from the key the experimental method 2that was most important in establishing it. 2 A. Measurements with the mass spectrograph. 2 B. Millikan's oil drop experiment. 2 C. Deflection of cathode rays in a magnetic field. 2 D. Measurements of the wave lengths of characteristic 2 lines in the x-ray spectra. 0 E. Deflection of alpha particles by foils of metals. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 The atomic number is equal to the number of extra-nuclear 1 electrons. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 5 -10 2 The charge on the electron is 4.802 x 10 esu. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 The positive charge of the atom is concentrated in a small, 3 compact nucleus. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 The electrons of an atom are arranged in energy levels about 4 the nucleus. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 5 Atoms of the same element may have different atomic weights. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 6 5 -28 9 The mass of the electron is 9 x 10 gm. 2200029 CB 24 21064 31 0263006580011190 MACROITEM STEM 2The following questions refer to comparisons which are frequently 2made in science. For each item select from the key the most 2appropriate response. 2 A. The first is greater than the second. 2 B. The first is equal to the second. 2 C. The first is less than the second. 0 D. More data is required to compare them. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 The number of electrons in a sodium ion compared to 1 the number of protons in its nucleus. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 9 The atomic weight of helium compared to its molecular weight. 2200030 D 15 21071 31 03510342800111 ETS2WVW Basically the atom is generally conceived as A. a solid spherical mass which is neutral in charge B. a nucleus and electrons all traveling in the same plane but at various energy levels C. paired groups of electrons and protons, widely but uniformly distributed D. a nucleus of protons and generally neutrons with as many electrons as protons traveling in orbits around the nucleus E. having an atomic weight equal to the weight of the neutrons 9 and the electrons 2200031 AADADAEC 85 21078 51 0171020080011190 ETS2WVW MACROITEM STEM 2The following questions refer to various processes related to 2atomic or molecular structure. For each item select from the key the 2changes involved in the operation of the process. 2 A. Electron changes between atoms 2 B. Alteration in the number of protons and neutrons 2 C. Alteration in the number of neutrons only 2 D. No change in the number of electrons, protons, or neutrons 2 in the atom 0 E. Changes in all particles MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 Photosynthesis MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 Rubbing a glass rod with a piece of silk MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 3 Distillation MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 4 Ordinary chemical reaction MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 5 Isomerism in carbon compounds MACRO SUB-ITEM # 6 6 Ionization MACRO SUB-ITEM # 7 7 Fission MACRO SUB-ITEM # 8 9 Changes in atomic weight without Change in atomic number 2200032 BADBCA 64 21087 51 0337058780011190 ETS2WVW MACROITEM STEM 2After the number on the answer sheet which corresponds to that of 2each of the following items, blacken space 2 A. if the item is true of atomic number 2 B. if the item is true of mass number 2 C. if the item is true of atomic weight as given in the 2 periodic table 0 D. if the item is true of atomic size or volume MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 The different isotopes of a given element differ in this respect, 1 for example U-235 and U-238. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 Determines the position of every element listed in the periodic 2 table. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 Is most closely related to the ease with which an element in any given group in the periodic table gains or loses electrons from 3 the highest energy level. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 Can be determined for each isotope of an element by deflection of gaseous ions of the element in electrostatic and electromagnetic 4 fields. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 None of the individual atoms of an element may have the value of this. It is a kind of average of the values pertaining to the 5 isotopes of the element. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 6 Equals the number of planetary electrons in the neutral atom of an 9 element. 2200033 BCE 35 21101 31 0293026380011190 ETS2WVW MACROITEM STEM 2The following questions refer to the "building blocks" of matter. 2For each item select from the key the correct response. 2 A. Molecule 2 B. Neutron 2 C. Atom 2 D. Electron 0 E. Proton MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 A particle which accounts for some elements having several atomic 1 weights MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 The smallest particle of a pure substance that can exist and retain 2 all its properties MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 9 The charged particle found only in the nucleus 2200034 B 15 21107 31 03510342800111 ETS2WVW It is generally supposed that the atom is A. a solid but elastic sphere B. a positively charged mucleus and one or more planetary electrons C. a negatively charged nucleus and one or more planetary protons D. an equal number of positrons and electrons distributed in pairs E. a negatively charged nucleus and an equal amount 9 of positive charge distributed around it 2200035 D 15 21113 31 04950189800111 ETS2WVW The smallest particle of any chemical element that can exist by itself and retain the qualities that distinguish it as an element is the A. electron B. proton C. neutron D. atom 9 E. molecule 2200036 B 15 21116 31 03510065800111 ETS2WVW Numbers expressing how much heavier one kind of atom is than another kind of atom, are known as A. atomic numbers B. atomic weight C. symbols of the elements D. molecular weights 9 E. chemical formulae 2200037 E 15 21119 31 03510196800111 ETS2WVW 5 1 All atoms, with the exception of H, are composed of 4 1 4 1 A. ions, plutons and cathode rays B. molecules, geigers and electrons C. neutrons, electrons and alpha particles D. radioactivity, lead and protons 9 E. protons, electrons and neutrons 2200038 D 15 21124 52 051305720272 0044 During the twentieth century classical atomic theory has been substantially revised by certain key experiments and by quantum theory. Which of the following statements is representative of classical atomic theory? A. All atoms have their mass concentrated in a very small fraction of their volume, called the nucleus. B. The atom is composed of protons, neutrons and electrons. C. Electrons in matter are more conveniently described as waves than as particles. D. All atoms of the same element have the same mass. 9 E. The atomic number is the number of protons in the nucleus. 2200039 A 15 21132 31 05130342 0028 The nucleus of an atom is: A. positively charged and has a high density. B. negatively charged and has a high density. C. positively charged and has a low density. D. negatively charged and has a low density. 9 E. none of these. 2200040 C 15 21136 31 03510513 0028 Atoms are best described as having A. protons and electrons in the nucleus, and electrons outside the nucleus with the number of electrons equal to the number of protons. B. protons, neutrons, and electrons in the nucleus, and also electrons outside the nucleus. C. protons and neutrons in the nucleus, and electrons outside the nucleus with the number of protons equal to the number of electrons. D. protons and neutrons in the nucleus, and electrons outside the nucleus with the number of protons equal to the number of neutrons. E. protons and neutrons in the nucleus and electrons outside the nucleus with the number of neutrons equal to the 9 number of electrons. 2200041 D 14 21146 31 05130710 0026 How would Dalton's atomic theory explain the law of conservation of matter? A. It is obvious by weighing the reactants and then the products that no matter is lost nor gained. B. The ratio of the weights of the atoms composing a molecule of a compound is the macroscopic ratio of weights of the elements in the compound. C. Molecules are composed of a definite ratio of whole atoms. D. In a chemical reaction, the atoms forming the molecules of the reactants are simply regrouped to form the molecules 9 of the products. 2200042 B 14 21154 31 05130710 0026 Each of the following is a part of Dalton's atomic theory except one. Which is it? A. All atoms of a given element are alike especially in weight B. Atoms contain a nucleus composed of protons and neutrons C. Atoms are indivisible D. Atoms unite in whole number ratios to form molecules of 9 compounds. 2200043 B 14 21159 31 035305130710 0026 Dalton's concept of the atom was considered insufficient because of all of the following discoveries but one. A. Cathode rays B. Isotopes C. Natural radioactivity 9 D. Law of constant composition. 2200045 C 14 21162 31 06170583 0026 What part of Dalton's theory was shown to be wrong by the discovery of radioactivity? A. The ultimate particle of a compound in a molecule B. Atoms are permanent, unchanging bodies C. Atoms of a given element all weigh the same D. Two or more kinds of atoms may combine in different ways to 9 form more than one kind of molecule. 2200046 E 15 21167 31 0263 0020 5 + H --> H + ___ A. alpha particle B. neon atom C. neutron D. proton 9 E. electron 2200047 D 14 21169 31 035104950244 0009 Experimental support for the existence of atoms and subatomic particles includes all of the following except: A. radioactive decay B. electrical discharge through gases C. metal foil scattering of alpha particles 9 D. continuous mechanical subdivision of a single crystal 2200048 A 14 21173 52 057814140495 0019 In a mass spectrometer, which of the following statements is true for positive ions in which one electron has been removed from the atom? A. The lightest particles are deflected the most B. The particles gain electrons C. The heaviest particles are deflected the most 9 D. All particles are deflected to the same extent 2200049 B 15 21178 31 051303510342 0040 Each of the following is a part of the postulates of atomic theory except one. Which is it? A. All atoms of a given element are similar to one another. B. Atoms contain a nucleus composed of protons and neutrons. C. Atoms are considered to be indestructible. D. Only whole atoms can participate in or result from a chemical reaction. 9 E. All atoms of a given element have similar chemical properties 2200050 B 15 21184 32 035714650358 0040 In the Rutherford gold-foil experiment, the fact that most of the alpha particles were not deflected by the gold foil indicates that A. the nucleus is positively charged B. the atom is mostly empty space C. atoms are solid spheres touching each other D. gold is very dense 9 E. gold is composed of many atoms. 2200051 A 15 21189 31 058305130345 0034 Dalton based his atomic theory partially on A. the law of definite composition B. the electrical conductivity of substances C. the law of combining volumes D. aristotle[s concepts of matter 9 E. the valences of the various elements 2200052 D 15 21193 31 035706161373 0034 Which of the following was not proposed by Ernest Rutherford? 3 ___ A. the nature of alpha rays B. the nature of beta rays C. the nature of gamma rays D. the nature of x-rays 9 E. all of the above were proposed by Rutherford 2200053 A 15 21197 31 035703511571 0034 Rutherford based his solar system model of the atom partly on the fact that A. deflections of alpha particles were extremely rare on passing through metal foils B. deflections of alpha particles were quite frequent but usually the deflections were by small angles C. occasionally alpha particles were captured by the atomic nucleus D. all of them passed through the metal foils undeflected 9 E. none of them passed througn the metal foils undeflected 2200054 D 14 21204 52 018903531291 0038 An element has an isotope containing the same number of protons and neutrons in its nucleus. Its mass number is 40. How many electrons will it have in its outermost shell? 3 _________ 9 A. eight B. six C. four D. two E. five 2200055 C 14 21208 32 035403370065 0038 Argon has a smaller atomic number, but a higher atomic weight than potassium. This inconsistency is due to: A. more protons in the argon nucleus B. more electrons in the outer shell of argon C. more neutrons in the argon nucleus 9 D. a larger number of electron shells in the K atom 2200056 C 15 21212 32 034203410065 0038 If the nucleus is composed only of protons and neutrons, how many neutrons are present in the nucleus of the element of atomic weight 119 and atomic number 50? 9 A. 119 B. 79 C. 69 D. none of these E. 65 2210001 A 15 21215 32 03610351800112 ETS2 OS According to the Bohr theory of the atom, the inert gases are most accurately characterized as elements whose atoms have A. the greatest possible number of electrons in the state with the highest principal quantum number occuring in the most stable configuration of the atom B. both very high ionization energy and very little ability to attract additional electrons C. no ability to lose electrons D. no ability to gain electrons 9 E. no ability to gain or to lose electrons 2210002 D 15 21222 32 00150019800112 ETS2 OS It was realized during the nineteenth century that the characteristic physical and chemical properties of the metallic elements can be explained as due to a tendency of their atoms to become positively charged. This tendency is accounted for in Bohr's theory of the atom as a direct result of metallic atoms having A. few electrons B. many electrons C. relatively low ionization energy in their most stable states D. electrons in the outermost electron shell 9 E. quantum numbers greater than those of non-metallic atoms 2210005 C 15 21229 51 03610159800114 ETS2 OS The principal reason for the existence of the problem attacked by Bohr was that A. while radiation is emitted by atoms in a discrete fashion as far as frequency is concerned (line spectra), the emission nevertheless appears to be continuous in time. B. the observed scattering of alpha particles, according to Rutherford, is compatible only with a nuclear model of the atom. C. radiation phenomena indicate that, since atoms emit light, they must lose energy, and thus cannot exist in "stationary" states of constant energy; on the other hand, stationary states are required to account for the stability of the atom. D. the Rutherford atom could not be stable if its electrons were at rest, nor, according to Maxwell's electrodynamics, if they were in motion; on the otherhand, the Planck-Einstein theory of radiation involved concepts different from and contradictory to those of Maxwell's theory. E. the fact that elements have characteristic spectra, exhibited by them both in the uncombined state and in compounds, indicates that these spectra are due to processes within 9 individual atoms. 2210006 C 15 21245 51 03420351800111 ETS2WVW 1. The nucleus of an atom contains only protons and electrons as separate particles. 2. The number of electrons in an atom in the normal state equals the number of protons. 3. The nucleus of an atom contains protons and neutrons. 4. The number of neutrons in an atom always gives the atomic number. 5. An atom may lose one or more electrons in ordinary chemical reactions. Which of the following choices lists all and only those statements above which are correct according to the theory of the Bohr atom? A. 1 and 3 B. 2 and 4 C. 2, 3 and 5 D. 2, 3, and 4 9 E. 1, 2, and 3 2210007 B 15 21253 51 0224035102631290 ETS2WVW 2The first set of relationships established by Bohr in his 2discussion of systems consisting of a single electron revolving 2about a nucleus is given by the formulae 5 1/2 3/2 1/2 w = (2 ) x (u )/(p x e x e x m )/u 4 1 1 2 2 2 x r =(e x e )/u 4 1 2 2where w is the orbital frequency of an electron of charge e and 4 1 2a mass m moving about a nucleus of charge e in an orbit of radius r 4 2 and ionization energy u. The importance of these relationships in Bohr's theory lies in the fact that A. they give the radius of the orbit and the frequency of revolution as functions of the charge of the electron. B. they give the radius of the orbit and the frequency of revolution as functions of the charge of the nucleus. C. they give the radius of the orbit and the frequency of revolution as functions of the ionization energy. D. they express Bohr's hypothesis concerning the necessary and sufficient conditions for the existence of stationary states. 9 E. they determine the size of the atom. 2210008 AC 25 21298 52 0357035100391390 ETS2WVW MACROITEM STEM 0 Answer the following questions. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 In Rutherford's calculations, he assumes that the atom with which an alpha particle interacts is at rest during the interaction. The mass of a gold atom is approximately 50 times the mass of an 5 9 alpha particle. If a single alpha particle, moving at 2 x 10 cm./sec., meets a gold atom and is deflected through 180 degrees, emerging at the same speed with which it entered, and if the total momentum of the particle and the atom is the same before and after the encounter, the atom must have acquired a speed of A. zero 5 -2 B. 2 x 10 cm./sec. C. 1 cm./sec. 5 7 D. 8 x 10 cm./sec. 5 8 1 E. 5 x 10 cm./sec. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 In the light of the considerations given in the preceding item, which of the following remarks is justified concerning the status of Rutherford's assumption that the atoms are stationary? A. In the experiments cited by Rutherford, the speeds of the alpha 5 9 particles were only 1.7 and 1.8 x 10 cm./sec., so that the result of the calculation in the preceding item is not directly relevant. B. Rutherford is entitled to assume that the forces between the atoms, which give the metal its solidity, prevent any one atom from acquiring a high speed; the momentum imparted by the encounter is therefore not carried by a single atom, but shared among many. C. The considerations given in the preceding item bear out Rutherford's assumption that the velocity imparted to the atom is either zero or insignificant. D. The considerations given in the preceding item are not easily reconciled with Rutherford's assumption; hence, since that assumption is required to derive his results (which accord with experiment), some modification of classical mechanics-- possibly giving up the law of the conservation of momentum-- is indicated. E. Rutherford's assumption is not affected by the considerations given, since that assumption has the status of a working hypothesis which is justified as long as it leads to results 9 borne out by experiment. 2210009 B 14 21328 32 1110 05 Almost all the mass of an atom is due to A. its protons and electrons C. its protons B. its neutrons and protons D. its neutrons 9 E. its neutrons and electons 2210010 B 15 21331 31 01480357800114 ETS2WVW The failure of classical physics, applied to the Rutherford atom model, to account for the stability of the atom leads Bohr to attempt to answer the question A. Do there exist other processes which classical physics is unable to explain? B. How can we explain the existence of stable atoms, in which electrons circulate around the nucleus but do not produce radiation? C. How can we determine which of the imaginable orbits of the electron in the atom are in fact stable (classical physics not withstanding)? D. If electrons circulating about nuclei do not emit radiation, then what becomes of the energy which, according to classical physics, should be emitted in this fashion? E. If the light emitted by atoms does not constitute 9 electromagnetic radiation, then what sort of process is it? 2210011 E 15 21343 31 03420263800116 ETS2WVW The attraction of the nucleus for electrons diminishes as the invervening space increases. Which of the following is the best experimental evidence for this statement? A. Alkali metals have many properties in common. B. Gas spectra consist of a series of sharp lines. C. Beta-ray emission does not change the atomic weight of the radioactive element. D. Iodine is chemically less active than is chlorine. 9 E. None of the above is good evidence. 2210012 D 15 21350 31 03610351800111 ETS2WVW The Bohr picture of the atom A. was devised to explain combining weights B. fails to explain why rapidly moving alpha particles ionize gases C. explains a negative electrovalence of one by setting up the 3 ___ electron configuration 2,8,9 D. explains the line spectrum of hydrogen 9 E. explains the complete ionization of electrovalent compounds 2210013 E 15 21356 31 03610590800111 ETS2WVW According to the Bohr theory, visible radiations of light from atoms or molecules are directly due to A. small particles ejected from the nuclei of the atoms B. photons absorbed by the atoms C. revolution of the electrons in their orbits D. electrons jumping from an inner to an outer orbit 9 E. electrons falling from an outer to an inner orbit 2210014 D 14 21361 31 03510263 0041 In the Bohr model of the atom, the electrons revolve around the nucleus of an atom so as to A. emit spectral lines B. produce x-rays C. form energy levels that depend upon their speeds only 9 D. keep from falling into the nucleus 2210015 D 14 21365 31 03510263 0041 According to the Bohr model of the atom, an electron in a stable orbit A. radiates electromagnetic energy continuously B. emits only spectral lines C. remains there forever 9 D. can jump to another orbit if given enough energy 2210016 C 14 21369 31 026305860342 0041 An electron can revolve in an orbit around an atomic nucleus without radiating energy provided that the orbit A. is far enough away from the nucleus B. is less than a de broglie wavelength in circumference C. is an integral number of de broglie wavelengths in circumference 9 D. is a perfect circle 2210017 C 15 45649 32 059403610347 0018 Which of the following is not a main postulate of the Bohr theory? 3 ___ A. The electron moves around a heavy positively charged nucleus in a circular orbit. B. Only certain orbits (energy levels) are allowed. C. An atomic orbital is a region in space where there is a 90% probability of finding an electron. D. Any loss or gain in the energy of the electron must come from transitions from one energy level to another. 9 E. All of the above ARE main postulates of the Bohr theory. 2210018 A 15 21381 51 134502630586 0020 According to the Bohr postulates of the atom A. electrons can have only certain allowed energies B. electrons must remain in fixed orbits C. orbits closest to the nucleus have the highest energy D. all electrons are the same distance from the nucleus 9 E. none of these 2210019 E 15 21385 31 006902900330 0034 Bohr's atomic model was built around an explanation of A. the ionization potentials of the elements B. the transition elements C. wave mechanics D. chemical bonding 9 E. the spectrum of hydrogen 2300001 D 15 21388 31 00140306006511 ETS2WVW Why is the weight of carbon-12 a good standard upon which to base the relative atomic weights of other elements? A. It is heavy. B. It is of relatively low density. C. It unites with many other elements. D. It is readily available. 9 E. It unites with no other elements. 2300002 A 15 21392 31 03660065800111 ETS2WVW In order to apply Cannizzaro's method for determining the atomic weight of an element, one must know, in addition to composition by weight of several of its compounds, A. the specific gravities of several compounds in the vapor state B. the specific heat of the element C. either the data in A or that in B D. the specific heats of several compounds of the element 9 E. all of the data in A, B, and D. 2300003 C 15 21398 31 03980351800111 ETS2WVW The mass of an atom is concentrated in a very small part of the total volume of the atom, that is, the nucleus. This statement is substantiated most by the observation that A. gases can be compressed into very small volumes. B. gases diffuse through one another. C. alpha particles penetrate thin sheets of gold. D. atoms neither gain nor lose mass during chemical reactions. 9 E. light passes through many substances. 2300004 D 15 21404 31 04450351800111 ETS2WVW The relative weights of atoms may be determined most appropriately by the A. zinc-sulphate fluorescent screen B. Wilson cloud chamber C. Geiger counter D. mass spectrograph 9 E. electron microscope 2300005 D 15 21407 31 00650351800111 ETS2WVW The atomic mass of most atoms depends almost entirely upon the mass of the A. electrons of the atom B. protons of the atom C. electrons and protons of the atom D. protons and neutrons of the atom 9 E. electrons and neutrons of the atom 2300006 D 15 21411 31 00650351800111 ETS2WVW The atomic weight of most atoms depends almost entirely upon 3 ______ the weight of the A. electrons of the atom B. protons of the atom C. electrons and protons of the atom D. protons and neutrons of the atom 9 E. electrons and neutrons of the atom 2300007 BDCCA 55 21415 52 0158006680011390 ETS2WVW MACROITEM STEM 2Gaseous element X has a specific gravity (relative to oxygen) of 20.94; gaseous element Y has a specific gravity of 3.75. they form 2three gaseous compounds with each other, the combining weights 2and specific gravities being tabulated below. 2 Specific 2 Combining weights gravities 2compound I 1 g X + 2 g Y 2.8 2compound II 1 g X + 4 g Y 1.2 2compound III 1 g X + 8 g Y 4.2 2(the atomic weight of oxygen is 16.0; its molecule contains 2two atoms.) 0 Using this information, answer the following questions. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 Which of the compounds would be considered as binary according to Dalton's method for determining atomic weight? A. Compound I B. Compound II C. Compound III D. All of these are equally likely to be binary. 1 E. None of these could be binary, since no ratio is 1:1. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 Using Dalton's method, the atomic weight of element Y is calculated to be A. two B. twice that of element X C. three D. four times that of element X 2 E. eight MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 How would the application of Cannizzaro's method for determining the atomic weight of element Y constitute an improvement over Dalton's method? A. By identifying the spatially separate particles of element Y as molecules instead of atoms B. By postulating that the molecules of element Y consist of two atoms C. By utilizing molecular weights calculated from the specific gravities listed D. By defining atomic weights in terms of oxygen as a standard instead of hydrogen E. By yielding absolute atomic weights rather than merely 3 relative atomic weights MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 What are the relative volumes of the gases involved in the formation of compound I? A. 1 of X and 1 of Y yield 2 of compound I. B. 1 Of X and 2 of Y yield 2 of compound I. C. 2 Of X and 1 of Y yield 2 of compound I. D. 1 Of X and 2 of Y yield 3 of compound I. 4 E. The data give NO information on this matter. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 Division of the molecule of element Y must have occured in the formation of A. compound I only B. compound II only C. compounds I and II, but not III D. compound III only 9 E. none of these compounds 2300008 C 15 21444 31 03980351800111 ETS2WVW The mass of an atom is most closely related to the sum of the masses of its A. protons alone B. protons and electrons C. protons and neutrons D. neutrons alone 9 E. electrons alone 2300009 D 15 21447 31 03510097800112 ETS2WVW If an atom has 9 protons and 10 neutrons in its nucleus, and 9 planetary electrons, its atomic weight is probably A. 9 B. 10 C. 18 D. 19 9 E. 28 2300010 A 15 21450 31 00650189800111 ETS2WVW In general, the atomic weight of an element is equal to A. the sum of the weights of the protons and neutrons in the nucleus B. twice the atomic number C. the molecular weight in grams D. the sum of the protons and the planetary electrons 9 E. the sum of the neutrons and the valence electrons 2300011 C 15 21455 31 00650014800111 ETS2WVW The present-day table of atomic weights is based upon an arbitrary weight assigned to A. hydrogen B. salt C. carbon D. water 9 E. oxygen 2300012 B 15 21458 52 071101 0064 If the atomic weight of carbon had been assigned exactly 100 amu, instead of 12 amu, the atomic weight of oxygen would have been 9 A. 104 B. 133 C. 16 D. 128 E. none of these 2300013 B 14 21461 31 111001890337 0041 The atomic mass of an element in amu is A. always equal to or less than its atomic number B. always equal to or greater than its atomic number C. equal to its atomic number except in the case of isotopes D. sometimes greater and somtimes smaller than its atomic 9 number 2300014 B 15 21465 32 03510065 0047 5 21 In 0.37 g of X there are 3.01 x 10 atoms of X. The atomic weight of X is 5 -1 -1 -1 A. 37.0 g mole B. 74.0 g mole C. 142.0 g mole 5 -1 -1 9 D. 35.5 g mole E. 16.0 g mole 2300015 C 15 21469 52 141500650189 0044 The principle of Dulong and Petit states that the product of the atomic weight of a solid element and its specific heat, measured at room temperature, is approximately 6.2 cal per g-atom per degree. A prospector has asked you to identify the most abundant element in a mineral sample he has found. You chemically separate the most abundant element and determine that its 5 -1 specific heat is 1.11 x 10 cal per gram per degree. What is the element? 9 A. Be B. Mg C. Fe D. Ni E. Cu. 2300016 B 15 21476 32 111003530341 0018 The atomic mass of an isotope of chlorine,Cl,having eighteen neutrons is 9 A. 18 B. 35 C. 36 D. 35.45 E. none of these 2300017 E 15 21478 31 03510445 0018 The weight of an atom depends on A. the number of electrons B. the number of protons and electrons C. the number of neutrons and electrons D. the number of protons 9 E. none of these 2300018 C 14 21481 31 006514130351 0009 The atomic weight of chlorine is 35.5. This means that A. the actual weight of a Cl atom is not known more accurately than to three digits B. a variable number of electrons gives a fractional value C. on the average, an atom of Cl weighs almost three times as much as an atom of carbon 9 D. chlorine occurs with a variable number of protons 2300019 D 14 21486 32 006503981315 0009 Suppose the atomic weight scale had been set up with calcium, Ca, chosen for a mass of exactly 10 units, rather than about 40 on the present scale. On such a scale, the atomic weight of oxygen would be about 9 A. 64 B. 32 C. 16 D. 4 2300020 B 14 21490 31 006507140634 0009 The most direct method for determining atomic weights is: A. gas density measurements B. mass spectroscopy 9 C. combining weights D. alpha-particle scattering 2300021 D 15 21493 32 006503530189 0040 Element A exists in three isotopic forms with weights of 21.0, 25.0, and 26.0 respectively. Element B also exists in three isotopic forms with weights of 22.0, 24.0, and 26.0 respectively. It is true that A. element A will have a higher atomic weight than B. B. element B will have a higher atomic weight than A. C. they will have identical atomic weights since the sum of their isotopic weights are equal. D. you cannot predict which atomic weight is greater from the data given. 9 E. no correct response is given. 2300022 A 15 21501 32 033703530006 0040 Chlorine consists of two naturally occurring isotopes with weights of 35.0 and 37.0 amu. The atomic weight of natural chlorine is 35.453 amu. It is true that A. chlorine-35 is present on the largest amount. B. chlorine-37 is present in the largest amount. C. chlorine-35 and chlorine-37 are present in exactly equal quantities. D. the two are present in about equal quantities. 3 _____ 9 E. it is impossible to determine from given information. 2300023 C 15 21508 31 006501890353 0040 The atomic weight of an element is: A. the weight of any single atom of that element B. the weight of a particular isotope of that element C. the average weight of atoms of that element compared to a standard D. the average weight of a particular isotope of that element compared to a standard 9 E. a multiple of the weight of carbon. 2300024 D 15 21513 32 035103420065 0035 If an atom has 9 protons and 10 neutrons in its nucleus, and 9 planetary electrons, its atomic weight is probably 9 A. 9 B. 10 C. 18 D. 19 E. 28 2300025 C 14 21516 32 02070065 0003 The specific heat of calcium is: A. 0.273 cal/g-deg B. 0.232 cal/g-deg C. 0.157 cal/g-deg 9 E. 0.102 cal/g-deg 2300026 B 14 21518 32 02070065 0003 If the specific heat of nickel is 0.105, the approximate atomic weight of this element is: 9 A. 34 B. 60 C. 120 D. 6.7 2300027 B 14 21520 52 19451313 0056 The present atomic weight scale is based on A. natural carbon 5 12 B. C C. natural oxygen 5 16 9 D. O 2300028 A 15 21522 52 071101 0064 Given the substances: nitrogen, manganese, nickel, silver, silicon, and magnesium. Arranged left to right in order of increasing atomic weight, the chemical symbols are: A. N, Mg, Si, Mn, Ni, Ag B. N, Mg, S, Mn, Ni, Si C. Ni, Mn, Si, Mg, N, Ag D. N, Mn, Sc, Mg, Ni, Si 9 E. N, Mg, Sc, Mn, Ni, Ag 2300029 E 15 21527 52 071101 0064 A compound of formula AB contains 40% A by weight. The atomic 4 3 weight of A must be A. one-half that of B. B. equal to that of B. C. three times that of B. D. one-third that of B. 9 E. twice that of B. 2300030 D 15 21531 52 071101 0064 Consider the compound X Y that is 60.0% X and 40.0% Y by weight. 4 2 5 From these data, it can be concluded that the ratio of the atomic weight of X to the atomic weight of Y is 9 A. 1.50 B. 0.667 C. 1.33 D. 3.75 E. 2.67 2300031 C 15 21535 52 071101 0064 Atom Z is found to be 12.0 times as heavy as a carbon atom. You wish to prepare a compound that contains 2 atoms of carbon for every 1 atom of Z. If 1.00 g of carbon is used, how many grams of Z are required? 9 A. 12.0 B. 48.0 C. 6.00 D. 3.00 E. 24.0 2300032 A 15 21539 52 071101 0064 A 2.0000-gram sample of element X reacted with oxygen to form 2.5392 grams of the compound XO . Taking 16.00 amu for the atomic 4 2 weight of oxygen, determine the identity of element X. 9 A. Sn B. Si C. Co D. Ti E. C 2310001 E 15 21543 51 03530351800111 ETS2WVW An isotope is A. a new but unstable element B. a new compound C. a form of an element which has different chemical properties but the same weight as another form of that element D. an old previously-known compound with the same chemical characteristics but a new molecular weight E. an atom of an element which has the same chemical characteristics as another atom of the element but 9 different atomic weight 2310002 B 15 21549 31 03530573800111 ETS2WVW Separation of the isotopes of uranium requires a physical method rather than a chemical method because A. it is too dangerous to mix other chemicals with uranium. B. they are chemically the same element. C. they differ in number of neutrons. D. it is the heaviest element in nature. 9 E. natural uranium contains only 0.7% U-235. 2310003 A 15 21554 31 05820591800111 ETS2WVW In positive-ray analysis A. a combination of magnetic and electrical fields sorts out atoms according to their atomic number. B. cathode rays are separated into groups according to their ratio of mass to charge. C. positively charged atoms are split into groups according to their group number in the periodic table. D. atoms of the same mass and charge hit a photographic plate at the same point. E. isotopes of the same element converge to the same point 9 on a photographic plate. 2310004 D 15 21562 31 03530351800111 ETS2WVW In which of the following ways did the discovery of isotopes change our ideas of the nature of atoms? A. it demonstrated that atoms can be broken down into smaller particles. B. it demonstrated that there is NO such thing as a pure atom. C. it has made the distinction between an atom and a molecule less clear. D. it indicated that the mass of the atom does not determine its chemical properties. E. it indicated that an element probably does not consist of 9 atoms. 2310005 C 15 21569 31 03390351800112 ETS2WVW The atomic number of lithium is 3. Some atoms of lithium have 3 neutrons but most have 4 neutrons so that the atomic weight is 6.9. This shows that lithium A. has two valences B. is not a pure substance C. exists as two isotopes D. has a negative valence 9 E. has several distributions of its electrons 2310006 A 15 21574 31 05640342800111 ETS2WVW A deuteron is A. the nucleus of a heavy hydrogen atom B. a neutron with two positive charges C. an electron with a positive charge D. a type of large molecule 9 E. an atom of a recently discovered element 2310007 E 15 21577 31 05640342800111 ETS2WVW Isotopes are elements A. with two or more forms, like graphite and the diamond B. with the same atomic weight but different molecular weights C. which have both positive and negative valences D. which can exist in two or more states at the same temperature E. with the same atomic number but a different number of 9 neutrons 2310008 B 15 21582 31 01890353800111 ETS2WVW A chemical element is found to consist of serveral substances of different atomic weights but identical chemical properties. These substances are called A. allotropic forms B. isotypes C. electrons D. deuterons 9 E. isobars 2310009 A 15 21586 31 03510189800111 ETS2WVW The atoms of a given element may differ in atomic weight, have different physical characteristics and yet not vary chemically. This is because of a variation in the number of their A. neutrons B. electrons C. protons D. two of the above 9 E. all of the first three 2310010 E 15 21590 31 03530189800111 ETS2WVW An isotope is A. a new but unstable element B. a new compound C. a form of an element which has different chemical properties but the same weight as another form of that element D. an old previously known compound with the same chemical characteristics but a new molecular weight E. an atom of an element which has the same chemical characteristics as another atom of the element but 9 different atomic weight 2310011 E 15 21597 31 04950189800111 ETS2WVW A particle which accounts for some elements having several atomic weights is the A. molecule B. electron C. proton D. ion 9 E. neutron 2310012 D 14 21600 31 084700658004 2WVW Tritium has an atomic weight of A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 9 D. 3 2310013 E 15 21601 31 03530189800111 ETS2WVW Isotopes of a given element differ only in A. position in the periodic table B. number of electrons outside the nucleus C. atomic numbers D. positive charge of the nucleus 9 E. number of neutrons in the nucleus 2310014 D 14 21604 31 035301968004 2WVW An isotope of hydrogen is A. neptunium B. plutonium C. thorium 9 D. tritium 2310015 D 15 21606 31 03530351800111 ETS2WVW Isotopes are A. atoms having the same nuclear charge and the same mass B. atoms having different nuclear charges and the same mass C. atoms having different nuclear charges and different masses D. atoms having the same nuclear charge and different masses 9 E. atoms having negative nuclear charges 2310016 B 14 21611 32 0353 05 Two isotopes of the same element contain different numbers of A. electrons C. protons 9 B. neutrons D. protons and electrons 2310017 A 14 21613 31 035301898004 2 OS Isotopes of a particular element differ in all of the following except A. chemical properties B. nuclear structures C. atomic masses 9 D. density 2310018 C 14 21616 31 019603538004 2 OS The hydrogen atom isotope which consists of one proton, one neutron and one electron is known as A. hydronium B. plutonium C. deuterium D. tritium 9 E. the alpha particle 2310019 B 14 21619 31 035301898004 2 OS Isotopes of a particular element have a different number of A. electrons B. neutrons C. protons 9 D. energy levels 2310020 B 14 21621 31 035301898004 2 OS Isotopes of a particular element have a different number of A. electrons B. neutrons C. protons 9 D. energy levels 2310021 A 14 21623 31 033703538004 2 OS The atomic number of the isotopes of hydrogen is A. always 1 B. sometimes 2 C. 3, since there are three isotopes 9 D. 1.0078 2310022 B 14 21625 31 035103420097 0041 Atoms whose nuclei contain the same numbers of protons but different numbers of neutrons are called 9 A. alpha particles B. isotopes C. radioactive D. positrons 2310023 E 15 21628 32 035301890351 0042 If two isotopes of a certain element are known, it follows that some of the atoms of that element: A. have different numbers of protons in their nuclei B. have different number of positrons in their nuclei C. have different chemical properties D. are naturally radioactive 9 E. have different numbers of neutrons in their nuclei. 2310024 C 14 21633 32 02930445 0043 The following two molecules have practically the same weight: A. H O and D O B. H O and HOT 4 2 2 2 C. D O and HOT D. DOT and HOD. 94 2 2310025 E 15 21636 52 018903530204 0044 A hypothetical element has the following isotopic composition: isotope mass percent abundance 76 75.9217 27.6 78 77.9212 72.4 What is the atomic weight of the element? (75.9217 + 77.9212) A. (27.6)(75.9217)+(72.4)(77.9212) B. ------------------- 2 (76 + 78) C. --------- D. 75.9217 + 77.9212 E. none of the above. 9 2 2310026 C 15 21643 52 018900650353 0044 A hypothetical element has atomic weight 33.51 grams/gram-atom. It is composed of two isotopes of mass 33.92 and 32.93. What is the percentage of the heavier isotope? 9 A. 0.415 B. 1.41 C. 58.5 D. 41.5 E. 71.1. 2310027 D 14 21646 31 10550669034051 9000 5 3 4 5 The species He, He, and He represent three 4 2 2 2 9 A. allotropes B. isomers C. homologs D. isotopes E. conformers 2310028 B 15 21649 51 039803530454 0018 The mass of an isotope is ------------ the sum of the masses of the individual constitutents. A. greater than B. less than C. about the same as D. may be greater than or less than 9 E. cannot predict 2310029 B 15 21652 32 006505130353 0028 542 Ca has 420 A. 22 protons in the nucleus. B. 22 neutrons in the nucleus. C. 22 electrons outside the nucleus. D. 20 neutrons in the nucleus. 9 E. 20 electrons in the nucleus. 2310030 B 15 21656 52 5 20 22 Element X was found to come in two forms: 90.0% X and 10.0% X. 4 10 10 What is the atomic mass of element X? 9 A. 20.1 B. 20.2 C. 20.8 D. 21.2 E. 21.8 2310031 B 15 21660 32 006503530341 0028 An isotope having an atomic number of 22 and a mass number of 49 would have A. 27 protons in the nucleus B. 27 neutrons in the nucleus C. 27 electrons outside the nucleus D. 22 neutrons in the nucleus 9 E. none of these 2310032 B 14 21664 31 051303530065 0026 Two isotopes of the same element must necessarily differ in their A. atomic numbers B. atomic weights 9 C. number of electrons D. charge. 2310033 B 14 21666 31 006503410353 0026 An atom of an element has an atomic weight of 75 and an atomic number of 35. How many neutrons per atom? 9 A. 35 B. 40 C. 75 D. 110. 2310034 D 15 21668 31 116507880196 0020 Heavy water contains A. deuterium oxide B. deutrium C. heavy hydrogen D. all of these 9 E. none of these 2310035 D 15 21670 31 035301960847 0020 The hydrogen isotope with an atomic mass of 3.00 is A. deuterium B. deuterium oxide C. heavy water D. tritium 5 2 E. D 94 1 2310036 E 15 21672 31 122412251226 0020 A major use for radioactive isotopes occurs in A. tracer experiments B. medicine C. agriculture research D. industry 9 E. all of these 2310037 D 15 21675 31 03530337 0020 Isotopes A. must have the same mass B. have different nuclear charges C. contain the same number of neutrons D. must have the same atomic number 9 E. none of these 2310038 E 15 21678 31 035303370342 0020 5 84 The isotope Kr 4 36 A. has a mass number of 84 B. contains 48 neutrons C. has a nucleus with a +36 charge D. has an atomic number of 36 9 E. all of these 2310039 E 15 21681 31 035313390189 0020 An isotope is defined as A. elements with the same atomic mass B. elements with the same number of neutrons C. different compounds containing the same elements D. an element with atoms containing the same number of protons but slightly different numbers of electrons E. an element with atoms containing the same number of protons 9 but slightly different numbers of neutrons 2310040 E 15 21687 31 081203420353 0020 The symbol for the nucleus of an isotope of gallium, element number 31, atomic mass 69.72, is 5 31 101 31 69.72 70 A. Ga B. Ga C. Ga D. Ga E. Ga 4 70 31 69 31 31 9 2310041 D 15 21691 52 018903530065 0019 An element in its naturally occurring form is made up of 85% of an isotope of mass 24.0 amu and 15% of an isotope of mass 26.0 amu. The atomic mass of this element is 9 A. 24.85 B. 26.15 C. 24.7 D. 24.3 E. 25.0 2310042 A 14 44638 31 035301890337 0019 An isotope of an element A. has the same atomic number, but different mass number B. disintegrates to yield the radiation of energy and a new element C. has the same atomic mass but a different atomic number D. has an inequality in the number of protons and electrons 9 E. has a different arrangement of atoms 2310043 A 14 21698 31 084703420097 0019 The tritium nucleus consists of ------. A. one proton and two neutrons B. one proton and one neutron C. one proton and two electrons 9 D. one proton and three neutrons 2310044 B 15 21701 31 035308120189 0040 Which of the following pairs of symbols represent isotopes of one element? 5 2 5 10 11 10 10 A. X and X B. X and X C. X and X 4 1 2 4 4 5 4 5 5 5 D. X and X 4 1 2 9 E. both C and d 2310045 C 15 21705 31 035308120341 0040 5 65 The symbol Zn indicates that this isotope contains 4 30 A. 35 protons and 35 neutrons B. 35 protons and 30 neutrons C. 30 protons and 35 neutrons 9 E. 30 protons and 65 neutrons 2310046 B 15 21708 31 034200970353 0040 Isotopes of the same element differ from each other in what way? A. They have different numbers of protons in the nucleus. B. They have different numbers of neutrons in the nucleus. C. They have different numbers of electrons outside the nucleus. D. Both A and C 9 E. both B and C. 2310047 B 15 21713 31 03530573 0040 Which pair represents isotopes? 5 54 54 235 238 A. Cr and Fe B. U and U 4 24 26 92 92 5 116 116 239 239 C. Cd and Sn D. Np and Pu 4 48 50 93 94 5 4 3 E. He and Li 94 2 3 2310048 C 15 21718 31 018903530578 0035 To determine whether or not a given element has isotopes, scientists A. seek chemical reactions which will separate different forms. B. use the fog-track apparatus. C. use the mass spectrograph of Aston. D. use a centrifuge so that the heavier atoms will be separated from the lighter ones. 9 E. use a zinc sulfide flourescent screen. 2310049 C 15 21723 31 033703510065 0035 The atomic number of lithium is 3. Some atoms of lithium have 3 neutrons but most have 4 neutrons so that the atomic weight is 6.9. This shows that lithium A. has two valences B. is not a pure substance. C. exists as two isotopes. D. has a negative valence. 9 E. has several distributions of its electrons. 2310050 C 14 21728 31 035313760578 0038 Which of the following is the best indication of the existence of isotopes? A. the fact that some elements are more reactive than others B. the deflection of alpha particles on passing through thin sheets of metals C. the appearance of more than one line in the mass spectrum of an element in the mass spectrometer D. the appearance of more than one line in the emission 9 spectrum of an incandescent element 2310051 A 15 21734 32 035103420540 0038 Two different atoms, X and y, have the same number of protons in the nucleus, but the atom of Y has two more neutrons in its nucleus than the atom of X. What may we infer from this information? A. both atoms have the same valence B. if the valence of X is 2, the valence of Y is 4 C. both atoms have the same atomic weight D. the atom of Y has two more electrons than an atom of Y E. the percentage of X in the oxide of X is the same as the 9 percentage of Y in the oxide of Y 2310052 A 14 21741 52 1944 0055 Isotopes of the same element have A. different neutron numbers B. different atomic numbers C. the same atomic masses 9 D. the same mass numbers 2310053 B 14 21744 52 1944 0055 Suppose that in nature three isotopes of element X occur as fol- lows: Isotope Atomic mass % 1 110.0 60.0 2 105.0 30.0 3 100.0 10.0 The atomic mass (weight) of the naturally occurring mixture of X is A. 315.0 B. 107.5 C. 105.0 9 D. 102.5 2310054 C 14 21750 52 1945 0056 Suppose that in nature a certain element consists of two isotopes with masses of 24 U and 28 U occurring in percentages of 25% and 75%, respectively. Calculate the average mass of an atom of this element in nature. A. 25 U B. 26 U C. 27 U 9 D. 52 U 2310055 A 14 21754 52 194708470097 0058 5 3 The number of protons in a tritium atom ( H) is: 9 A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 0 2330001 B 15 21756 52 80018003 13 ETS2WVW The relative abundance of the two rubidium isotopes of atomic weights 85 and 87 are 75% and 25%, respectively. The average atomic weight of rubidium is A. 85 B. 85.5 C. 86 D. 86.5 9 E. 87 2330002 C 15 21759 32 018903530065 0047 5 69 The element gallium consists of 60% Ga isotope, (mass=68.93amu) 5 71 and 40% Ga isotope (mass 70.93 amu). Calculate the atomic weight of normally occurring gallium. 9 A. 68.93 B. 69.10 C. 69.73 D. 70.93 E. 70.50 2330003 C 15 21763 31 011301950569 0018 Which of the following gases is not one of the four that account for 99.997% by volume of clean dry air? A. nitrogen B. oxygen C. krypton D. carbon dioxide 9 E. none of these(i.e.,all are) 2330004 D 15 21766 31 041501890025 0020 The most abundant element on the earth's crust is A. carbon B. nitrogen C. iron D. oxygen 9 E. water 2330005 B 15 21768 31 041501890196 0020 The most abundant element in the universe is A. oxygen B. hydrogen C. nitrogen D. carbon 9 E. iron 2330006 E 15 21770 31 130804150196 0020 In the whole solar system the most abundant elements are A. oxygen an iron B. iron and oxygen C. carbon and oxygen D. silicon and oxygen 9 E. hydrogen and helium 2330007 D 15 21773 32 018911590353 0020 An element in its naturally occurring form is made up of 15 percent of an isotope of mass 26.0 amu and 85 percent of an isotope of mass 24.0 amu. The atomic mass of this element is 9 A. 25.0 B. 26.15 C. 24.7 D. 24.3 E. 24.85 2330008 E 15 21777 31 041501891376 0040 105 different elements are known to exist. Which of the following statements relating to these elements is correct? 3 _______ A. All of these elements are found in nature. B. The last of these elements was discovered prior to 1940. C. Although they do not occur in exactly equal abundance in nature, their abundances are very close to being equal. D. The first letter of the symbol of each element begins with the same letter as does the element[s name. 9 E. Some of the elements were man made. 2330009 C 15 21785 31 041500250350 0040 The two most abundant elements in nature are A. oxygen and hydrogen B. carbon and silicon C. silicon and oxygen D. nitrogen and oxygen 9 E. chlorine and fluorine 2330010 B 15 21788 52 041503530065 0035 The relative abundance of the two rubidium isotopes of atomic weights 85 and 87 are 75% and 25%, respectively. The average atomic weight of rubidium is 9 A. 85. B. 85.5 C. 86. D. 86.5 E. 87. 2330011 B 15 21791 31 OS86 The most abundant element (by mass) in the human body is 9 A. hydrogen B. oxygen C. carbon D. nitrogen E. water 2500001 A 15 21793 31 03380353800112 ETS2 OS The electron structure of a certain neutral isotope is specified as follows: 2 electrons in K level, 8 electrons in L level, and 7 electrons in M level. Of what element is the above an isotope? A. chlorine B. oxygen C. fluorine D. beryllium 9 E. nitrogen 2500002 A 15 21797 31 03510263 12 ETS2 OS The diagram below symbolizes the structure of a particular atom. The symbols contained within multiple parenthesis represent the structure of the inner core, and the number in front of the right parenthesis represents the outer electrons. Which of the following choices best describes this diagram? (18p) (22n) 8) (10e) A. an argon atom B. an argon ion C. a chlorine ion D. a potassium ion 9 E. a potassium atom 2500003 E 15 21804 52 63038003301111 ETS2WVW Which of the following is the best evidence that electrons are arranged in definite energy levels? A. Electrons in the beta-ray have a very high energy. B. All elements do not have identical properties. C. Electrons rotate about the nucleus. D. The penetrating power of cathode ray electrons depends on the voltage used to produce them. E. Atomic spectra consist of sharp lines, not continuous bands 9 of color. 2500004 E 15 21810 31 00020351800111 ETS2WVW A sodium atom (atomic number 11) which has lent an electron in a chemical reaction, that is, has become a sodium ion, contains (select the most complete answer) A. only completely filled electronic energy levels B. an incompletely filled electronic energy level C. a number of electrons greater than the number of protons D. a number of protons greater than the number of electrons 9 E. two of the above 2500005 A 15 21816 31 03460351800111 ETS2WVW The third shell (or principle energy level) of an atom of neon (atomic number 10) contains A. 0 electrons B. 2 electrons C. 8 electrons D. 10 electrons 9 E. 18 electrons 2500006 A 15 21819 31 00650002800113 ETS2WVW The atomic weight of sodium is 23. when we start with hydrogen and arrange the elements in the order of their increasing atomic numbers, sodium is 11th on the list. From this we may determine the number of neutrons in the nucleus of the sodium atom to be A. 12 B. 11 C. 34 D. equal to the total number of electrons in the orbits about the nucleus 9 E. equal to the electrons in the outermost orbit or energy level 2500007 D 15 21825 31 01960028800111 ETS2WVW Hydrogen combines easily with non-metals because A. it is the lightest of the elements B. it consists of two electrons C. it is a gas D. it has an unfilled electronic energy level 9 E. it has a completely filled electronic energy level 2500008 A 15 21829 31 03370189800111 ETS2WVW Given only the atomic number of an element, which of the following quantities could you find? A. the number of electrons B. the atomic weight C. the number of neutrons in the nucleus D. the number of isotopes 9 E. all of the above 2500009 C 15 21833 31 03510263800111 ETS2WVW The chemical nature of the atom is determined by the A. atomic weight B. number of neutrons C. electrons D. weight of the protons 9 E. kind of charge in the nucleus 2500010 A 15 21836 31 03370189800111 ETS2WVW The atomic number of an element A. is the number of electrons outside the nucleus B. is the number of neutrons in the nucleus C. is the number of atoms in 22.4 liters of the gas at S.T.P. D. follows, for all the elements, the same order as the atomic weights E. is the quotient obtained by dividing the atomic weight by the 9 valence 2500011 E 15 21841 31 03510342800112 ETS2 OS A certain atom is symbolized as shown below. The numbers in front of the right parenthesis represent the outer electrons. The symbol (12p, 13n) represents the nuclear structure. What is the element whose isotope is represented? (12p,13n) 2) 8) 2) A. manganese B. calcium C. carbon D. aluminum 9 E. magnesium 2500012 C 15 21846 31 00660293800112 ETS2 OS Two atoms are symbolized below. The symbols contained within multiple parenthesis represent the structure of the inner core, and the numbers in front of the right parenthesis represent the outer electrons. What compound is represented by the following two structures joined together? ( 11p) ( 17p) ( 12n) 2) 8) and ( 18n ) 2) 8) 8) A. nitrogen bromide (NBr) B. lithium chloride (LiCl) C. sodium chloride (NaCl) D. sodium bromide (NaBr) 9 E. potassium chloride (KCl) 2500013 B 14 21854 31 035102638004 2 OS Since an atom is electrically neutral, the number of electrons equals the number of A. neutrons B. protons C. neutrons minus protons 9 D. protons minus neutrons 2500014 A 14 21857 31 033701890342 0041 The atomic number of an element is the number of A. protons in its nucleus B. neutrons in its nucleus C. electrons in its nucleus 9 D. protons and neutrons in its nucleus 2500015 E 15 21860 31 033703420513 0028 From the following statements, select the one which is not a 3 ___ correct statement about atomic numbers. A. The atomic number gives the number of electrons outside the nucleus of an atom. B. The atomic number gives the positive charge on the nucleus. C. The atomic number subtracted from the mass number gives the number of neutrons. D. The atomic number is equal to the number of protons in the nucleus. E. The atomic number equals the number of neutrons in the 9 nucleus. 2500016 D 15 21868 31 033701890097 0034 The atomic number of an element is identical to A. the atomic mass B. the number of electrons in the ion C. the number of neutrons in the nucleus D. the number of protons in the nucleus 9 E. more than one of the above 2500017 C 14 21872 52 1944 0055 Which statement is incorrect? For any atom, the atomic number equals the number of A. protons in the nucleus B. electrons in the neutral atom C. neutrons in the nucleus 9 D. nucleons minus the number of neutrons 2500018 ADBC 45 21875 32 0338002003411290 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2The diagram below symbolizes the electronic configuration of the 2atom of a particular element. The symbol (n) represents the 2nucleus, and the number in front of each right parenthesis 2represents the number of electrons contained in that shell. 2 (n) 2) 8) 8) 1) 0 Based on the diagram above, answer the following questions. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 The valence of this element is 1 A. 1 B. 3 C. 5 D. 7 E. 9 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 The atomic number of this element is 2 A. 2 B. 8 C. 16 D. 19 E. 21 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 If the nucleus contains 21 neutrons, the atomic weight of this element is 3 A. 2 B. 40 C. 16 D. 19 E. 21 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 This element can be characterized as A. an inert gas B. an oxidizing agent C. a reducing agent D. a non-metal 9 E. none of these 2510001 B 15 21885 31 03510339800113 ETS2WVW If an atom of lithium containing 3 protons and 4 neutrons unites with an atom of fluorine containing 9 protons and 10 neutrons, the ion of lithium in the compound LiF will have A. 2 protons B. 3 protons C. 4 protons D. 12 protons 9 E. none of these 2510002 D 15 21889 31 06050263800114 ETS2WVW The Pauli "exclusion principle", which asserts that no two electrons in an atom can agree in the values of all four of their quantum numbers, provides the theoretical basis for understanding A. the relation of spectral-line series to atomic structure in atoms more complex than that of hydrogen B. the forces which hold the components of molecules together C. the relation of the properties of an atom connected with radiation to its chemical behavior D. the periodic structure of electron shells 9 E. the possibility of Bohr's "stationary states" 2510003 E 15 21897 31 00020351800111 ETS2WVW A sodium atom (atomic number 11) which has lent an electron in a chemical reaction, that is, has become a sodium ion, contains A. only completely filled electronic energy levels B. an incompletely filled electronic energy level C. a number of electrons greater than the number of protons D. a number of protons greater than the number of electrons 9 E. two of the above 2510004 D 15 21903 31 03378001026311 ETS2WVW The atomic number of a certain element is 53. An atom of this element must contain A. 53 neutrons B. 26 neutrons and 27 protons C. 1 neutron, 26 protons and 26 electrons D. 56 electrons 9 E. 53 particles of all kinds 2510005 E 15 21907 31 03518001035011 ETS2WVW Atoms of the element silicon contain 14 protons. How many electrons are there in the outer valence electron shell of the silicon atom? A. This cannot be determined from the number of protons. B. 14 C. 12 D. 6 9 E. 4 2510006 C 15 21911 31 80010351009712 ETS2WVW If the nucleus of a neutral atom is assumed to consist of 22 neutrons and 18 protons, the atomic number of the atom would be A. 40 B. 22 C. 18 D. 4 9 E. none of these 2510007 B 15 21914 31 01920337800112 ETS2WVW In chemical combination, a substance with an atomic number of 12 should A. acquire a valence of -1 B. acquire a valence of +2 C. acquire a valence of -2 D. acquire a valence of +4 9 E. be inert 2510008 BCEBA 55 21917 31 0015018980011290 ETS2WVW MACROITEM STEM 2Answer the following questions by referring to the key below. 2 Atomic atomic electronic number weight structure 2 A. 6 12 2 4 2 B. 11 23 2 8 1 C. 18 40 2 8 8 2 D. 12 24 2 8 2 2 E. 17 35 2 8 7 2(Electronic structure refers to the number of electrons in the 0 respective orbits.) MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 The most active metal listed MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 An inert element MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 3 The element having exactly 18 neutrons in the nucleus MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 4 The best reducing agent in the list MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 9 An element forming compounds by sharing electrons 2510009 C 14 21925 31 026301898004 2WVW The electronic configuration of the element xenon is A. 2-8-8 B. 2-18-18-1 C. 2-8-18-18-8 9 D. 2-8-18-28-8-2 2510010 B 14 21927 31 034400198004 2WVW The potassium ion has the same arrangement of electrons as the element with atomic number A. 11 B. 18 C. 36 9 D. 37 2510011 B 14 21929 31 026303468004 2WVW The maximum number of p electrons in any shell is A. 2 B. 6 C. 14 9 D. 8 2510012 B 14 21931 31 026303468004 2WVW The maximum number of electrons found in the K shell of an atom is A. 8 B. 2 C. 18 9 D. 32 2510013 A 14 21933 31 084600198004 2WVW The hydride ion has the same electron configuration as an atom of A. helium B. lithium C. beryllium 9 D. hydrogen 2510014 D 14 21935 31 026301898004 2WVW The most probable electron configuration for element number 28 would be which one of the following? A. 2,8,18 B. 2,8,10,8 C. 2,8,8,8,2 9 D. 2,8,16,2 2510015 ADBC 45 21938 32 8001002003411290 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2The diagram below symbolizes the electronic configuration of the 2atom of a particular element. The symbol (n) represents the 2nucleus, and the number in front of each right parenthesis 2represents the number of electrons contained in that shell. 2 (N) 2) 8) 8) 1) 0 Based on the diagram above, answer the following questions. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 The valence of this element is A. 1 B. 3 C. 5 D. 7 1 E. 9 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 The atomic number of this element is A. 2 B. 8 C. 16 D. 19 2 E. 21 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 If the nucleus contains 21 neutrons, the atomic weight of this element is A. 2 B. 40 C. 16 D. 19 3 E. 21 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 This element can be characterized as A. an inert gas B. an oxidizing agent C. a reducing agent D. a non-metal 9 E. none of these 2510016 C 15 21949 52 8003 2WVW How many electrons can be accomodated in the orbitals that comprise the fourth quantum shell? A. 8 B. 18 C. 32 D. 40 9 E. 72 2510017 A 14 21951 31 002380040263 2 OS Fluorine has an atomic number of 9 and a mass of 19. The number of electrons in the l shell of the atom is A. 7 B. 2 C. 9 9 D. 10 2510018 A 14 21953 31 018902688004 2 OS An element having an octet of electrons has the atomic number A. 10 B. 3 C. 6 9 D. 4 2510019 D 15 21955 31 07238003 2WVW How many electrons can be accommodated in all the atomic orbitals that correspond to the principal quantum number 4? 9 A. 2 B. 8 C. 18 D. 32 E. 40 2510020 D 14 21958 31 058703421683 0041 The mass number of a nucleus is equal to the number of its 9 A. electrons B. protons C. neutrons D. nucleons 2510021 C 15 21960 31 026303470346 0042 How many electrons can be accomodated in the orbitals that comprise the fourth quantum shell? 9 A. 8 B. 18 C. 32 D. 40 E. 72 2510022 E 15 21962 52 091302631296 0042 A "d" sub-shell can contain no more than: A. three pairs of electrons B. three orbitals C. seven pairs of electrons D. five electrons 9 E. five un-paired electrons. 2510023 E 15 21965 52 03380189 0042 The ground state electron configuration of gas phase titanium is 5 1 3 2 2 3 1 4 2 2 9 A. 3d 4s B. 4s 4p C. 3d 4s D. 3d E. 3d 4s 2510024 A 15 21969 52 090901590263 0042 Considering negative quantum numbers to be those of lowest energy, what are the four quantum numbers of the "last" electron to be added when the argon atom is formed? n l m s A. 3 1 1 +1/2 B. 3 0 1 -1/2 C. 3 1 -1 +1/2 D. 3 1 -1 -1/2 9 E. 3 0 0 +1/2 2510025 A 15 21974 32 09091211 0047 Which of the following pairs of quantum numbers represent impossible situations? A. n = 3 l = 3 B. n = 4 l = 2 C. n = 5 l = 0 D. l = 1 m = 1 E. l = 1 m = 0 94 l l 2510026 D 15 21977 52 0338 0044 Which of the following electron configurations is incorrect? 5 2 A. alkaline earth metals: ns n>1 5 1 B. Rb: (Kr)5s 5 + 2 6 C. Na : (He)2s 2p 5 1 5 D. Cr : (Ar)4s 3d 9 E. all the above configurations are correct. 2510027 C 15 21982 52 09130263 0044 How many unpaired electrons are there in p? 9 A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. none, p is diamagnetic. 2510028 D 15 21984 31 026303420097 0018 Which statement is always true? A. The nucleus of an atom contains neutrons and electrons. B. The atomic number of an element is the number of neutrons in one atom. C. The atomic mass of an atom is the number of protons in the nucleus plus the number of electrons outside. D. The number of electrons outside the nucleus is the same as number of protons in the nucleus in a neutral atom. 9 E. None of these 2510029 E 15 21990 52 033800640019 0018 Which of the following ions does not have the electronic configuration of the inert gas krypton,Kr? 5 + 2+ - 2- A. Rb B. Sr C. Br D. Se E. none of these(i.e.,all of them have the electronic 9 configuration of Kr) 2510030 A 15 21994 31 072303380376 0028 The correct representation of the electronic structure in 5 34 sublevels for S is: 4 16 5 2 2 6 2 4 2 2 6 2 6 2 4 A. 1s , 2s 2p , 3s 3p D. 1s , 2s 2p , 3s 3p , 4s 4p 5 2 2 6 6 2 2 6 2 6 2 6 B. 1s , 2s 2p , 3p E. 1s , 2s 2p , 3s 3p , 4s 4p 5 2 2 6 2 5 9 C. 1s , 2s 2p , 3s 3p 2510031 C 15 22000 31 072303380376 0028 5 31 3- Write the electronic configuration in sublevels for P . 4 15 5 2 2 6 2 3 A. 1s , 2s 2p , 3s 3p 5 2 2 6 2 5 B. 1s , 2s 2p , 3s 3p 5 2 2 6 2 6 C. 1s , 2s 2p , 3s 3p 5 2 2 6 2 D. 1s , 2s 2p , 3s 9 E. none of these 2510032 D 15 22006 51 123102630380 0020 The total number of electrons that can theoretically be accommodated in the seventh energy level? 9 A. 72 B. 56 C. 32 D. 98 E. 196 2510033 E 15 22008 51 13561357 0020 5 3 The notation 4f designates A. 4 electrons in the f sublevel where l=3 B. 4 electrons in the n = 3 energy level, l = 3 C. 3 electrons in the n = 3 energy level, l = 3 D. 3 electrons in the l = 2, n = 3 level 9 E. none of these 2510034 D 15 22012 51 033808441358 0020 The ground state electronic configuration of a nickel atom can be represented as 5 2 2 6 2 6 2 6 2 A. 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 4s 4p 5s 5 2 2 6 2 6 2 2 6 B. 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 3d 4s 4p 5 2 2 6 2 6 10 C. 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 3d 5 2 2 6 2 6 8 2 D. 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 3d 4s 9 E. none of these 2510035 E 15 22017 51 136112310263 0020 The f level can hold a total of A. 6 electrons B. 10 electrons C. 32 electrons D. 8 electrons 9 E. 14 electrons 2510036 B 15 22019 51 136313640263 0020 The rule of Hund says A. electrons in the outer energy level cannot pair B. no pairing of electrons is permitted until every orbital in the outer energy level has at least one electron C. p orbitals can contain no more than 4 unpaired electrons D. d orbitals can contain no more than 5 electrons 9 E. none of these 2510037 A 15 22024 51 060411780809 0020 The electronic structure for the chloride ion is 5 2 2 6 2 6 A. 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 5 2 2 2 6 B. 1s 2s 3s 3p 5 2 2 2 5 C. 1s 2s 3s 3p 5 2 2 6 2 5 D. 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 9 E. none of these 2510038 D 15 22028 32 02630380 0019 How many electrons can be located in the sixth energy level? 9 A. 8 B. 50 C. 32 D. 72 E. 103 2510039 C 15 22030 31 026303801301 0019 The total number of electrons which can theoretically be accommodated in the seventh energy level is 9 A. 56 B. 72 C. 98 D. 196 E. none is correct 2510040 E 15 22033 52 009903510942 0019 Which of the following neutral atoms is diamagnetic? A. Cl B. K C. Ti D. CO E. Cd 94 17 19 22 27 48 2510041 B 15 22035 52 009903511423 0019 Which of the following neutral atoms has the most unpaired electrons? A. V B. Mn C. Co D. Ni E. Zn 94 23 25 27 28 30 2510042 C 15 22038 52 033801891362 0019 What common feature characterizes the electronic configuration of elements 21, 27, 40, and 43? A. They all have only one electron in a subshell B. They all have a filled 5s subshell C. They all have a partially filled d subshell D. They all have a partially filled p subshell 9 E. None of these is correct 2510043 D 15 22043 31 091503730073 0040 Which of the following elements have electronic configurations that involve a total of exactly eight s electrons? A. Ca B. Sr C. Ga D. both A and C 20 38 31 9 E. both A and B 2510044 B 15 22046 31 136203470338 0040 Consider the following electron configuration: 5 2 2 6 2 6 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p . Which of the following pieces of information is consistent with it? A. There are 6 electrons in the 3p orbital B. There are 6 electrons in the 3p subshell C. There are 6 electrons in the number 3 shell D. both B and C 9 E. All choices are correct. 2510045 B 15 22051 31 033804030189 0040 The correct electron configuration for element 53 (iodine) is 5 2 2 6 2 6 10 2 6 10 7 A. 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 3d 4s 4p 4d 4f 5 2 2 6 2 6 2 10 6 2 10 5 B. 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 4s 3d 4p 5s 4d 5p 5 2 2 6 2 6 2 10 6 14 3 C. 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 4s 3d 4p 4f 5p 5 2 2 6 2 6 2 6 2 5 D. 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 4s 4p 5s 5p 5 2 2 6 2 6 3 6 2 10 5 9 E. 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 4s 4p 5s 4d 5p 2510046 E 15 22058 52 OS 5 2 2 6 2 3 Which element has the electron configuration 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p ? 9 A. Na B. Mg C. Al D. Si E. P 2510047 C 15 22061 31 033807940025 0040 5 4 The distinguishing electron configuration of np is charateristic of which group in the periodic table? 9 A. IIa B. IVa C. VIa D. rare gases E. IIIa 2510048 A 15 22064 32 117803380005 0040 When a strontium atom (Sr, # 38) reacts to form an ionic 5 2+ compound, it becomes a strontium ion (Sr ). The electronic configuration of the ion is the same as 5 2+ 2- 9 A. Kr B. Rb C. Xe D. Ca E. Zr 2510049 B 15 22068 31 033800421178 0040 Which one of the following has an electronic configuration different from the others? 5 2+ + 2- 2+ 9 A. Ar B. Mg C. K D. S E. Ca 2510050 A 15 22071 31 004211780562 0040 5 2+ The electronic configuration of the Mg is the same as 9 A. Ne B. Si C. Ar D. Na E. Ca 2510051 D 14 22073 32 105503380351 0009 Which one of the following species has the same electron configuration as the argon atom? 5 + - - 9 A. Ne B. Na C. S D. Cl 2510052 C 14 22076 32 033811781358 0009 5 2- The electronic configuration of the oxide ion, O , may be represented as: 5 2 2 4 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 6 2 2 2 9 A. 1s 2s 2p B. 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p C. 1s 2s 2p D. 1s 2s 2p 2510053 E 15 22080 52 035101890263 0035 Atoms of the element silicon contain 14 protons. How many electrons are there in the outer valence electron shell of the 3 _____ _______ silicon atom? A. This cannot be determined from the number of protons. 9 B. 14 C. 12 D. 6 E. 4 2510054 A 15 22084 32 087903510263 0035 The structure of a particular atom is: 18 protons, 22 neutrons, 10 inner electrons, and 8 outer electrons. Which of the following has this structure? A. an argon atom. B. An argon ion. C. A chlorine ion. 9 D. Potassium ion. E. Potassium atom. 2510055 B 14 22088 32 018903370346 0038 An element has an atomic number of 26. Its various "n" shells must contain electrons in which of the following sequences? 9 A. 8,8,8,2 B. 2,8,14,2 C. 2,8,8,8 D. 2,8,16 2510056 B 15 22091 52 0338 0044 Which of the following electron configurations is incorrect? 3 _________ A. halide ions ns(2)np(6) n = 2,3 ns(2)(n-1)d(10)np(6) n = 4,5 B. Se (Ar)5s(2)4d(10)5p(4) C. Be(2+) 1s(2) D. Co(3+) (Ar)3d(6) 9 E. all the above configurations are correct. 2510057 B 15 22096 32 034715050577 The orbital configuration for the atom Cesium is: 5 2 2 6 1 1 1 A. 1s 2s 2p 3s B. (Xe core) 6s C. (Rn core) 6s 5 2 9 D. (Xe core) 6s E. (Xe core) 2510058 D 15 44492 31 The ground state electronic configuration of a sodium cation is 5 1 2 2 6 9 A. [Ne]3s B. [Ne]3s C. [Ar] D. [Ne] E. [He]2s 2d 2510059 A 15 45402 71 The total number of electrons in p orbitals in a zirconium atom Zr is: 440 9 A. 18 B. 21 C. 31 D. 41 E. 51 2530001 D 15 22099 31 03308001036112 ETS2 OS It is sometimes alleged that the occurrence of discrete bright-line spectra provides clear evidence that atoms have discrete energy levels. The existence of such line spectra was known, however, for the better part of a century before discrete energy levels were postulated for the atom. This situation is explained by the circumstance that A. it was not known that there is a connection between radiation and energy B. it was not clear that the bright-line spectra are produced by processes occuring within atoms C. the conclusion does not follow unless it is assumed that atoms are divisible, and composed of electrified particles D. only Bohr's theory of atomic constitution made clear the role of discrete energy levels E. only on the basis of Planck's theory of radiation could a connection be expected between frequencies of radiation 9 and energy states of atoms emitting the radiation 2530002 B 15 22112 32 03510330800111 ETS2WVW In general, when molecules rather than atoms are excited, the type of spectrum produced is A. continuous B. band C. bright line D. Fraunhofer 9 E. absorption 2530003 C 15 22115 32 05908001800313 ETS2WVW 5 -12 Two energy levels within an atom differ by 3 x 10 erg. Assuming 5 -27 Planck's constant to be 6.6 x 10 erg-sec., the radiation emitted when an electron jumps from one of the levels to the other is A. in the infra-red B. a gamma ray C. visible D. an x-ray 9 E. in the ultra-violet 2530004 C 15 22121 31 03510159800111 ETS2WVW When atoms are emitting or absorbing energy A. protons change place with electrons B. neutrons are escaping or being captured C. electrons change their energy levels D. the evidence is always visible to the eye 9 E. the atomic number of the atom is raised or lowered 2530005 E 15 22125 31 00320020800112 ETS2WVW Cupric copper has a positive valence of two which means that A. there are six valence electrons in the outer shell of the copper atom B. there are two more protons than electrons in the free atom C. two electrons are needed to complete the outermost shell of the copper atom D. two electrons are always shared in chemical combination 9 E. two electrons have been lent in chemical combination 2530006 C 14 22131 31 015902638004 2 OS The lowest energy level which an electron can have is called the A. O shell B. L shell C. K shell 9 D. F shell 2530007 B 14 22133 31 026380048002 2 OS The maximum number of electrons that may be found in the "L" shell of an atom is A. 6 B. 8 C. 32 9 D. 18 2530008 A 14 22135 31 026301598004 2 OS When an electron moves from the K level to the L level, there is an accompanying A. absorption of energy B. emission of a beta particle C. emission of x-rays 9 D. emission of gamma rays 2530009 B 14 22138 32 026301598004 2 OS Evidence that electrons are located in energy levels around the nucleus is indicated by the A. atomic number of the elements B. atomic mass of the elements C. lines in the spectra of the elements 9 D. density of the elements 2530010 B 14 22142 31 062503510189 0041 The wavelengths of light emitted by the excited atoms of a particular element that make up its bright-line spectrum A. are different from the wavelengths in its dark-line spectrum B. are characteristic of the element involved C. come from the nuclei of the atoms D. are evenly distributed throughout the entire visible 9 spectrum 2530011 A 14 22147 31 035106240347 0041 An atom emits a photon when one of its orbital electrons A. jumps from a higher to a lower energy level B. jumps from a lower to a higher energy level C. is removed by the photoelectric effect 9 D. is struck by an x-ray 2530012 D 14 22151 31 059008791202 0041 Which of the following types of radiation are not emitted by the electronic structures of atoms? A. ultraviolet light B. visible light 9 C. infrared light D. gamma rays 2530013 C 14 22154 31 05621694 0041 A neon sign does not produce A. a line spectrum B. an emission spectrum 9 C. an absorption spectrum D. photons 2530014 C 14 22156 31 090901590380 0041 As the quantum number n increases, the energy difference between adjacent energy levels A. increases B. remains the same C. decreases 9 D. sometimes increases and sometimes decreases 2530015 C 14 22159 31 019609290263 0041 A hydrogen atom is said to be in its ground state when the electron A. is at rest B. is inside the nucleus C. is in its lowest energy level 9 D. has escaped from the atom 2530016 E 15 22162 52 033702630346 0042 The phosphorus atom (atomic number 15) contains how many electrons in its third shell (n=3) 9 A. 8 B. 11 C. 3 D. 13 E. 5. 2530017 D 15 22164 32 034609090351 0042 An electron shell of an atom has a principle quantum number of 4 and thus can have the following maximum number of sub-shells: 9 A. one B. two C. three D. four E. five. 2530018 E 15 22167 52 180609130263 0042 A "d" sub-shell can contain no more than: A. three pairs of electrons B. three orbitals C. seven pairs of electrons D. five electrons 9 E. five un-paired electrons. 2530019 D 15 22170 52 026303461352 0042 An electron shell of an atom has a principal quantum number of 4 and thus can have the following maximum number of sub-shells: 9 A. one B. two C. three D. four E. five. 2530020 C 15 22173 52 035600310159 0044 The Rydberg equation for the hydrogen atom in frequency units is .- -. | | | | 5 15 | 1 1 | -1 v = 3.29 x 10 | --- - --- | sec 5 | 2 2 | | n n | 4 | 1 2 | |_ _| What is the energy in ergs of a quantum of electromagnetic radiation that corresponds to a transition from the fourth excited state (n = 5) to the fifth excited state (n = 6)? 4 1 2 5 -9 13 -13 A. 1.78 x 10 B. 4.02 x 10 C. 2.67 x 10 5 -12 -25 9 D. 1.98 x 10 E. 2.40 x 10 . 2530021 B 15 22184 52 0731 0018 Which of the following has the highest ionization potential (energy)? A. Cs B. Li C. K D. Rb E. all are in group ia so they have the same ionization 9 potential(energy) 2530022 C 15 22187 32 072305130065 0028 5 30 Given the isotope E. The number of electrons in the principal 4 14 energy levels, 1(K), 2(L), 3(M), are: A. 2, 8, 8, respectively, plus 8 in 4(N) and 4 in 5(O) B. 2, 8, 6, respectively C. 2, 8, 4, respectively D. 2, 8, 3, respectively 9 E. none of these 2530023 D 15 22192 32 038003760723 0028 Calculate the maximum number of electrons that can exist in the M principle energy level: 9 A. 8 B. 32 C. 6 D. 18 E. 9 2530024 A 15 22194 32 035307230376 0028 5 36 Given the isotope E. The number of electrons in the principle 4 16 energy levels, that is 1(K), 2(L), 3(M), etc. is A. 2, 8, 6, respectively B. 2, 8, 8, respectively C. 2, 8, 8, 9, respectively plus 9 in 3(N) D. 2, 8, 8, respectively, plus 6 in 3(N) 9 E. none of these 2530025 C 15 22199 32 058607230338 0028 The correct representation of the electronic structure using 5 34 sublevels for S is: 4 16 5 2 2 6 2 6 A. 1s , 2s 2p , 3s 3p 5 2 2 6 2 5 B. 1s , 2s 2p , 3s 3p 5 2 2 6 2 4 C. 1s , 2s 2p , 3s 3p 5 2 2 6 2 6 2 4 D. 1s , 2s 2p , 3s 3p , 4s 4p 9 E. none of these 2530026 D 15 22204 51 133605860380 0020 A better term for Bohr orbits is A. the ground states B. quantum numbers C. Van der Waals forces D. energy levels 9 E. none of these 2530027 B 15 22207 51 038001590909 0020 The energy level that has the highest energy is A. the ground state B. the one with the highest quantum number C. the one with the lowest quantum number D. closest to the nucleus 9 E. none of these 2530028 B 15 22210 51 026303510907 0020 When the electron of a hydrogen atom is in the energy level n = 3 we say that A. it gives off light B. it is in an excited state C. it is in the ground state D. the energy is higher than when n=4 9 E. none of these 2530029 A 15 22214 51 135901591360 0020 Which of the following is a correct order for increasing energy of atomic orbitals in atoms? A. 1s 2s 2p 3s 3d B. 1s 2s 2p 3s C. 1s 2s 3s 2p 3d D. 1s 2s 2p 3d 4s 9 E. none of these 2530030 C 15 22217 51 001409290263 0020 Carbon atoms in the ground state have A. 4 electrons in the 2p level B. 4 unpaired electrons of similar spin C. 2 unpaired electrons D. 4 electrons in the n=2 level that are unpaired 9 E. none of these 2530031 E 15 22220 31 015900700731 0019 The energy involved in the ionization of a metal is known as the A. activation energy B. electronegativity C. electron affinity D. kinetic energy 9 E. ionization energy 2530032 D 14 22223 31 159703801540 0009 Experimental support for the arrangement of electrons in distinct energy levels is based primarily upon A. the law of definite (constant) proportions B. the law of conservation of energy C. x-ray spectra of atoms 9 D. spectra from gas discharge 2530033 D 14 22227 31 026304220380 0009 What is the total electron capacity of the energy level for which n = 4? 9 A. 8 B. 16 C. 18 D. 32 2530034 C 15 22229 31 035103280263 0035 When, during a chemical reaction, atoms are emitting or absorbing energy A. protons change place with electrons. B. neutrons are escaping or being captured. C. electrons change their energy levels. D. the evidence is always visible to the eye. 9 E. the atomic number of the atom is raised or lowered. 2530035 E 15 22234 31 011306060247 0034 The passage of electrical discharge through gases resulted in the discovery of A. isotopes B. the electron C. radioactivity 9 D. alpha-particles E. none of the above 2530036 B 15 22237 31 005403511540 0034 The visible light released by excited atoms in a flame is A. an absorption spectrum B. an emission spectrum C. a continuous spectrum D. an ultraviolet spectrum 9 E. an x-ray analysis 2530037 D 14 22240 52 1944 0055 The theoretical maximum number of electrons in principal quantum level n = 4 is 9 A. 4 B. 8 C. 16 D. 32 2530038 A 14 22242 52 19470731 0058 From which species in the gaseous state can an electron be re- moved with the least energy? 5 + 2+ 3+ 9 A. Na B. Na C. Na D. Na 2530039 D 15 22245 51 19661352 BRHM The maximum number of electrons which can be in an energy level having principal quantum number "n" is: 5 2 2 9 A. 2 B. 8 C. 18 D. 2n E. (2n) 2530040 D 15 22248 52 A green color is obtained in the flame test for a barium salt. The energy producing this color is emitted when A. oxidation takes place. B. electrons are raised to higher energy levels by the heat of the flame. C. electrons in the highest energy levels are expelled. D. electrons drop back to lower energy levels. 9 E. the barium salt becomes ionized. 2530041 B 15 22253 52 OS 5 -19 Two energy levels in an atom differ by 8.19 x 10 Joules. When an electron falls from the higher to the lower level, it emits a photon with a wavelength characteristic of which part of 5 -34 the electromagnetic spectrum (h = 6.6 x 10 J sec, 5 8 -1 c = 2.99 x 10 m sec )? 9 A. microwaves B. ultraviolet C. visible D. infrared E. x-rays 2531001 A 15 22260 31 00540628800111 ETS2 OS When a student reported the wave length of light as a certain fraction of a centimeter, he could have been referring to any of these colors EXCEPT A. white B. yellow C. blue D. green 9 E. red 2531002 C 15 22263 31 03290622800111 ETS2WVW The frequencies of the spectral lines in the Balmer series of 5 2 2 hydrogen can be written f = r {(1/2 )-(1/n )} lowest frequency occurs when n is A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 9 E. 5 2531003 C 15 22267 31 03310330800111 ETS2WVW The sun's spectrum is an example of A. a mass spectrum B. a continuous spectrum C. a bright line spectrum D. an absorption spectrum 9 E. a band spectrum 2531004 D 15 22270 31 06678001032811 ETS2WVW According to Kirchhoff's explanation of the Fraunhofer lines, the chief use of studying those lines would be to gain information concerning A. the structure of atoms B. the structure of molecules C. the nature of radiation D. the processes of emission and absorption of radiation 9 E. the chemical composition of celestial bodies 2531005 D 15 22275 31 00020666800111 ETS2 OS If sunlight is passed through a flame containing sodium, and if the fraunhofer d-line is thereby made darker, one concludes that A. the bright regions in the spectrum of the sunlight are less intense than the light emitted by the sodium flame B. the light of the frequency of the sodium line is less intense in the beam of sunlight than in the light emitted by the sodium flame C. the dark d-line in the solar spectrum is really brighter than the bright d-line in the spectrum of the flame D. the intensity of light of the frequency of the sodium line in the beam of sunlight is zero E. the intensity of light of the frequency of the sodium line in the sunlight that has passed through the 9 sodium flame is zero 2531006 A 15 22286 31 06670668800112 ETS2WVW According to Kirchoff and Bunsen, the lines in a bright line spectrum are clearer, the higher the temperature and the weaker the natural illuminating power of the flame. These two conditions together A. intensify the light constituting the lines, and diminish the intensity of the rest of the spectrum, thus giving a sharper contrast B. intensify the light constituting the lines, and produce destructive interference in the rest of the spectrum, thus giving a sharper contrast C. minimize the effects of diffraction which might tend to reduce the clarity of the lines, and at the same time make the lines themselves brighter D. intensify the brightness of the lines and that of the rest of the spectrum as well, but the former more than the latter E. leave unchanged the intensity of the bright lines, 9 but make the rest of the spectrum darker 2531007 EB 25 22299 31 0667066880011290 ETS2WVW MACROITEM STEM 0 Answer the following questions. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 The general proposition set forth as a new discovery by Kirchhoff and Bunsen, in their report of their investigation of spectra, is that A. certain substances placed in a flame, or otherwise made to emit light, give a spectrum containing bright lines B. the capacity of a substance to absorb light of a given frequency is inversely proportional to its capacity to emit such light C. the capacity of a substance to absorb light of a given frequency is directly proportional to its capacity to emit such light D. the bright lines occuring in the spectra of certain metals are within wide limits determined by the metal, independently of chemical combination and of the process producing the luminosity E. no two substances can emit light of the same frequency; thus a study of the light emitted permits an 1 identification of the source MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 One can conclude from this discovery that A. bright line spectra are due to intra-atomic processes B. atoms are capable of only certain discrete energy states C. radiation is emitted discontinuously D. absorption and emission are processes exactly inverse to one another 9 E. none of the above 2531008 A 15 22316 31 06588001800312 ETS2WVW The observation that, while cathode rays are repelled by a negative charge and deflected at right angles to the lines of a magnetic field, x-rays show NO change in direction in either kind of field, is ready proof that A. x-rays, themselves, carry NO charge B. the relatively high speed of the x-rays nullify the effects of any charge or field C. x-rays carry a charge of both positively and negatively charged ions D. x-rays are really a stream of electrons 9 E. x-rays are really a stream of negatively-charged particles 2531009 D 14 22324 31 80038004 2WVW A compound that colors a bunsen flame violet probably contains A. calcium B. copper C. lithium 9 D. potassium 2531010 E 15 22326 52 01590351800113 ETS2WVW 5 -12 Two energy levels within an atom differ by 3 x 10 erg. 5 -27 Assuming Planck's constant to be 6 x 10 erg-sec, the wavelength of the radiation emitted when an electron jumps from one of these levels to the other is 5 -12 A. 3 x 10 cm. 5 -4 B. 1.67 X 10 cm. 5 14 C. 5 X 10 cm. D. 16,700 A. 9 E. 6000 A. 2531011 E 15 22332 31 03290330800113 ETS2WVW Suppose that f and f represent the frequencies of two lines in the 4 1 2 spectrum of hydrogen. Light of frequency f + f 4 1 2 A. must also be present in the spectrum of hydrogen. B. must be present in the spectrum of hydrogen, provided that the higher energy level involved in the emission of one of the lines is identical with the lower level involved in the emission of the other. C. must be present in the spectrum of hydrogen, provided that the higher energy levels involved in the emission of f and 4 1 f are identical but not otherwise. 4 2 D. must be present in the spectrum of hydrogen, provided that either the higher or the lower energy levels involved in the emission of f and f are identical. 4 1 2 E. need not be present in the spectrum of hydrogen under any of 9 the above circumstances. 2531012 C 15 22346 51 03560328800112 ETS2 OS According to Rydberg's formula, the lines in the emission spectrum of hydrogen are given by the equation 1 x 1 - 1 - = R -- -- 5 2 2 w m - n where m and N are integers. The quantity w refers to a measurable characteristic of the line, since it represents A. the width (thickness) of the line B. the length (height) of the line C. twice the minimum difference in path that can yield destructive interference between two parts of a single beam of light corresponding to the line D. twice the difference between the distance from the light source of the line as projected on the screen, measured once directly along a straight path, and again along the refracted path through the prism 9 E. the distance of the line from one end of the spectrum 2700001 E 15 22358 31 03640365800112 ETS2 OS Einstein's principle contribution to the quantum theory of light, in 1905, consisted in A. the hypothesis that Planck's quantum postulate, with its basic equation E=hf, applied not only to black body radiation but to all emission and absorption phenomena B. the hypothesis that not only the emission and absorption, but the radiation itself is quantized into elements of magnitude E=hf, each of which is propagated intact C. the application of the idea of quantization to matter as well as to energy D. the extension of the notion of corpuscles of energy to all forms of radiation, especially to x-rays E. the application of the quantum hypothesis to the theory of the 9 previously unexplained photoelectric effect 2700002 B 15 22369 51 05750159800111 ETS2WVW The basic discontinuity of "quantization", postulated by Planck in his theory of black body radiation, was a discontinuity in A. the possible frequencies of vibration of an oscillating charged particle B. the possible energies of an oscillating charged particle C. the possible energies of an oscillating charged particle of given frequency D. the spatial distribution of the energy radiated by an oscillating charged particle E. the spatial distribution of the energy radiated by an oscillating charged particle of given frequency and 9 energy 2700003 E 15 22377 31 06110613800111 ETS2WVW The changing of the amplitude of the carrier wave of a broadcast station to transmit a program is called A. detection B. oscillation C. rectification D. amplification 9 E. modulation 2700004 A 14 22380 31 05720351 0041 The quantum-mechanical theory of the atom is A. based upon a mechanical model of the atom B. a theory that restricts itself to physical quantities that can be measured directly C. less accurate that the Bohr theory of the atom 9 D. impossible to reconcile with Newton's laws of motion 2700005 A 14 22384 51 1695 0591 0041 The Zeeman effect refers to A. the splitting of spectral lines in a magnetic field B. electron spin C. the existence of the azimuthal quantum number 9 D. the origin of the periodic table 2700006 D 15 22387 52 036505900329 0044 A quantum of electromagnetic radiation has frequency equal to 5 10 -1 1.68 x 10 sec . What is the wavelength of this radiation in 5 10 -27 Angstroms? (c = 3.00 x 10 cm/sec, h = 6.63 x 10 erg-sec.) 5 -16 -17 20 A. 1.11 x 10 B. 6.23 x 10 C. 5.04 x 10 5 8 9 D. 1.79 x 10 E. 0.560 2700007 C 15 22393 52 036505900625 0044 A quantum of electromagnetic radiation has wavelength equal to 5 -1 0.0376 cm. What is the frequency of this radiation in sec ? 5 -12 -25 11 A. 1.25 x 10 B. 1.76 x 10 C. 7.98 x 10 5 14 -15 9 D. 1.89 x 10 E. 5.29 x 10 2700008 D 15 22399 52 036505900329 0044 A quantum of electromagnetic radiation has frequency equal to 5 17 -1 5.69 x 10 sec . What is the energy of this radiation in 5 8 -34 wavenumbers? (c = 3.00 x 10 m/sec., h = 6.63 x 10 J-sec) 5 -18 -9 -19 A. 1.76 x 10 B. 3.77 x 10 C. 1.26 x 10 5 7 -8 9 D. 1.90 x 10 E. 5.27 x 10 . 2700009 C 15 22405 52 036505900329 0044 A quantum of electromagnetic radiation has frequency equal to 5 18 -1 1.05 x 10 sec . What is the energy of this radiation in Joules? 5 8 -34 (c = 3.00 x 10 m/sec., h = 6.63 x 10 J-sec.). 5 21 -15 -16 A. 3.14 x 10 B. 2.86 x 10 C. 6.94 x 10 5 -41 -8 9 D. 1.90 x 10 E. 2.42 x 10 2700010 A 15 22411 31 026801590365 0034 The idea that energy consists of bundles or quanta was first 3 ______ proposed by A. Max Planck B. Ernest Rutherford C. Niels Bohr 9 D. Linus Pauling E. Erwin Schrodinger 2700011 C 15 22414 52 036505900329 0044 A quantum of electromagnetic radiation has frequency equal to 5 14 -1 2.11 x 10 sec . What is the wavelength of this radiation in 5 10 -27 centimeters? (c = 3.00 x 10 cm/sec, h = 6.63 x 10 erg sec.) 5 -9 -12 -4 A. 9.82 x 10 B. 1.40 x 10 C. 1.42 x 10 5 11 3 9 D. 7.15 x 10 E. 7.03 x 10 2700012 D 15 44725 71 19661967 OS Which of the following investigators presented the idea that no two electrons in the same atom can assume the same quantum state? A. Robert S. Mulliken B. Johannes van der Waals C. Erwin Schroedinger D. Wolfgang Pauli 9 E. Enrico Fermi 2710001 D 15 22423 51 02760628800111 ETS2 OS Which of the following facts supports a modern corpuscular, or particle, theory of light rather than the wave theory? A. Light travels three-fourths as fast in water as in air. B. Light is diffracted on passing through a small opening. C. The velocity of travel of electromagnetic waves is the same as the velocity of light. D. Light immediately causes ejection of electrons in a photoelectric tube. 9 E. Light exhibits interference and reinforcement effects. 2710002 E 15 22430 31 02760665800111 ETS2WVW Which, if any, of the following phenomena puts a serious theoretical difficulty in the way of attempting to characterize the behavior of light in terms of Newtonian "rays"? A. Separation of the components of composite light by a prism, which would force one to assert that there are at a given point in a beam of light an infinite number of rays B. The spreading out of a beam of light in passing through a small hole, which destroys the possibility of subdividing such a beam indefinitely into ever-narrower parts C. The speed at which light travels, which is so enormously great as to be an insuperable obstacle to any attempt to separate a "chunk" of light disconnected from its source D. The fact that the light always travels with the same speed in a vacuum, which means that no physical agency can alter the speed of a ray unless it passes into a refracting medium E. none of the above, for all the phenomena listed can 9 be characterized in terms of the behavior of rays 2710003 A 15 22445 52 02638001800313 ETS2WVW Electrons in an electron microscope are traveling with a velocity 5 9 of 2 x 10 cm./sec. Assuming the mass of an electron to be 5 -28 -27 9 x 10 gm. and Planck's constant to be 6 x 10 erg sec, the wavelength of the electron is A. 0.33 A. 5 -8 B. 1.33 x 10 cm. C. 3 A. 5 8 D. 3 x 10 cm. 5 -38 9 E. 108 x 10 A. 2710004 A 15 22451 31 06160615800111 ETS2WVW When a beam of x-rays, all of the same wave length, is directed against a very fine wire the shadow formed or photographed in back of it is not just that of a single wire but rather as if several wires were used. The best explanation of this involves A. diffraction B. reflection C. the doppler effect D. an optical illusion 9 E. refraction 2710005 E 15 22456 52 075707588003 2WVW The velocity of a beam of neutrons in a nuclear reactor is 5 5 -1 2.0 x 10 cm. sec. . What is the De Broglie wavelength of these neutrons? note mass of neutron, m = 1.00899 amu; 5 -27 h = 6.6 x 10 erg. sec. (Planck's constant); lambda = h/mv, where v is velocity 5 -57 A. 5.4 x 10 cm. 5 -12 B. 2.0 x 10 cm. 5 -10 C. 1.7 x 10 cm. 5 -8 D. 6.6 x 10 cm. 5 -8 9 E. 2.0 x 10 cm. 2710006 D 15 22463 52 026306120159 0044 A typical electron diffraction experiment is conducted with electrons accelerated through 24600 volts, or with 24600 ev of energy. What is the wavelength of the electrons in Angstroms? 5 -12 (1 electron volt = 1.60 x 10 erg; 5 -28 electron mass = 9.11 x 10 g) 5 -10 A. 12.8 Angstroms B. 7.83 x 10 Angstroms 5 -10 C. 9.39 x 10 Angstroms D. 0.0783 Angstroms 9 E. 0.626 Angstroms. 2710007 A 15 22470 51 060403511349 0020 The wave-theory approach to the electronic structure of atoms is based on A. the fact that electrons can be considered as waves B. the spin of electrons 5 2 C. the fact that electrons have energies equal to mc D. all the above 9 E. none of the above 2750001 A 14 22475 31 03470906 0041 The boundary surface diagram of an orbital outlines A. the region in which there is a certain probability (less than 100) percent of finding the electron it described B. the region in which there is a 100 percent probability of finding the electron it describes C. the shape of the electron it describes 9 D. the orbit followed by the electron it describes 2750002 D 14 22481 31 029303550347 0041 The H O molecule is "bent" so that the two O-H bonds are nearly 4 2 perpendicular to each other because A. the H atoms repel each other B. the H atoms attract each other C. the S orbitals in O which participate in the bonds are perpendicular D. the p orbitals in O which participate in the bonds are 9 perpendicular 2750003 D 15 22486 52 034703510350 0042 The total number of orbitals used in an unexcited atom of silicon (Z = 14) is: 9 A. five or less B. six C. seven D. eight E. nine or more 2750004 D 15 22488 52 026303470351 0044 Electrons in atoms are visualized as occupying atomic orbitals. Which of the following general statements concerning orbitals is not true? 3___ A. In atoms other than hydrogen electrons are assigned to orbitals which have the same symmetry as the hydrogen orbitals. 5 2 2 2 B. The electron configuration of carbon is 1s 2s 2p . The two p electrons will occupy separate p orbitals. C. Orbitals are filled in the order of increasing energy even if it means occasionally jumping to a higher n and returning to the lower n later in the sequence. D. The principal quantum number n describes the shape of the orbital, beginning with a sphere for n = 1, 2 lobes for n = 2, and increasing in complexity with increasing n. 9 E. The 1s orbital of hydrogen has spherical symmetry. 2750005 C 14 22501 51 07800263 0018 A set of d orbitals can hold a total of A. two electrons B. six electrons C. ten electrons 9 D. five electrons 2750006 A 15 22503 31 026303470906 0018 According to the orbital model,electrons are located in A. atomic orbitals that describe an area in which there is a 90% probability or better of finding an electron B. the nucleus C. the empty space around the nucleus D. orbitals that circle the nucleus 9 E. none of these 2750007 E 15 22507 51 0916 0020 p orbitals are those for which A. l = 3 B. n = 2 C. m = 1 D. azimuthal quantum number = 2 4 1 9 E. none of these 2750008 D 15 22509 51 130103471350 0020 For the sublevel f, the number of orbitals possible is 9 A. one B. three C. five D. seven E. nine 2750009 B 15 22511 51 135109091197 0020 When the principal quantum number is 2, the permitted values for the azimuthal quantum number are A. 0,1,and 2 B. 0 and 1 C. 1 and 2 D. -1,0,+1 9 E. +1/2, -1/2 2750010 B 15 22514 51 135502630380 0020 The maximum number of electrons permitted in any energy level is 5 2 9 A. 2n B. 2n C. 3(n+1) D. 3n E. none of these 2750011 D 15 22516 51 091613650914 0020 p orbitals are A. three in number B. perpendicular to each other C. dumbbell-like in shape D. all of these 9 E. none of these 2750012 A 15 22518 51 001403510929 0020 The carbon atom in the ground state has A. four unpaired electrons B. two electrons in the 3s orbital C. two unpaired electrons D. no electrons in the 2s orbital 9 E. none of these 2750013 D 15 22521 51 136013391378 0020 An atomic orbital is defined as A. an electronic cloud B. a region in space occupied by an electron or pair of electrons C. the geometric shape that a pair of electrons can occupy D. all of the above 9 E. none of the above 2750014 B 15 22525 31 034702630300 0040 The space around a nucleus in which electrons move can be classified into several subspaces. Which of the following is the simplest of these classifications? A. shell B. orbital C. subshell D. period 9 E. both a and C. 2750015 C 15 22529 31 091702630347 0040 The maximum number of electrons which may occupy a 4d orbital is A. 10 B. 4 C. 2 D. 8 9 E. no correct response is given. 2750016 C 15 22531 31 091509171362 0040 After the 5s subshell of an atom is filled the next electron will enter the A. 5p subshell B. 5d subshell C. 4d subshell D. 5f subshell 9 E. 4f subshell. 2750017 C 14 22534 32 018903510347 0009 The element whose neutral, isolated atoms have three half-filled 2p orbitals is: 9 A. B B. C C. N D. O 2750018 D 15 22536 51 034711570628 0034 In the wave mechanical model, an electronic orbital must A. possess an integral number of wavelengths B. possess an electronic "standing wave" C. have only certain diameters D. all of the above 9 E. none of the above 2750019 A 15 44880 31 The maximum number of electrons possible in a d orbital is 9 A. 2 B. 6 C. 10 D. 14 E. 18 2750020 A 15 45391 71 The number of orbitals having a given value of l is equal to A. 2l + 1 B. 2n + 1 C. 2m + 1 D. n + m E. l + m 94 l l l 2770001 D 14 44456 31 090905860263 0041 The quantum number that does not describe the orbital of an atomic electron is the A. principal quantum number B. orbital quantum number, l C. magnetic quantum number, m 4 l D. spin magnetic quantum number m 4 s 9 E. The J-value 2770002 D 14 22544 31 16960263 0041 The angular momentum of an electron in an atom A. is not quantized B. is quantized in magnitude only C. is quantized in direction only 9 D. is quantized in both magnitude and direction 2770003 D 15 22547 32 034709091197 0042 In a "d" orbital having a principle quantum number of 4, what are the possible numerical values of the magnetic quantum number m ? 4 l A. 1/2, -1/2, 0 B. -1, 0, 1 C. -3, -2, -1, 0, 1, 2, 3 9 D. -2, -1, 0, 1, 2 E. -4, -3, -2, -1, 0, 1, 2, 3, 4 2770004 C 15 22552 52 090917920351 0044 Which of the following combinations of quantum numbers do not 3 ___ represent permissible solutions of the Schroedinger wave equation for the hydrogen atom: n l m s 1. 7 -3 0 -1/2 2. -2 3 -1 1/2 3. 4 3 -2 -1/2 A. 2 B. 3 C. 1 and 2 D. 1 and 3 9 E. none of them is permissible. 2770005 A 15 22559 51 062215400909 0044 The Balmer series of emission spectral lines arises from transitions in the hydrogen atom in which the excited electron falls into the first excited state (n=2). Calculate the quantum number, n, of the initial state for the Balmer line 5 4 at 2.31 x 10 wavenumbers. The Rydberg constant in wavenumbers 5 -1 is 110000 cm .) 9 A. 5 B. 8 C. 4 D. 7 E. 6. 2770006 A 15 22565 51 13460909 0020 J is the abbreviation for A. a quantum number B. an energy unit C. an energy level D. a quantum state 9 E. none of these 2770007 A 15 22567 51 135309090969 0020 For an azimuthal quantum number of 2, the magnetic quantum can have the values A. 2,1,0,-1,-2 B. 1,2,3 C. only 0,1,and 2 D. 1,0 -1,-2,-3 9 E. none of these 2770008 D 15 22570 52 090917920351 0044 Which of the following combinations of quantum numbers do NOT represent permissible solutions of the Schroedinger wave equation for the hydrogen atom? n l m m 4 l s 1. 9 0 0 -5/2 2. 2 1 0 -1/2 3. 1 3 3 1/2 9 A. 1 B. 3 C. 1 & 2 D. 1 & 3 E. none of them is permissible. 2780001 C 15 22576 31 1 07759027 95 2WVW Which one of the drawings in Figure 27 would most likely represent the electron density distribution for a solution of the Schrodinger wave equation for the H atom, for which n = 3 and l = 1? A. A B. B C. C D. D 9 E. E 2780002 C 15 45385 71 The product of the normalized wave function of an electron in an atom and its complex conjugate A. describes the energy of the electron. B. specifies the momentum of the electron. C. gives the probability density of finding the electron in a region of space. D. is proportional to the velocity of the electron. E. is inversely proportional to the distance between the electron 9 and the nucleus. 2790001 B 14 22580 31 112802630909 0041 According to the Pauli principle, A. four different quantum numbers are needed to describe each electron in an atom B. no more than one electron in an atom can have the same set of quantum numbers C. eight electrons occupy each energy level 9 D. electrons move in elliptical as well as circular orbits 2790002 B 15 45068 51 135902630347 0041 In order for two electrons to "occupy" a given orbital, A. their spin directions must be the same B. their spin directions must be opposite C. their spin directions must be perpendicular D. they must both be electrically neutral E. This statement is incorrect. Two electrons cannot occupy the 9 same orbital. 2790003 A 14 22589 51 026303471128 0018 According to the ------------ an atomic orbital may hold no more than two electrons. A. Pauli exclusion principle B. Hund rule C. Bohr theory 9 D. none of these 2790004 D 15 22592 51 112802630909 0020 The Pauli exclusion principle states A. the size of the orbital is determined by the principle quantum number B. only two electrons can have identical quantum numbers C. all electrons around a nucleus may be in different orbitals D. no two electrons in a given atom can have the same set of quantum numbers 9 E. none of the above 2900001 D 15 22597 31 04630642800111 ETS2WVW The difference between chemical reactions and nuclear reactions is that chemical reactions involve A. chemicals and nuclear reactions do not B. the formation of new substances and nuclear reactions do not C. the formation of new elements and nuclear reactions deal with the formation of radioactive elements D. outer electron changes usually and nuclear reactions involve changes within the nuclei of the atoms E. elements or compounds only while nuclear reactions are 9 those taking place between nuclei of atoms 2900002 D 15 22605 31 06210379800111 ETS2WVW The curvature of the path (i.e., amount of deflection) of beta rays emitted by radioactive substances in an electric field, compared with the curvature of the path of cathode rays in the same field, is A. less B. the same C. greater D. either greater, less or the same, depending on the relative speeds of cathode rays and beta rays E. no comparison can be made, because beta rays are not 9 affected by an electric field 2900003 BCDAEA 65 22611 31 80018003 1190 ETS2WVW MACROITEM STEM 2To answer the following questions, mark space 5 A. if the item is true of 235 2 U 4 92 5 B. if the item is true of 238 2 U 4 92 5 C. if the item is true of 239 2 U 4 92 5 D. if the item is true of 239 2 Pu 4 94 0 E. if the item is ture of none of the above MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 The isotope of uranium of greatest abundance in ordinary 1 uranium MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 Is produced when one neutron enters the nucleus 2 Atom of U-238 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 Is produced from U-239 through the loss of first one electron 3 and then another MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 Is the original source of the neutrons in the uranium pile 4 used in the production of plutonium MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 5 Is the chief source of the energy of the sun MACRO SUB-ITEM # 6 9 along with plutonium, it may be used to produce an atom bomb 2900004 BCBAB 55 22623 52 1 80019013 119095 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2The following questions refer to Figure 13. The diagram represents 2one kind of a cathode-ray tube. After each exercise number 2on the answer sheet, blacken the one lettered space which 3 ___ 0 designates the correct answer. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 Cathode rays are composed of A. positive ions B. negative ions C. electrons D. both positive and negative ions 1 E. none of the items mentioned in A, B, C or D MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 In a cathode tube the mass of the electron A. depends on the kind of anode metal B. depends on the kinds of cathode metal C. is independent of the anode or cathode metal D. depends on the gas in the tube 2 E. is independent of the factors mentioned in a, b, c, or d MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 When cathode rays strike a metal target the radiation emitted from the target is most similar to A. a stream of electrons B. gamma rays from radium C. a beam of alpha particles D. fluorescent light 3 E. a stream of protons MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 The tube pictured is most useful in showing that cathode rays 3 ________ A. travel in a straight line B. possess kinetic energy C. cause x-rays to be emitted from glass D. travel with the speed approaching that of light 4 E. are positively charged MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 The cathode in a different kind of cathode tube is in the center of the tube and consists of a metal disc containing several holes. Cathode rays travel toward the positive electrode at one end of the tube, while other rays or particles pass through the holes in the cathode in the opposite direction. These rays or particles are A. x-rays B. positive rays or protons C. beta particles D. neutrons 9 E. positrons 2900005 ADD 35 22645 32 1 9014 119095 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 0 The following questions refer to Figure 14. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 In a tube similar to the one shown, cathode rays were discovered by A. Crookes B. Moseley C. Thomson D. Rutherford 1 E. Curie MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 Roentgen found that if a target were placed in the path of cathode rays, energy was released that came to be known as A. beta rays B. cosmic rays C. neutrons D. x-rays 2 E. alpha rays MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 Very lightweight objects that are free to rotate are set into motion by cathode rays, thus proving the rays possess A. negative charge B. positive charge C. neutral charge D. both mass and motion or kinetic energy 9 E. potential energy 2900006 BDDAC 54 22654 31 80018003 1190 ETS2WVW MACROITEM STEM 2To answer the following questions, select from the key 2the most appropriate apparatus. 2 A. Zinc-sulphide fluorescent screen 2 B. Wilson cloud-chamber 2 C. Geiger counter 0 D. mass spectrograph MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 Used to photograph such phenomena as the track of an alpha 1 particle MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 Used to determine the "weight" of an atom MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 Used to determine the rate of disintegration of radio-active substances and the velocity and energy of the emitted 3 particles MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 Used to determine the rate of disintegration of atoms but 4 not the velocity and energy of the emitted particles MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 9 Commonly used to detect cosmic rays audibly 2900007 BDEAC 55 22662 31 80018003 1190 ETS2WVW MACROITEM STEM 2After each item number on the answer sheet, blacken the 2one lettered space which designates the term below to which 3___ 2the item correctly refers. 2 A. fog-track apparatus 2 B. electroscope 2 C. geiger counter 2 D. mass spectrograph 0 E. none of the above MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 Used by Madame Curie to detect the presence of radio-active material MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 Artificial transmutation of elements was first detected by the 2 use of this instrument MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 Can distinguish positive electric charges from negative ones, 3 Is commonly used for this purpose MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 4 Makes the paths of ionizing particles visible MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 9 Used in prospecting for uranium 2900008 BBCAEDCB 85 22670 31 80018003 1190 ETS2WVW MACROITEM STEM 2For each of the following nuclear changes, blacken space 2 A. if the item is true of the loss of a neutron 2 B. if the item is true of the loss of an alpha particle 2 C. if the item is true of the loss of a beta particle 2 D. if the item is true of the capture of a neutron 0 E. if the item is true for none of the above MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 The atomic weight decreases by four and The atomic number 1 decreases by two. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 An element of group III moves two places to the left in the 2 periodic chart. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 An element of group II moves one place to the right of the 3 periodic chart. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 The atomic weight decreases by one but the atomic number 4 remains the same. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 There is no change in either the atomic weight or the 5 atomic number. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 6 The atomic weight increases by one but the element remains in 6 the same place in the periodic chart. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 7 The atomic weight remains the same but the atomic number 7 increases by one. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 8 The ejected particle will eventually pick up two planetary 9 electrons and become a neutral helium atom. 2900009 C 15 22683 51 06618003 2WVW Which one of the proposed induced nuclear reactions given below would definitely not give the product suggested? The terminology used is "e = symbol-mass" for each isotope. 5 2 (Note D = H ; a = alpha particle; n = neutron; p = proton.) 4 1 5 19 16 A. F (n,a) N 4 9 7 5 191 194 B. Ir (a,n) Au 4 77 79 5 55 57 C. Mn (p,n) Fe 4 25 26 5 237 238 D. Np (a,3n) Am 4 93 95 5 6 7 E. Li (D,p) Li 4 3 3 9 2900010 C 15 22691 51 121212130495 0020 The cyclotron is an example of A. an atom smasher B. a machine for making subatomic particles C. a particle accelerator D. a nuclear reactor 9 E. all of these 2900011 C 15 22694 31 1212 0040 A cyclotron is used to A. accelerate neutrons B. separate the isotopes of an element C. accelerate charged particles D. increase the rate of disintegration of a radioactive substance 9 E. both A and B 2900012 C 15 22697 51 0661 0040 "Breeder" reaction is one in which A. neutrons are produced B. a fusion reaction occurs C. a nonfissionable isotope is converted into a fissionable one D. electrical energy is produced 9 E. both A and B 2900013 D 15 22700 31 1221 0040 In nuclear power plants A. the fusion process is used to generate heat to turn water to steam B. radioactive atoms are used to generate electricity directly C. steam is produced by passing water over a radioactive substance D. the principles of operation are very different to those of a coal-fired plant 9 E. both A and C 2900014 A 15 22705 31 1216 0040 The smallest amount of fissionable material that will support a self-sustaining chain reaction is called the A. critical mass B. atomic weight C. mass number D. isotopic weight 9 E. no correct response is given. 2900015 B 15 22708 31 148306421484 0040 A great problem that must be overcome before nuclear fusion can be used as a useful source of energy in applications other than bombs is A. obtaining sufficient amounts of fusionable materials B. development of suitable reaction containers C. development of suitable methods of disposing of the radioactive waste D. more than one response is correct 9 E. development of a good theoretical model 2900016 C 15 22714 31 0632 0040 The use of fission reactions to generate electricity is attractive because A. no wastes are produced B. all technical problems have been resolved C. other energy sources are in short supply D. the generators are inexpensive to build 9 E. all of the above 2900017 A 15 22718 31 06601223 0040 The most recent of the man-made elements to be produced is element 105. The longest lived isotope of this element has a half-life of A. less than 1 hour B. between 1 hour and 1 day C. between 1 day and 1 month D. between 1 and 10 months 9 E. no correct response is given. 2900018 C 15 22722 31 1212 0040 Some unidentified particles are accelerated in a cyclotron and allowed to strike a target. The exact identity of the particles must be determined. Which of the following could not possibly 3 _________ be the unknown particles? A. electrons B. protons C. neutrons D. positrons 9 E. either A or D 2900019 C 14 22727 51 043604951563 0009 Which one of the following instruments would be least suitable for detecting particles given off in radioactive decay? A. Geiger counter B. scintillation counter 9 C. electron microscope D. cloud chamber 2910001 B 15 22730 31 06170069800111 ETS2WVW The term radioactivity refers to A. the activity of electronic devices B. the spontaneous disintegration of certain atomic nuclei C. the gain or loss of electrons from the outer orbits of the atoms D. certain elements, like cobalt, which are necessary in television and radio manufacture E. the chemical combinations between elements catalyzed 9 by radio frequency waves 2910002 E 15 22736 31 06200617800111 ETS2WVW The half-life of a radioactive substance is A. half the life-span of the substance B. usually 50 years C. the time for radium to change to lead 5 2 D. found from Einstein's equation, E = mv 9 E. the time for half the material to disintegrate 2910003 B 15 22740 31 03790621800111 ETS2WVW In considering the various "rays" from radioactive material we think of beta rays as A. high-frequency x-rays B. high-speed electrons C. infra-red radiation D. hydrogen nuclei 9 E. helium nuclei 2910004 A 15 22743 31 06190376800111 ETS2WVW An alpha particle from radioactive material is A. a helium atom from which two electrons have been removed B. an aggregate of two or more electrons C. a hydrogen atom D. the ultimate unit of positive electricity 9 E. sometimes negatively charged 2910005 B 15 22747 31 06230379800111 ETS2WVW Beta radiation is/are A. high-frequency x-rays B. high-speed electrons C. high-energy electromagnetic radiation D. a stream of photons 9 E. fast helium nuclei 2910006 A 15 22750 31 06160626800111 ETS2WVW X-rays are A. electromagnetic waves of short wave-length B. negatively charged ions C. reflected cathode rays D. nuclei of hydrogen atoms 9 E. positrons 2910007 D 15 22753 31 06160574800111 ETS2 OS All except one of the following are properties of x-rays. You are to select this one item which does not apply A. The ability to make certain materials fluoresce B. The ability to pass through opaque matter C. The tendency to ionize the air through which they pass D. The ability to cause a tiny paddle wheel to move away from the cathode 9 E. The ability to darken a photographic plate 2910008 D 15 22759 32 06260628800111 ETS2 OS If the following electromagnetic radiations are supposed to be arranged in order of increasing wave length, the one which is out of place is A. gamma rays B. ultra-violet C. infra-red D. x-rays 9 E. radio waves 2910009 D 15 22763 31 03790588800111 ETS2WVW Radioactive disintegration may be characterized by all of these except A. the emission of alpha, beta, and gamma rays B. definite half-life periods C. the formation of helium as a by-product D. the ejection of large quantities of matter 9 E. transmutations of elements 2910010 B 15 22767 31 03790189800111 ETS2WVW A radioactive element X emits beta particles (electrons). This results in the production of A. an element which is very reactive chemically B. an element of higher atomic number C. an element with an atomic weight one unit less D. a radioactive element which emits protons 9 E. stable positive ions of the element X 2910011 E 15 22772 31 01590495800111 ETS2WVW Energy resulting from motion of particles deep within the structure of the atom was unknown until the discovery of A. ionization B. the atomic bomb C. the photoelectric effect D. electromagnetic radiation 9 E. radioactivity 2910012 C 15 22776 31 05730189800111 ETS2WVW In the uranium disintegration series A. the disintegrating element merely throws off planetary electrons B. when an element loses a beta particle, the production of another element takes place, that second element having an atomic weight one unit larger and an atomic number one unit smaller than the original atom C. when an element loses an alpha particle an element is produced that has an atomic weight four units less and an atomic number two units less than those constants for the disintegrating atom D. in all atomic disintegrations the nucleus is unaffected E. the series of disintegrations continues until an element having eight electrons in its outermost orbital level 9 is obtained 2910013 C 14 22787 31 01898001034211 ETS2WVW If thallium, element number 81, ejects a beta particle from the nucleus A. no new element is formed B. mercury, element number 80, is formed C. lead, element number 82, is formed 9 D. thallium becomes radioactive 2910014 B 15 22790 31 06180619800111 ETS2WVW If radium, element number 88 in the periodic table, ejects an alpha particle from the nucleus A. no change takes place, as radium is constantly ejecting alpha particles B. radon, element number 86, would be formed C. actinium, element number 89, would be formed D. thorium, element number 90, would be formed 9 E. stable negative ions of radium would result 2910015 DAB 35 22795 31 80018003 1190 ETS2WVW MACROITEM STEM 2To answer the following questions, select the appropriate 2answer from the key 2 A. alpha particles 2 B. beta particles 2 C. cathode rays 2 D. gamma rays 0 E. positive rays MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 Are not affected by the most intense magnetic fields. 1 Are very penetrating and of very short wave length. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 Are slightly bent by intense magnetic fields. One of the products of the disintegration of radium. Each particle 2 carries two positive charges. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 Are greatly deflected even by weak magnetic fields. Consist of electrons and are one of the products of the disintegration 9 of radium. 2910016 A 15 22803 51 07728003 2WVW Which of the following nuclides do not occur in the radioactive decay series indicated? The terminology used is "z-symbol-mass" for the isotopes. (Hint: all four of the series involve only alpha and beta decay.) 5 224 (1) Ra ; thorium-232 4 88 5 210 (2) Po ; uranium-238 4 84 5 228 (3) Ac ; uranium-235 4 84 5 221 (4) Fr ; neptunium-237 4 87 5 233 (5) U ; uranium-235 4 92 A. 3 and 5 B. 2 and 4 C. 1 D. 5 9 E. 3 2910017 B 14 22810 52 06200847 0041 The half-life of tritium is 12 1/2 years. If we start out with 1 g of tritium, after 25 years there will be A. no tritium left B. 1/4 g of tritium left 9 C. 1/2 g of tritium left D. a total of 4 g of tritium 2910018 B 14 22813 52 039203790192 0041 After 2 hr have elapsed, one-sixteenth of the original quantity of a certain radioactive substance remains undecayed. The half- life of this substance is 9 A. 15 min B. 30 min C. 45 min D. 60 min 2910019 A 14 22816 51 066006061337 0041 Radioactive decay was discovered by 9 A. Becquerel B. Marie Curie C. Pierre Curie D. Rutherford 2910020 B 14 22818 51 037914990097 0041 Radioactive materials do not emit 9 A. electrons B. protons C. alpha particles D. gamma rays 2910021 D 14 22820 31 057312060353 0041 Uranium eventually decays into a stable isotope of 9 A. radium B. polonium C. radon D. lead E. plutonium 2910022 C 14 22822 51 006603790618 0041 If radium and chlorine combine to form radium chloride, the compound is A. no longer radioactive B. half as radioactive as the radium content C. as radioactive as the radium content 9 D. twice as radioactive as the radium content 2910023 D 15 22826 52 062003530379 0044 The half-life of a radioactive isotope is 2.28 years. How long will it take the activity of a given sample to be reduced to 97.0% of the original activity? 5 0.693 (100 ) A. + ----- x 2.28 x log ------ yrs. 4 2.303 (97.0) 5 2.303 (97.0) B. + ----- x 2.28 x log ------ yrs. 4 0.693 (100 ) 5 2.303 (97.0) C. + ----- x 2.28 x log ------ yrs. 4 0.693 (100 ) 5 2.303 (100 ) D. + ----- x 2.28 x log ------ yrs. 4 0.693 (97.0) 5 (97.0) E. 2 x 2.28 x ------ yrs. 94 (100 ) 2910024 C 15 22835 72 035306201206 0044 If 29.0 percent of a radioactive isotope decays in 265 days, what is its half-life? 2.303 265 A. ----- x ---------- days .693 log (71.0) 2.303 29.0 B. .5 x ----- x ---- days .693 265 .693 265 C. ----- x --------- days 2.303 (100) log------ (71.0) 2.303 265 D. - ----- x --------- days 0.693 (29.0) log------ (100 ) 9 E. none of the above. 2910025 D 15 22842 52 035306200379 0044 The mass of a sample of a radioactive isotope is found to be 7.10 grams. Given a half-life of 13.4 days, what amount of the isotope will be left after 32 days? 9 A. 0.807 g B. 0.288 g C. 0.0 g D. 1.36 g E. 0.895 g 2910026 C 15 22846 52 120906200375 0044 What is the approximate age of an artifact found by an archaeologist which has a specific activity due to carbon-14 of 10.2 counts per minute per gram of carbon? Assume that living matter on the earth has an activity of 15.3 counts per minute per gram of carbon. The half-life of carbon-14 is 5570 years. A. 8340 Years B. 1420 years C. 3260 years D. 1820 years 9 E. 7510 years. 2910027 E 15 22852 52 179602820620 0044 The technique of radiocarbon dating relies on the following principles: (select the one wrong statement.) 3 _____ A. The specific C-14 activity, counts per minute per gram of carbon, is not affected by chemical decomposition and volatilization of the object. B. When C-14 decays it emits a beta particle which can be detected in an instrument such as a geiger counter. C. Living organisms have always contained the same fraction of C-14 as the atmosphere. D. Recent military nuclear explosions have not effected the C-14 content of old objects. E. C-14 decays with a half life of 5770 years in living 9 organisms, but is stable in inorganic compounds. 2910028 C 15 22862 52 062006600288 0028 The half-life of a radioactive isotope, Z, is 2.00 years. How many years would it take 10.0 g of Z to decay and have only 1.25 g remain? A. 2.00 years B. 4.00 years C. 6.00 years 9 D. 8.00 years E. 16.0 years 2910029 B 14 22865 31 061706600379 0026 A substance that spontaneously emits rays and particles without any apparent inducement is said to be A. charged B. radioactive 9 C. magnetically imbalanced D. irritable. 2910030 D 15 22868 51 109700100379 0020 A sample of radioactive ore gives off A. only alpha particles B. only beta particles C. only gamma particles D. all of these 9 E. only two of these 2910031 D 15 22871 31 120212030384 0020 Which of the following has the greatest penetrating power? A. alpha particles B. beta particles C. electrons D. gamma particles 9 E. helium ions 2910032 A 15 22874 31 120403590282 0020 Both the geiger-muller counter and the cloud chamber utilize the following principle A. ionization of gases by subatomic particles B. formation of fog when air is suddenly cooled C. conduction of an electric current D. alpha particles are stopped by thin metal 9 E. electrons move faster than alpha particles 2910033 B 15 22879 51 120505900418 0020 The intensity of radiation can be measured in A. lumens B. curies C. half-lives D. becquerels 9 E. none of these 2910034 E 15 22881 51 121908350353 0020 One of the biggest dangers from nuclear explosions is A. gamma radiation B. shock-waves C. radioactivity D. long-lived isotopes 9 E. all of these 2910035 E 15 22884 51 035306320620 0020 An isotope that fissions spontaneously and has a fission half-life of 85.5 years is A. kurchatovium-254 B. lawrencium-252 C. uranium-233 D. berkelium-252 9 E. californium-252 2910036 E 15 22887 31 061706061337 0020 Radioactivity was discovered by A. Rutherford B. Bohr C. Roentgen D. Moseley 9 E. Becquerel 2910037 B 14 22889 31 035806600340 0019 The alpha particle is 9 A. a positron B. a helium nucleus C. an electron D. a proton 2910038 A 15 22891 31 062006600353 0019 A 0.1 g sample of an isotope has a half life of 10 hours. The half life of a 0.2 g sample of the same isotope is ------hours. 9 A. 10 B. 5 C. 20 D. 2 E. 50 2910039 A 13 22894 31 035803420660 0019 The loss of an alpha particle by a nucleus produces-------in the neutron to proton ratio. 9 A. an increase B. a decrease C. no change 2910040 B 15 22896 31 06601285 0040 5 234 The isotope Th decays by the emission of a beta particle. 4 90 The daughter produced is 5 230 234 234 233 A. Ra B. Pa C. Ac D. Th 4 88 91 89 90 9 E. the beta particle 2910041 C 15 22900 52 028806600620 0040 A sample of a radioisotope with a nonradioactive daughter is found to lose 87.5% of its radioactivity in 30 minutes. The half-life of this isotope is A. 20 min B. 15 min C. 10 min D. 5 min 9 E. no correct response is given. 2910042 D 15 22904 32 028806600620 0040 After four half-lives have elapsed, the amount of a radioactive sample which has not decayed is A. 40% of original amount B. 1/4 of original amount C. 1/8 of original amount D. 1/16 of original amount 9 E. no correct response is given. 2910043 D 15 22908 32 06600288 0040 If 1/8 of an isotope sample is present after 22 days, what is the half-life of the isotope? A. 10 days B. 5 days C. 2 3/4 days D. 7 1/3 days 9 E. 5 1/3 days 2910044 C 15 22911 31 06600620 0040 Naturally occurring radioactive isotopes 3_________ A. must have very long half-lives B. must have very short half-lives C. can have either very long or very short half-lives D. do not exist 9 E. are only found on the earth[s crust 2910045 E 15 22915 52 8003 2WVW The decay constant, k, of a certain radioactive nuclide is 5 -1 0.6 day . If a sample of this nuclide initially has an activity 5 -1 of 3000 disintegrations min. , how many days will have elapsed 5 -1 before it has an activity of 5.9 disintegrations min. ? (Note 2.303 log (N /N) = kt.) 4 o A. 3 days B. 5 days C. 7 days D. 9 days 9 E. 10 days 2910046 A 15 22922 31 1209 0040 5 14 Which of the following is least likely to be dated using C? 4 6 A. ore deposits B. human skeletons C. spear shaft D. both A and B 9 E. both B and C 2910047 E 15 22926 31 0660 0040 The rate of disintegration of a sample of a radioactive element A. can be increased by heating the sample B. is usually increased by a cyclotron C. is decreased by surrounding the sample with liquid air D. is decreased by converting the element into a compound by chemical reaction with another substance 9 E. no correct response is given. 2910048 B 14 22931 51 038214990325 0009 In determining the age of organic material, one measures A. the time required for half of the C-14 in the sample to decay B. the ratio of C-14 to C-12 in the sample C. the percentage of carbon in the sample 9 D. the time required for half the sample to decay 2910049 C 14 22935 52 062005730353 0009 The half life of uranium-238, which decomposes to lead-206, is 5 9 about 4.5 x 10 years. A rock which contains equal numbers of grams of these two isotopes would be ______ years old. 5 9 9 A. Less than 4.5 x 10 B. 4.5 x 10 5 9 9 C. more than 4.5 x 10 D. cannot say 2910050 B 15 22940 31 061606061337 0034 X-ray were discovered by A. W. Roentgen B. H. Becquerel C. M. Curie and P. Curie 9 D. J. J. Thompson E. E. RuTherford 2910051 B 15 22942 31 06170606 0034 Natural radioactivity was discovered by A. W. Roentgen B. H. Becquerel C. M. Curie and P. Curie 9 D. J. J. Thompson E. E. Rutherford 2910052 C 15 22944 31 018903790606 0034 The two radioactive elements radium and polonium were discovered by A. W. Roentgen B. H. Becquerel C. M. Curie and P. Curie 9 D. J. J. Thompson E. E. Rutherford 2910053 D 14 22947 31 0358 0003 An alpha particle is essentially A. an electron B. a proton 9 C. a positron D. a helium nucleus 2910054 B 14 22949 31 06200660 0003 A very unstable isotope has a A. very high kinetic energy B. very short half-life C. strong tendency to undergo fusion 9 D. strong tendency to emit positrons 2910055 C 14 22952 31 1202 0003 Gamma rays are A. high-energy electrons B. low-energy electrons C. high-energy photons 9 D. high-energy positrons 2910056 B 14 22954 31 00971465 0003 It is believed that one particle which is usually found in the nucleus is the 9 A. electron B. proton C. beta particle D. gamma ray 2910057 A 14 22956 31 06171251 0003 Which of the following is not radioactive? 5 13 13 3 5 A. C B. N C. H D. He 94 6 7 1 2 2910058 A 14 22958 31 06610379 0003 An isotope which has too high a neutron-proton ratio can gain stability by A. beta emission B. gamma emission 9 C. proton emission D. K capture 2910059 A 14 22961 31 0620 0003 If 1.0 g of an isotope has a half-life of 15 hr, the half-life of a 0.50-g sample is: 9 A. 15 hr B. 30 hr C. 7.5 hr D. 60 hr 2910060 C 14 22963 72 195412020185 0061 Which carries no charge? 9 A. alpha rays B. beta rays C. gamma rays D. positrons 2910061 A 15 22965 31 06608001800313 ETS2WVW An atom with mass number 238 and atomic number 92 emits in succession an alpha particle, a beta particle, a beta particle and an alpha particle. The resultant atom must have A. mass number 230, atomic number 90 B. mass number 232, atomic number 92 C. mass number 228, atomic number 90 D. mass number 230, atomic number 88 9 E. mass number 230, atomic number 92 2910062 DAEDBDEC 85 22972 31 1390 ETS2WVW MACROITEM STEM 2After each exercise number on the answer sheet, blacken the one 3 ___ 2lettered space which designates the correct answer. 2U(238/92) - U x 1 + alpha 0 U x 1 = U x 2 + beta MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 The uranium atom is radioactive, emitting an alpha-particle to become a new atom Ux1. the the atomic number of Ux1 is A. 94 B. 92 C. 91 D. 90 1 E. 88 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 The basis for the above prediction is A. the alpha-particle has a charge of two positive units B. the alpha-particle has no charge C. the alpha-particle has a charge of one positive unit D. the alpha-particle has a mass of four units 2 E. the alpha-particle has a charge of two negative units MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 The atomic weight of Ux1 is A. 240 B. 238 C. 237 D. 236 3 E. 234 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 The basis for the above prediction is that the alpha-particle has A. a charge of two negative units B. no charge C. a mass of two units D. a mass of four units 4 E. a mass negligible to that of the uranium atom MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 The atom Ux1 emits a beta-particle, forming a new atom, Ux2. the atomic number of Ux2 is A. 92 B. 91 C. 901 D. 89 5 E. 88 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 6 The basis for the above prediction is that The beta-particle has A. no charge B. a charge negligible compared with that of the nucleus of the Ux1 atom C. a mass negligible compared with that of the Ux1 atom D. a charge of one negative unit 6 E. a charge of two negative units MACRO SUB-ITEM # 7 The atomic weight of Ux2 is A. 240 B. 238 C. 237 D. 236 7 E. 234 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 8 The basis for the above prediction is that The beta-particle has A. no charge B. a charge negligible compared with that of the nucleus of the Ux1 atom C. a mass negligible compared with that of the Ux1 atom D. a charge of one negative unit 9 E. a charge of two negative units 2930001 A 15 22996 31 03790351800111 ETS2WVW Substances are radioactive when A. the atomic nucleus is unstable B. the orbital electrons are easily lost C. the atom gains electrons readily D. they readily form ions 9 E. they are chemically reactive 2930002 C 15 22999 31 03420097800111 ETS2WVW A general rule for nuclear stability is A. instability increases as the charge on the nucleus decreases B. a heavier nucleus is usually more stable than a lighter one C. when a nucleus contains more protons than neutrons it is unstable D. emission of alpha, beta, or gamma particles contributes to increased instability of the nucleus 9 E. none of the above offers a general rule 2930003 A 14 23005 31 034200970341 0041 Stable atomic nuclei weigh A. less than the total weight of their constituent protons and neutrons B. the same as the total weight of their constituent protons and neutrons C. more than the total weight of their constituent protons and neutrons D. sometimes more and sometimes less than the total weight of 9 their constituent protons and neutrons 2930004 D 14 23011 51 027603171683 0041 According to Yukawa's theory, nuclear forces arise through the exchange between nucleons of 9 A. electrons B. protons C. neutrinos D. mesons 2930005 A 15 23013 52 179516851683 0044 An important parameter for judging the stability of a nuclide is the binding energy for nucleon. Calculate the binding energy per 3 ___ nucleon in MEV for C-13, which has a mass of 13.00335 amu. Mass of proton = 1.007277 mass of neutron = 1.008665 mass of electron = 0.0005486 5 2 conversion factor for E = mc is 931 MEV/amu. 9 A. 7.47 B. 97.1 C. 7.23 D. 94.0 E. 7.00 2930006 A 15 23020 51 035310960417 0018 Isotopes below the belt of stability (low neutron-to-proton ratio) are likely to be A. positron emitters B. electron emitters C. stable D. alpha emitters 9 E. gamma ray emitters 2930007 A 14 23023 51 034100970337 0018 The ratio of neutrons to protons in stable isotopes A. increases with increasing atomic number B. decreases with increasing atomic number C. follows NO general pattern with increasing atomic number 9 D. does not change appreciably with atomic number 2930008 B 15 23027 31 061702910342 0020 Radioactivity is caused by A. electrons in the nucleus B. unstable nuclei in atoms C. gamma radiation D. short half-lives 9 E. too many isotopes 2930009 D 15 23030 51 035312140341 0020 Which of the following isotopes are fissionable when struck by slow neutrons? A. U-234 B. U-238 C. Np-239 D. Pu-239 9 E. Cf-250 2930010 C 15 23032 31 015906610398 0020 The energy obtained from nuclear reactions comes from A. endothermic reactions B. explosions C. conversion of mass to energy D. helium being converted to hydrogen 9 E. radioactive decay of uranium 2930011 B 15 23035 31 0660 0040 Isotopes whose neutron-to-proton ratios lie above the "region of stability" are most likely to emit A. alpha particles B. beta mimus particles C. gamma rays D. beta plus particles (positrons) 9 E. both B and D 2930012 D 15 23039 52 06600628 0040 5 9 The half-life of uranium-238 is 4.5 x 10 years. This means that 5 9 after 4.5 x 10 years, for a given sample of uranium-238, A. the sample disappears B. the sample is half as radioactive C. the sample has a weight 1/2 its original weight D. the sample contains 1/2 as many uranium-238 atoms as originally 9 E. both B and D are correct 2930013 C 14 23045 52 03530632 0009 Which one of the following isotopes would be most likely to undergo fission? 5 14 59 239 2 A. C B. Co C. Pu D. H 94 6 27 94 1 2930014 D 14 23048 72 195417950620 0061 Two nuclides of Pa, each with mass number 234 and half-lives of 1.18 minutes and 6.66 hours respectively, are best described as: 9 A. isotopes B. isobars C. isotones D. nuclear isomers 2930015 D 15 23051 52 8003 2WVW Nuclides having different numbers of neutrons and protons but equal mass numbers are referred to as isobars. Nuclides having 3 _______ equal numbers of neutrons but differing in atomic number and mass number are called isotones. Which one of the classifications given 3 ________ for the following pairs of nuclides is incorrect? 3 _________ 5 14 14 A. C and N isobars 4 6 7 5 14 15 B. C and N isotones 4 6 7 5 58 60 C. Co and Co isotopes 4 27 27 5 102 102 D. Ru and Rh no relationship 4 44 45 5 39 40 E. K and Ca isotones 94 19 20 2930016 E 15 23063 51 OS82 Pick the nucleus most likely to emit a beta particle. 5 16 15 16 14 16 A. O B. O C. O D. O E. O 94 8 8 8 8 8 2930017 D 15 23066 51 OS82 Pick the nucleus most likely to emit a positron: 5 12 13 16 14 16 A. C B. C C. O D. O E. N 94 6 6 8 8 7 2930018 B 15 23069 51 OS82 Nuclei with high neutron-to-proton ratios decay by A. positron emission C. neutron emission E. alpha capture 9 B. beta emission D. neutron capture 2950001 D 15 23072 31 06560657800112 ETS2WVW 5 27 4 30 In the nuclear reaction 13Al + 2He = 14Si + ( ), the missing particle is A. an alpha particle B. a beta+ C. a beta- 9 E. a neutron 2950002 A 15 23075 31 03510159800111 ETS2WVW Atomic energy changes are spontaneous in all of these except 3 ______ A. platinum B. uranium C. radium D. thorium 9 E. plutonium 2950003 C 15 23078 31 06148001006911 ETS2WVW The element plutonium has gained special significance in connection with the development of A. qualitative analysis of the composition of the planets B. heat resistant steels for power jets C. the release of atomic energy D. the complete periodic table 9 E. research in some area other than one of the above 2950004 A 15 23083 31 01590642800111 ETS2WVW The energy produced in a nuclear fission bomb is the result of the A. transformation of an equivalent amount of mass B. energy produced by a chemical reaction C. energy of combustion of the subdivided atoms D. energy of the neutrons which are sent in all directions 9 E. energy of the gamma rays 2950005 E 15 23088 31 05730632800111 ETS2WVW When uranium undergoes fission as a result of neutron bombardment, the energy released in the fission process is due to A. oxidation of uranium B. the kinetic energy of the bombarding neutrons C. the radioactivity of the uranium nucleus D. the radioactivity of the fission products 9 E. the conversion of matter into energy 2950006 DEDCCA 65 23093 31 1290 ETS2WVW MACROITEM STEM 2After each exercise number on the answer sheet, blacken the one lettered space which designates the correct answer. 3___ "The first clue as to the nature of the unusual radioactive changes that were observed with uranium lay in the statement of Hahn and Strassman in January, 1939, that barium was found in the disintegration products." (The uranium referred to is 0 one of the uranium isotopes and the atomic number of barium is 56.) MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 the above statement refers to A. a chemical reaction of uranium and barium B. combustion of uranium and oxygen, barium is in the ashes C. U-238 when, in presence of neutrons, it fissions or disintegrates D. U-235 when, in presence of neutrons, it undergoes fission 1 E. U-238 when, in presence of protons, it reacts to produce barium MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 A radioactive isotope is an element which A. has a high temperature B. is chemically reactive--orbital electrons are in an unstable state C. has a nucleus which undergoes a change with absorption of energy D. is chemically inert E. has a nucleus which spontaneously undergoes change liberating 2 energy and often some kind of charged particle MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 An explosion does not result from a small piece of U-235 because A. U-235 does not fission. B. The neutrons released move too fast to start a chain reaction. C. U-238 is needed. D. So many neutrons escape a small piece of the metal that a chain reaction cannot start. 3 E. A little U-236 is needed as a trigger. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 5 14 Radioactive carbon C has a half life of 4700 years. 4 6 5 14 It changes slowly to ordinary nitrogen N according to 4 7 514 14 C -----> N + X 4 6 7 The particle X must be A. a proton B. a deuteron C. an electron D. an alpha particle 4 E. a gamma ray MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 The atomic pile consists of bars of uranium interspersed with graphite rods. The purpose of the latter is to A. furnish neutrons for the fission process B. react with U-235 and release energy C. act as a neutron moderator slowing down fast neutrons D. release energy by combustion and this energy in turn triggers the atomic fire 5 E. furnish deuterons to fission atoms of u238 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 6 The energy produced in a nuclear fission bomb is the result of the A. disappearance of an equivalent amount of mass B. energy produced by a chemical reaction C. energy of combustion of the subdivided atoms D. energy of the neutrons which are sent in all directions 9 E. energy of the gamma rays 2950007 ABD 35 23127 31 0656063205181290 ETS2WVW MACROITEM STEM 2Consider the following five nuclear reactions 5 238 90 146 2 2 A. U + n(1/0) = Kr + Cs + H + n(1/0) 4 92 36 55 1 239 96 141 2 B. Pu + n(1/0) = Sr + Ba + n(1/0) 4 94 38 56 5 238 234 4 2 C. U = Th + He 4 92 90 2 5 3 2 4 2 D. H + H = He + n(1/0) 4 1 1 2 5 107 108 108 2 E. Ag + n(1/0) = Ag = Cd + e- 4 47 47 48 2Indicate, by marking the appropriate space on the answer sheet, 0 which one represents the following. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 A fission reaction which can be activated by slow neutrons. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 A fission reaction which cannot be activated by slow neutrons. 23 ______ MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 9 A fusion reaction which would yield large amounts of energy. 2950008 E 15 23140 31 80018003 12 ETS2WVW 5 24 2 4 In the nuclear reaction Mg + H = ( ) + He the missing 4 12 1 2 particle is 5 23 A. Na 4 11 5 22 B. Ne 4 11 5 22 C. Na 4 10 5 21 D. Ne 4 10 5 22 E. Na 94 11 2950009 EA 25 23145 31 0632 1290 ETS2WVW MACROITEM STEM 2The following questions refer to the equation for fission type 5 235 140 80 2 n(1/0) + U ---> La + D + (x)n(1/0) 4 92 57 A 0 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 The atomic number of element D is A. 92 B. 56 C. 46 D. 36 1 E. 35 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 The number, (x), of neutrons produced in the reaction is A. 16 B. 15 C. 10 D. 1 9 E. 0 2950010 CDB 35 23151 31 0656 1290 ETS2WVW MACROITEM STEM 2The following questions refer to the transmutation reaction 5 54 2 4 52 2 Fe + H ---> He + E 04 26 1 2 A MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 5 2 The bombarding particle ( H ) is a(an) 4 1 A. positron B. proton C. deuteron D. alpha particle 1 E. electron MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 5 4 The particle produced, ( He ), is a(an) 4 2 A. positron B. proton C. deuteron D. alpha particle 2 E. electron MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 Element E is A. iron B. manganese C. cobalt D. chromium 9 E. nickel 2950011 CEEB 45 23160 31 0656800180031290 ETS2WVW MACROITEM STEM 2The following questions represent changes involving the nuclei of 2atoms. After each item number on the answer sheet, blacken the 2one lettered space which designates the correct answer, choosing 3___ 2your answer from the group of answers below. 2 A. If X is X(239/94) 2 B. if X is X(234/90) 2 C. if X is X(239/93) 2 D. if X is X(242/94) 0 E. if X is X(239/92) MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 U(239/92) ---> X + e- MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 Np(239/93) ---> X + e- MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 3 U(238/92) + neutron ---> X MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 5 4 U(238/92) ---> He + X 94 2 2950012 BDDEAA 65 23167 31 0656800180031290 ETS2WVW MACROITEM STEM 2For the following questions, select your answer from the list of 2nuclear reactions below. 2 A. If X is Cm(242/96) 2 B. if X is Pu(241/94) 2 C. if X is Cm(240/96) 2 D. if X is Pu(239/94) 02 E. if X is Np(238/93) MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 U(238/92) + He(4/2) ---> n(1/0) + X MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 X + He(4/2) ---> n(1/0) + Cm(242/96) MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 e- e- 3 U(238/92) + n(1/0) ---> U(239/92) ---> Np(239/93)---> X MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 4 U(238/92) + h(2/1) ---> 2 n(1/0) + X MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 5 Pu(239/94) + He(4/2) ---> X + n(1/0) MACRO SUB-ITEM # 6 9 Am(242/95) ---> e- + n 2950013 DAEC 45 23174 31 0656800180031290 ETS2WVW MACROITEM STEM 2Radioactive sodium can be obtained from ordinary sodium by the 2following nuclear reaction 02 Na(23/11) + H(2/1) ---> Na(24/11) + H(1/1) MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 The particle used in causing the change shown above is A. a neutron B. an alpha particle C. a proton D. a deuteron 1 E. a beta particle MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 This particle is usually obtained through use of a A. cyclotron B. cloud chamber C. mass spectrograph D. uranium pile 2 E. radioactive element fround in nature MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 The particle formed in addition to the radioactive sodium is A. an alpha particle B. an electron C. a neutron D. a deuteron 3 E. a proton MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 The atomic weight of the radioactive element is A. 11 B. 23 C. 24 D. 12 9 E. none of these 2950014 ECAEDBBC 85 23184 31 0656 1290 ETS2WVW MACROITEM STEM 2After the number on the answer sheet corresponding to that of 2each of the numbered nuclear reactions at the right, blacken the 2one lettered space which indicates the correct substitute for "X". 3___ 5 13 2 A. If X is N 4 7 5 17 2 B. If X is F 4 9 5 15 2 C. If X is O 4 8 5 14 2 D. If X is C 4 6 5 16 2 E. If X is N 04 7 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 5 15 2 1 N + H ---> X + H 147 1 1 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 5 16 1 1 O + n ----> X + n 248 0 0 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 5 12 2 1 C + H -----> X + n 346 1 0 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 5 19 1 4 F + n -----> X + He 449 0 2 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 5 14 1 1 N + H -----> X + H 547 0 1 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 6 5 16 1 O + H -----> X 648 1 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 7 5 14 4 1 N + He -----> X + n 747 2 0 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 8 5 16 1 O -----> X + n 948 0 2950015 E 15 23198 31 03510159023511 ETSZWVW Atomic energy changes are spontaneous in A. uranium B. radium C. thorium D. plutonium 9 E. all of these 2950016 C 14 23200 31 03420632 0041 5 235 The splitting of an atomic nucleus, such as that of U , into two or more large pieces is called 9 A. sublimation B. fusion C. fission D. a chain reaction 2950017 D 14 23203 31 015903421221 0041 Which of the following does not make use of the energy evolved when two light nuclei fuse together to make a heavier one? A. The generation of energy within stars B. Proposed thermonuclear power plants 9 C. Hydrogen bombs D. Nuclear reactors 2950018 B 14 23207 31 121506320341 0041 The term chain reaction is used to refer to A. the linking together of protons and neutrons to form nuclei B. the successive fissions of nuclei induced by neutrons from the fissions of other nuclei C. the setting off of a hydrogen bomb by an atomic bomb D. the combustion of uranium in a special type of furnace 9 called a nuclear reactor 2950019 C 14 23212 52 009703421167 0041 5 11 A fast proton strikes a B nucleus and reacts with it to produce a 4 5 511 C nucleus. There is emitted in the process 4 6 9 A. a proton C. a neutron E. an alpha particle 2950020 B 14 23216 32 066103510342 0041 5 14 The first nuclear reaction ever observed occurred when N atoms 4 7 5 4 were bombarded with He nuclei (which are alpha particles) and 4 2 protons were ejected. This reaction produces 5 17 17 17 17 A. N B. O C. F D. Ne 94 7 8 9 10 2950021 A 14 23222 51 049512060097 0041 The only one of the following particles that does not decay in free space into another particle is the 9 A. proton B. neutron C. pion D. muon 2950022 D 15 23224 52 116704071159 0047 5 4 9 One gram of He reacts with an excess of Be in the reaction 4 2 4 5 9 4 12 1 Be + He -----> C + N 4 4 2 6 0 5 12 How many grams of C will be formed? 4 6 9 A. 0.33 g B. 12. 0 g C. 9.0 g D. 3.0 g E. 18.0 g 2950023 B 15 23230 52 122104070189 0044 In a present day nuclear reactor a typical reaction is: U-235 + neutron -----> Kr-93 + Ba-140 + 3 neutrons select the one correct statement. 3 _______ A. This reaction is called fusion. B. A variety of reactions creating pairs of elements similar to these can occur when neutrons strike U-235. C. The sum of the masses of the products exceeds that of the reactants. D. In the above reaction the number of nucleons is conserved but two positive charges are created. E. The above reaction could not become explosive under any 9 conditions. 2950024 B 14 23238 52 06611076064251 9000 Which nuclear reaction is properly balanced? 5 4 9 12 1 A. He + Be -----> C + H 4 2 4 6 1 5 4 14 17 1 B. He + N -----> O + H 4 2 7 8 1 5 12 1 14 1 C. C + H -----> N + n 4 6 1 7 0 5 14 0 14 D. N + e -----> O 4 7 -1 8 5 16 0 16 E. O + e -----> F 94 8 -1 9 2950025 B 15 23245 51 101210150642 0018 The liquid-metal-cooled fast breeder reactor (LMFBR) is A. a kind of nuclear reactor that produces NO radioactive wastes B. a kind of nuclear power plant in which plutonium serves as a fuel C. a reactor involving fusion D. a reactor involving uranium-235 as the main fuel 9 E. none of these 2950026 D 15 23250 51 037901891094 0018 All of the following are released by radioactive elements except A. gamma rays B. beta rays C. alpha particles D. canal rays (positive ions) 9 E. positrons 2950027 A 15 23253 52 035306201097 0018 If 1 g of an isotope has a half-life of 15 hr, the half-life of a 0.50 g sample is 9 A. 15 hr B. 30 hr C. 7.5 hr D. 60 hr E. 45 hr 2950028 D 14 23255 51 049103791106 0018 The rate of decay of radioactive substances A. depends on whether the substance is a gas, liquid, or solid B. depends on the temperature and is faster at higher temperature C. depends on the temperature and is slower at higher temperature D. is independent of temperature, state, or chemical form of 9 the substances 2950029 E 15 23260 32 035806600656 0028 Astatine-218 (At) decays by alpha emission. The other atom formed is: 5 216 218 217 218 214 A. Bi B. Bi C. Po D. Rn E. Bi 94 83 83 84 86 83 2950030 C 15 23264 32 06600656 0028 Neptunium-234 (Np) decays by positron emission. The other element formed is: 5 233 230 234 234 234 A. U B. Pa C. U D. Pu E. Np 94 92 91 92 94 92 2950031 B 15 23267 32 062106600656 0028 Californium-253 (Cf) decays by beta emission. The other element formed is: 5 252 253 253 249 A. Es B. Es C. Bk D. Cm E. none of these 94 99 99 97 96 2950032 A 14 23270 31 03580656800113 ETS2WVW 5 14 1 4 In the nuclear reaction N + H = C + He 4 7 1 2 A. the carbon atom produced will have a mass of 11 and an atomic number of 6 B. the carbon atom produced will have a mass of 12 and an atomic number of 5 C. the carbon atom produced will have a mass of 12 and an atomic number of 6 9 D. none of the above statements is true 2950033 A 15 23277 51 057312060358 0020 Uranium-238 decays to give an alpha particle plus A. element 90 B. element 89 C. element 91 D. neutrons 9 E. positrons 2950034 E 15 23279 51 120705731208 0020 The end product of the uranium-238 decay series is A. carbon-14 B. thorium C. protactinium D. radon 9 E. nonradioactive 2950035 C 15 23281 51 128503790341 0020 Beta particles coming from radioactive elements are A. always of low energy B. very difficult to detect C. the result of neutrons changing to protons D. the result of protons changing to neutrons 9 E. none of these 2950036 D 15 23285 51 12090620 0020 Carbon-14 has a half-life of A. 36 years 5 8 B. 5 x 10 years C. 42 minutes 9 D. 5570 years 2950037 B 15 23287 31 120903211210 0020 Carbon-14 is formed in the atmosphere from A. cosmic ray bombardment of oxygen B. cosmic ray bombardment of nitrogen C. neutrons and protons D. radioactive disintegration of nitrogen-15 9 E. none of these 2950038 B 15 23290 52 003103580341 0020 5 10 13 Complete the equation: B + alpha particles ---> N + _____ 4 5 7 A. electrons B. neutrons C. cosmic radiation D. positrons 9 E. more alpha particles 2950039 C 15 23294 51 062005730398 0020 5 9 The half-life of uranium-238 is 4.5 x 10 years. This means that 5 9 after 4.5 x 10 years A. the sample disappears B. half the original mass remains C. half the 238 isotope remains D. the sample is half as radioactive 9 E. none of these 2950040 D 15 23299 51 04071211 0020 5 30 30 0 The reaction: P ---> Si + e 4 15 14 1 A. illustrates artificial transmutation B. is impossible C. is typical of all samples of phosphorus D. produces particles similar to those discovered by anderson 9 E. illustrates artificial radioactivity 2950041 E 15 23304 51 078706320342 0020 In the process of nuclear fission A. the nucleus of an atom actually splits B. many neutrons are produced C. large amounts of energy are liberated D. gamma radiation is produced 9 E. all of these 2950042 C 15 23307 31 039812151216 0020 The mass of U-235 just large enough to sustain a chain reaction is called A. the mass number B. the nuclear mass C. the critical mass D. the moderator mass 9 E. none of these 2950043 D 15 23310 51 121704070518 0020 Thermonuclear reactions A. are fission reactions B. are atomic bomb reactions C. involve lithium deuteride D. are fusion reactions 9 E. are due to radioactivity 2950044 A 15 23313 51 121806320407 0020 The hydrogen bomb A. utilizes a nuclear fission reaction B. must be fused by a fusion reaction C. contains a large amount of plutonium D. all of these 9 E. none of these 2950045 D 15 23316 51 122012210852 0020 A moderator for use in nuclear reactors is A. cadmium B. neptunium C. boron D. graphite 9 E. U-238 2950046 B 15 23318 51 004912210353 0020 Using thorium-232 as a fuel in a nuclear reactor, it is possible to produce the fissionable isotope A. protactinium-233 B. uranium-233 C. uranium-235 D. plutonium-239 9 E. thorium-234 2950047 A 14 23321 51 035306321096 0019 An unstable isotope A. undergoes fission B. readily emits positrons C. has a short half life 9 D. lies within the belt of stability 2950048 E 15 23323 51 035303580417 0019 Isotopes whose neutron to proton ratio lie below the belt of stability are A. nonradioactive B. alpha emitters C. beta emitters 9 D. positron emitters E. both B and D. 2950049 E 15 23326 51 035317410097 0019 Isotopes whose neutron to proton ratio lie below the belt of stability A. emit protons B. emit neutrons C. emit electrons D. undergo K electron capture 9 E. both A and D. 2950050 B 14 23329 31 035306321096 0019 Isotopes which undergo fission in nature are found------- the belt of stability 9 A. below B. above C. beyond D. in 2950051 A 15 23331 31 063203530379 0019 The products of a fission process are----- mass than that of the radioactive isotope. 9 A. Of lower B. of higher C. of the same 2950052 D 15 23333 31 0661 0040 Nuclear reactions differ from ordinary chemical reactions in that A. different isotopes of an element have different nuclear properties B. the nuclear reactivity is independent of the state of combination C. elements may be changed into other elements during nulcear reactions D. all of the above are correct 9 E. both B and C are correct 2950053 A 15 23338 31 0661 0040 Which of the following is not true of nuclear reactions? A. all isotopes of an element undergo similar reactions B. the reactivity of an element depends upon the compound form it is in C. nuclear reactions involve large amounts of energy D. B and C are correct 9 E. no correct response is given. 2950055 A 15 23348 31 06610660 0040 5 23 2 The bombardment of Na with H gives two products, one of which 4 11 1 is a proton. The other product is 5 24 25 25 22 A. Na B. Mg C. Na D. Mg 4 11 12 11 12 9 E. no correct response is given. 2950056 B 15 23353 31 06610660 0040 5 250 11 Bombardment of Cf by B yields 4 neutrons and an isotope of 4 98 5 an element of atomic number A. 104 B. 103 C. 102 D. 99 9 E. either A or B 2950057 C 15 23356 31 06610660 0040 Which particle is needed to balance the following nuclear reaction? 5 7 4 Li + _____ -----> 2( He) 4 3 2 A. an alpha B. a beta minus C. a proton D. a neutron 9 E. either C or D 2950058 C 15 23360 31 06600661 0040 5 234 A uranium isotope, U, decays by alpha emission. The resulting 4 92 isotope is 5 238 230 230 234 A. Cm B. Ra C. Th D. Np 4 96 88 90 93 9 E. no correct response is given. 2950059 D 15 23364 31 06600661 0040 5 56 56 The isotope Mn spontaneously decays to give Fe. The process 4 25 26 also involves A. the capture of an electron by the Mn-56 nucleus B. the emission of a positron 9 E. either A or B 2950060 E 15 23368 31 05181538 0040 Fusion is the process of A. bombarding a large nucleus with small particles B. splitting a nucleus into many small fragments C. splitting a nucleus into two fragments of about equal mass D. making a nonradioactive substance radioactive 9 E. both A and D 2950061 D 15 23372 31 06610632 0040 Nuclear fission is the process A. of putting light nuclei together to form heavier nuclei B. which occurs in the hydrogen bomb explosion C. which occurs on the sun D. of splitting heavier nuclei to form lighter nuclei 9 E. the splitting of molecules into their constituent atoms 2950062 C 15 23376 31 1223 0040 Transuranium elements A. are made by nuclear fusion B. result from natural radioactive decay C. have atomic numbers greater than 92 D. have greater half-lives than uranium 9 E. are made from uranium 2950063 D 14 23379 51 037907870358 0009 5 235 A certain radioactive series starts with U and ends with 4 92 5207 Pb. In the overall process, _____ alpha-particles and _____ 4 82 beta-particles are emitted. 9 A. 8, 6 B. 14, 10 C. 7,10 D. 7, 4 2950064 D 15 23383 52 009703530587 0009 5 75 2 Bombardment of As by a deuteron, H, forms a proton and an 4 33 1 isotope which has a mass number of _____ and an atomic number of 9 A. 73,32 B. 75,33 C. 75,32 D. 76,33 E. 76,34 2950065 C 14 23387 52 018900650353 0009 The element silicon has an atomic weight of about 28. The 5 30 isotope Si would most likely decay by emitting a(n) 4 14 9 A. positron B. proton C. electron D. alpha particle 2950066 B 15 23390 52 0031 0034 Which of the following equations is incorrect? 5 28 1 28 1 A. Si + n -----> Al + H 4 14 0 13 1 5 28 1 28 1 B. Si + H -----> Al + n 4 14 1 13 0 5 25 4 1 28 C. Mg + He -----> H + Al 4 12 2 1 13 5 27 2 28 1 D. Al + H -----> Al + H 4 13 1 13 1 5 40 40 0 E. K ------> Ca + e 94 19 20 -1 2950067 A 14 23397 72 19540341 0061 5 7 2 8 In Li + H ---> Be + (?), the missing species is: 4 3 1 4 5 1 4 0 1 A. n B. He C. e D. H 94 0 2 -1 1 2950068 D 15 23400 52 19541285 0061 5234 234 Th is converted into Pa by: 4 90 91 A. proton emission B. positron emission C. K electron capture 9 D. beta emission E. alpha capture 2950069 DDECADCAD95 23403 31 80018003 1290 ETS2WVW MACROITEM STEM 2For the following items, the notation used is as follows M(A/Z), 2where M is the symbol for the element or particle, A is the atomic 2mass and Z is the atomic number or charge. Thus uranium 238 becomes 2U(238/92). Now, consider the following nuclear reactions 2 U(238/92) + n(1/0) ---> U(239/92) 2 U(239/92) ---> Np(239/93) + energy + e(0/-1) 2 Np(239/92) ---> Pu(239/94) + e(0/-1) 2If the neutron concentration becomes too high as shown by neutron 2counters placed within the pile the condition is corrected by 2insertion of Cd bars. An outside continuous source of neutrons 2is not required because neutrons are supplied by fission of 2some of the U-235 atoms and by fission of some of the newly formed 2Pu-239 (the product of the pile). Using this information, answer 0 the following questions. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 To be accepted into the nucleus by uranium-238, neutrons must be A. fast B. energetic C. hot D. slow 1 E. fresh from an outside source MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 Np(239/94) which is formed first, must be converted to Pu(239/94) by A. bombardment with more neutrons B. bombardment with deuterons C. bombardment with alpha particles D. allowing it to undergo natural radioactive decay 2 E. chemical treatment MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 Of the particles and nuclei listed in symbols above, the one which is an isotope of U-238 is A. Pu(239/99) B. electron C. Np(238/93) D. U(238/92) 3 E. U(239/92 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 After the reaction has started, it is kept going by neutrons supplied in part by A. an outside source B. Np(239/93) C. Pu(239/94) D. U(234/92) 4 E. U(239/92) MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 Pu-239 is produced at an increasingly rapid rate because A. as in the fission of U(235/92) the fission of Pu(239/94) releases 3 neutrons B. in addition to the main reaction there are certain side reactions that produce Pu(239/94) C. no Pu(239/94) atoms are lost once they are formed D. presence of Cd stabilizes and prevents decay of the Pu(239/94) E. presence of carbon stabilizes and prevents decay of the 5 Pu(239/94) MACRO SUB-ITEM # 6 Hydrogen nuclei tend to trap neutrons because of the tendency to form A. alpha particles B. positrons C. gamma rays D. deuterons 6 E. beta rays MACRO SUB-ITEM # 7 The use of cadmium in the pile is to A. make the neutrons go faster B. absorb heat C. remove neutrons D. interfere with the action of the graphite 7 E. convert the neutrons to alpha particles MACRO SUB-ITEM # 8 The first atomic pile was set into operation by A. Fermi B. Rutherford C. Seaborg D. Nier 8 E. Joliot MACRO SUB-ITEM # 9 when U(239/92) changes to Np(239/94) the electron comes from A. an orbital electron B. a nuclear proton C. a nuclear alpha particle D. a nuclear neutron 9 E. a nuclear deuteron 2950070 E 15 23439 31 06568001800312 ETS2WVW Carbon serves as a moderator in the atomic pile. It captures a few neutrons according to the following equation 5 12 13 C + n(1/0) ---> C 4 6 6 The most important use of this product is for A. producing very hot flames B. making atom bombs C. curing cancer D. making artificial diamonds 9 E. a tracer element in chemistry 2950071 C 12 12167 32 03851486 0003 5 226 Emission of an alpha particle from a Ra nucleus yields 4 88 A. Th B. Ra C. Rn D. Po 94 90 88 86 84 2950072 B 15 44766 31 5 210 Emission of a beta particle from a Pb nucleus yields 4 82 5 211 210 210 206 212 A. Pb B. Bi C. Tl D. Hg E. Pb 94 82 83 81 80 82 2970001 C 15 23445 31 05188001800312 ETS2WVW The sun radiates a large amount of energy as a result of the union of four hydrogen atoms to form the helium atom. The reason for this release of energy is that A. the hydrogen atoms are in a high state of thermal excitation B. the coulomb forces of attraction between the nuclei of the hydrogen atoms are large C. the mass of the helium atom is less than the mass of the four hydrogen atoms D. large numbers of neutrons are released during the formation of the helium atom 9 E. gamma rays released in this process have very high energy 2970002 D 14 23453 31 06090590800311 ETS2WVW Cosmic rays are usually considered to be A. by-products of some process of atomic creation B. by-products of atomic annihilation C. diffused radiation in space congealing into particles of matter-electrons, atoms, and molecules D. high-energy radiation coming from the far reaches 9 of interstellar space 2970003 D 15 23458 31 06090633800111 ETS2WVW Cosmic rays may be audibly detected by A. a fluorescent tube B. the cyclotron C. the oscilloscope D. the geiger counter 9 E. the stroboscope 2970004 C 15 23461 32 05840196800111 ETS2WVW In the underwater explosion of an atomic bomb at Bikini in 1946, a fusion chain reaction of the hydrogen in the water did not occur because A. ocean water has enough salts in solution to absorb extra neutrons B. the possibility of a release of energy by fusion of hydrogen was not known at that time C. the temperature produced by the atomic bomb was too low to initiate the reaction D. the bomb was particularly designed to prevent a fusion reaction E. direct fusion of protons proceeds at a very slow rate even in 9 the interior of stars 2970005 C 15 23469 52 2WVW The mass spectrum in the parent molecular ion region of PBr , a 4 3 5 o colorless liquid boiling at 173 C, shows four peaks at 268, 270, 272 and 274 amu. Assuming the existence of Br-79 and Br-81, what are the isotopes of phosphorous and their relative abundance? 2 Isotopes Relative abundance 3 ________ __________________ 2 5 30 2 A. P 100% abundant 5 30 31 2 B. P and P 1:3 5 31 2 C. P 100% abundant 5 29 32 2 D. P and P 3:1 5 30 33 92 E. P and P 1:1 2970007 BD 25 44770 31 0656 1290 ETS2WVW MACROITEM STEM 2The following questions refer to the transmutation equation 5 13 2 X 1 C + H ---> N + n 04 6 1 7 0 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 The bombarding particle is a(an) A. positron B. proton C. deuteron D. alpha particle 1 E. electron MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 The atomic weight, (X), of the nitrogen is A. 21 B. 19 C. 14 D. 13 9 E. 12 2970008 BEA 35 23498 31 0656 1290 ETS2WVW MACROITEM STEM 2The following question refer to the equation for a simple capture 2type of nuclear reaction 5 12 1 2 C + H ---> N 4 6 1 0 Using this information, answer the following questions. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 The atomic number of the nitrogen produced would be A. 5 B. 7 C. 8 D. 11 1 E. 13 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 The atomic weight of the nitrogen produced would be A. 5 B. 7 C. 8 D. 11 2 E. 13 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 The carbon is being bombarded with a(an) A. proton B. deuteron C. alpha particle D. beta particle 9 E. neutron 2970009 B 15 23506 52 077307748003 2WVW One of the fusion reactions believed to take place during a thermonuclear explosion is 5 6 2 4 Li + H = 2( He ) 43 1 2 where the terminology used is "Z-symbol-mass" for each isotope. Calculate the energy released for every two atoms of helium formed by this reaction. 5 2 4 (Isotopic wt H = 2.01410 amu, He = 4.00260 amu, 4 1 2 5 6 Li = 6.01513 amu; 1 amu = 931 mev) 43 A. 0.024 MEV B. 22.4 MEV C. 27.3 MEV D. 93 MEV 9 E. 400 MEV 2970010 B 15 23514 51 04070331 0020 One of the reactions occurring on the sun is probably 5 238 1 237 A. U ---> n + U 4 92 0 92 5 1 2 3 B. H + D ---> He 4 1 1 2 5 4 4 8 C. He + He ---> Be 4 2 2 4 D. all of these 9 E. none of these 2970011 E 15 23519 52 033903400847 0020 56 1 4 Li + n ---> He + ______ 43 0 2 A. deuterium B. beryllium C. H D. protons E. tritium 94 1 2970012 D 15 23522 52 026305731222 0020 5239 U ---> electron + ##### 4 92 A. plutonium-240 B. uranium-238 C. thorium D. neptunium-239 9 E. plutonium-239 2990001 D 15 23524 31 00690159800111 ETS2WVW The term, "atomic energy," refers to energy obtained from A. the electron clouds which surround atoms B. reactions between two different atoms C. endothermic chemical reactions D. within the nucleus of the atom 9 E. electrons passing into different energy levels 2990002 C 15 23528 31 01590573800111 ETS2WVW The energy released when uranium (238) atoms disintegrate results from A. the change of uranium into radium B. the emission of high speed electrons C. the conversion of matter to energy D. the formation of the isotope u235 9 E. the emission of alpha particles 2990003 C 15 23532 32 00698001015911 ETS2WVW Early in 1905, the possibility of an atomic bomb had been forecast in the work of Dr. Albert Einstein. His suggestion was that A. matter and energy were separate and distinct from one another B. while matter and energy were not entirely separate and distinct, they could not be changed one into another C. matter and energy were not separate and distinct and they could be changed one into another D. although energy could possibly be derived from matter, the amount of energy that could possibly be SO derived would be of little consequence E. while matter and energy were both separate and distinct, it was likely that energy could be converted into great quantities 9 of matter 2990004 E 15 23542 52 8003 2WVW In the fusion reaction 5 2 3 4 1 H + H ---> He + n 4 1 1 2 0 17.6 MEV of energy is released. Using the data given, calculate 5 3 the mass of a tritium atom, H . (Note: the terminology used is 4 1 "Z-symbol-mass" for each species.) 5 1 2 (isotopic wt. n = 1.00899 amu. H = 2.01410 amu, 4 0 1 5 4 He = 4.00260 amu; 1 amu = 931 MEV) 4 2 A. 2.60899 amu B. 2.97947 amu C. 2.99749 amu D. 3.01286 amu 9 E. 3.01639 amu 2990005 D 15 23551 52 015906320642 0044 Calculate the amount of energy in MEV liberated in the following nuclear fission reaction, given the information below: U-235 + neutron -----> Rb-91 + Cs-142 + 3 neutrons 5 2 conversion factor for E = mc is 931 mev/amu mass of neutron = 1.01 amu mass of U-235 = 235.04 mass of Rb-91 = 90.91 mass of Cs-142 = 141.92 9 A. 39400 B. 0.00237 C. 763 D. 177 E. 1770 2990006 B 15 23557 52 051802860414 0044 How many tons of carbon would have to be burned, 5 o C + O (g) ----> CO (g) /\H = -393 kJ 4 2 2 -- reaction to generate as much heat as is generated when one pound of He-4 is formed according to the following fusion reaction: 5 2 3 4 1 H + H -----> He + n + 17.6 meV 4 1 1 2 0 A. 5230 tons B. 6270 tons C. 11.5 tons 9 D. 49200 tons E. 434 tons. 2990007 A 15 23565 52 01590642 0044 Calculate the amount of energy in mev liberated in the following nuclear decay reaction, given the information below: 5 2 conversion factor for E = mc is 931 mev/amu mass of proton = 1.00728 amu mass of neutron = 1.00867 mass of electron = 0.00055 mass of Cl-36 = 35.96831 mass of Ar-36 = 35.96755 5 - Cl-36 -----> Ar-36 + beta 9 A. 0.196 B. 0.000816 C. 3.16 D. 0.00118 E. 0.7080 2990008 C 15 23571 31 036400310159 0020 Einstein's equation says A. E = mass x c 5 2 B. E = length x c 5 2 C. E = c x mass 5 2 D. E = mass x c 9 E. none of these 2990009 A 15 23574 31 038503980031 0020 When the units for c in m/s and for mass in kg are used when solving Einstein equation problems, the energy units obtained are A. joules B. ergs C. neutons D. calories 9 E. dynes 2990010 C 15 44651 51 16850587 0019 The binding energy per nuclear particle is greatest for elements of ______ mass number. 9 A. high B. low C. intermediate D. integral E. negative 2990011 B 13 23579 31 16850587 0019 The slope of the binding energy curve is steepest in the region of --------mass number. 9 A. high B. low C. intermediate 2990012 D 14 23581 52 015903640661 0009 5 2 According to the Einstein relation (E = mc ), the energy given off in a nuclear reaction in which the decrease in mass is 2.0 mg would be 5 21 20 A. 1.8 x 10 ergs B. 1.5 x 10 ergs 5 20 9 C. 9.0 x 10 ergs D. some other number 2990013 B 14 23586 52 039803420159 0009 5 4 6 10 The masses of He, Li and B are 4.0015, 6.0135 and 10.0102 4 2 3 5 amu, respectively. The splitting of a boron-10 nucleus to helium-4 and lithium-6 would A. evolve energy B. absorb energy 9 C. result in no energy change D. cannot say 3100001 D 15 23590 31 00670068800112 ETS2 OS "The properties of the elements are periodic functions of their atomic weights" means that A. in a given group certain properties recur at regular intervals as the atomic weight increases B. elements function periodically C. the atomic weights of the elements, plotted against their atomic numbers, give a wave-like curve D. with progressive increase in atomic weight of the elements, types of chemical behavior recur at regular intervals E. in a collection of elements picked at random, one element 9 in eight will have a valence of one 3100002 D 15 23598 31 03370367800111 ETS2 OS The modern form of the periodic law states that the properties of the elements are a periodic function of their A. atomic volume B. ionization potential C. atomic weight D. atomic number 9 E. valence 3100003 E 15 23601 31 03698001800211 ETS2 OS Elements that lose electrons from more than one electronic energy level in ordinary chemical reactions are called the A. alkali elements B. alkaline earth elements C. light elements D. radioactive elements 9 E. transition elements 3100004 B 14 23605 31 037104638004 2 OS According to Mendeleev the chemical properties of elements are periodic functions of their A. atomic mass B. atomic weight C. atomic number 9 D. isotopic weight 3100005 C 14 23608 31 018903628004 2 OS A vertical column of elements in the periodic table is known as a (an) A. octave B. period C. group 9 D. triad 3110001 E 15 23610 31 03718001800211 ETS2 OS Mendeleev A. showed that there were fifteen rare earth elements B. predicted the existence of the inert gases C. proved that there were 92 elements D. discovered the elements gallium, scandium and germanium 9 E. corrected the values of certain atomic weights 3110002 B 14 23614 31 018902658004 2 OS The grouping of elements according to the law of octaves is credited to A. Dobereiner B. Newlands C. Ramsay 9 D. Stras 3110003 D 14 23616 31 037001890064 0041 The periodic table of the elements does not A. permit us to make accurate guesses of the properties of undiscovered elements B. reveal regularities in the occurrence of elements with similar properties C. include the inert gases 9 D. tell us the arrangement of the atoms in a molecule 3110004 A 15 23621 31 01891366 0020 Element 101 was named in honor of A. Mendeleev B. Mendel C. Mendelevium D. Mennin 9 E. none of these 3110005 B 15 23623 52 14220065 0019 Two members of a Dobereiner triad have atomic weights 40 and 137. The third member of the triad should be of atomic weight-----. 9 A. 79 B. 87 C. 20 D. 115 3110006 D 15 23626 31 136600670065 0019 Mendeleev stated that the properties of the elements are periodic functions of A. their atomic number B. the number of protons which they contain C. their atomic radius D. their atomic weight 9 E. the number of neutrons which they contain 3110007 D 15 23630 31 036200670189 0035 The modern form of the periodic table states that the properties of the elements are a periodic function of their A. atomic volume B. atomic weight. C. ionization potential. 9 D. atomic number. E. valence. 3110008 A 15 23633 31 136600680189 0034 Mendeleev based his periodic system of the elements on A. the recurrence of similar chemical properties when the elements were arranged in order of atomic weights B. the ionization potential of the elements C. the recurrence of similar chemical properties when the elements were arranged in order of atomic number D. theoretical arguments involving atomic structure 9 E. the nature of covalent and ionic bonds 3120001 B 15 23639 32 072207238003 2WVW Which one of the following elements does not belong to 3 ___ the family of elements indicated? A. technetium (Tc)--transition metal B. tellurium (Te)--rare earth metal C. barium (Ba)--alkaline earth metal D. francium (Fr)--alkali metal 9 E. fermium (Fm)--actinide 3120002 A 14 23644 31 01890015 0041 The most conspicuous distinction among the elements is their division into A. metals and nonmetals B. solids, liquids, and gases 9 C. atoms and molecules D. active and inactive elements 3120003 B 14 23647 51 13010028 0041 The number of nonmetals is 9 A. 2 B. 20 C. 60 D. 92 3120004 B 14 23648 31 036714020337 0041 According to the periodic law, the chemical properties of the elements are periodic functions of their 9 A. density B. atomic number C. atomic mass D. mass number 3120005 D 14 23651 31 0370 0026 The elements of the periodic chart are arranged in accordance with their A. atomic weight C. electron number 9 B. electrical properties D. atomic number 3120006 C 15 23654 31 006701890989 0020 The properties of the elements are a periodic function of their A. isotopic composition B. atomic mass C. atomic number D. total number of neutrons 9 E. none of these 3120007 A 15 23657 31 01890015 0020 Most of the 104 elements are 9 A. metals B. gases C. liquids D. nonmetals E. none of these 3120008 B 15 23659 31 037003370189 0020 The modern periodic table is based on the A. order of discovery of the elements B. atomic numbers of the elements C. atomic masses of the elements D. size of the elements 9 E. electronegativity of the elements 3120009 A 15 23662 31 079403620263 0035 The vertical groups of the periodic chart consist of elements that have the same number of A. electrons in the outer shell. B. electrons in the nucleus. C. total electrons. D. neutrons. 9 E. protons. 3120010 B 14 23666 52 1945 0056 The elements in the periodic table are in the order of increasing A. atomic weight B. atomic number C. neutron number 9 D. mass number 3120011 CEBD 45 23668 31 019203510199 90 2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2For each of the numbered items which follow, choose the option 2which best matches. 2 A. Hydrate 2 B. Metaloid 2 C. Oxidizing agent 2 D. Triad 0 E. Kernel MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 A substance which takes up electrons during a chemical reaction MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 The portion of the atom excluding the valence elecctrons MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 An element having certain properties characteristic of a metal, 3 but which is generally classed as a nonmetal MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 A group of elements, the middle one of which has an atomic weight which is approximately the same as the average of the atomic 9 weights of the other two elements 3121001 B 14 23676 31 03700820 0041 Horizontal rows in the periodic table are usually called 9 A. groups B. periods C. shells D. subshells E. families 3121002 D 14 23678 31 037001891445 0041 Each horizontal row of the periodic table includes elements with chemical characteristics that are, in general A. identical B. similar C. different 9 D. sometimes similar and sometimes different 3122001 B 14 23681 31 081200190344 2 OS The alkali metal which is naturally radioactive: A. radium B. francium C. lithium D. sodium 9 E. cesium 3122002 A 12 23683 31 07940370 0041 Vertical rows in the periodic table are usually called 9 A. groups B. periods C. shells D. subshells 3122003 B 14 23685 31 037001891445 0041 Each vertical row of the periodic table includes elements with chemical characteristics that are, in general, A. identical B. similar C. different 9 D. sometimes similar and sometimes different 3122004 D 15 23688 31 037001890794 0020 In the periodic table, elements that have a similar arrangement of electrons are grouped together in vertical columns called A. transition elements B. periods C. actinides D. periodic groups 9 E. clusters 3123001 C 14 23692 31 036908448003 2WVW An example of a transition element is A. aluminum B. astatine C. nickel 9 D. rubidium 3123002 D 14 23694 31 036201898004 2WVW In the periodic table, the percentage of elements generally regarded as metals is closest to which one of the following? A. 20 B. 35 C. 55 9 D. 75 3123003 C 14 23697 31 80038004 2WVW An element in the same chemical family as potassium is A. copper B. helium C. lithium 9 D. zinc 3123004 B 14 23699 31 03620722 05 Elements which are the most metallic are found in what general area of the periodic table? A. lower right C. upper right 9 B. lower left D. upper left 3124001 A 14 23702 31 03620722 05 Elements which are the most nonmetallic are found in what general area of the periodic table? A. upper right C. upper left 9 B. lower right D. lower left 3210001 C 15 23705 51 03620351800112 ETS2 OS In the periodic table of elements, there occurs immediately after each inert gas one of the chemically very active alkali metals. This sequence is due, according to the Bohr theory, to A. a sudden increase in the nuclear charge, between the inert gas and the metal B. a sudden increase in atomic weight, owing to the high energy of the nuclei of metallic elements C. a sudden increase in the radius of the atom, leaving the outermost electron relatively loosely bound in the metallic atom D. a sudden change in the quantum numbers of the atom E. a sudden increase in the ionization energy, between the inert 9 gas and the metal 3210002 D 15 23714 32 03700374800111 ETS2 OS A series of elements in the periodic chart has atomic numbers 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17. A correct statement about this series is that A. the valence is constant for the series B. they are all metals C. the valence steadily decreases from left to right D. each element belongs to a different group 9 E. the activity steadily increases from left to right 3210003 EBCDDA 65 23719 32 03801138 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2The diagrams below symbolize the electron configurations of the 2atoms of four different elements. The symbol (n) represents the 2nucleus, and the number in front of each right parenthesis 2represents the number of electrons contained in each shell. To 2answer the following questions, mark the letter of the diagram 2which best represents the element described. If none applies, 2mark space E. 2A. (n) 2) 1) 2B. (n) 2) 4) 2C. (n) 2) 6) 2D. (n) 2) 8) 0 E. none of the above MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 Cannot be converted to a gas without decomposing MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 Will lose or gain electrons with almost equal ease MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 3 Oxidizes other substances readily MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 4 Has the highest atomic number MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 5 Least apt to form compounds MACRO SUB-ITEM # 6 9 The best reducing agent 3210004 CDAB 45 23729 32 0045001280011290 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2The diagrams below symbolize the electron configurations of the 2atoms of four different elements. The symbol (n) represents the 2nucleus, and number in front of each right parenthesis represents 2the number of electrons contained in each shell. To answer the 2following questions, mark the letter of the diagram which best 2represents the element described. If none applies, mark space E. A. (n) 2) 1) B. (n) 2) 4) C. (n) 2) 6) D. (n) 2) 8) 0 E. none of the above MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 Oxidizes other substances readily MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 Chemically inactive MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 3 A very good reducing agent MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 9 Shows a great tendency to form compounds by sharing electrons 3210005 BEDBD 55 23738 52 0337001980011290 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2The following questions refer to the diagram of the chemical 2reaction shown below. 2 1 2 3 4 2(4P, 5n) 2) 2) + (8p, 8n) 2) 6) ---> (_p, _n) 2) + (_p, _n) 2) 8) 02 Be O Beo MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 The atomic number of number 1 is A. 2 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6 1 E. 9 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 Number 4 in the diagram is A. an atom of the free element B. a compound C. a charged particle D. a gas 2 E. a radical MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 Number 3 in the diagram A. has the same chemical properties as number 1 B. is sharing electrons with number 4 C. is an oxidizing agent D. is in an ionized state 3 E. has been reduced MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 The number of protons and neutrons in number 4 is respectively A. 9p, 8n B. 8p, 8n C. 8p, 9n D. 9p, 9n 4 E. 7p, 9n MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 Number 1 in the diagram A. acquires a negative valency in chemical reaction B. is an oxidizing agent C. decreases the valence of number 2 in chemical reaction D. is non-metallic in character 9 E. is bi-valent in its compounds 3210006 CACCBDDE 85 23752 31 0338800102371290 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2After each item number on the answer sheet, blacken space 2 A. if the item is true of the element of electron structure 2-4 2 B. if the item is true of the element of electron structure 2-8 2 C. if the item is true of the element of electron structure 2-8-2 2 D. if the item is true of the element of electron structure 2-8-7 0 E. if the item is true of none of the above elements MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 The valence of this element is +2. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 this element is found in all carbohydrates. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 3 This element is one of the metals. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 4 This element forms an ionic compound with chlorine. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 5 This element forms no compounds. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 6 6 This element is the most active of the non-metals listed. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 7 7 The atoms of this element gain electrons easily. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 8 This element belongs in the same group in the periodic table as 9 sodium. 3210007 CDCDAEC 75 23762 32 0338001903421290 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2After each item number on the answer sheet, blacken space 2 A. if the item is true of the element of electron structure 2-4 2 B. if the item is true of the element of electron structure 2-8 2 C. if the item is true of the element of electron structure 2-8-2 2 D. if the item is true of the element of electron structure 2-8-7 0 E. if the item is true of none of the above elements MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 The atom of this element has 12 electrons outside its nucleus. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 This element belongs in the seventh group in the periodic table. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 3 The atoms of this element form positive ions. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 4 This element forms an ionic compound with sodium. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 If we let X represent the symbol of this element, the formula of Its chlorine compound is XCl . 54 4 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 6 If we let Y represent the symbol of this element, the formula of its sodium compound is Na Y. 64 2 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 7 If we let Z represent the symbol of this element, the formula 9 of its oxygen compound is ZO. 3210008 CEDBDACE 85 23775 32 0347033803481290 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2After each item number on the answer sheet, blacken space 2 A. if the item is true of an atom of orbital electron structure 2 2,2 2 B. if the item is true of an atom of orbital electron structure 2 2,4 2 C. if the item is true of an atom of orbital electron structure 2 2,8 2 D. if the item is true of an atom of orbital electron structure 2 2,8,7 2 E. if the item is true of an atom of orbital electron structure 0 2,8,8,1 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 Of the elements listed, it is the most non-reactive. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 Of the metals listed, it is the most reactive. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 3 Of the non-metals listed, it is the most reactive. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 4 It forms many compounds by electron-sharing. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 5 It will form a negative monatomic ion. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 6 6 It will form an ion of the type x++ MACRO SUB-ITEM # 7 7 it most resembles argon in its properties. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 8 9 It is in the same group in the periodic table as sodium. 3210009 CBCDCBE 75 23786 52 1290 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2To answer the following questions, refer to the list below 5 24 2 A. Mg 4 12 5 32 2 B. S 4 16 5 23 2 C. Na 4 11 5 35 2 D. Cl 4 17 5 63 2 E. Cu 04 29 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 This atom would lose one electron when it combined with a non-metal. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 This atom would gain two electrons when it united with a metal. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 The oxide of this element will form the strongest base when 3 dissolved in water. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 Through gain of one electron, an atom of this element forms the 4 negative ion of a strong acid when dissolved in water. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 5 This element would be highest in an activity list of metals. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 6 6 Oxygen acids of this element are used in ordinary storage batteries. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 7 9 This element would not replace hydrogen from acids. 3210010 C 15 23796 32 04070604800113 ETS2 OS An element with the electronic structure 2, 8, 1 will react with an element the electronic structure of which is 2,8,7 to form a substance which, at room temperature is A. a gas B. a liquid C. a crystalline solid D. an acid 9 E. a covalent compound 3210011 D 15 23800 51 03510263800111 ETS2 OS If an atom has one or two electrons in the outer electron orbital, it will have the greatest tendency to A. gain enough electrons to form eight B. change some electrons from inner shells to the outer shell C. take electrons from the nucleus and put them in the outer shell D. lose electrons from the outer shell 9 E. gain electrons from the outer orbital into the nucleus 3210012 D 15 23806 51 01920337800112 ETS2 OS In chemical combination, a substance with atomic number 12 should acquire a valence of A. -1 B. +1 C. -2 D. +2 9 E. none of these 3210013 C 15 23809 32 05670189800111 ETS2 OS The rare earths A. are a group of elements whose chemical behavior is very similar because all have eight electrons in the outside shell B. are a series of elements which combine with no other elements C. are a series of elements whose chemical similarity is due to the fact that the two outermost electron shells are identical D. are a group of elements with the same atomic number E. are a number of sparsely distributed miners, whose 9 constituent elements are not yet known 3210014 E 15 23816 31 8003 2WVW Which of the following elements does not belong to the family of elements indicated? A. samarium (Sm) = lanthanide B. curium (Cm) = actinide C. iridium (Ir) = transition metal D. thallium (Tl) = representative element 9 E. iodine (i) = chalcogen 3210015 D 15 23820 51 01920337800112 ETS2 OS In chemical combination, a substance with atomic number 12 should acquire a valence of A. -1 B. +1 C. -2 D. +2 9 E. none of these 3210016 D 14 23823 31 80038004 2WVW A metal may have an atomic number of A. 9 B. 18 C. 35 9 D. 37 3210017 D 14 23825 32 035103468004 2 OS The atom whose outermost shell structure most closely resembles that of neon has the atomic number A. 11 B. 2 C. 16 9 D. 18 3210018 A 14 23827 32 035100028004 2 OS An atom in the fourth series whose outermost structure most closely resembles that of sodium has the atomic number A. 19 B. 20 C. 21 9 D. 22 3210019 C 14 23830 31 018903378004 2 OS The element having atomic number 9 most closely resembles, in physical and chemical properties, the element having atomic number A. 10 B. 11 C. 17 9 D. 35 3210020 A 15 23833 32 07308003 2WVW Which one of the following sets of ions or atoms are isoelectronic? (1) B, C, N, O, F, Ne (2) H(+1), He(+2), Li(+3) (3) Ne, Ar, Kr, Xe (4) K(+1), Ca(+2), Sc(+3), Ti(+4) (5) Na(+1), Mg(+2), Al(+3), Sr(+2) A. (2) and (4) B. (1) and (3) C. (2), (4), and (5) D. all of them 9 E. none of them 3210021 D 15 23838 31 1 072303389001 95 2WVW The following question refers to the periodic table, Figure 1. Which one of the following elements does not have an exactly half-filled electronic subshell in its ground state electronic 3 ________ configuration? A. lithium B. nitrogen C. chromium D. iodine 9 E. antimony 3210022 E 15 23843 32 03628003 2WVW Which one of the following classifications, based on the ground state electronic configurations of the elements is incorrect? 3 _________ 5 1 note: (Ne)3s means neon core plus one electron in the 3s orbital 5 1 A. (Ne) 3s ; alkali metal 5 2 3 B. (Ne) 3s 3p ; nonmetal 5 2 10 5 C. (Ar) 4s 3d 4p ; halogen 5 2 1 D. (Kr) 5s 4d ; transition metal 5 2 10 1 9 E. (Kr) 5s 4d 6s ; noble gas 3210023 A 14 23851 31 140203510337 0041 The chemical properties of an atom are determined by its A. atomic number B. mass number 9 C. number of isotopes D. binding energy 3210024 A 14 23853 31 002809430015 0041 The nonmetal whose chemical behavior is most like that of typical metals is 9 A. hydrogen B. helium C. chlorine D. carbon 3210025 C 14 23855 51 026303400909 0041 The two electrons in a helium atom A. occupy different shells B. occupy different subshells of the same shell C. have different spin quantum numbers 9 D. have the same spin quantum number 3210026 B 14 23858 31 1433 0351 0041 An important factor in determining the chemical behavior of an atom is its A. nuclear structure B. electron structure 9 C. atomic weight D. solubility 3210027 B 14 23861 31 035103500014 0041 In its ability to link atoms together, silicon resembles 9 A. oxygen B. carbon C. sulfur D. iron 3210028 C 15 23863 52 018900710885 0042 Element no. 19 is more active than element no. 11 because element no. 19 A. is a metalloid B. is a metal C. has its valence electron farther from the nucleus D. has its valence electron nearer the nucleus 9 E. forms a larger ion. 3210029 B 15 23867 52 033800991370 0042 Which of the electron configurations for the following neutral atoms would you expect to have the lowest ionization potential? 5 2 2 6 2 A. 1s , 2s , 2p , 3s , 5 2 2 6 1 B. 1s , 2s , 2p , 3s , 5 2 2 6 C. 1s , 2s , 2p , 5 2 2 6 2 6 D. 1s , 2s , 2p , 3s , 3p , 5 2 2 3 9 E. 1s , 2s , 2p . 3210030 E 15 23872 31 09090362 0042 The principle quantum number in period V of the periodic table is: 9 A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 6 E. 5 3210031 D 14 23874 51 036903510263 0043 A transition-element atom (gaseous) whose 4s subshell contains but one electron is: A. Sc (Z = 21) B. Mn (Z = 25) 9 C. Fe (Z = 26) D. Cu (Z = 29). 3210032 B 14 23877 51 00350369 0043 The highest oxidation state exhibited by any of the transition metals is: 9 A. +6 B. +8 C. +10 D. +12. 3210033 B 14 23879 31 003514480002 0043 Sodium is not ordinarily observed in the +2 oxidation state because of its: A. high first ionization potential B. high second oxidation potential 9 C. high ionic radius D. high electronegativity. 3210034 B 14 23882 52 11780730002351 9000 The most stable ion of magnesium is isoelectronic with the A. sodium atom B. most stable ion of fluorine C. argon atom 9 D. magnesium atom. 3210035 A 15 23884 52 02930730002551 9000 The molecule O is isoelectronic with 4 2 5 - A. formaldehyde, CH O B. cyanide ion, CN 4 2 C. nitrogen, N D. hydrogen peroxide, H O E. methanol, CH OH 94 2 2 2 3 3210036 A 14 23888 52 01890338082051 9000 The element in period 4, group 5a, has the outer electron configuration 5 2 3 2 4 2 5 2 5 9 A. 4s 4p B. 5s 5p C. 5s 5p D. 4s 4p 3210037 C 14 23891 31 03510338090051 9000 5 2 If an atom has a valence shell electron configuration of ns one may conclude that the element is a A. transition metal B. rare earth 9 C. alkaline earth D. alkali metal 3210038 A 15 23895 31 035404510189 0018 Which of the following elements does not exist in diatomic form? 9 A. argon B. oxygen C. fluorine D. nitrogen E. hydrogen 3210039 D 15 23897 31 140202630338 0040 The chemical properties of an element are very much related to A. the number of neutrons in the atom B. the number of neutrons and protons in the atom C. the number and arrangement of protons in the atom D. the number and arrangement of electrons in the atom 9 E. both C and D. 3210040 C 15 23901 31 026303540338 0040 Which group represents species that contain the same number of electrons? 5 - + A. F, Ne, Na C. Cl , Ar, K E. both A and B 5 2- 2- 2- 9 B. Mg, Al, Si D. O , S , Se 3210041 A 15 23905 31 088503380025 0040 What are the valence electrons in an element with the following 5 2 2 4 electronic configuration: 1s 2s 2p ? 5 2 4 4 2 2 6 A. 2s 2p B. 2p C. 2p D. 2s 2p 9 E. all are valence electrons. 3210042 C 15 23909 51 036200640003 0035 In the periodic table there occurs immediately after each inert gas one of the chemically very active alkali metals according to the Bohr theory. This sequence is due to A. a sudden increase in the nuclear charge, between the inert gas and the metal. B. a sudden increase in atomic weight, owing to the high energy of the nuclei of metallic elements. C. a sudden increase in the radius of the atom, leaving the outermost electron relatively loosely bound. D. a sudden charge in the quantum nos. E. a sudden increase in the ionization energy, between the 9 inert gas and the metal. 3210043 D 14 23918 32 018902630351 0038 The imaginary element D has one electron in its outer shell. E has 3; G has 5; L has 7. Which atom will show the least metallic 3 _____ character? 9 A. D B. E C. G D. L 3210044 A 14 23922 52 19470339 0058 Which atom does not contain a principal quantum shell of 8 elec- trons? 9 A. Li B. Na C. Cs D. Fr 3210045 D 14 23924 52 194903390211 0060 The Li compound analogous to Mg N is: 4 3 2 A. Li N B. Li N C. LiN D. Li N 94 3 2 2 3 3 3 3220001 BDAEC 55 23927 52 1 033703779001129095 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2The numbers in the modern periodic table given (Figure 1) are 2the atomic numbers of the elements. After each exercise number 2on the answer sheet, blacken the one lettered space which designates 3 ___ 2the correct answer. (The numbers given in the listed answers are 2the atomic numbers of certain elements.) 2 A. 93, 94, 95, 96 2 B. elements of group Ia 2 C. elements of group VIIa 2 D. 2, 10, 18, 36, and 54 0 E. 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16, and 17 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 in this sequence of elements, the larger the atomic number, the 1 greater the tendency to lose electrons. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 All of the elements in this sequence are inert. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 All of these elements have been synthesized and none occur in 3 nature. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 Electrons in the outermost energy level increase from one to as 4 many elements as are listed in the answer. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 In this sequence of elements, the smaller the atomic number, the 9 greater the tendency to gain electrons. 3220002 BEADC 55 23939 52 1 80029001 129095 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2The numbers in the modern periodic table given (Figure 1) are the 2atomic numbers of the elements. After each exercise number on 2the answer sheet, blacken the one lettered space which designates 3 ___ 2the correct answer. (The numbers given in the listed answers are 2the atomic numbers of certain elements.) 2 A. 26, 27, 28, 42, and 78 2 B. elements in groups ia and IIa 2 C. 6, 14, 12, and 20 2 D. 13, 31, 49, and 81 0 E. 6, 7, 16, and 17 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 in general, the hydroxides of these elements are strong bases. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 These elements form the negative ions, or part of the negative 2 ions, of certain acids widely used in industry. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 These elements are some of the ductile heavy metals of industrial 3 importance. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 In these elements the number of electron orbits are respectively, 4 3, 4, 5, and 6. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 one of these elements is a constituent of all plant and animal 9 tissue while the others are major constituents of various rocks. 3220003 A 15 23952 52 00670189800111 ETS2 OS Which of the following is most important in predicting the chemical properties of a given element? A. the number of protons in the nucleus B. the number of neutrons in the nucleus C. the sum of the protons and neutrons in the nucleus D. the charge on its ion 9 E. the number of electron energy levels in the atom 3220004 E 15 23957 52 03490337800112 ETS2 OS Beryllium has an atomic number of 4. Its valence should be A. 3 B. -2 C. 1 D. -1 9 E. none of these 3220005 B 15 23959 31 00200014800111 ETS2 OS Both positive and negative valences can be acquired by A. neon, atomic number 10 B. carbon, atomic number 6 C. oxygen, atomic number 8 D. sodium, atomic number 11 9 E. magnesium, atomic number 12 3220006 A 15 23962 51 03500578 ETS2 OS Silicon A. has four valence electrons in the atom B. forms long chains by linking silicon atom to silicon atom, as does carbon C. forms a basic oxide D. is found in the free condition in nature 9 E. when fused, forms a glass of high transparency 3220007 B 15 23966 31 072207238003 2WVW Which one of the following elements does not belong to the 3 ___ family of elements indicated? A. samarium (Sm)--lanthanide B. curium (Cm)--alkaline earth metal C. iridium (Ir)--transition metal D. thallium (Tl)--representative element 9 E. iodine (i)--halogen 3220008 A 15 23971 31 8003 2WVW Which one of the following elements would you expect to have the greatest affinity for an electron? A. bromine B. gallium C. arsenic D. selenium 9 E. potassium 3220009 E 15 23974 31 8003 2WVW Which one of the following elements would you expect to have the least affinity for an electron? 3_____ A. bromine B. gallium C. arsenic D. selenium 9 E. potassium 3220010 DA 25 23977 51 8003 90 2WVW MACROITEM STEM 2To answer the following questions, use the key below. 2 A. S(-2) 2 B. Mn(+7) C. Ti(+4) D. P(-3) 02 E. Sc(+3) MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 Which one of the ions would you expect to have the largest atomic 3 _______ 1 radius? MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 9 Which would have the second largest? 3220011 B 14 23981 32 000404388004 2 OS The halogen which is a liquid at room temperature A. iodine B. bromine C. fluorine 9 D. chorine 3220012 B 14 23983 31 018903398004 2 OS Of all the common elements, the most active reducing agent is A. sodium B. lithium C. fluorine 9 D. oxygen 3220013 B 14 23985 32 006601898004 2 OS The least stable compounds are usually A. combinations of the most active elements B. combinations of the least active elements C. the products of exothermic reactions 9 D. the ones most abundant in the earth"s crust 3220014 B 15 23989 31 00020015 0018 Which of the following would be classified as a metal? 9 A. nitrogen B. sodium C. phosphorus D. neon E. fluorine 3220015 E 15 45410 51 All of the following are periodic functions of atomic number EXCEPT: A. density D. boiling point B. electronegativity E. number of electrons in the neutral atom 9 C. atomic radius 3221001 C 15 23991 52 1 0062002890011195 ETS2 OS The following question refers to the periodic table, Figure 1. If a diagonal line is drawn from the upper left hand corner to the lower right in the periodic table, elements will be found along the line A. of the same valence B. which in oxide form produce only acids in solution C. which have both metallic and non-metallic properties D. which will include the most active metal 9 E. with similar properties 3221002 BAECCDC 75 23997 31 1 002800619001129095 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2The following items refer to the horizontal series in the periodic 2table (Figure 1). Select from the key the most appropriate 2description for each item. 2 Key 2 A. This member is a typical non-metal. 2 B. This member is a typical base former and reducing agent. 2 C. Decrease in metallic character 2 D. Increase in metallic character 0 E. Not descriptive of any of the above MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 The element in series 2, group 1 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 The element in series 1, group 7 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 3 The element in series 2, group 4 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 4 Proceeding from Bi to C vertically MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 5 Proceeding from K to Ti MACRO SUB-ITEM # 6 6 Proceeding from S to Al MACRO SUB-ITEM # 7 9 Proceeding from P to Cl 3221003 ECABEDD 75 24006 31 1 0063001500071290 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2The following items concern elements in the periodic table 2(Figure 1). Select from the key the most appropriate response for 2each item. 2 Key 2 A. Outer shell contains eight key electrons 2 B. A metal which will float on water 2 C. An oxidizing agent 2 D. A high specific gravity 0 E. Shares electrons and combines with itself MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 Silicon MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 Iodine MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 3 Neon MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 4 Lithium MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 5 Carbon MACRO SUB-ITEM # 6 6 Platinum MACRO SUB-ITEM # 7 9 Manganese 3221004 ECDC 45 24012 51 1 037503769001119095 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2The following refer to the periodic table (Figure 1). For each 2question select the correct response. 2 A. Left to right 2 B. Right to left 2 C. Top to bottom 2 D. Bottom to top 0 E. Two of these MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 Chemical activity decreases but valence remains constant. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 Metallic character increases but valence remains constant MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 3 Oxidizing power increases but valence remains constant MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 9 The number of electronic shells increases 3221005 ABBBABDC 84 24018 31 0015002880011290 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2After each item number on the answer sheet, blacken space 2 A. if the item is true of metals 2 B. if the item is true of non-metals 2 C. if the item is true of both metals and non-metals 0 D. if the item is true of neither metals nor non-metals MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 Are good conductors of heat and electricity MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 Combine readily with elements of group I of the periodic table MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 3 Many are gases or low-melting solids MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 4 The halogens are examples MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 5 Their oxides in water form basic solutions MACRO SUB-ITEM # 6 6 Are frequently good electron acceptors or oxidizing agents MACRO SUB-ITEM # 7 7 Are chemically inert and form no compounds MACRO SUB-ITEM # 8 9 Combine chemically with oxygen to form oxides 3221006 CABDED 65 24027 52 1 019603819003129095 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2Figure 3 represents, in skeleton form, the periodic table. 2Certain columns of the table are labeled A, B, C, and D. The 2letter E designates the location of elements of atomic numbers 288-96. After the number on the answer sheet corresponding to that 2of each statement, blacken the one lettered space indicating the 0 location in the table to which the statement correctly refers. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 Elements near the top of this column share electrons when forming 1 compounds. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 With one exception, the outer shells of the atoms of these elements 2 always contain eight electrons. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 3 All of the elements of this column are classified as metals. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 The great chemical activity of the element at the top of this column when reacting with metals is attributed to its relatively 4 small atomic radius. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 Most of the naturally occuring radioactive elements are found in 5 this location. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 6 Near the top of this column are elements which gain electrons most 9 readily. 3221007 ACDBAA 65 24040 52 1 000403829002129095 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2Figure 2 represents an outline of the periodic table. After the 2item number on the answer sheet, blacken the one lettered space 3 ___ 2which designates the position in the table to which the item 0 correctly refers. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 An element from this column is used in dirigibles because of its 1 lightness and non-inflammability. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 An element of this column is found in all organic compounds, while another element in the same column is found in combination in 2 numerous rocks. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 3 The halogens are located in this column. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 The elements near the bottom of this column lose electrons most 4 readily. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 One of the elements in this column was discovered to be present in 5 the atmosphere of the sun, before it was discovered on earth. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 6 An element whose single outer electron is at the greatest distance from the nucleus of the atom is located at the bottom of this 9 column. 3221008 BBEDADC 75 24052 52 80018002 1290 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2The following questions refer to part of the periodic table 2 series 2 0 I II III IV V VI VII VIII 3________________________________________________ 21 H 22 He Li Be B C N O F 23 Ne Na Mg Al Si P S Cl 24 Ar K Ca Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe CO Ni 2for each question select from the key the group in which the 2element lies. 2 A. Group I 2 B. Group II 2 C. Group III 2 D. Group IV 0 E. Group V MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 The carbonate of this element is found in marine fossils. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 An element forming compounds by gaining 2 electrons. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 3 The most active non-metal listed. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 4 The fused oxide of this element transmits ultra-violet. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 5 An element forming compounds by losing 1 electron. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 6 An element usually combustible but not in its purest form. 63 ___ MACRO SUB-ITEM # 7 9 An oxide of this element is a well known laboratory catalyst. 3221009 ABBCABDC 84 24064 32 0015002880011190 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2The following questions are to be answered according to the key 2below. 2 A. The item is true for metals. 2 B. The item is true for non-metals. 2 C. The item is true for both metals and non-metals. 0 D. The item is true for neither metals nor non-metals. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 Good conductors of heat and electricity MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 Combine readily with elements of group I of the periodic table. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 3 Many are gases or low-melting solids. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 4 Many have variable valence. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 5 Their oxides in water form basic solutions. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 6 6 Frequently good electron acceptors or oxidizing agents. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 7 7 Chemically inert and form NO compounds. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 8 9 Combine chemically with oxygen to form oxides. 3221010 C 15 24073 31 00150028800111 ETS2 OS Which of the following statements states correctly a characteristic distinction between metals and nonmetals? A. Metals are high in melting point and density whereas nonmetals are not. B. Nonmetals are either gases or solids whereas all metals are liquids above their melting points C. Nonmetals usually exert a stronger attraction for electrons than do metals D. Metals are fewer in number than nonmetals 9 E. Nonmetals form covalent bonds whereas metals form ionic bonds 3221011 C 15 24080 32 05590015800111 ETS2 OS During chemical combinations metallic atoms always A. become larger B. gain electrons C. lose electrons D. lose kinetic energy 9 E. gain kinetic energy 3221012 D 14 24083 32 033900048004 2 OS Lithium readily reacts with all of the following except A. oxygen B. water C. the halogens 9 D. helium 3221013 C 14 24085 32 018900028004 2 OS The element which unites most vigorously with sodium is A. bromine B. chlorine C. fluorine 9 D. iodine 3221014 C 15 24087 31 033809171362 0040 What common feature characterizes the electronic configuration of elements 21, 27, 40, and 43? A. They all have only one electron in a subshell. B. They all have a filled 5s subshell. C. They all have a partially filled d subshell. D. They all have a partially filled p subshell. 9 E. Both B and C. 3221015 E 15 24092 31 019201040852 0034 Which of the following substances is a good electrical conductor? A. sulfur B. diamond C. black phosphorus 9 D. ozone E. graphite 3221016 D 14 24094 52 19470845 0058 Which oxide is amphoteric? A. CO B. SO C. CaO D. ZnO 94 2 2 3222001 A 15 24096 32 80018002 13 ETS2 OS Judging by the implications of the periodic table, one can validly infer that there might exist a compound with molecular composition A. MgCl 4 2 B. HeO 4 2 C. Al Sn 4 3 2 D. CO 4 5 9 E. CaF 3222002 D 15 24100 51 80010253003211 ETS2 OS Aluminum A. in a finely powdered state is a powerful oxidizing agent B. dissolves in mineral acids but not in alkaline solution C. was one of the first metals to be produced on a large scale D. is a better electrical conductor than copper, weight for weight 9 E. is used for the casing of incendiary bombs 3222003 ECBAD 55 24105 52 1 9001 129095 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2The numbers in the modern periodic table given (Figure 1) are the 2atomic numbers of the elements. After each exercise number on the 2answer sheet, blacken the one lettered space which designates the 3 ___ 2correct answer. (The numbers given in the listed answers are the 2atomic numbers of certain elements.) 2 A. 6, 14, 12, and 20. 2 B. 6, 7, 16, and 17 2 C. 9, 17, 35, 53, and 85 2 D. elements in the b sub-groups 0 E. elements in groups Ia and IIa MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 When These elements form ions, through loss of one or more electrons, the ions have structures similar to the atoms of the 1 inert gases. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 These elements are often referred to as the "halogens." MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 these elements form the negative ions, or part of the negative 3 ions, of certain common acids. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 One of these elements is a constituent of all plant and animal tissue while the other elements are major constituents of various 4 rocks. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 Some of these metallic elements are used in producing important 9 steel alloys. 3222004 E 15 24118 31 00158001026311 ETS2 OS During chemical combinations, metallic atoms always A. undergo nuclear changes B. gain electrons C. lose kinetic energy D. become larger 9 E. lose electrons 3222005 A 15 24121 31 00200189800111 ETS2 OS An element with a positive valence of 2 is 3 ________ A. calcium B. silver C. aluminum D. suphur 9 E. oxygen 3222006 CEADB 55 24123 52 1 026303789001129095 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2The numbers in the modern periodic table given (Figure 1) are the 2atomic numbers of the elements. After each exercise number on the answer sheet, blacken the one lettered space which designates the 3 ___ 2correct answer. (The numbers given in the listed answers are the 2atomic numbers of certain elements.) 2 A. 93, 94, 95, and 96 2 B. elements in group VIIa 2 C. 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, and 9 2 D. elements in group Ia 0 E. elements in group O MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 Electrons in the second energy level increase from one to seven. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 All of these elements with one exception contain 8 electrons in 2 their outermost energy levels. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 All of these elements have been synthesized rather than found in 3 natural sources. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 In this sequence of elements, the larger the atomic number the 3 ______ 4 greater the tendency to lose electrons. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 In this sequence of elements, the smaller the atomic number the 3 _______ 9 greater the tendency to gain electrons. 3222007 DBEAC 55 24137 52 1 037900289001129095 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2The numbers in the modern periodic table given (Figure 1) are the 2atomic numbers of the elements. After each exercise number on the 2answer sheet, blacken the one lettered space shich designates 3 ___ 2the correct answer. (The numbers given in the listed answers are 2the atomic numbers of certain elements.) 2 A. 88, 89, 90, 91, and 92 2 B. 3, 11, 12, 19, 20, and 56 2 C. elements in group IIa 2 D. 6, 7, 8, 14, 16, 18, and 53 0 E. 26, 27, 28, 42, and 78 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 These elements are some of the nonmetals. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 These elements, from different groups, are some of the light 2 metals. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 3 These elements are some of the ductile heavy metals. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 4 These are naturally radioactive elements. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 The numbers of energy levels of these elements are successively 3 _____________ 9 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, and 7 3222008 B 14 24148 31 80048003 2WVW Which physical property is common to most metals? A. Low melting point B. Luster C. Reactions with acids 9 D. Yellow color 3222009 D 14 24150 31 001501968004 2 OS A metal which liberates hydrogen from water so vigorously that the hydrogen ignites is A. calcium B. magnesium C. sodium 9 D. potassium 3222010 A 14 24153 31 019600568004 2 OS Hydrogen may be produced from sulfuric acid by A. replacement with a metal B. replacement with a nonmetal C. evaporation 9 D. catalysis 3222011 B 14 24156 31 007304328004 2 OS The member of the calcium family with the highest melting and boiling point is A. calcium B. beryllium C. magnesium 9 D. barium 3222012 B 14 24158 31 001503448004 2 OS A metal which is generally stored under kerosene is A. calcium B. potassium C. barium 9 D. aluminum 3222013 A 14 24160 31 000800198004 2 OS Hard water is due to the presence of any of the following ions except A. sodium B. calcium C. magnesium 9 D. iron 3222014 D 14 24162 31 046304078004 2 OS In a chemical reaction, metals generally A. act as oxidizing agents B. share electrons C. donate protons 9 D. acquire positive oxidation numbers 3222015 B 14 24165 31 144500670015 0041 An important characteristic property of metals is A. their hardness B. their ability to conduct electricity readily C. their ability to form oxides 9 D. the stability of their compounds 3222016 B 14 24168 31 006213171367 0043 The metallic luster exhibited by sodium is explained by the presence of: 5 + A. Na ions B. conduction electrons 9 C. free protons D. a body-centered cubic lattice. 3222017 D 14 24171 31 027003620723 0026 The 19th element has chemical properties like which element? 9 A. 10th B. 18th C. 15th D. 11th. 3222020 E 15 24173 32 019213170315 0020 Substances that typically have a particular luster, are good conductors of electricity, and can be melted are called A. elements B. isotopes C. diatomic molecules D. nonmetals 9 E. metals 3222021 C 14 24176 31 00150263 0019 A metal A. usually has more protons than neutrons B. combines readily with hydrogen C. readily gives up electrons 9 D. readily accepts electrons 3222022 E 15 24179 32 0015 0019 Which is the most strongly metallic? A. C B. Si C. Ge D. Sn E. Pb 94 6 14 32 50 82 3222023 C 15 24181 32 01890015 0035 Which of the following elements would most likely be a metal? 9 A. Si B. P C. Be D. O E. Cl 3222024 A 15 24183 31 035101890263 0035 The atoms of which of the following elements would you expect to lose electrons most readily? 9 A. Al B. B C. C D. Si E. N 3222025 C 15 24185 31 010413670172 0034 In general, good conductors usually exhibit A. high melting and boiling points and low densities B. high densities and low melting and boiling points C. high melting and boiling points and high densities D. high densities but no correlation in melting and boiling points 9 E. NO correlation in density, melting, or boiling points 3223001 E 15 24190 51 01890263800111 ETS2 OS Elements which take on electrons are also classified as A. oxides B. halogens C. metals D. hydrates 9 E. non-metals 3223002 CAEBA 55 24192 31 0401004980011190 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2To answer the following questions, select from the key the most 2appropriate response. 2 A. Hydrogen 2 B. Oxygen 2 C. Nitrogen 2 D. Chlorine 0 E. None of these MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 An element present in proteins which distinguishes proteins from 1 carbohydrates MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 An element present in the most important fuels MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 3 An element which is always inert MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 4 An element which is a constituent of quartz MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 An element which, from its presence in other substances, is 9 generally a ready source of protons 3223003 A 14 24199 31 80048003 2WVW In the periodic table, most of the nonmetals are found in the A. upper right-hand side B. upper left-hand side C. lower right-hand side 9 D. lower left-hand side 3223004 B 14 24202 31 002807938004 2 OS A solid nonmetal is usually A. malleable B. brittle C. a good electical conductor 9 D. ductile 3223005 B 14 24204 32 001804048004 2 OS A colorless salt solution turns brown upon the addition of chlorine water, this solution probably contains A. calcium choride B. sodium iodide C. carbon tetrachloride 9 D. potassium fluoride 3223006 A 14 24207 31 002800198004 2 OS Nonmetals tend to form A. negative ions B. positive ions C. bases 9 D. alloys 3223007 E 15 24209 32 035108241178 0042 When an atom of an electronegative element becomes an ion in a chemical reaction: A. it loses electron(s) B. it is oxidized C. the ionic radius becomes smaller than the atomic radius 9 D. it serves as a reducing agent E. none of these. 3223008 E 15 24213 32 01890263 0035 Which of the following elements would tend most to take on electrons? 9 A. Li B. Be C. C D. S E. O 3230001 EDABBA 65 24215 51 1 80029001 129095 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2The following items refer to the periodic table (Figure 1). Select 2from the key the principle which applies to each item. 2 A. A group forming no compounds because their electron grouping 2 is very stable 2 B. A group having two outer electrons 2 C. A regular increase in the number of valence electrons to a 2 maximum in this group 2 D. All the elements in this group form compounds by losing one 2 electron per atom 0 E. None of the above apply to this group. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 Group 4 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 Group 1 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 3 Group 0 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 4 Group 8 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 5 Group 2 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 6 9 Group 7 3230002 EAEA 45 24223 31 0015006480011290 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2The following items are based on a short periodic table which lists 2symbol of each element and its atomic number. 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 2 Li Be B C N O F Ne 3________________________________________ 2 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 0 Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 Which of the following elements would tend most to take on electrons? A. Li B. Be C. C D. S 1 E. O MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 Which of the following elements would most likely be a metal? A. Mg B. O C. P D. Be 2 E. Cl MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 Which of the following is an inert gas? A. Mg B. Si C. C D. P 3 E. Ar MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 The atoms of which of the following elements would you expect to lose electrons most readily? A. Al B. B C. C D. Si 9 E. N 3230003 D 15 24234 72 02240058800112 OS90 The most probable formula for a binary solid compound of Mg and N is A. MgN B. Mg N C. MgN D. Mg N E. Mg N 94 2 2 2 2 2 3 3230004 CADEB 55 24248 52 1 002800199002129095 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2Figure 2 represents an outline of the periodic table. After the 2item number on the answer sheet, blacken the one lettered space 3 ___ 2which designates the position in the table to which the item 0 correctly refers. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 The element in this position is most likely a non-metal. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 The positive ion of the element in this position has the electronic 3 ___ 2 structure or configuration 2-8-8. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 One would expect to find in this position the element which forms 3 most fuels. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 The element in this position, and others in the same group, have high melting points, tensile strength, and density, and are 4 malleable and ductile. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 The element in this position floats in water and combines rapidly 9 with it forming a strong base. 3230005 DCADEB 65 24258 52 1 80019002 129095 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2Figure 2 represents an outline of the periodic table. After the 2item number on the answer sheet, blacken the one lettered space 3 ___ 2which designates the position in the table to which the item 0 correctly refers. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 Just below the element in this position is the element which occurs 1 in most rocks. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 The hydrogen compounds of the element in this position, and of the elements above and below it, when dissolved in water have strong 2 acidic properties. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 Elements in the group containing this element form positive ions 3 which combine with chlorine ions, ion for ion. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 The element in this position forms compounds which, as a rule, do 4 not conduct an electric current in aqueous solution. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 One of the elements in the group which includes this element 5 is the most widely used metal. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 6 The positive ion of the element in this position has the electronic 9 structure or configuration 2-8. 3230006 B 15 24270 32 04040028800111 ETS2 OS Chlorine is a more active non-metal than iodine. This is probably because A. chlorine loses electrons more readily than does iodine. B. the incomplete shell of electrons in the chlorine atom is closer to the nucleus than is the one in the iodine atom. C. iodine adds electrons more readily than does chlorine. D. the negative valence electron of the chlorine atom is farther away from the nucleus than is the one in the iodine atom. 9 E. chlorine is an oxidizing agent. 3230007 D 15 24277 32 060206038001 ETS2 OS Al O and CCl are the correct formulae of the oxide of aluminum 4 2 3 4 and the chloride of carbon. The formula of the compound aluminum carbide is therefore A. Al C 4 4 2 B. Al C 4 3 4 C. AlC D. Al C 4 4 3 9 E. none of these formulae 3230008 A 15 24281 31 03770359800111 ETS2 OS Which one of these is inert? A. argon B. nitrogen C. hydrogen D. oxygen 9 E. two of the above 3230009 E 15 24283 31 01130064800111 ETS2 OS Which one of the following is an inert gas? A. ammonia B. carbon monoxide C. hydrogen D. carbon dioxide 9 E. helium 3230010 D 15 24285 31 01130181800111 ETS2 OS A gas commonly used in electric light bulbs to retard vaporization of the filament is A. neon B. helium C. oxygen D. argon 9 E. krypton 3230011 D 15 24288 31 02930340800111 ETS2 OS Which one of these cannot form molecules through combination 3 ______ of atoms? A. oxygen B. nitrogen C. hydrogen D. helium 9 E. two of the above 3230012 A 15 24291 31 04030004800111 ETS2 OS Iodine may be characterized as A. a halogen B. an element behaving chemically similarly to carbon C. an inert gas D. a radioactive element 9 E. an active metal 3230013 B 15 24294 32 02240037 0018 What is the correct formula for a compound formed from the elements potassium and phosphorus? A. P K B. K P C. KP D. K P E. none of these 94 3 3 2 3230014 B 15 24297 52 02240037 0018 The correct formula for a covalent compound between fluorine and oxygen is A. OF B. OF C. O F D. OF E. none of these 94 2 2 3 3230015 C 14 24300 31 060407220794 0026 Elements in the same vertical group of the periodic table generally A. have the same atomic weight B. have the same atomic numbers C. react with the same chemicals to give products with similarly proportioned formulas 9 D. have no relationships between each other. 3230016 A 15 24304 31 140201890794 0040 Elements in the same group A. have similar chemical properties B. are called isotopes C. have consecutive atomic numbers D. constitute a period of elements 9 E. have similar physical properties 3230017 A 14 24307 52 1945 0056 Most basic: A. LiOH B. Be(OH) C. B(OH) D. Co(OH) 94 2 3 2 3231001 C 15 24309 31 00150189800112 ETS2 OS A chemically active metal is an element whose atoms A. gain a relatively large amount of energy in losing electrons B. gain a relatively small amount of energy in losing electrons C. lose a relatively large amount of energy in losing electrons D. lose a relatively small amount of energy in losing electrons 9 E. can lose electrons without undergoing an energy change 3231002 C 15 24314 52 03380003800112 ETS2 OS The electron structure of the alkali metals indicates that A. they should be very ready to take on a single electron for each atom B. in general, they should tend to form covalent compounds C. they should not be found in the free condition in nature D. lithium should be the most active of them 9 E. all of them should be excellent oxidizing agents 3231003 A 15 24319 52 00030058800112 ETS2 OS The alkali metals of group Ia, lithium, sodium, potassium, rubidium, and cesium are the most active metals. Cesium is the most active in the list because as one proceeds from lithium to cesium A. the atomic radius increases B. the number of valence electrons increases C. the metallic properties become less pronounced D. the valence increases 9 E. the atomic weight decreases 3231004 D 15 24325 51 03270373800111 ETS2 OS Which one of these is not true concerning the periodic table? 3 ___ A. The series vary in the number of elements each contains. B. Except for inert elements those elements at the left tend to lend electrons. C. Except for inert elements those elements at the left are reducing agents. D. Elements in group IIa are more active than those in ia. E. With increase in atomic number, chemical activity of the 9 active metals increases. 3231005 D 15 24332 52 00580375800111 ETS2 OS In the family of the most active metals in the periodic table, activity increases A. with increase in valence B. as one reads from left to right C. as the atomic number decreases D. as one proceeds from top to bottom 9 E. as the number of electron rings decrease 3231006 E 15 24336 52 03720071800112 ETS2 OS Three elements belonging to group Ia have atomic numbers 11, 19, 55. the one true statement about this group is A. the elements are inert B. the activity is unpredictable C. number eleven is the most active D. number nineteen is more active than number fifty-five 9 E. number fifty-five is the most active 3231007 A 14 24341 31 80018003 2WVW Sodium and potassium A. are reducing agents B. are oxidizing agents C. have complete outer rings 9 D. form ions with a negative charge 3231008 B 14 24343 31 80038004 2WVW Which metal is often stored under kerosene? A. copper B. potassium C. silver 9 D. zinc 3231009 B 14 24345 31 2WVW Oxides of the very active metals are A. acid anhydrides B. basic anhydrides C. hydrates 9 D. inactive 3231010 A 14 24347 31 000200088004 2 OS When sodium reacts with water, one sodium atom replaces A. one hydrogen atom B. two hydrogen atoms C. one oxygen atom 9 D. two oxygen atoms 3231011 C 14 24350 31 001901898004 2 OS The ions of the elements of the sodium family have all the following properties except A. high stability B. oxidation number of plus one C. formation of compounds by covalence D. electron configuration similar to that of the proceeding 9 inert gas 3231012 A 14 24354 31 000303510263 0041 An alkali metal atom A. has one electron in its outer shell B. has two electrons in its outer shell C. has a filled outer shell 9 D. lacks one electron of having a filled outer shell 3231013 D 14 24357 31 000403510263 0041 A halogen atom A. has one electron in its outer shell B. has two electrons in its outer shell C. has a filled outer shell 9 D. lacks one electron of having a filled outer shell 3231014 C 14 24360 31 006403510346 0041 An inert gas atom A. has one electron in its outer shell B. has two electrons in its outer shell C. has a filled outer shell 9 D. lacks one electron of having a filled outer shell 3231015 A 14 24363 31 035102630015 0041 An atom that loses its outer electron or electrons readily is A. an active metal B. an active nonmetal 9 C. an inactive metal D. an inactive nonmetal 3231016 B 14 24366 31 00030020 0041 The alkali metals all have valences of 9 A. +2 B. +1 C. 0 D. -1 3231017 B 15 24367 51 018900150900 0042 Which one of the following elements does not belong to the family of elements indicated? A. samarium (Sm)--lanthanide B. curium (Cm)--alkaline earth metal C. iridium (Ir)--transition metal D. thallium (Tl)--representative element 9 E. iodine (I)--halogen 3231018 A 15 24371 52 036201891370 0042 Where on the periodic table would you find an element Q with a second ionization potential that was very high and with a first that was very low? Q forms salts that give vivid flame tests, 5 - and its ions have a complete set of e in "d" orbitals (but no "f" electrons). A. anywhere in the Ia family B. somewhere in the IIa family C. somewhere in period 4 D. somewhere in the transition elements 9 E. Q is either rubidium or cesium. 3231019 D 14 24378 51 026316210087 0043 Electrons behave like solute anions in a dilute solution of which of the following in liquid ammonia? A. Cl B. Pt C. NH Cl D. Na 94 2 4 3231021 B 14 24381 31 01890035000251 9000 Of the following elements, which exhibits just one oxidation state other than zero? 9 A. sulfur B. sodium C. lead D. chlorine. 3231022 E 15 24383 32 000304070008 0020 Alkali metals react with water to give A. an acid solution B. a precipitate of NaOH C. sodium oxide and hydrogen D. sodium hydroxide and hydrogen 9 E. none of these 3231023 D 15 24386 31 006700031369 0020 Which of the following properties are characteristic of alkali metals? A. react with water B. are ductile C. have a silvery luster when cut D. all of the above 9 E. none of the above 3231025 A 15 24389 52 04850977 0020 ________ in the presence of a catalyst yields MNH + H 4 2 2 A. M + NH B. M + H + N C. M + H + N D. M + N + H 4 3 2 2 2 9 E. none of the above 3231026 C 15 24393 31 117806041375 0020 5 + The rubidium ion, Rb , has an electronic structure similar to 9 A. sodium B. helium C. krypton D. neon E. argon 3231027 D 15 24395 32 137113700344 0019 Which of the following would be expected to have the lowest first ionization potential? 9 A. Li B. Be C. Na D. K E. Ca 3231028 A 15 24397 32 140300210339 0019 Which of the following has the highest oxidation potential? 9 A. Li B. Na C. K D. Rb E. Ca 3231029 D 15 24399 32 007113980008 0019 Which of the following is not active enough to displace H from 4 2 water? A. K B. Mg C. Al D. Ag E. more than one correct 9 3231030 A 15 24402 32 142101590180 0019 Which of the following has the largest energy of hydration? 5 + + + + + 9 A. Li B. Na C. K D. Rb E. Cs 3231031 A 15 24404 52 000100030021 0019 The best reducing agent of the alkali metals as indicated by oxidation potentials is 9 A. Li B. Na C. K D. Rb E. Cs 3231032 E 15 24406 52 000109000021 0019 The best reducing agent of the alkaline earth metals as indicated by oxidation potentials is 9 A. Be B. Ca C. Sr D. Ba E. Ra 3231033 A 14 24408 52 117801800159 0019 The ion with the highest hydration energy is 5 + +2 + +2 9 A. Li B. Be C. Cs D. Ra 3231034 A 15 24410 31 037203470781 0040 Among the elements of group Ia, which orbital provides the electron most used in bonding? A. s B. d C. p D. f 9 E. no correct response is given. 3231035 C 15 24413 31 037402900885 0035 In the series of active metals (Na, K, etc.) cesium is the most active. The best explanation of this is that A. it has a greater attractive force on valence electrons than the others. B. its atomic number is greater. C. its valence electron has an orbit with a greater radius than the others. D. its incomplete shell or energy level is closer to the nucleus. 9 E. it has more valence electrons than the others. 3231036 D 15 24419 32 006901890337 0035 When the atomic volume of the elements is plotted as a function of the atomic number of the elements, a series of maxima and minima appear on the graph. If the atomic volume of sodium represents one of the maxima, it could be predicted that one of the other maxima would be represented by the atomic volume of the element A. magnesium. B. neon. C. chlorine. D. potassium. 9 E. plutonium. 3231037 A 15 24425 31 031911780185 0038 Which of the following is a correct comparison of sodium ion with potassium ion? A. Both ions have the same net charge B. Both ions have the same charge on the nucleus C. Both ions have the same mass D. Both ions will react with water to release hydrogen and form a strong base 9 E. Potassium ion is easier to reduce than sodium ion 3232002 D 15 24430 32 02630404800111 ETS2 OS Which one of the following atoms receives one electron in chemical combination? 9 A. P B. Ne C. Li D. Cl E. O 3232003 D 15 24432 31 00280560800111 ETS2 OS The most active non-metal is A. oxygen B. chlorine C. manganese D. fluorine 9 E. iodine 3232004 D 14 24434 31 80048003 2WVW Nitrogen combines directly with the more active metals to produce A. nitrates B. nitrites C. hydrides 9 D. nitrides 3232005 C 14 24436 31 079606628004 2 OS Starch paste added to iodine produces a color which is A. violet B. yellow C. blue 9 D. red-orange 3232006 A 14 24438 31 046300948004 2 OS In its chemical action with other elements, sulfur most closely resembles A. oxygen B. phosphorus C. hydrogen 9 D. carbon 3232007 C 14 24440 31 002800040094 0041 Of the following nonmetals, the one not a halogen is 9 A. chlorine B. bromine C. sulfur D. iodine 3232009 B 15 24442 32 018911780407 0042 Element Y forms ions as a result of its participation in certain chemical reactions, but it forms covalent compounds in other reactions. Y ions are always larger than Y atoms, therefore, the element is A. a metal B. a non-metal C. a semi-metal 9 D. a noble gas E. none of these 3232010 A 15 24446 52 002300041506 0042 Fluorine is the most active halogen element. One explanation is that fluorine, compared with the other halogens: A. has the smallest atomic radius B. is the least dense C. has seven valence electrons D. is the strongest reducing agent 9 E. needs one electron to complete its outer shell. 3232011 D 15 24450 32 000611670008 0020 Chlorine reacts with water to give A. an acid solution B. hydrochloric acid C. hypochlorous acid D. all of these 9 E. none of these 3232012 D 15 24453 31 01890015 0020 Which of the following elements is not a metal? 9 A. K B. Pb C. Au D. P E. Mg 3232013 D 15 24455 31 018900230067 0020 The element most similar to fluorine in its properties is 9 A. O B. Ne C. S D. Cl E. none of these 3232014 D 15 24457 51 000411670212 0020 Halogens (X) react with A. methane to give CH X + HX 4 3 B. B to give BX 4 3 C. water to give acids D. all of the above 9 E. none of the above 3232016 D 14 24460 52 080500211403 0019 The halide ion with the highest oxidation potential is 5 - - - - 9 A. F B. Cl C. Br D. I 3232017 D 14 24462 52 00040007 0019 The halogen that is the poorest oxidizing agent is A. F B. Cl C. Br D. I 94 2 2 2 2 3232018 B 14 24464 51 019604980105 0019 The hydrogen halide with the lowest boiling point is 9 A. HF B. HCl C. HBr D. HI 3232019 D 14 24466 52 14350001 0019 Which would be expected to be the best reducing agent? A. H O B. H S C. H Se D. H Te 94 2 2 2 2 3232020 B 14 24468 52 04981371 0019 Which has the lowest boiling point? A. H O B. H S C. H Se D. H Te 94 2 2 2 2 3232021 C 15 24470 31 140207940189 0040 Which of the following elements would you expect to have chemical properties similar to those of oxygen (Z = 8)? A. N B. F C. S D. Cl E. Ar 94 7 9 16 17 18 3232022 A 15 24473 31 002800940339 0040 Which of the following elements is a nonmetal? 0040 9 A. S B. Ag C. Pb D. Li E. Ca 3232023 B 15 24475 32 000804740067 0040 Water, when compared to compounds of elements in the oxygen family with hydrogen, is found to have anomalous properties. One of these properties is A. a lower boiling point than expected B. the solid is less dense than the liquid C. a lower freezing point than expected D. the liquid density decreases with decreasing temperature down to 4 degrees C 9 E. no correct response is given. 3233001 D 15 24481 52 1 0020006690011295 ETS2 OS Select the statement or statements which can be correctly deduced from the periodic table (Figure 1). A. It would be expected that calcium would combine with chlorine to form a compound, Cacl3 B. The valence number of copper is practically always +2 C. There probably exists a compound PH 4 3 The correct selection includes A. only A B. only B C. only C D. only B and C 9 E. A,B, and C 3233004 C 15 24487 52 018903371362 0020 The elements with atomic numbers 21, 27, 40, and 43, have what common feature? A. They all have only one electron in a subshell B. They all have a partially filled p subshell C. They all have a partially filled d subshell D. They all have a filled 5s subshell 9 E. None of these 3233005 A 15 24491 52 018011780092 0019 5 +2 The hydration energy of the Sc ion which does not exist in aqueous solution can be estimated best from data on the hydration energy of 5 +3 +2 + +3 9 A. Sc B. Ca C. K D. Cl E. Ti 3233006 D 15 24495 51 036911780662 0019 Which ion would you predict to be colored? 5 + + 2+ 3+ 3+ 9 A. Na B. Cs C. Cd D. Mo E. Y 3233007 B 15 24497 52 036911780662 0019 Which of the following ions are colored? 5 3+ 2+ 2+ 3+ 2+ 9 A. Ti B. Ni C. Cd D. Y E. V 3233008 C 15 24499 31 036903380015 0040 5 2 2 6 2 2 The electronic structure 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p is charateristic of which of the following? A. a metal B. transition metal C. a nonmetal D. a rare gas 9 E. no correct response is given. 3233009 D 15 24503 51 036902630346 0034 The transition metals A. do not fit into the periodic classification B. differ only in the number of electrons in the outermost shell C. have identical chemical and physical properties D. differ in the number of electrons in one of the inner shells 9 E. are not true metals 3234001 E 15 24507 52 06840687800111 ETS2 OS Silica A. is notable for a high coefficient of thermal expansion B. consists of chains of silicon atoms, giving it a fibrous structure C. is much harder than quartz D. decomposes at red heat into its elements 9 E. is transparent to ultraviolet light 3234002 D 15 24511 52 03500022800111 ETS2 OS Silicon carbide A. contains oxygen B. is used as a lubricant C. is a conductor of electricity D. is made by the action of coke on silica 9 E. is harder than the diamond 3234003 B 15 24514 52 04770685800111 ETS2 OS In mineral silicates A. silicon atoms are bound together directly, atom to atom B. SiO ions are bound together, through sharing 4 4 oxygen atoms C. most silicates are soluble in water D. if the binding of the silicate ions takes place in one direction only, the mineral exists in plates E. the most abundant of the mineral silicates is the 9 uncombined silicate ion 3234004 B 15 24520 52 00080336800111 ETS2 OS Water glass A. is ordinary glass which has been hydrated B. is used as an adhesive C. is made by dehydrating silicic acid D. has a high melting point 9 E. is a type of glass with a very high (95%) silica content 3234005 B 15 24524 52 03360018800111 ETS2 OS Glass A. is a compound having a definite chemical formula B. is a mixture of salts resulting from the process of heating together acidic and basic oxides C. has a fixed melting point D. is made up of individual crystals E. never is made of other ingredients than limestone, 9 soda and silica 3234006 D 15 24529 52 00140066800111 ETS2 OS Carbon forms a large number of compounds because A. of its small ionic radius B. of its great chemical activity C. it shows many valences D. of the ability of carbon atoms to form covalent linkages with each other E. it forms electrovalent and covalent compounds with 9 equal ease 3234007 D 15 24534 32 05820020800111 ETS2 OS Both positive and negative valence may be exhibited by A. hydrogen B. chlorine C. neon D. carbon 9 E. none of the above 3234008 C 15 24536 51 80018002 12 ETS2 OS A number of new plastics and lubricants are being produced which contain the element, silicon. Which of the following facts probably most stimulated the research which led to this development? A. Silicon (or silicon dioxide) is a constituent of numerous minerals. B. Silicon compounds are very abundant. C. Silicon's position in the periodic table shows that its properties are in many respects similar to carbon. D. Silicon compounds and petroleum occur together in nature. 9 E. Our petroleum resources are being depleted rapidly. 3234009 C 14 24544 51 0192 0845 0043 A substance which is not amphoteric is: A. V O B. Cr(OH) C. Cr(OH) D. Cr O 94 2 5 3 2 2 3 3234010 A 15 24546 31 018915510350 0047 Elements used in semiconductors (in transistors) are the semi metals which conduct electricity better than non metals but not so well as metals. A good choice for this purpose would be 9 A. silicon B. chlorine C. lithium D. argon E. barium. 3234011 A 15 24550 52 140313700014 0019 Which of the following has the highest first ionization potential? A. C B. Si C. Ge D. Sn E. Pb 94 6 14 32 50 82 3234012 B 14 24553 52 1945 0056 The amphoteric (capable of reacting as either an acid or a base) element in the third period is 9 A. Mg B. Al C. Si D. P 3235001 E 15 24555 31 1 072607599001 95 2WVW The following question refers to the periodic table, Figure 1. The most stable oxidation state of gadolinium is A. Gd(-3) B. Gd(-) C. Gd(+) D. Gd(+2) 9 E. Gd(+3) 3235002 E 15 24558 51 07590189 0020 Lanthanides are A. elements 90 to 103 B. elements 122 up C. the nonmetals D. all gases 9 E. none of these 3235003 B 14 24560 31 075913621740 0019 The lanthanide series corresponds to the filling of which subshell? 9 A. 3f B. 4f C. 5f D. 5d 3236001 D 14 24562 31 079401898004 2 OS Of the following groups, the one composed only of artificially produced elements is A. polonium, francium, actinium B. procectinium, neptunium, radon C. berkelium, rhenium, hafnium 9 D. curium, californium, americium 3236002 A 14 24566 31 018908258004 2 OS The element californium, is a member of the A. actinide series B. alkali metal family C. alkaline earth family 9 D. lanthanide series 3236003 C 15 24568 51 01891223 0020 Which of the following is not a transuranium element? A. Lawrencium B. Nobelium C. Hafnium D. Curium 9 E. Einsteinium 3236004 E 15 24570 51 01890825 0020 Which of the following elements is not an actinide? 9 A. U B. Cm C. Os D. Bk E. Th 3236005 C 14 24572 31 082512231740 0019 The group of elements in which the 5f subshell is being filled is A. transitional B. lanthanides C. actinides 9 D. representatives 3238001 E 15 24574 31 03770340800211 ETS2 OS Which one of these is an inert gas? A. ammonia B. carbon monoxide C. sulphur dioxide D. hydrogen 9 E. helium 3238002 C 15 24576 32 03400263800111 ETS2 OS Helium contains 2 electrons in its outer ring. The other inert gases are inert because they A. need 2 electrons in the outer ring B. have 2 electrons in the outer ring C. have 8 electrons in the outer ring D. have 6 electrons in the outer ring 9 E. have lower atomic weights than the other elements 3238003 A 15 24581 32 01968001800211 ETS2 OS All of these gases are alike in a certain respect except A. hydrogen B. helium C. neon D. argon 9 E. krypton 3238004 E 15 24583 51 03770569800111 ETS2 OS Concerning the inert gases, A. argon is used in lifting balloons B. helium atoms contain NO neutrons C. xenon is given off in the disintegration of radium D. neon is too rare to have any practical use 9 E. krypton has eight electrons in its outermost orbit 3238005 C 14 24587 31 011302938004 2 OS The gas which differs in molecular composition from that of all of the others listed below is A. hydrogen B. nitrogen C. neon 9 D. chlorine 3238006 A 14 24590 51 091402930873 0043 The shape of the XeF molecule is: 4 4 A. square-planar B. tetrahedral 9 C. square pyramidal D. trigonal bipyramidal. 3238007 C 15 24592 51 142308850263 0043 The number of lone electron pairs in xenon difluoride is 9 A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 0 3238008 A 14 24595 51 003700370378 0043 The first noble-gas compound ever synthesized is: A. XePtF B. Xe(RuF ) C. XeOF D. XeOF 94 6 6 2 4 2 3238009 C 14 24597 51 006404150321 0043 The noble gas which occurs most abundantly in the atmosphere is: 9 A. He B. Ne C. Ar D. Kr. 3238010 A 14 24599 51 078307810347 0043 In the valence-bond approach to the bonding in XeOF it is 4 4 assumed that the orbitals of xenon hybridize to form: 5 3 2 2 2 2 A. sp d hybrids B. s p d hybrids 5 2 3 3 9 C. sp d hybrids D. sp d hybrids. 3238011 A 14 44527 51 09140293 0043 The geometry of the XeOF molecule is: 4 4 A. square pyramidal B. tetrahedral C. distorted tetrahedral 9 D. trigonal bipyramidal E. octahedral 3238012 C 14 24606 51 1117 0043 F-Xe-F bond angle in XeF is: 4 4 5 o o o o 9 A. 109 B. 103 C. 90 D. 60 3238013 C 14 24608 51 1117 0043 The f-Xe-f bond angle in Xeof is: 4 4 5 0 0 0 0 9 A. 109 B. 103 C. 90 D. 60 3238014 B 14 24610 52 078209800781 0043 The molecular orbital treatment of the bonding in XeF considers 4 2 that the three atoms are bonded together by a A. pi bond B. three-center bond 9 C. nonbonding orbital D. nonlocalized orbital. 3238015 B 15 24614 31 018900640113 0020 Which of the following elements is not a noble gas? 9 A. He B. H C. Ar D. Xe E. Rn 3238016 B 14 24616 32 026300640945 0009 Of the outermost electrons of the noble "inert" gases, it is true that A. all are in filled p orbitals B. all are paired C. they complete a principal energy level 9 D. all are very difficult to remove from the atom 3238017 B 14 24620 52 033700640606 0009 The atomic number of the next-to-bediscovered noble gas, below radom, Rn, would be 9 A. 109 B. 118 C. 173 D. 222 3238018 A 15 24622 72 054000040293 0019 Given the following information concerning some halogen compounds of Xe, choose the best statement from the list pertaining to the molecular structures. XeF is nonpolar 4 4 XeF Cl is polar, as prepared by chemist X 4 2 2 XeF Cl is nonpolar, as prepared by chemist Y 4 2 2 A. All of the above are square planar, so that there could be two forms (isomers) of XeF Cl , one symmetrical and the 4 2 2 other unsymmetrical. B. The geometries are tetrahedral, in agreement with CF 4 4 (nonpolar) and CF Cl (polar), which are known 4 2 2 C. Trigonal pyramidal, which agrees with XeF being nonpolar 4 4 D. Square pyramidal, which agrees with XeF being nonpolar 4 4 9 E. could be B, C, or D. 3238019 D 14 24636 51 006411670023 0009 Of the following rare gases, which reacts most readily with fluorine? 9 A. He B. Ne C. Kr D. Xe 3238020 A 15 24638 31 006402930351 0035 The inert gas molecules contain only one of these particles. This particle is the 9 A. atom. B. electron. C. ion. D. neutron. E. proton. 3238021 D 15 24640 32 137003370562 0035 When ionization potential is plotted against atomic number for each of the elements, a series of peaks occurs on the graph. If one of these peaks is occupied by helium, another peak could be predicted for 9 A. lithium. B. carbon. C. fluorine. D. neon. E. tungsten. 3238022 C 14 24644 31 03770562800111 ETS2WVW The inert gas most used in signs made of glass tubing is A. helium B. xenon C. neon 9 D. krypton 3240001 D 15 24646 52 00690070800112 ETS2 OS When ionization potential is plotted against atomic number for each of the elements, a series of peaks occurs on the graph. If one of these peaks is occupied by helium, another peak could be predicted for A. lithium B. carbon C. fluorine D. neon 9 E. tungsten 3240002 D 15 24650 52 00698001800212 ETS2 OS When the atomic volume of the elements is plotted as a function of the atomic number of the elements, a series of maxima and minima appear on the graph. If the atomic volume of sodium represents one of the maxima, it could be predicted that one of the other maxima would be represented by the atomic volume of the element A. magnesium B. neon C. chlorine D. potassium 9 E. plutonium 3240003 C 15 24656 51 00030071800112 ETS2 OS In the family of alkali metals (Na, K, etc.), Cesium is the most active. The best explanation of this is that A. it has a greater attractive force for valence electrons than the others B. its atomic number is greater C. its valence electron has an orbital with a greater radius than the others D. its incomplete shell or energy level is closer to the nucleus 9 E. it has more electrons in the outer orbital than the others 3240004 B 15 24663 51 00710006800112 ETS2 OS Chlorine is a more active non-metal than is iodine. This is probably because A. chlorine loses electrons more readily than does iodine B. the incomplete shell of electrons in the chlorine atom is closer to the nucleus than is the one in the iodine atom C. iodine adds electrons more readily than does chlorine D. the negative valence electron of the chlorine atom is farther away from the nucleus than is the one in the iodine atom 9 E. chlorine is an oxidizing agent 3240005 C 14 24670 31 018903378004 2WVW The element with atomic number 7 is likely to have properties similar to the element whose atomic number is A. 11 B. 2 C. 15 9 D. 17 3240006 B 14 24672 31 026303468004 2WVW The number of electrons in the outer shell of the elements in group IIa of the periodic table is A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 9 D. 4 3240007 D 14 24674 71 8003 2WVW Which of the following disubstituted cyclopropanes is most easily hydrogenated? A. cis-1,2-dimethylcyclopropane B. trans-1,2-dimethylcyclopropane C. trans-1,2-diisopropylcyclopropane 9 D. cis-1,2-diisopropylcyclopropane 3240008 C 15 24678 51 026300730347 0020 The last two electrons in calcium (element 20) are in a A. 2s orbital B. 3s orbital C. 4s orbital D. 3p orbital 9 E. none of these 3240009 A 15 24680 32 018903471356 0020 Elements in group via have outer orbitals designated by the 5 2 5 notation ns np . Since sulfur is in the third period, its outer electrons are 5 2 5 2 5 2 5 2 5 9 A. 3s 3p B. 3s np C. ns 3p D. ns n3 E. none of these 3240010 A 15 24684 52 060601890067 0020 When discovered, element 113 should have properties resembling those of the element 9 A. Tl B. Pb C. Au D. Hg E. U 3240011 B 15 24686 32 03380028 0019 5 2 6 The outer electron configuration ns np is found in A. all members of the noble gas family B. some members of a family of nonmetals C. all members of the alkaline-earth family D. several members of the alkali metal family 9 E. only elements for which N equals three or greater 3240012 C 15 24691 31 033800030189 0040 The electronic configuration of element X is 5 2 2 6 2 6 2 10 6 1 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 4s 3d 4p 5s . Judging from its electronic configuration, element X is A. in group Va B. in period 2 C. a representative element D. a transition metal 9 E. a non-metal. 3240013 A 15 24695 31 033807940076 0040 The distinguishing electron of selenium, element number 34, is in which of the following groups? 5 4 4 2 6 4 9 A. 4p B. 3p C. 3s D. 4d E. 5p 3240014 D 15 24698 32 03380369 0047 Which electron configuration represents a transition element? 5 2 2 2 2 2 6 2 4 2 2 6 2 A. 1s 2s 2p B. 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p C. 1s 2s 2p 3s 5 2 2 6 2 6 2 8 D. 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 4s 3d 5 2 2 6 2 6 10 2 6 9 E. 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 3d 4s 4p . 3250001 C 15 24703 51 1 0020006590011295 ETS2 OS By means of the periodic table (Figure 1) identify the element described as follows a certain element exercises only the valence +2 in compounds. The atomic weight of the element is greater than that of chromium but is less than that of silver. The element is A. bromine B. calcium C. strontium D. rubidium 9 E. potassium 3250002 D 15 24708 51 1 0020006590011295 ETS2 OS By means of the periodic table (Figure 1) identify the element described as follows a certain element may exercise either positive or negative valence, its principal valences ranging from +4 to -4. The atomic weight of the element is greater than that of fluorine and is less than that of calcium. The element is A. argon B. chlorine C. potassium D. silicon 9 E. sulfur 3250003 B 14 24714 31 018903378004 2WVW The element with atomic number 8 is likely to have properties similar to the element with atomic number A. 12 B. 16 C. 3 9 D. 18 3250004 B 15 24716 31 033705620587 0040 An isotope with a mass number of 21 and an atomic number of 10 would correctly be represented by which of the following symbols? 5 10 21 10 21 11 A. Ne B. Ne C. Sc D. Sc E. Ne 94 21 10 21 10 10 3250005 C 15 24720 32 081203410097 0040 The chemical symbol for an atom which contains 40 electrons and 51 neutrons is A. Pa B. Nb C. Zr D. Na 9 E. impossible to tell from information given 3250006 B 15 24723 31 033701890369 0040 The element with atomic number 42 is an example of what kind of element? A. representative B. transition C. rare gas 9 D. innertransition E. lanthanide. 3250007 A 15 24726 32 033801850337 0040 An ion of element 26 has the following electronic configuration: 5 2 2 6 2 6 0 5 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 4s 3d . What is the charge on this ion? 9 A. 3+ B. 3- C. 2+ D. 2- E. +1 3250008 B 15 24729 31 088500160338 0040 The number of valence electrons that Al has is 4 13 9 A. 1 B. 3 C. 13 D. 8 E. 5 3250009 C 15 24731 31 007311780338 0040 5 2+ A Ca ion contains how many electrons? 9 A. 20 B. 22 C. 18 D. 40 E. 29 3300001 D 14 24733 31 034400738004 2WVW Compared with potassium, calcium A. has larger atoms B. has a lower density C. is more easily oxidized 9 D. is less active chemically 3300002 D 14 24735 31 018900678004 2WVW Elements with similar chemical properties A. occur only within the same period B. have identical atomic mass (weight) C. have identical numbers of neutrons 9 D. have the same number of electrons in the outer shell 3300003 E 15 24738 31 8003 2WVW Within group VIa of the periodic table with increasing atomic number, which one of the following properties does not change in the manner indicated? A. atomic radius - increases B. density - increases C. ionization energy - decreases D. electron affinity - decreases 9 E. electronegativity - increases 3300004 B 15 24743 32 07228003 2WVW Within group VIa of the periodic table, with increasing atomic number, which one of the following properties does not change in 3 ___ the manner indicated? A. atomic radius - increases B. electronegativity - increases C. ionization energy - decreases D. electron affinity - decreases 9 E. density - increases 3300005 B 14 24748 52 136707451403 0043 Which of the following exhibits the highest bond energy? A. F B. Cl C. Br D. I 94 2 2 2 2 3300006 D 14 24750 52 136707451371 0043 Which of the following exhibits the lowest bond energy? 9 A. HF B. HCl C. HBr D. HI 3300007 E 15 24752 51 136713680068 0020 Which of the following exhibit periodic relationships A. boiling points B. ionization potentials C. chemical properties D. melting points 9 E. all of the above 3300008 C 14 24755 52 006703680207 0009 Which one of the following properties of an element would you expect not to be a periodic function of atomic number? A. atomic volume B. specific heat 9 C. ionization potential D. boiling point 3300009 D 14 24758 52 1946 0057 The highest average bond energy is: 9 A. C-H B. C-I C. C-Cl D. C-F 3300010 C 14 24760 52 19480110 0059 5 2+ 2+ From a mixture of Mg and Be , which one of the following re- 5 2+ 2+ agents will precipitate Mg and leave Be in solution? A. HCl B. NH OH C. NaOH D. H SO 94 4 2 4 3310001 C 15 24764 52 03750028800111 ETS2 OS In order to determine the relative activity of several non-metals it would be most useful to know the A. valences of the non-metals B. atomic weights of the non-metals C. atomic numbers of the non-metals D. family to which each non-metal belongs 9 E. group to which each non-metal belongs 3310002 A 14 24768 31 006703448004 2WVW Of the following, which one is the property of potassium and chlorine that determines the relative acidity of koh and hCl A. electronegativity B. atomic radius C. oxidation potential 9 D. melting point 3310003 C 14 24771 71 8003 2WVW Which of the following is most reactive to nucleophilic reagents? A. CH F B. CH Br C. CH I D. CH Cl E. CH OH 94 3 3 3 3 3 3310004 D 14 24774 71 8003 2WVW Which of the following is most reactive to anionic reagents? A. CBr 4 4 B. HCBr 4 3 C. H CBr 4 2 2 D. H CBr 94 3 3310005 A 14 24777 71 8003 2WVW Which of the following is most reactive to anionic reagents? A. H CI 4 3 B. H C(I) 4 2 2 C. HC(I) 4 3 D. C(I) 94 4 3310006 A 14 24780 31 80038004 2WVW Which element would most readily replace the oxygen in an oxide? A. fluorine B. chlorine C. nitrogen 9 D. sulfur 3310007 C 14 24782 32 018908248004 2 OS Of the following, the element possessing the highest electro-negativity is A. lithium B. cesium C. fluorine 9 D. astatine 3310008 B 15 24784 31 003702370355 0042 Which of the following compounds are very covalent in their bonding? A. Li S B. IBr C. FrCl D. Na O E. NaCl 94 2 3310009 D 14 24787 32 036203370067 0042 Within group VIa of the periodic table with increasing atomic number, which one of the following properties does not change in 3 ____ ___ the manner indicated? A. atomic radius - increases B. density - increases C. ionization energy - decreases 9 D. electronegativity - increases 3310010 A 14 24792 52 140308240023 0043 Which of the following has the highest electronegativity? 9 A. F B. Cl C. Br D. I. 3310011 B 15 24794 52 000503550887 0044 Given the following table of Pauling electronegativity values: atom / Be In Pb Bi B H Se C Br N O F ------------------------------------------------------------- electro- / 1.5 1.7 1.8 1.9 2.0 2.1 2.4 2.5 2.8 3.0 3.5 4.0 negativity / Which one of the following sequences would you predict to have decreasing ionic character of the bond indicated? A. Pb-Br>Pb-C>Pb-N>Pb-Se B. Pb-N>Pb-Br>Pb-C>Pb-Se C. Pb-Se>Pb-N>Pb-Br>Pb-C D. Pb-Se>Pb-C>Pb-Br>Pb-N 9 E. Pb-Se>Pb-C>Pb-N>Pb-Br. 3310012 E 15 24801 51 0824 0020 Electronegativity is A. the charge on an atom B. the charge on negative ions C. a measure of an electrical potential D. an arbitrary number assigned to each atom 9 E. none of these 3310013 A 15 24804 31 082401890023 0020 The most electronegative element is 9 A. F B. Cs C. H D. O E. Al 3310014 A 15 24806 31 14030824 0019 Which of the following has the highest electronegativity? A. Cl B. Se C. Sb D. Rb E. Na 94 17 34 51 37 11 3310015 E 15 24809 51 13711370 0019 Which would be expected to have the lowest second ionization 3 ______ potential? 9 A. Na B. K C. Mg D. Ca E. Sr 3310016 A 15 24812 31 082400230557 0040 The electronegativity scale has A. fluorine as the most electronegative element B. cesium as the most electronegative element C. hydrogen as the most electronegative element D. element 105 as the most electronegative element 9 E. xenon as the most electronegative element. 3310017 C 15 24816 31 082407221359 0040 The correct sequence for the ordering of the element O, Ge, 4 8 32 Se, and Pb in terms of increasing electronegativity is 434 82 A. Pb, Se, Ge, O B. Se, Pb, Ge, O C. Pb, Ge, Se, O D. O, Se, Pb, Ge 9 E. O, Se, Ge, Pb 3310018 B 15 24820 31 082400230722 0040 Which of following elements has the highest electronegativity? 9 A. cesium B. fluorine C. francium D. uranium E. helium. 3310019 A 15 24822 31 082407221359 0040 Which of the following sets of elements is arranged in order of decreasing electronegativity? 3__________ A. Cl, S, Se, Te B. F, B, O, Li C. Br, Cl, S, P D. F, B, O, Li 9 E. Te, Se, S, Cl 3310020 A 14 24825 52 1948 0059 Of the following, the most electronegative is: 9 A. C B. Si C. Sn D. Pb 3310021 C 15 44825 51 Which will be most easily hydrogenated? A. cyclohexane C. propylene E. benzene 9 B. cyclopropane D. hexane 3320001 C 15 24827 32 00150577800111 ETS2 OS In the family of active metals (Na, K, etc.) cesium is the the most active. The best explanation of this is that A. it has a greater attractive force on valence electrons than the others. B. its atomic number is greater. C. it has an atomic radius greater than that of the others. D. its incomplete shell or energy level is closer to the nucleus. 9 E. it has more valence electrons than the others. 3320002 B 15 24833 32 03440002800111 ETS2 OS Potassium is more active than sodium because A. it has a greater number of valence electrons. B. its valence electron is farther from the nucleus C. it accepts electrons more readily. D. its atomic weight is less than that of sodium. 9 E. its incomplete shell is closer to the nucleus. 3320003 A 15 24837 32 00030015800111 ETS2 OS The alkali metals of group Ia, lithium, sodium, potassium, rubidium, and cesium are the most active metals. Cesium is the most active in the list because as one proceeds from lithium to cesium A. the atomic radius of the valence electron increases B. the number of valence electrons increases C. the first ionization potential increases D. the valence increases 9 E. the atomic weight decreases 3320004 A 14 24843 31 033701898004 2WVW As the atomic number of the elements in the second period of the periodic table increases, the ionization potential A. generally increases B. generally decreases C. first increases then decreases 9 D. first decreases then increases 3320005 E 15 24847 32 073107228003 2WVW Which one of the following elements would you expect to have the largest first ionization energy? 3 _______ A. cesium B. thallium C. bismuth D. polonium 9 E. radon 3320006 A 14 24850 31 07310064 0041 The highest ionization energies are found in the A. inert gases B. alkali metals 9 C. transition elements D. halogens 3320007 B 14 24852 31 07310003 0041 The lowest ionization energies are found in the A. inert gases B. alkali metals 9 C. transition elements D. halogens 3320008 E 15 24854 52 018907311421 0042 Which one of the following elements would you expect to have the largest first ionization energy? 3_______ 9 A. cesium B. thallium C. bismuth D. polonium E. radon 3320009 A 15 24857 52 018914031370 0042 Which element has the highest ionization potential for the removal of one electron? 9 A. Ne B. Li C. Na D. Ca E. Ba. 3320010 A 14 24859 52 018913701403 0043 Choose the element with the highest first ionization potential: 9 A. Boron B. Aluminum C. Gallium D. Indium 3320011 D 14 24861 52 018914481371 0043 Choose the element with the lowest oxidation potential: 9 A. B B. Al C. Ga D. Ln. 3320012 A 14 24863 52 000413701403 0043 The halogen with the highest ionization potential is: 9 A. F B. Cl C. I D. At. 3320013 C 15 24865 52 1370 0044 Which of the following trends in first ionization potential is NOT correct? A. Ba (?)AgCl + (?)N O + (?)O 4 3 2 2 5 2 Which set of stoichiometric coefficients correctly balances the equation? (?)AgNO + (?)Cl ---> (?)AgCl (?)N O (?)O 4 3 2 2 5 2 3 ________ ______ _______ _______ _____ A. 2 1 2 1 1 B. 2 4 2 4 1 C. 4 2 4 2 1 D. 3 2 3 2 2 9 E. 16 8 16 8 4 4160002 B 14 25325 31 022400318004 2 OS How do you balance a formula equation? A. Adjust the subscripts in the formula B. Adjust the coefficients to the smallest possible whole number ratio C. Adjust the number of elements produced 9 D. Adjust an incorrect formula of a compound 4160003 C 14 25329 52 094300311076 0041 Which of the following chemical equations is balanced? A. Fe O + CO -----> 2Fe + 2CO 4 2 3 2 B. Na S + SO -----> Na S O + S 4 2 2 2 2 3 C. 3CuO + 2NH -----> 3Cu + 3H O + N 4 3 2 2 D. 4Al + 3Fe O -----> 4Al O + 9Fe 94 3 4 2 4160004 D 14 25334 32 094300311076 0041 Which of the following chemical equations is unbalanced? A. 2Hg + O -----> 2HgO 4 2 B. 2H S + 3O -----> 2H O + 2 SO 4 2 2 2 2 C. Na O + H O -----> 2NaOH 4 2 2 D. SO + H O -----> H SO 4 2 2 2 4 9 4160005 C 15 25338 32 038308180031 0018 If the equation Al (SO ) + BaCl -----> BaSO + AlCl is 4 2 4 3 2 4 3 correctly balanced, the coefficient of BaCl will be 4 2 9 A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 4160006 E 15 25342 51 105109991070 0018 Carbon monoxide, CO, an extremely toxic gas and one of the major air pollutants, can be oxidized to carbon dioxide, CO , by iodine 4 2 pentoxide, I O . consequently its detection and determination 4 2 5 are possible even in small quantities and when mixed with other gases. Balance the equation for this reaction in acid solution. I O +CO -----> I +CO 4 2 5 2 2 What is the correct coefficient for CO when the equation is properly balanced(using smallest whole numbers)? 9 A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 4160007 B 15 44958 31 081807040383 0026 If the equation, FeCl + AgNO -----> AgCl + Fe(NO ) 4 3 3 3 3 is correctly balanced, the coefficients that must be added to the equation would be 9 A. 1,1 B. 3,3 C. 2,2 D. 3,1 E. 1,2 4160008 D 15 25353 32 130110760031 0020 The numbers needed to balance the equation Al + Cl ----> AlCl 4 2 3 are A. 1, 3, 2 B. 2, 1, 2 C. 4, 3, 2 D. 2, 3, 2 9 E. None of these 4160009 B 15 25356 52 1076 0020 3Fe(s) + H O(g) ---> Fe O (s) + 4H (g) 4 2 3 4 2 A. This is a balanced equation B. 4 H O's are needed to balance 4 2 C. This equation cannot be balanced D. To balance, 3H O's are needed 4 2 9 E. None of these 4160010 A 14 25360 31 107614190325 0009 A balanced chemical equation shows A. The mole ratio in which substances react B. The direction a chemical system will move in and the extent of yield of the reaction C. The speed with which the reaction proceeds 9 D. The individual molecular steps by which the reaction occurs 4160011 C 14 25364 32 141904070224 0009 To write a chemical equation for a given reaction, you would need to know at least: A. The masses of the reactants and products in the given reaction B. The mole ratios of all reactants and products in the reaction C. The formulas of all reactants and products in the reaction 9 D. All of the above 4160012 B 15 25369 32 14191076 0019 Which of the following is a balanced chemical equation? A. H + O = H O 4 2 2 2 B. Cu + Cl = CuCl 4 2 2 C. Ag + Cl = AgCl 4 2 D. All of the above 9 E. None of the above 4160013 C 15 25373 32 081803830031 0040 When the following equation is properly balanced, what is the sum of the coefficients of H O and Fe O ? 4 2 2 3 Fe + H O -----> Fe O + H 4 2 2 3 2 9 A. 7 B. 8 C. 4 D. 5 E. 9 4160014 C 15 25377 32 038308180031 0040 When the equation CaCl + Fe (SO ) -----> CaSO + FeCl 4 2 2 4 3 4 3 is correctly balanced the number that appears before CaSO is 4 4 9 A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 4160015 B 15 25381 32 038308180031 0040 Which of the following equations is balanced? A. 2NaHCO + 2HCl -----> 2NaCl + CO + 2 H O 4 3 2 2 B. Fe O + 3H -----> 2Fe + 3H O 4 2 3 2 2 C. 2KClO -----> 2KClO 4 3 2 D. Na O + 2H O ----> 2NaOH + O 4 2 2 2 2 9 E. Both A and D. 4160016 E 15 25386 32 038308180031 0040 The equation Na O + H O -----> NaOH + O , when correctly 4 2 2 2 2 balanced, appears as A. Na O + 2H O -----> 2NaOH + O 4 2 2 2 2 B. 2Na O + 2H O -----> 4NaOH + 2 O 4 2 2 2 2 C. 4Na O + 3H O -----> 4NaOH + 2 O 4 2 2 2 2 D. 3Na O + 2H O -----> 6NaOH + O 4 2 2 2 2 E. 2Na O + 2H O -----> 4NaOH + O 94 2 2 2 2 4160017 C 14 25393 52 1419 05 Which of the following equations is a balanced chemical equation corresponding to the statement "the diatomic elements hydrogen and bromine react to form hydrogen bromide?" A. H + Br = HBr C. H + Br = 2HBr 4 2 2 B. H + B = 2HB D. H + Br = H Br 4 2 2 2 2 2 2 9 4160018 C 14 25398 52 1419 05 Which of the following statements corresponds to the equation 2Cs + Cl = 2CsCl. 4 2 A. Cesium chlorate is formed by the reaction of two atoms of cesium with one atom of chlorine. B. The reaction between cesium and chlorine produces cesium chlorate. C. Two atoms of cesium react with one molecule of chlorine to form two formula units of cesium chloride. D. Two molecules of cesium chlorite are formed by the reaction of two atoms of cesium with two atoms of 9 chlorite. 4160019 C 14 25406 32 07041419 0540 According to the equation N + 3H = 2NH , 4 2 2 3 A. one molecule of nitrogen reacts with 3 atoms of hydrogen B. one molecule of nitrogen reacts with 3 moles of hydrogen C. one mole of nitrogen reacts with 3 moles of hydrogen 9 D. one atom of nitrogen reacts with 3 moles of hydrogen 4160020 C 14 25411 32 07041419 0540 According to the equation 2NH = N + 3H , one mole of 4 3 2 2 ammonia (NH ) decomposes to form 4 3 A. one mole of nitrogen C. one-half mole of nitrogen 9 B. one mole of hydrogen D. one-half mole of hydrogen 4160021 A 14 25415 32 07041419 0540 According to the equation 2NH = N + 3H , one mole of 4 3 2 2 ammonia decomposes to form A. 1.5 moles of hydrogen C. one mole of nitrogen B. one mole of hydrogen D. three moles of hydrogen 9 4160022 B 15 25419 32 07041419 0540 According to the equation 2Al + 6HCl = 2AlCl + 3H , 4 3 2 A. production of 2 moles of H requires 3 moles of HCl 4 2 B. production of 1 mole of AlCl requires 3 moles of HCl 4 3 C. production of 2 moles of H requires 2 moles of Al 4 2 E. production of 0.5 mole of AlCl requires 3 moles of HCl 4 3 9 4160023 E 15 25426 32 07041419 0540 According to the equation 2Al + 6HCl = 2AlCl + 3H , 4 3 2 A. 1 mole of HCl yields 1 mole of H 4 2 B. 1 mole of HCl yields 1 mole of AlCl 4 3 C. 2 moles of HCl yields 1 mole of AlCl 4 3 D. 2 moles of HCl yields 2 moles of H 4 2 E. 2 moles of HCl yields 1 mole of H 94 2 4160024 E 14 25433 51 1809 05 MSU Which of the following is the correct net ionic equation for the reaction of silver nitrate and calcium chloride to form insoluble silver chloride? 5 + - 2+ - + - 2+ - A. Ag + NO + Ca + Cl ---> Ag + Cl + Ca + NO 4 3 3 5 2+ - 2+ - B. AgNO + Ca + 2Cl ---> AgCl(s) + Ca + 2NO 4 3 3 5 + - 2+ - 2+ - C. 2Ag + 2NO + Ca + 2Cl ---> 2AgCl(s) + Ca + 2NO 4 3 3 5 + - 2+ - 2+ - D. Ag + 2NO + Ca + 2Cl ---> AgCl(s) + Ca + 2NO 4 3 3 5 + - 9 E. Ag + Cl ---> AgCl(s) 4160025 C 14 25445 51 1809 05 MSU Which of the following is the correct detailed ionic equation for the reaction of silver nitrate and calcium chloride to form insoluble silver chloride and calcium nitrate? 5 + - 2+ - + - 2+ - A. Ag + NO + Ca + Cl -----> Ag + Cl + Ca + NO 4 3 3 5 2+ - 2+ - B. AgNO + Ca + 2Cl ----> AgCl + Ca + 2NO 4 3 3 5 + - 2+ - 2+ - C. 2Ag + 2NO + Ca + 2Cl ----> 2AgCl + Ca + 2NO 4 3 3 5 + - 2+ - 2+ - D. Ag + 2NO + Ca + 2Cl ----> AgCl + Ca + 2NO 94 3 3 4160026 C 15 25457 31 1809 05 MSU When AgNO is added to a solution of MgCl , AgCl 4 3 2 precipitates. The detailed ionic equation which represents this reaction is 5 + - 2+ - 2+ - A. Ag + NO + Mg + Cl ----> AgCl(s) + Mg + NO 4 3 3 5 + - 2+ - 2+ - B. Ag + 2NO + Mg + Cl ----> AgCl(s) + Mg + 2NO 4 3 3 5 + - 2+ - 2+ - C. 2Ag + 2NO + Mg + 2Cl ----> 2AgCl(s) + Mg + 2NO 4 3 3 5 + - 2+ - 2+ - D. 2Ag + 2NO + 2Mg + 2Cl ----> 2AgCl(s) + 2Mg + NO 4 3 3 5 + - 2+ - + 2+ - E. 2Ag + 2NO + Mg + Cl ----> AgCl + Ag + Mg + 2NO 94 3 3 4160027 B 15 25472 51 1809 05 MSU When solid CaCO is treated with a solution of KHSO , 4 3 4 gaseous CO is evolved. The detailed ionic equation which 4 2 represents this reaction is 5 + - 2+ + 2- A. CaCO + K + HSO ----> Ca + CO + H O + K + SO 4 3 4 2 2 4 5 + - 2+ + 2- B. CaCO + 2K + 2HSO ----> Ca + CO + 2K + 2SO + H O 4 3 4 2 4 2 5 + - 2+ + 2- C. CaCO + 2K + 2HSO ----> Ca + CO + K + H O + 2SO 4 3 4 2 2 4 5 + - 2+ + 2- D. CaCO + 2K + 2HSO ----> Ca + CO + K + SO + H O 4 3 4 2 4 2 5 + - 2+ 2- + E. CaCO + K + HSO ----> Ca + SO + 2K + H O 94 3 4 4 2 4160028 D 14 44685 31 1809 05 MSU Which of the following is the correct net ionic equation for the reaction of iron(III) bromide with KOH in water solution to form insoluble iron(III) hydroxide and potassium bromide? A. FeBr (s) + KOH ----> Fe(OH) (s) + KBr(aq) 4 3 3 5 3+ - + - + - B. Fe (aq)+3Br (aq)+K (aq)+OH (aq)--->Fe(OH) (s)+K (aq)+Br (aq) 4 3 5 3+ - + - + - C. Fe (aq)+3Br (aq)+3K (aq)+3OH (aq)-->Fe(OH) (s)+3K (aq)+3Br (aq) 4 3 5 3+ - D. Fe (aq)+3OH (aq)---->Fe(OH) (s) 94 3 4160029 B 14 25496 51 1809 05 MSU In water solution, strontium chloride reacts with potassium carbonate to form potassium chloride and insoluble strontium carbonate. The correct detailed ionic equation for this reaction is 5 2+ - + 2- 2+ 2- + - A. Sr + Cl + K + CO ----> Sr + CO + K + Cl 4 3 3 5 2+ - + 2- + - B. Sr + 2Cl + 2K + CO ----> SrCO3 + 2K + 2Cl 4 3 3 2+ - + 2- + - C. Sr + 2Cl + 2K + CO ----> SrCO + K + Cl 4 3 3 5 2+ 2- D. Sr + CO ----> SrCO 94 3 3 4160030 C 15 25506 51 1809 05 MSU Which of the following is a detailed ionic equation which represents the reaction of soluble CrCl with the hydroxide 4 3 ion to form insoluble chromium(III) hydroxide ? 5 3+ + - - + - - A. Cr + 3Na + 3Cl + 3OH ----> Cr(OH) + 3Na + 3Cl + OH 4 2 5 - 3+ B. 3OH + Cr ----> Cr(OH) 4 3 3+ - + - + - C. Cr + 3Cl + 3Na + 3OH ----> Cr(OH) + 3Na + 3Cl 4 3 5 + D. CrCl + 2NaOH ----> Cr(OH) + 2Na 4 3 2 5 + - 2+ - - E. CrCl + 3Na + 3OH ----> Cr + 2OH + 3Cl 94 3 4160031 D 15 25518 51 1809 05 MSU Consider the equation 5 3+ - - Fe + 3Cl + 3NH OH ----> Fe(OH) (s) + 3Cl + 3NH 4 4 3 3 A. It is a balanced detailed ionic equation. B. It is a balanced net ionic equation. C. It is a net ionic equation, but it is not balanced. D. It is a detailed ionic equation, but it is not balanced. 9 E. It is a molecular equation. 4160032 B 14 25524 51 1809 05 MSU Which of the following is a correct detailed ionic equation for the reaction of magnesium and hydrochloric acid to form magnesium(II) chloride and hydrogen gas ? A. Mg + HCl ----> MgCl + H 4 2 2 5 + - 2+ - B. Mg + 2H + 2Cl ----> Mg + 2Cl + H 4 2 5 + - C. Mg + 2H + 2Cl ----> MgCl + H2 4 2 2 5 + + 2+ - + 9 D. Mg + 2H + 2Cl ----> Mg + 2Cl + 2H 4160033 A 14 25532 51 1809 05 MSU Which of the following detailed ionic equations describes the reaction of Li O with HCl ? 4 2 5 + - + - A. Li O(s) + 2H + 2Cl ----> 2Li + H O + 2Cl 4 2 2 5 + - B. Li O(s) + 2HCl ----> 2Li + H O + 2Cl 4 2 2 C. Li O(s) + 2HCl ----> 2LiCl(s) + H O 4 2 2 5 + - + - + - D. Li O(s) + 2H + 2Cl ----> 2Li + 2Cl + H + OH 94 2 4160034 B 15 25540 51 1809 05 MSU Consider the equation 5 + 2- + - 2H O + Pb(s) + 2Na + CrO ----> PbCrO (s) + H + 2Na + 2OH 4 2 4 4 2 A. The equation is a net ionic equation. B. The equation is a detailed ionic equation. C. The equation is not balanced. D. This is not an ionic equation because PbCrO is not 4 4 written ionically. 5 + E. To be a detailed ionic equation, the Na must be 9 removed from both sides of the equation. 4160035 C 15 25549 51 1809 05 MSU Which of the following equations is of the detailed ionic type? 5 3+ - A. 2Al + 6HCl ----> 2Al + 6Cl + 3H (g) 4 2 + - B. 2Al + 6H + 6Cl ----> 2AlCl + 3H (g) 4 3 2 5 + - 3+ - C. 2Al + 6H + 6Cl ----> 2Al + 6Cl + 3H (g) 4 2 5 + 3+ D. 2Al + 6H ----> 2Al + 3H (g) 4 2 5 + - 3+ - - 9 E. 2Al + 6H + 6Cl ----> 2Al + 6Cl + 6H 4160036 D 15 25558 51 1809 05 MSU Reaction of solid CaCO with hydrochloric acid, HCl, yields 4 3 gaseous CO . The net ionic equation is represented by 4 2 5 + - + - 2+ - A. CaCO (s) + 2H + 2Cl ----> CO + H + OH + Ca + 2Cl 4 3 2 5 2+ 2- + - 2+ - B. Ca + CO + 2H + 2Cl ----> CO + H O + Ca + 2Cl 4 3 2 2 C. CaCO (s) + 2HCl ----> CO + H O + CaCl 4 3 2 2 2 5 + 2+ D. CaCO (s) + 2H ----> CO + H O + Ca 4 3 2 2 5 + - 2+ - E. CaCO (s) + 2H + 2Cl ----> CO + H O + Ca + 2Cl 94 3 2 2 4160037 D 15 25570 51 1809 05 MSU Consider the equation 5 + - 2+ - Ni(OH) (s) + H + I ----> Ni + I + H O 4 2 2 A. The equation is balanced as it is written. B. The equation is a balanced net ionic equation. C. The equation is a balanced detailed ionic equation. D. The equation is an unbalanced detailed ionic equation. E. To be a detailed ionic equation, the Ni(OH) (s) should 4 2 5 2+ - be represented as Ni + 2OH and the equation 9 should be balanced. 4160038 A 15 25579 51 1809 05 MSU Consider the balanced equation 5 + - 3H S + 2H + 2NO ----> 2NO(g) + 4H O + 3S 4 2 3 2 A. It is a net ionic equation. B. It is a detailed ionic equation. C. It is a molecular equation. D. It will be a detailed ionic equation if two Na+ ions are added to both sides. E. It will be a detailed ionic equation if 3H S on the 4 2 + 2- 9 left side is replaced by 6H + 3S . 4160039 D 15 25587 51 1809 05 MSU Consider the following three balanced equations 5 + 2+ 1. HgS + 2H ----> H S + Hg 4 2 5 2+ - 2+ - 2. Cu + Hg + 2NO ----> Hg + Cu + 2NO 4 3 3 5 2+ - + - + + - 3. Cu + 2Cl + K + HS ----> CuS + K + H + 2Cl A. Equations 2 and 3 are net ionic equations. B. Equations 1 and 2 are net ionic equations. C. Equations 1 and 2 are detailed ionic equations. D. Equations 2 and 3 are detailed ionic equations. 9 E. Equation 1 is a detailed ionic equation. 4160040 C 15 25596 51 1809 05 MSU Which of the following is the correct detailed ionic equation for the reaction of potassium hydroxide and sulfuric acid to form potassium phosphate and water ? 5 + - + 2- + 2- + - A. K + OH + H + SO ----> K + SO + H + OH 4 4 4 5 + - + 2- + 2- B. K + OH + H + SO ----> K + SO + H O 4 4 4 2 5 + - + 2- + 2- C. 2K + 2OH + 2H + SO ----> 2K + SO + 2H O 4 4 4 2 5 + - + 2- + 2- D. 2K + 2OH + 2H + SO ----> 2K + SO + H O 4 4 4 2 5 + - + 3- + 2- + - E. K + OH + 2H + PO ----> 2K + SO + H + OH 94 4 4 4160041 A 15 25609 51 1809 05 MSU Consider the following equation 5 2+ - + 2- + - Ba + 2Cl + 2Na + SO ----> BaSO + 2Na + 2Cl 4 4 4 A. It is a balanced detailed ionic equation. B. It is a balanced net ionic equation. C. It is an unbalanced detailed ionic equation. D. It is an unbalanced net ionic equation. 9 E. It is a molecular equation. 4160042 D 15 25615 51 1809 05 MSU Which of the following is the correct detailed ionic equation for the reaction of barium bromide with ammonium sulfate to form ammonium bromide and solid barium sulfate ? 5 2+ - + 2- 2+ 2- + - A. Ba + Br + NH + SO ----> Ba + SO + NH + Br 4 4 4 4 4 5 2+ + 2- 2+ 2- + B. Ba + 2br + 2NH + SO ----> Ba + SO + 2NH + 2Br 4 4 4 4 4 5 2+ - + 2- + - C. Ba + Br + NH + SO ----> BaSO + NH + Br 4 4 4 4 4 5 2+ - + 2- + - D. Ba + 2Br + 2NH + SO ----> BaSO + 2NH + 2Br 4 4 4 4 4 5 2+ - + 2- E. Ba + 2Br + 2NH + SO ----> BaSO + 2NH Br 94 4 4 4 4 4160043 D 15 25629 51 1809 05 MSU Consider the following equation 5 3+ - + - Sb + 3Cl + H S ----> Sb S + H + 3Cl 4 2 2 3 A. It is a balanced net ionic equation. B. It is a balanced detailed ionic equation. C. It is an unbalanced net ionic equation. D. It is an unbalanced detailed ionic equation. 9 E. It is a molecular equation. 4160044 B 15 25634 51 1809 05 MSU Which of the following is the correct detailed ionic equation for the reaction of solid manganese (IV) oxide with hydrochloric acid to form manganese (II) chloride, chlorine gas and water ? 5 + - 2+ - A. MnO + H + Cl ----> Mn + Cl + Cl + H O 4 2 2 2 5 + - 2+ - B. MnO + 4H + 4Cl ----> Mn + 2Cl + Cl + 2H O 4 2 2 2 5 + - 2+ - C. MnO + 4H + Cl ----> Mn + Cl + 2H O 4 2 2 5 + - 2+ - D. MnO + 4H + 4Cl ----> Mn + 4Cl + 2H O 4 2 2 5 + - E. MnO + 4H + 4Cl ----> MnCl + Cl + 2H O 94 2 2 2 2 4160045 C 15 25646 51 1809 05 MSU Consider the following equation 5 2+ - + - Cu + 2Cl + H S ----> CuS + 2H + 2Cl 4 2 A. It is a balanced net ionic equation. B. It is an unbalanced net ionic equation. C. It is a balanced detailed ionic equation. D. It is an unbalanced detailed ionic equation. 9 E. It is a molecular equation. 4160046 B 15 44916 51 1809 05 MSU Which of the following is the correct detailed ionic equation for the reaction of barium nitrate with magnesium sulfate to form barium sulfate and magnesium nitrate ? 5 2+ - 2+ 2- 2+ - A. Ba + NO + Mg + SO ----> BaSO (s) + Mg + NO 4 3 4 4 3 5 2+ - 2+ 2- 2+ - B. Ba + 2NO + Mg + SO ----> BaSO (s) + Mg + NO 4 3 4 4 3 5 2+ - 2+ 2- 2+ 2- 2+ - C. Ba + NO + Mg + SO ----> Ba + SO + Mg + NO 4 3 4 4 3 5 2+ - 2+ 2- 2+ 2- 2+ - D. Ba + 2NO + Mg + SO ----> Ba + SO + Mg + 2NO 4 3 4 4 3 5 2+ - 2+ 2- 2+ 2- E. Ba + NO + Mg + SO ---> Mg(NO ) (s) + Ba + SO 94 3 4 3 2 4 4160047 C 15 25664 32 071101 0064 In the balanced equation for the oxidation of ammonia, ___NH + ___O = ___N O + ___H O 4 3 2 2 2 the coefficient for H O is 4 2 9 A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 4160048 E 15 25667 52 071101 0064 The complete combustion of ethane, C H , yields carbon 4 2 6 dioxide and water as products as indicated in the equation, ___C H + ___O = ___CO + ___H O 4 2 6 2 2 2 The ratio of the number of molecules of O required 4 2 to molecules of ethane burned is 9 A. 1 B. 3/2 C. 2 D. 3 E. 7/2 4160049 C 15 44574 32 071101 0064 ___Ag S + ___Al = ___Ag + ___Al S 4 2 2 3 For the reaction above, how many moles of silver atoms will be formed when one mole of aluminum atoms reacts? 9 A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 7 4160050 B 15 25676 52 071101 0064 Acetylene, C H along with the by-product Ca(OH) , is produced 4 2 2 by adding CaC to water. The coefficient preceding the formula 4 2 for water, H O, in the balanced equation is 4 2 9 A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 4160051 E 15 25680 52 071101 0064 The following reaction (unbalanced) is important in the recovery of gold from ores __Au + __KCN + __O + __H O = __KAu(CN) + __KOH 4 2 2 2 The balanced equation shows that for every molecule of 0 4 2 used, ___ atoms of gold reacted. 9 A. 1 B. 2 C. 2.5 D. 3 E. 4 4160052 E 15 25686 52 071101 0064 Under appropriate conditions, ammonia reacts with oxygen as represented by the following unbalanced equation __NH + __O = __NO + __H O 4 3 2 2 The ratio of the coefficients of NH /O in the balanced equation 4 3 2 would be 9 A. 2/1 B. 3/2 C. 1/1 D. 3/5 E. 4/5 4160053 D 15 25691 52 071101 0064 For the reaction (unbalanced) __Fe O + __NH = __Fe O + __N + __H O 4 2 3 3 3 4 2 2 the coefficients of NH and Fe O in the balanced equation would 4 3 3 4 be in the ratio _____, respectively. 9 A. 3/2 B. 1/2 C. 9/2 D. 1/3 E. none of these 4160054 E 15 45189 71 Which of the following equations is (are) NOT balanced? 1. ZnCl + NaOH ---> Zn(OH) + NaCl 4 2 2 2. Fe O + 2CO ---> 2Fe + 2CO 4 2 3 2 3. NH NO ---> N O + 2H O 4 4 3 2 2 9 A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 1 and 2 E. 1,2 and 3 4160055 C 15 45193 71 Which one of the following equations is properly balanced? A. NH NO ---> 2H O + N 4 4 3 2 2 B. CH CHO + 3O ---> 2CO + 2H O 4 3 2 2 2 C. Sn + 4HNO ---> SnO + 4NO + 2H O 4 3 2 2 2 D. 2Na SO + 3Bi(NO ) ---> Bi (SO ) + 9NaNO 4 2 4 3 3 2 4 3 3 E. Na CO + 2H SO ---> Na SO + 2H + CO 94 2 3 2 4 2 4 2 2 4160056 E 15 45199 71 When the equation __C H N + __N O ---> __N + __CO + __H O 4 2 8 2 2 4 2 2 2 is balanced, the sum of all the coefficients (simplest whole number) is: 9 A. 10 B. 11 C. 12 D. 13 E. 14 4160057 D 15 45288 71 Complete combustion of a 0.20 mol sample of a hydrocarbon, C H , 4 x y gives 0.80 mol of CO and 1.0 mol of H O. The molecular formula 4 2 2 of the original hydrocarbon is: A. C H B. C H C. C H D. C H E. C H 94 3 8 4 5 4 8 4 10 9 20 4162001 B 14 25696 31 039301138004 2 OS When gasoline or natural gas are burned completely the main products are A. carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide B. carbon dioxide and water C. water and carbon (soot) 9 D. carbon monoxide and water 4162002 C 14 25699 31 080604078004 2 OS A product resulting from the reaction between calcium and water is A. hydrogen peroxide B. calcium oxide C. hydrogen 9 D. oxygen 4162003 A 15 25701 31 116711591323 0042 When potassium and oxygen react, the oxide most commonly formed is: A. K O B. K O C. KO D. KO E. None of these. 4 2 2 2 2 9 4162004 B 15 25704 31 117811670236 0042 Which pair of ions in solution exhibit the lowest molar solubility? 5 + - 2+ - A. Ag and NO B. Cu and OH 4 3 5 + 2- 2+ - + - C. K and CO D. Ca and Cl E. Rb and I 4 3 9 4162005 D 15 25708 52 080609431055 0042 Which product is usually produced from the indicated chemical species. A. Sulfide ion when sulfur is oxidized B. MnO when KMnO is reduced in an acidic solution 4 2 4 C. Nitrogen oxide when concentrated nitric acid is used as an oxidant D. Water when an acidified solution of H O is reduced 4 2 2 E. Nitrogen dioxide when dilute HNO reacts with iron. 94 3 4162006 E 15 25715 32 022400180080 0042 What is the formula of the salt which is formed by the neutralization of Al(OH) with sulfuric acid? 4 3 A. Al (SO ) B. AlSO C. Al SO 4 3 4 2 4 2 4 D. Al(SO ) E. None of these. 94 4 2 4162007 B 14 25719 51 080606000083 0043 A product of the thermal decomposition of sodium bicarbonate is: A. NaH B. CO C. NaHCO D. C H 94 2 3 2 2 4162008 D 14 25721 51 002109770403 0043 5 2- Oxidation of S O by I yields: 4 2 3 2 5 2- 2- 2- 2- A. SO B. SO C. S O D. S O 94 3 4 2 7 4 6 4162009 D 14 25724 51 009404071331 0043 Colloidal sulfur may be produced by reaction between solutions of A. H S O and H SO B. Na S O and I 4 2 2 7 2 4 2 2 3 2 C. Na S and FeCl D. FeCl and H S 94 2 2 3 2 4162010 D 14 25728 31 116700250066 0043 When rubidium is reacted with oxygen, the compound formed is: A. RbO B. Rb O C. Rb O D. RbO 94 2 2 2 2 4162011 D 14 25730 52 013800870008 0043 5 - The OH concentration of a solution prepared by adding one mole of Na O to enough water to make one liter of solution is: 4 2 9 A. 0.5 M B. 0.2 M C. 1.0 M D. 2.0 M 4162012 D 14 25733 52 00870236040751 9000 A dilute solution of palladium(II) sulfate is mixed with a dilute solution of sodium iodide. A black precipitate results. The products of this reaction are 5 2+ - A. Pd (aq) + I (aq) + NaI(s) B. I (aq) + SO (g) + PdNa (s) 4 2 2 2 5 + - C. PdO(s) + Na (aq) + I (aq) + SO (g) 4 2 5 + = D. PdI (s)+Na (aq)+ SO (aq) 94 2 4 4162013 B 15 25740 51 116700080219 0020 Calcium carbide reacts with excess water to give A. acetylene + carbon monoxide B. ethyne + calcium hydroxide C. acetylene + coke D. ethene + calcium oxide 9 E. carbon dioxide and calcium hydride 4162014 A 15 25743 32 131906000407 0020 The general expression for a decomposition reaction is A. AB -----> A + B B. AB + C -----> AC + B C. AB + CD -----> AC + BD D. A + B -----> AB 9 E. AB + C -----> A + CB 4162015 C 15 25746 32 022413240066 0020 The predicted formula for a compound formed from magnesium and fluorine is A. MgF B. Mg F C. MgF D. Mg F E. None oF these 94 2 2 2 3 4162016 A 15 25749 51 005604070008 0020 Sulfuric acid will react with sugar to give carbon and A. water B. sulfur trioxide C. a hydrate D. sulfur dioxide 9 E. none of these 4162017 C 15 25752 32 140901610968 0019 Under conditions of constant temperature and pressure 1 liter of carbon monoxide (CO) and 2 liters of hydrogen (H ) react to 4 2 produce 1 liter of a compound. The simplest formula of the compound must be _______. A. CH O B. CH O C. CH O D. H O E. C H O 94 2 2 2 4 2 2 4 2 4162018 D 14 25757 52 003104071171 0009 The equation for the reaction of Ag CO , a water insoluble solid, 4 2 3 with a strong acid is best written as 5 + 2- A. Ag CO (s) -----> 2 Ag (aq) + CO (aq) 4 2 3 3 5 2- + B. CO (aq) + 2 H -----> CO (g) + H O 4 3 2 2 C. Ag CO (s) -----> Ag O(s) + CO (g) 4 2 3 2 2 5 + + D. Ag CO (s) + 2 H -----> 2 Ag (aq) + CO (g) + H O 94 2 3 2 2 4162019 B 14 25765 32 003104070087 0009 The net ionic equation for the reaction that occurs when solutions of AgNO and Na CO are mixed is 4 3 2 3 A. 2AgNO (aq) + Na CO (aq) -----> Ag CO (s) + 2NaNO (aq) 4 3 2 3 2 3 3 5 + 2- B. 2Ag (aq) + CO (aq) -----> Ag CO (s) 4 3 2 3 5 + - C. Na (aq) + NO (aq) -----> NaNO (s) 4 3 3 9 D. No reaction 4162020 D 15 25772 32 035112840097 0035 If an atom containing 3 protons and 4 neutrons combines with a second atom with 9 protons and 10 neutrons, the ion of the second atom will have A. 12 protons. B. 4 Protons. C. 10 Protons. 9 D. 9 Protons. E. None of these. 4162021 B 15 45224 71 The net ionic equation for the acid-base reaction between formic acid and sodium hydroxide is A. HCOOH(aq) + NaOH(aq) ---> NaHCOO(aq) + H O(l) 4 2 5 + - B. H (aq) + OH (aq) ---> H O(l) 4 2 5 - - C. HCOOH(aq) + OH (aq) ---> HCOO (aq) + H O(l) 4 2 5 + - + - D. H (aq) + HCOO (aq) + Na (aq) + OH (aq) ---> NaHCOO(aq) + H O(l) 4 2 5 + - + - + - E. H (aq)+HCOO (aq)+Na (aq)+OH (aq)--->Na (aq)+HCOO (aq)+H O(l) 94 2 4162022 A 15 45235 71 All of the following are methods for making hydrogen chloride (hydrochloric acid), EXCEPT A. NaCl(s) + HaHSO (s) ---> Na SO (s) + HCl(g) 4 4 2 4 B. NaCl(s) + H SO (aq) ---> NaHSO (s) + HCl(g) 4 2 4 4 C. CH (g) + Cl(g) ---> CH Cl(g) + HCl(g) 4 4 3 D. H (g) + Cl (g) ---> 2HCl(g) 4 2 2 E. H O(l) + Cl (g) ---> HOCl(aq) + HCl(aq) 94 2 2 4164001 A 15 25776 52 1966 CRNS Chemicals DF and E F are produced from a chemical reaction 4 2 2 between D E and F . If one mole of E F is formed in this 4 2 6 2 2 reaction, how many moles of D E are consumed? 4 2 6 9 A. 0.33 B. 0.50 C. 1 D. 3 E. None of these 4164002 D 15 25781 52 1966 WKMN Octane burns in air according to the following unbalanced equation: C H + O ----> CO + H O 4 8 18 2 2 2 If 4 liters of liquid octane are completely oxidized, how many liters of carbon dioxide would be produced at STP? Density of 5 3 liquid octane is 0.703 g/cm . 9 A. 4.420 B. 552.5 C. 8682 D. 4420 E. 55.25 4164003 C 15 25787 32 00090094800113 ETS2 05 Iron reacts with sulfur as in the equation, Fe + S---> FeS. The number of grams of FeS that can be obtained from 100 g of S is approximately 9 A. 57 B. 175 C. 275 D. 157 E. 36 4164004 C 15 25790 72 01990200800113 ETS2 OS About how many grams of glucose are formed in the process of photosynthesis if 2,031,000 calories of solar energy are absorbed? The equation for the photosynthesis reaction is as follows: (Assume 100% efficiency) 6CO + 6H O + 677,000 calories ---> C H O + 6O 4 2 2 6 12 6 2 glucose A. 180 B. 90 C. 540 D. 360 9 E. 720 4164005 C 15 25796 72 00420025800113 ETS2 OS If 10.0 kg magnesium are burned with 10.0 kg oxygen to produce magnesium oxide as shown by the equation 2Mg + O ---> 2 MgO, the weight of magnesium oxide obtained is 4 2 9 A. 10.0 kg B. 8.3 kg C. 16.6 kg D. 33.2 kg E. 25.0 kg 4164006 A 15 25801 72 02150209800113 ETS2 OS The reaction of sodium hydroxide and hydrochloric acid is given by the equation NaOH + HCl ---> NaCl + H O. How many grams of 4 2 NaOH are needed to produce 100 g NaCl? (atomic weights Na, 23.0; O, 16.0; H, 1.0; Cl, 35.5) A. 68.4 g B. 52.3 g C. 30.8 g D. 23.4 g 9 E. None of these 4164007 B 15 25806 72 02160209800113 ETS2 OS Calcium carbonate reacts with hydrochloric acid as represented by the equation CaCO + 2HCl -----> CaCl + H O + CO . 4 3 2 2 2 If 20 grams of calcium carbonate are placed with 20 grams of hydrochloric acid, how many grams of hydrochloric acid will be left over at the close of the reaction? 9 A. 7.6 B. 5.4 C. 0.70 D. 3.7 E. 13 4164008 B 15 25812 52 00140216800113 ETS2 OS The equation for the preparation of carbon dioxide is CaCO + 2HCl -----> CaCl + H O + CO 4 3 2 2 2 100 73 111 18 44 where the numbers are proportional to the relative weights of the compounds. The number of grams of CO obtained from 25 grams 4 2 of CaCO is 4 3 A. 6.25 B. 11 C. 22 D. 44 9 E. None of these 4164009 B 15 25818 32 01970217800113 ETS2 OS Given the equation CaO(s) + H O(l) ---> Ca(OH) (s) 4 2 2 the mass of CaO needed to produce 100 g Ca(OH) is 4 2 9 A. 31.1 B. 75.7 C. 100.0 D. 132.1 E. 162.2 4164010 A 15 25822 52 02160056800113 ETS2 OS NaCl + H SO -----> HCl + NaHSO 4 2 4 4 How many grams of HCl can be prepared from 40 grams of NaCl? (Atomic weights Na = 23; Cl = 35.5; H = 1) A. 24.9 B. 5.1 C. 16.0 D. 4.1 9 E. 28.0 4164011 E 15 44934 52 02120014800113 ETS2 OS Balance the equation below and answer the following question. CH + O ---> CO + H O. 4 4 2 2 2 The volume of CO produced in burning 100 L methane is (both volumes 4 2 are measured under the same conditions) 9 A. 50 L B. 275 L C. 33.3 L D. 220 L E. 100 L 4164012 E 15 25831 72 02180196800113 ETS2 OS The union of nitrogen and hydrogen with a suitable catalyst and the addition of heat produces ammonia according to the equation (atomic weight N=14, H=1) N (g) + 3H (g) ---> 2NH (g) /\H = -24 kcal 4 2 2 3 -- when 136 liters of ammonia are produced, the number of liters of nitrogen needed is A. 90.7 liters B. 112.0 liters C. 204.0 liters D. 272.0 liters 9 E. 68.0 liters 4164013 D 15 25837 72 02190025800113 ETS2 OS 2C H (g) + 5O (g) ---> 4CO (g) + 2H O(l) 4 2 2 2 2 2 The statement below which is correct (all gases measured at STP) is A. 4 cc C H will react with 10 cc O to produce 4 cc liq. water. 4 2 2 2 B. 10 cc C H will react with 30 cc O to produce 24 cc CO . 4 2 2 2 2 C. 9 cc C H will react with 12.5 cc O to produce 18 cc CO . 4 2 2 2 2 D. 12.6 cc C H will react with 31.5 cc O to produce 25.2 cc CO . 4 2 2 2 2 E. 10 cc C H will react with 24 cc O to produce 20 cc CO . 94 2 2 2 2 4164014 A 15 25848 32 01960008800113 ETS2 OS The reaction for burning hydrogen at a temperature high enough to give the product water in a gaseous state is given by the equation 2 H + O ---> 2H O. The number of liters of water vapor formed 4 2 2 2 from 50 liters of hydrogen will be A. 50 B. 100 C. 150 D. 200 9 E. None of these 4164015 B 15 25853 52 00250196800113 ETS2 OS If one unit volume of oxygen and two unit volumes of hydrogen are combined at high temperature, the number of unit volumes of water vapor (measured at the same T and P) obtained is A. One B. Two C. Three D. A small fraction of one unit volume 9 E. An indeterminate volume greater than three 4164016 A 15 25858 52 02140025800113 ETS2 OS The reaction for burning carbon monoxide may be shown by the equation 2CO + O ---> 2CO (C = 12; O = 16). The number of 4 2 2 grams of oxygen gas needed to produce 20 grams of carbon dioxide is most nearly A. 7.3 grams B. 11.4 grams C. 14.5 grams D. 3.6 grams 9 E. More data is necessary to answer this item 4164017 D 15 25863 72 02140014800113 ETS2 OS The reaction for burning carbon monoxide may be shown by the equation 2CO + O ---> 2CO . The number of liters of carbon 4 2 2 dioxide formed from burning 100 liters of carbon monoxide would be A. 150 B. 50 C. 200 D. 100 9 E. More data is necessary 4164018 D 15 25867 72 01960016800113 ETS2 OS The volume of hydrogen at STP produced by 0.27 g of aluminum (AW 27 and oxidation state +3) is A. 2.24 liters B. 3.36 liters C. 7.72 liters D. 0.336 liters 9 E. None of these numbers 4164019 E 15 25870 72 02230025800113 ETS2 OS Butane burns in air according to the unbalanced equation C H + O = CO + H O 4 4 10 2 2 2 The volume (at S.T.P.) of oxygen required to burn 58 grams of butane is (in liters) 9 A. 44.8 B. 179.2 C. 89.6 D. 358.4 E. 145.6 4164020 D 15 25874 72 02120025800113 ETS2 OS Consider the equation for the complete combustion of methane in oxygen: CH + 2O ---> CO + 2H O 4 4 2 2 2 The volume of oxygen required to burn 100 liters of methane is A. 20 liters B. 25 liters C. 100 liters D. 200 liters 9 E. 400 liters 4164021 A 15 25879 52 07048003 2WVW If 1.00 g of Zn is to react completely by Zn + 2HCl---> ZnCl + H , at least___________ g of HCl must 4 2 2 be present. (At. Wt H=1.0, Cl=35.5, Zn=65.4) A. 1.12 g B. 2.00 g C. 2.24 g D. 3.00 g 9 E. 4.48 g 4164022 E 15 25883 52 07048003 2WVW How much CaCO is required to produce 50 g of CaO, according 4 3 to the equation CaCO ---> CaO + CO 4 3 2 assuming all the CaCO reacts? 4 3 (At. Wt C=12, O=16, Ca=40) A. 0.89 g B. 2.8 g C. 28 g D. 62.5 g 9 E. 89 g 4164023 A 15 25887 52 8003 2WVW If one gram of Zn is to react completely by Zn(s) + 2 HCl (aq) ---> ZnCl (aq) + H (g) 4 2 2 at least ______ grams of HCl must be present. 9 A. 1.12 B. 2.00 C. 2.24 D. 3.00 E. 4.48 4164024 B 14 25891 32 019604048004 2 OS The complete combination of one liter of hydrogen with one liter of chlorine yields a gaseous product whose volume is A. 1 liter B. 2 liters C. 3 liters 9 D. 4 liters 4164025 B 15 25894 52 002311670195 0042 When 3.80 g of fluorine (F ) react completely with H , what 4 2 2 volume of HF gas is produced at stp? 5 -1 -1 (At. Wt. H = 1.0, F = 19.0; R=0.0820 liter atm mole deg ) A. 0.20 liter B. 4.48 liters C. 11.2 liters 9 D. 22.4 liters E. 44.8 liters 4164026 E 15 25899 52 013811780236 0042 5 - The average concentration of Cl ions in human blood plasma is 0.10 molar. If a 10-ml sample of blood is assumed to precipitate only AgCl upon the addition of 0.050 molar AgNO 4 3 solution, how much AgNO solution must be added if we assume that 4 3 AgCl is completely insoluble? 9 A. 0.050 ml B. 0.10 ml C. 10 ml D. 15 ml E. 20 ml 4164027 A 15 25905 32 002711670031 0042 If one gram of Zn is to react completely by Zn + 2HCl -----> ZnCl + H , at least ______ grams of HCl must be 4 2 2 present. 9 A. 1.12g B. 2.00g C. 2.24g D. 3.00g E. 4.48g 4164028 E 15 25908 32 055313551159 0042 If 0.50 mole of Na PO is mixed with 0.30 mole of BaCl , the 4 3 4 2 maximum number of moles of barium phosphate which can be formed is: 9 A. 0.80 B. 0.50 C. 0.30 D. 0.15 E. 0.10 4164029 B 15 25912 32 107618090407 0042 In the completely balanced ionic equation for the reaction of metallic aluminum with excess hydrogen ions which one is one of the product terms? (Use only whole number coefficients) 5 3+ 3+ A. 6H B. 2Al C. 3H D. Al E. H 94 2 4164030 C 15 25916 32 116700310806 0042 If one liter of C H and 5 liters of O react according to the 4 3 8 2 equation C H + 5O <=====> 3CO + 4H O 4 3 8 2 2 2 and assuming that all products are in the gaseous state, then the products will occupy (under the same conditions) A. 1 liter B. 6 liters C. 7 liters 9 D. 8 liters E. It is impossible to tell. 4164031 B 14 25922 52 007700870045 0043 5 2- 2+ 3+ 3+ In acid solution Cr O will oxidize Fe to form Cr and Fe . 4 2 7 how many milliliters of 0.100 M K Cr O are required to oxidize 4 2 2 7 35.0 ml of 0.500 M FeSO ? 4 4 9 A. 7.00 B. 29.2 C. 42.0 D. 175. 4164032 D 15 25927 52 116501280788 0044 Heavy water has a molecular weight of 20 instead of 18 because it contains, in place of hydrogen, deuterium, a hydrogen isotope with mass number 2. which of the following is the same regardless of whether the water is heavy water or ordinary water? A. Density of the gas produced at the cathode in electrolysis of the water. B. Grams of gas formed when 0.100 mole of Ca (solid) is added to the water. C. Grams of water decomposed per faraday in the electrolysis of the water. D. Density of the gas produced at the anode in electrolysis of the water. E. Density of the gas produced when lithium is added to the 9 water. 4164033 D 15 25936 52 0407 0044 Consider the following hypothetical unbalanced reaction: Ni + S + O -----> NiSO 4 2 4 given: 12.0 grams of Ni, 0.404 moles of S, and 14.5 liters of O at STP, how many moles of NiSO can be prepared? 4 2 4 14.5 22.4 12.0 A. -------- B. -------- C. .404 D. ---- 22.4 x 2 14.5 x 2 58.7 9 E. None of the above. 4164034 D 14 25942 32 10760031055351 9000 Given the balanced equation 4NH + 3O -----> 2N + 6H O 3 2 2 2 how many moles of N could be produced from 6 moles NH ? 4 2 3 9 A. 20 B. 6 C. 4 D. 3 4164035 B 14 25946 32 03980884040751 9000 What mass Na CO (m.w. = 106) Will produce 10 liters CO 4 2 3 2 (measured at stp) in the reaction Na CO (s) + H SO (l) -----> Na SO (aq) + H O(l) + CO (g) 4 2 3 2 4 2 4 2 2 106 10 106 A. ---- grams B. 106 x ---- grams C. ---- grams 22.4 22.4 10 22.4 D. 106 x ---- grams 10 9 4164036 B 14 25953 32 01950884040751 9000 What volume of CO at stp could be prepared by the reaction of 4 2 10.0 g of calcium carbonate with excess hydrochloric acid? CaCO (s) + 2HCl(aq) -----> CaCl (aq) + CO (g) + H O(l) 4 3 2 2 2 9 A. 1.12 liters B. 2.24 liters C. 3.36 liters D. 4.48 liters. 4164037 A 14 25958 32 05531167039851 9000 If one mole of H and one mole of O are allowed to react, 4 2 2 according to the equation below, what is the maximum mass of H O 4 2 that could be produced? 2H (g) + O (g) -----> 2H O(l) 4 2 2 2 9 A. 18 grams B. 36 grams C. 54 grams D. 72 grams 4164038 D 14 25963 52 04070795116751 9000 Aluminum chloride may be prepared by the following reaction: 2Al + 3Cl -----> 2AlCl 4 2 3 how many grams of AlCl can be produced if 284 g Cl react 4 3 2 completely? 9 A. 284 B. 200 C. 227 D. 356 4164039 D 14 25967 32 05530546088451 9000 When one mole of pentane, C H , at STP, is burned completely in 4 5 12 oxygen, how many liters of CO at STP are produced? 4 2 9 A. 4.48 B. 11.2 C. 22.4 D. 112 4164040 B 15 25970 52 040401680002 0018 Suppose you have 78 gm of sodium,Na,and 200 gm of chlorine,Cl. What is the maximum amount of sodium chloride(39% Na and 61% Cl) that can be formed from this mixture? 9 A. 239 G B. 198 g C. 61 g D. 278 g E. None of these 4164041 D 15 25974 32 079500250407 0018 How many grams of oxygen would be produced from a reaction that gave 10 gm of hydrogen? 2H O -----> 2H + O 4 2 2 2 9 A. 32 B. 64 C. 16 D. 80 E. None of these 4164042 D 15 25977 52 00370043 0018 The New York city police department seized a package that they suspected contained LSD (d-lysergic acid diethylamide,C H N O). 4 24 30 3 When the compound was combusted, the following reaction was expected: C H N O + 34O ----> 24CO + 15H O + 3NO 4 24 30 3 2 2 2 2 The crime laboratory combusted a 376 gm sample. If the sample were pure LSD, how many moles NO would have been produced? 4 2 9 A. 12 B. 6 C. 1.5 D. 3 E. None of these 4164043 C 15 25985 32 003103510407 0020 The equation, N + 3H ---> 2NH , says 4 2 2 3 A. Three atoms of hydrogen react with each molecule of nitrogen B. Two molecules of product are produced from every molecule of hydrogen C. There are 6 atoms of hydrogen contained in the reaction products for every molecule of nitrogen which reacts D. A gram of nitrogen will react with 3 grams of hydrogen 9 E. None of the above 4164044 D 15 25991 32 040700310943 0020 The reaction represented by the chemical equation 2H + O ---> 2H O means that 4 2 2 2 A. 4 atoms of hydrogen react with 2 atoms of oxygen to give 2 molecules of water B. 2 molecules of hydrogen react with 1 molecule of oxygen to give 2 molecules of water C. 2 molecules of hydrogen react with 2 atoms of oxygen to give 2 molecules of water D. All of the above 9 E. None of the above 4164045 A 15 25997 52 040700310008 0020 The reaction represented by the chemical equation 2H + O ---> 2H O means that 4 2 2 2 A. 4g of hydrogen react with 32 g of oxygen to give 36 g water B. 2 moles of hydrogen react with one mole of oxygen to give two moles of water C. 4 atoms of hydrogen react with 2 atoms of oxygen to give 2 molecules of water D. All of the above 9 E. None of the above 4164046 C 15 26003 52 003107950553 0020 S (s) + 8O (g) ---> 8SO (g) this equation says 4 8 2 2 A. One molecule of sulfur reacts with 8 moles of oxygen B. One mole of sulfur reacts with 8 molecules of oxygen C. 256.8 g of sulfur react with 8 moles of oxygen D. 256.8 g of sulfur react with 16 molecular masses of oxygen 9 E. None of the above 4164047 A 15 26008 52 039811730302 0020 How many grams of sulfur dioxide can be prepared from 50.0 g of sulfur when it is burned in an excess of oxygen? 9 A. 100 B. 150 C. 200 D. 50 E. 63 4164048 A 15 26011 52 055311591332 0020 How many moles of sulfur dioxide are formed when 4 moles of zinc sulfide are roasted in air? 9 A. 4 B. 1 C. 3 D. 2 E. none of these 4164049 A 15 44631 52 005611670795 0020 What is the theoretical yield in grams of zinc sulfate which can be made from 100 g of zinc metal and excess sulfuric acid? 9 A. 247 g B. 162 g C. 227 g D. 273 g E. 100 g 4164050 E 15 26017 52 133100720196 0020 How many grams of ammonia can be produced from 200 g of hydrogen? N + 3H ---> 2NH 4 2 2 3 9 A. 567 g B. 283 g C. 113.3 g D. 1133 g E. none of these 4164051 A 15 26020 52 003105531331 0020 Given the equation: 2Al(OH) + 3H SO ---> Al (SO ) + 6H O 4 3 2 4 2 4 3 2 how many moles of aluminum hydroxide are needed to produce 684 g of aluminum sulfate? 9 A. 4 Moles B. 1 mole C. 3 moles D. 2 moles E. None of these 4164052 A 15 26024 32 116713351331 0020 Ferric oxide reacts with carbon in a blast furnace to produce iron and carbon monoxide. Fe O + 3C ---> 2Fe + 3CO 4 2 3 How much iron can be produced from 63.9 g ferric oxide? 9 A. 44.7 g B. 89.4 g C. 55.8 g D. 22.3 g E. None of these 4164053 B 15 26028 52 040711590398 0020 In the reaction, CaCO ---> CaO + CO , sixteen grams of CaO was 4 3 2 formed. The mass of CO formed at the same time is 4 2 9 A. 8.8 g B. 12.6 g C. 20.4 g D. 11.2 g E. None of these 4164054 B 15 26032 52 006603020031 0020 The compound C H will burn in air to form water and carbon 4 6 12 dioxide. What number should be written in front of O in the 4 2 correctly balanced equation? 9 A. 3 B. 9 C. 14 D. 6 E. 12 4164055 E 15 26036 52 003202860031 0020 Forty grams of copper are heated with 4 grams of sulfur. The reaction goes to completion without loss of sulfur, as represented by the equation: 2Cu + S ---> Cu S 4 2 approximately how many grams of copper remain uncombined? 9 A. 4 grams B. 16 grams C. 32 grams D. 8 grams E. 24 grams 4164056 D 15 26041 52 079500310113 0020 How many grams of oxygen are needed to burn 88.0 g of propane gas according to the equation: C H + 5O ---> 3CO + 4H O 4 3 8 2 2 2 9 A. 640 g B. 900 g C. 160 g D. 320 g E. None of these 4164057 A 14 26045 32 007200251167 0009 Ammonia (NH ) and oxygen (O ) can be made to react to form only 4 3 2 nitrogen and water. The number of moles of oxygen consumed for each mole of nitrogen formed is: 9 A. 1.5 B. 0.50 C. 3.0 D. 2.0 4164058 A 14 26049 32 040709770553 0009 In carrying out the reaction, 2 NaHCO (s) -----> Na CO (s) + H O(g) + CO (g) 4 3 2 3 2 2 A student obtains an 80% yield. How many moles of NaHCO must 4 3 she have started with if her yield was 1.6 moles of Na CO ? 4 2 3 9 A. 4.0 B. 3.2 C. 2.6 D. 2.0 4164059 C 14 26055 31 102610200806 0009 When an excess of one reactant is used: A. More product may form than with NO excess B. Reaction may proceed at a faster rate C. Less limiting reactant may remain unconsumed 9 D. All of the above 4164060 C 15 26058 52 055300080043 0019 How many moles of water would one mole of ethanol, C H OH, give 4 --- 2 5 on combustion? Assume the reaction is properly described by the expression C H OH + O ---> CO + H O (unbalanced) 2 5 2 2 2 9 A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 1.5 E. 2.5 4164061 B 15 26063 32 040702640795 0040 Consider the reaction 3A + B -----> 2C + 3D. If 3 g of A completely reacts with 4 g of B to produce 5 g of C, how many grams of D will be produced? 9 A. 3 g B. 2 g C. 7.5 g D. 1 g E. 9 g 4164062 D 15 26066 31 055300310407 0040 Given the equation Xe(g) + 3F (g) -----> XeF (s), how many moles 4 2 6 of fluorine, F , are required to form 3 moles of xenon 4 2 hexafluoride, XeF ? 4 6 9 A. 1 B. 3 C. 6 D. 9 E. 12 4164063 C 15 26070 31 003104070553 0040 Which of the following is always true concerning the equation 3A + 5B -----> 2C + 3D ? A. 3 g of A + 5 g of B will react to give 2 g of C + 3 g of D B. 3 lb of A + 5 lb of B will react to give 2 lb of C + 3 lb of D C. 3 moles of A + 5 moles of B will react to give 2 moles of C + 3 moles of D 9 D. All of the above are true E. Both A and B. 4164064 E 15 26075 52 004309770806 0035 The complete combustion of pentane, C H , yields CO and H O as 4 5 12 2 2 the only products. How many molecules of oxygen are needed for complete combustion of one molecule of pentane? 9 A. 17 B. 11 C. 16 D. 10 E. 8 4164065 E 15 26079 52 030204070031 0035 When propane, C H , is burned completely to CO and water, the 4 3 8 2 reaction is described by the equation: C H + 5O = 3CO + 4H O. 4 3 8 2 2 2 What weight of oxygen is needed to oxidized completely 88 grams of propane? A. 96 grams B. 192 grams C. 640 grams 9 D. 160 grams E. 320 grams 4164066 D 15 26084 52 030201090031 0035 Butane burns in air according to the equation 2C H + 13 O -->8 CO + 10 H O (C = 12, H = 1, O = 16) 4 4 10 2 2 2 the volume of oxygen (at stp) required to burn 58 grams of butane is A. 44.8 liters B. 89.6 liters C. 22.4 liters. 9 D. 145.6 Liters E. 358.4 liters 4164067 E 15 26088 32 178305530031 0047 Copper can react with nitric acid according to the following net 5 + - ++ ionic equation 3Cu + 8H + 2NO ----> 3Cu + 2NO + 4H O 4 3 2 how many moles of nitric acid would be needed to produce two moles of NO according to the above equation? 9 A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four E. Eight. 4164068 E 15 26094 52 02140025001412 OS90 Consider the complete combustion of carbon monoxide: 2 CO(g) + O (g) ---> 2 CO (g) 4 2 2 The number of liters of oxygen needed to form 100 liters of carbon dioxide is 9 A. 20 B. 335 C. 100 D. 200 E. 50 4164069 DBC 35 26103 32 0212002500141290 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2Consider the balanced chemical equation 2 2CH + 2O -----> CO + 2H O 4 4 2 2 2 0 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 Assuming reactants and products to be measured under the same temperature and pressure, the volume of oxygen, in liters, required to burn 1000 liters of methane is 1 A. 200 B. 250 C. 1000 D. 2000 E. 4000 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 The mass of CO produced when 100 kg methane burns is 4 2 2 A. 100 kg B. 275 kg C. 55.3 kg D. 200 kg E. 36.4 kg MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 The % carbon in methane is 9 A. 25 B. 20 C. 75 D. 133 E. 300 4164070 A 14 26112 52 1948 0059 When the same mass of Zn is treated separately with an excess of H SO and with an excess of NaOH, the ratio of the volumes of H 4 2 4 2 obtainable in each case, respectively, is: 9 A. 1 : 1 B. 1 : 2 C. 2 : 1 D. 98 : 40 4164071 A 15 26116 52 196611001968 WKMN One step in the formation of photochemical smog involves the reaction between nitric oxide and ozone shown below: hydrocarbons NO + O ------------> NO + O 4 2(g) 2(g) (g) 3(g) This reaction is followed by the sunlight catalyzed reaction: sunlight NO + O ----------> NO + O 4 2(g) 2(g) (g) 3(g) If 100 g of nitric oxide were emitted from a car, how many grams of nitrogen dioxide would be produced? 9 A. 153.3 B. 306.6 C. 76.65 D. 102.2 E. 230.0 4164072 C 15 26124 32 071101 0064 Iron pyrites (FeS ) react with O to produce Fe O and SO . 4 2 2 2 3 2 One million FeS formula units would consume _____ million O 4 2 2 molecules upon reaction. 9 A. 1.5 B. 2 C. 2.75 D. 1.67 E. 2.67 4164073 D 15 44827 31 Using the equation below, and the assumption that all reactants are measured at the same temperature and pressure, determine the amount of oxygen (in liters) required to react with 1000 liters of methane. CH + 2O -----> CO + 2H O 4 4 2 2 2 9 A. 200 B. 250 C. 1000 D. 2000 E. 4000 4164201 C 15 45303 71 The commercial production of phosphoric acid, H PO , can be 4 3 4 represented by the equation: 1500g 800g 300g 1000g 280g Ca (PO ) + 3SiO + 5C + 5O + 3H O ---> 3CaSiO + 5CO + 2H PO 4 3 4 2 2 2 2 3 2 3 4 310 60.1 12.0 32.0 18.0 The formula weight for each reactant is shown below the reactant, and the mass of each reactant for this problem is given above. Which reactant is the limiting reagent? A. C B. SiO C. Ca (PO ) D. O E. H O 94 2 3 4 2 2 2 4200001 D 15 26129 52 071101 0064 A 40.0-mg sample of X O contains 22.5 mg of O. What is the atomic 4 2 5 weight of X? 9 A. 4.98 B. 17.5 C. 9.75 D. 31.1 E. 35.0 4200002 CC 25 26132 52 0066018980011290 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 0 Answer the following questions. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 Suppose one of the compounds of elements Q and R consists of exactly 25% Q and 75% R by weight. What additional information is 3_______ required in order to calculate the ratio of atoms of Q and R in the compound? A. The molecular weight of the compound B. The combining volumes of Q and R involved in the formation of the compound C. The relative atomic weights of Q and R D. The actual weights of atoms of Q and R 1 E. No additional information is required MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 Which of the following statements is incompatible with the conclusion that the formula of this compound is QR ? 4 3 A. Atoms of a given element are alike in weight, etc. B. One of the compounds of a given two elements must be binary. C. Atoms of different elements differ in weight. D. Compounds of indefinite composition may be formed. 9 E. None of these is incompatible. 4200003 A 15 26145 31 05530192800111 ETS2 OS The mole is A. A weight of a substance in grams equal to its molecular weight B. An abbreviation for the molecule C. The actual number of molecules in 22.4 liters, (s.t.p.), of any gas D. The smallest weight of an element in the molecular weights of any of its compounds E. A constant obtained by multiplying the specific heat of 9 an element by its atomic weight 4200004 C 14 26151 31 029305538004 2 OS The number of molecules in a mole of a molecular substance is A. 1 B. Dependent on the molecular weight C. Equal to the avogadro number 9 D. 22.4 4200005 B 15 26154 52 109713410065 0044 Which of the following samples contains the greatest amount of cobalt? (AW of Co = 58.9 grams per gram-atom). A. 1.15 gram-atoms of Co metal B. 99.7 grams of Co metal 5 23 C. 5.55 x 10 atoms of Co metal D. The crystal structure of Co metal must be known. 9 E. The density of Co metal must be known. 4200006 B 14 26159 31 055302120884 0026 Sixteen grams of methane gas, CH , is all of the following except 4 4 one. A. 1 Mole of methane 5 23 B. 16 x 6.023 x 10 molecules of methane C. The amount of methane in 22.4 liters at stp 5 23 9 D. 6.023 x 10 molecules of methane 4200007 E 15 26164 32 02610351 0020 22 g of carbon dioxide represents A. 5 moles B. Avogadro's number of atoms 5 23 C. 2 x 10 atoms 5 23 D. 9 x 10 atoms 9 E. None of these 4200008 C 15 26167 31 01280727 0040 The molecular weights of chlorine (Cl ) and nitrogen (N ) are 71 4 2 2 and 28 amu respectively. Which of the following statements is true? A. A mole of nitrogen weighs the same as a mole of chlorine. B. A mole of nitrogen is heavier than a mole of chlorine. C. A mole of chlorine is heavier than a mole of nitrogen. D. A mole of chlorine contains more molecules than a mole of nitrogen. 9 E. No correct response is given. 4200009 B 15 26174 31 131905530534 0038 The expression "one mole of copper (II) sulfide" refers to the: A. Wt. of CuS required to occupy one liter B. Wt. of CuS in grams equal to one formula weight C. Wt. of solid CuS required to occupy 22.4 liters D. Wt. of Cu combined with S in one molecule 9 E. weight in grams of one molecule of CuS 4200010 D 15 26179 52 0125006500941390 ETS2 OS 2The atomic weight of silver has been determined accurately against 2oxygen and found to be 107.880. (It is to be assumed that no 2other atomic weights are known.) One method for the determination 2of the atomic weight of sulfur involves the removal of sulfur from 2silver sulfide in a stream of hydrogen. In one such determination, 2the following data were obtained 2 Weight Ag S : 13.27 g 4 2 2 Loss in weight: 3.04 g Which one of the following proportions would be most useful in calculating the atomic weight of sulfur? A. 3.04 AW (S) 3 _____ = __________ 13.27 MW (Ag S) 4 2 B. 10.23 AW (S) 3 _____ = __________ 13.27 MW (Ag S) 4 2 C. 10.23 AW (Ag) 3 _____ = __________ 13.27 MW (Ag S) 4 2 D. 3.04 AW (S) 3 _____ = ____________ 10.23 2x[AW (Ag)] E. 10.23 AW (S) 3 _____ = ________ 9 3.04 AW (Ag) 4200011 C 14 26199 32 1702 05 The atomic weight of sodium is 23 and Avogadro's number is 5 23 6.0 x 10 . One-half gram-atom of sodium 5 23 A. contains 6.0 x 10 atoms of sodium B. has a mass of 23 grams C. has a mass of 11.5 grams 5 23 9 D. has a mass of 23 x ( 6.0 x 10 ) grams 4200012 B 15 26204 32 1702 05 The atomic weight of calcium is 40. A 0.5 mole sample of calcium 5 23 A. contains 6.02 x 10 atoms B. has a mass of 20 grams C. has a mass of 40 grams 5 23 D. has a mass of 40 x ( 6.02 x 10 ) grams 5 23 9 E. has a mass of 0.5 x ( 6.02 x 10 ) grams 4200013 A 14 26209 32 1702 05 One gram-atom of nitrogen (atomic weight N = 14) A. is the same as 0.5 mole of nitrogen molecules (N ) 4 2 B. has a mass of 28 grams 5 23 C. contains 6.02 x 10 particles of N 4 2 D. is the same as 0.25 mole of nitrogen molecules (N ) 4 2 9 4200014 C 14 26215 32 1702 05 One-half gram-atom of oxygen (atomic weight O = 16) A. is the same as one gram-mole of oxygen molecules (O ) 2 5 23 B. is the same as 3.01 x 10 particles of O 4 2 C. is the same as 0.25 gram-mole of oxygen molecules (O ) 4 2 D. Is the same as one-half gram-mole of oxygen molecules (O ) 4 2 9 4220001 C 14 26223 32 055300660703 0041 A mole of any compound contains Avogadro's number of 9 A. Atoms B. Gram atoms C. Formula units D. Valences 4220002 C 14 26225 52 12910325055351 9000 The ratio (mass of one mole of oxygen molecules in grams): (mass of one oxygen molecule in grams) is approximately equal to 5 23 23 23 9 A. 1/(6 x 10 ) B. 1/(2 x 6 x 10 ) C. 6 x 10 D. 1/1 4220003 C 15 26229 31 055302930113 0018 One mole of nitrogen gas 5 23 A. Contains 6.02 x 10 atoms nitrogen B. Weighs 14 gm 5 23 C. Contains 6.02 x 10 molecules of nitrogen D. Contains two molecules nitrogen 9 E. None of these 4220004 A 15 26233 32 028807030212 0028 How many molecules are there in 32.0 g of methane (CH )? 4 4 5 24 A. 1.20 X 10 molecules 5 23 B. 1.20 x 10 molecules 5 23 C. 3.01 x 10 molecules 5 25 D. 1.92 x 10 molecules 5 24 9 E. 1.92 x 10 molecules 4220005 A 14 26238 31 07270733 0026 5 23 The number, 6.02 x 10 , is A. One mole B. One gram 9 C. One whale D. The gram molecular weight of water. 4220006 B 15 26240 32 070302930553 0020 Avogadro's number is A. A relative mass number B. The number of molecules in a mole C. The number of moles in one molecular mass 5 -23 D. 6.02 x 10 9 E. None of these 4220007 B 15 26243 31 006513161296 0019 The atomic mass of O is 16 amu. Thirty-two grams of oxygen gas (O ) contains _______. 4 2 5 23 A. 6.02 x 10 atoms of oxygen 5 23 B. 6.02 x 10 molecules of oxygen 5 23 C. 1/2(6.02 x 10 ) molecules of oxygen 5 23 D. 1/2(6.02 x 10 ) atoms of oxygen 5 23 9 E. 2(6.02 x 10 ) molecules of oxygen 4220008 B 15 26249 32 070303400553 0040 Avogadro's number is A. The number of molecules in 1 g of hydrogen (H ) 4 2 B. The number of atoms in 4 g of helium (He) C. The number of atoms in 1 mole of water (H O) 4 2 D. The number of molecules in 9 g of water (H O) 4 2 9 E. Both C and D. 4220009 A 14 26255 32 07031702 0003 5 23 6.02 X 10 atoms of tin weigh 5 23 9 A. 118.6 g B. 6.02 x 10 g C. 22.4 g D. None of these 4220011 D 14 26257 32 07031702 0003 The atomic variety store is holding a sale on used atoms of element X. The special price is 6 million atoms for a penny. One gram-atom of X would cost: 5 11 A. A trillion dollars B. 10 dollars 5 17 9 C. 10 dollars D. 10 dollars 4220012 A 14 26261 31 0703 0003 One mole of CO contains: 4 2 5 23 23 A. 6.02 x 10 atoms of C B. 6.02 x 10 atoms of O 5 23 C. 18.1 x 10 molecules of CO D. 3 gram-atoms of CO 94 2 2 4240001 C 15 26265 52 03510009800113 ETS2 OS Which one of the following choices involves the greatest number of atoms concerned? A. 12 pounds of carbon B. 100 pounds of lead C. 100 pounds of iron D. 20 pounds of silicon 9 E. 20 pounds of neon 4240002 AD 25 26268 52 0196001480011390 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2The molecule of a certain compound is composed of carbon and 2hydrogen atoms. The weight of the molecule is 58 times the weight 2of the hydrogen atom. By an analysis it is shown that about 5/29 of 2the weight of the molecule is due to hydrogen, the remainder being 2due to carbon. (Atomic weights H = 1, C = 12). 0 using this information, answer the following questions. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 How many hydrogen atoms are in the molecule of the compound? A. 10 B. 8 C. 6 D. 5 1 E. 4 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 How many carbon atoms are in the molecule of the compound? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 9 E. 5 4240003 C 15 26276 52 0703 2WVW A sample of 0.30 g of ethane (C H ) contains ____ molecules of C H . 4 2 6 2 6 5 -25 21 22 23 9 A. 1.67 x 10 B. 0.01 C. 6 x 10 D. 1.4 x 10 E. 6 x 10 4240004 C 15 26281 52 07038003 2WVW 63.5 g iodine contains how many molecules of I ? 4 2 5 22 23 24 A. 1.9 x 10 C. 1.5 x 10 E. 3.9 x 10 5 22 23 9 B. 7.6 x 10 D. 6.0 x 10 4240005 B 14 26285 31 019600258004 2 OS To find the relative number of hydrogen and oxygen atoms in water, you A. Divide the weight percentages of the elements by the relative weight B. Divide the weight percentage of the elements by their respective atomic weights C. Multiply the weight percentages of the elements by the relative weights D. Multiply the weight percentages of the elements by their 9 respective atomic weights 4240006 B 15 26291 52 109703510065 0044 How many atoms are there in a pure sample of 56.1 grams of cobalt? (AW of cobalt is 58.9 g/g-atom). 5 23 (6.02 x 10 )(56.1) 58.9 A. 56.1 B. -------------------- C. ---- 58.9 56.1 5 23 (6.02 x 10 )(58.9) D. -------------------- E. None of the above. 56.1 9 4240007 D 14 45043 32 08840293053751 9000 A 10 liter container is filled with nitrogen gas and another 10 liter container is filled with oxygen gas, both at STP. If z is the number of oxygen molecules in one container, then 5 23 A. z = 6.02 x 10 B. The number of nitrogen molecules is 1/14 z C. The number of nitrogen molecules is 14 z D. The number of nitrogen molecules is equal to z 5 2 9 E. the number of nitrogen molecules is equal to z 4240008 E 15 26302 32 02930025 0018 The number of molecules in 16 g of O is 4 2 5 23 23 A. 6.02 x 10 B. Sixteen C. 12.04 x 10 D. One 9 E. None of these 4240009 B 15 26305 32 063103510553 0020 5 23 Given the fact that there are 6.02 x 10 atoms in 12.0000 g of carbon, how many atoms are contained in one mole of silver? 5 23 23 A. 107.9 B. 6.02 X 10 C. 6.02 x 10 /12.0 D. 107.9/12.0 9 E. None of these 4240010 D 15 26309 32 130103510014 0020 The number of atoms in 6.00 g of carbon is 5 23 -23 23 23 A. 6.02 x 10 B. 6.02 x 10 C. 12.0 x 10 D. 3.01 x 10 9 E. None of these 4240011 C 15 26312 32 130102931319 0020 The number of molecules represented by the expression 3NH NO is 4 4 3 9 A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 4240012 E 15 26315 32 055300660795 0020 One mole of the compound C H O contains 4 4 8 5 23 A. 6 x 10 atoms B. 29 g C. 13 atoms 5 -23 D. 1/(6 x 10 ) molecules 9 E. 72 g 4240013 D 14 26318 32 055300371296 0009 One mole of the compound Na SO contains: 4 2 3 5 + A. One mole of Na ions B. One atom of S 5 23 9 C. One gram of compound D. 3 x 6.02 x 10 atoms of O 4240014 D 15 26322 32 055307031201 0040 One mole of H O contains a total of 4 2 5 23 23 A. 18 x 10 molecules B. 6 x 10 atoms 5 69 23 C. 18 x 10 atoms D. 18 x 10 atoms 9 E. Both A and D. 4240015 D 15 26326 31 070305530293 0040 Which of the following would contain the greatest number of molecules? A. 1 Mole O B. 1 mole NH C. 1 mole SO 4 2 3 2 D. All of these contain the same number of molecules 9 E. Both B and C. 4240016 D 15 26330 32 055303511201 0040 One mole of water may also be equated to 5 23 23 A. 6 x 10 hydrogen atoms B. 12 x 10 oxygen atoms 5 23 23 C. 6 x 10 O molecules D. 6 x 10 oxygen atoms 4 2 9 E. Both A and D. 4240017 C 15 26334 32 072707030351 0040 10 g of H SO contains how many hydrogen atoms? (Molecular 4 2 4 weight of H SO = 98 amu) 4 2 4 5 23 1 mole H SO 1 mole H 6.02 x 10 atoms H 4 2 4 A. 10 g H SO x------------x------------x------------------- 2 4 98 g H SO 2 moles H SO 1 mole H 4 2 4 2 4 98 moles H SO 1 mole H 1 mole 4 2 4 B. 10 g H SO x--------------x------------x------------------- 4 2 4 23 1 mole H SO 1 mole H SO 6.02 x 10 atoms H 4 2 4 2 4 5 23 1 mole H SO 2 moles H 6.02 x 10 atoms H 4 2 4 C. 10 g H SO x-------------x------------x-------------------- 2 4 98 g H SO 1 mole H SO 1 mole H 4 2 4 2 4 1 mole H SO 2 moles H 1 atom H 4 2 4 D. 10 g H SO x-------------x------------x-------------------- 4 2 4 23 98 g H SO 1 mole H SO 6.02 x 10 moles H 4 2 4 2 4 9 E. No correct response is given. 4240018 E 15 26353 32 072707030351 0040 How many copper atoms (Cu) are there in 50 g of copper? 5 23 1 Mole Cu 6.02 x 10 atoms Cu A. 50 g Cu x ---------- x -------------------- 29 g Cu 1 mole Cu 63.5 g Cu 1 mole Cu B. 50 g Cu x ---------- x ---------------- 5 23 1 mole Cu 6.02 x 10 g Cu 5 23 63.5 g Cu 6.02 x 10 atoms Cu C. 50 g Cu x ---------- x --------------------- 1 mole Cu 1 mole Cu 5 23 1 atom Cu 6.02 x 10 moles Cu D. 50 g Cu x ---------- x --------------------- 63.5 g Cu 1 atom Cu 9 E. No correct response is given. 4240019 B 15 26364 32 109701130293 0035 What sample of gas contains the same number of molecules as are contained in 44 grams of CO gas? (C = 12, O = 16, S = 32) 4 2 A. 1 g. of H B. 34 g. of H S C. 44 g. of SO 4 2 2 3 D. 16 g. of O E. 44 g. of SO 4 2 2 9 note: All the above are gases. 4240020 B 14 26369 32 07031702 0003 Iron has a density of 7.86 g per cc and an atomic weight of 55.85. What is the volume occupied by 1 gram-atom of iron? 5 24 9 A. 0.141 cc B. 7.11 cc C. 4.28 x 10 cc D. 22.8 cc 4240021 A 15 26372 32 109701130293 0047 Which sample of gas contains the same number of molecules as 22 g of CO 4 2 A. 1 g of hydrogen gas B. 32 g of oxygen gas C. 44 g of sulfur dioxide gas D. 44 g of nitrogen gas 9 E. 28 g of carbon monoxide. 4240022 B 14 26375 32 0703 05 Fifteen grams of nitric oxide (NO) contain how many molecules? (atomic weights N = 14, O = 16 Avogadro's number 5 23 = 6.02 x 10 ) 5 23 23 A. 6.0 x 10 C. 1.5 x 10 5 23 23 9 B. 5.3 x 10 D. 1.06 x 10 4240023 A 14 26379 32 0703 05 A 27 gram sample of oxygen difluoride, OF , contains how 4 2 many molecules? (atomic weights O = 16, F = 19 Avogadro's 5 23 number = 6.0 x 10 ) 5 23 23 A. 3.0 x 10 C. 6.0 x 10 divided by 4 5 23 23 9 B. 6.0 x 10 D. 2 times 6.0 x 10 4240024 B 14 26385 32 0703 0540 5 23 A sample of carbon dioxide, CO , which contains 12 x 10 4 2 molecules of CO would have a mass of how many grams 4 2 9 A. 44 B. 88 C. 32 D. 28 4240025 A 14 26389 32 0703 0540 5 23 A sample of methane, CH , which contains 12 x 10 molecules 4 4 of CH would have a mass of how many grams. (Atomic weights 4 4 5 23 C = 12 , H = 1 , Avogadro's number = 6.0 x 10 ) 9 A. 32 B. 16 C. 13 D. 22.4 4240026 C 14 26394 32 0703 0540 5 23 A sample of sulfur dioxide , SO , which contains 3.0 x 10 4 2 molecules of SO would have a mass of how many grams. 4 2 5 23 (Atomic weights O = 16, S = 32 Avogadro's number = 6.0 x 10 ) 9 A. 64 B. 48 C. 32 D. 22.4 4240027 D 14 26400 32 0703 0540 5 23 A sample of hydrogen fluoride, HF, which contains 1.5 x 10 molecules of HF would have a mass of how many grams? (atomic 5 23 weights H = 1.0 , F = 19 , Avogadro's number = 6.0 x 10 ) 9 A. 20 B. 19 C. 22.4 D. 5.0 4240028 B 14 26405 32 0703 0540 5 23 A sample of hydrogen bromide, HBr, which contains 6.0 x 10 molecules of HBr would have a mass of how many grams? (atomic weights H = 1.0, Br = 80 Avogadro's number = 6.0 x 5 23 10 ) 9 A. 22.4 B. 81 C. 47 D. 96 4240029 A 14 26409 52 19450553 0056 5 23 Calculate the total number of atoms in one mole (6.0 x 10 mole- cules) of methane, CH . 4 4 5 24 24 23 23 9 A. 3.0 x 10 B. 2.4 x 10 C. 6.0 x 10 D. 1.2 x 10 4240030 B 15 45176 71 5 21 One gram of alum, KAl(SO ) . 12H O, has 1.3 x 10 Al atoms. 4 4 2 2 How many oxygen atoms are present in 1.0 g of alum? 5 21 22 22 A. 1.3 x 10 C. 1.6 x 10 E. 2.1 x 10 5 22 22 9 B. 2.6 x 10 D. 1.0 x 10 4240031 D 15 45246 71 5 23 Which of the following contains 9.06 x 10 atoms? A. 16.0 g O C. 28.0 g N E. 8.0 g CH 4 2 2 4 B. 4.00 g He D. 22.0 g CO 94 2 4240032 A 15 45250 51 Which one of the following samples contains the largest number of atoms? A. 1.0 mol propane gas, C H D. 10 mol neon gas, Ne 4 3 8 B. 5.0 mol iodine vapor, I E. 3.0 mol heavy water, D O 4 2 2 C. 2.5 mol ammonia gas, NH 94 3 4260001 D 15 26413 52 071101 0064 Which of the following elements has the greatest atomic weight? 9 A. manganese B. potassium C. phosphorus D. tin E. bromine 4260002 D 14 26415 31 006580028004 2 OS Atomic weights are best described as A. Actual weights B. Relative weights C. Average weights 9 D. Relative average weights 4260003 B 14 26417 32 035104638004 2 OS The actual weights of atoms are not used in chemical calculations because A. They are not known B. They consist of incovenient small numbers C. They are relative 9 D. They are based on the arbitarary AMU scale 4260004 D 14 26420 32 111003851316 0041 The atomic mass of oxygen is 16.00. the unit in which this quantity is expressed is the 9 A. Gram B. Gram atom C. Mole D. Atomic mass unit (AMU) 4260005 B 14 26423 52 03520065 0026 If the relative atomic weight of oxygen was set at 4, what would the relative weight of argon (symbol Ar) be on this new scale? 9 A. 5 B. 10 C. 40 D. 160 4260006 A 14 26426 31 03520065 0026 In what area did differing atomic weight scales cause the most confusion? A. Determination of correct formula B. Establishment of the law of conservation of matter C. Arriving at the number of molecules in a mole 9 D. Establishment of the gas laws. 4260007 A 15 26430 31 131200650025 0020 In Berzelius's atomic mass table, the element oxygen was assigned a value of 9 A. 100 B. 16 C. 10 D. 12 E. None of these 4260008 B 15 26432 31 131313141315 0020 The atomic mass scale A. Gives the weights of atoms B. Is a relative scale C. Was discovered by Aston D. Gives the masses of atoms 9 E. All of these 4260009 A 15 26435 31 018903980306 0020 The element and its assigned mass used as the standard for the atomic mass scale is A. Carbon, mass 12 B. Oxygen, mass 16 C. Hydrogen, mass 1 D. Carbon, mass 16 9 E. Oxygen, mass 12 4260010 D 15 26438 31 043613140578 0020 The instrument used to determine relative masses of atoms is the A. Balance B. Weighing machine C. Cyclotron D. Mass spectrograph 9 E. None of these 4260011 D 15 26441 31 03510189 0020 Atoms of the same element must A. have the same mass B. have the same weight C. be identical D. None of these 9 E. All of these 4260012 B 15 26443 31 035101890398 0020 Atoms of different elements A. Must have different masses B. Can have the same mass C. Must have different weights D. Can have the same symbol 9 E. None of these 4260013 A 15 26446 32 039801891301 0020 What mass of the element silver is needed to provide the same number of atoms as there are in 20 g of nitrogen? The atomic masses are: Ag = 107.9 AMU; N = 14.0 AMU. 9 A. 154 g B. 20 g C. 107.9 g D. 77.0 g E. None of these 4260014 E 15 26450 32 03981316 0020 The mass of one AMU is approximately 5 -23 23 A. 12.0 g B. 10 g C. 6 x 10 g D. Equal to one mole 9 E. None of these 4260015 B 15 26453 32 03980351 0020 The actual mass of a single carbon atom is 4 -23 23 -23 A. 1 amu B. 2 x 10 g C. 6.02 x 10 g D. 6.02 x 10 g 9 E. None of these 4260016 C 15 26456 31 006500141452 0040 The current basis for atomic weights involves an arbitrarily assigned value of A. 12 as the atomic weight of naturally occurring carbon 5 16 B. 16 as the atomic weight of O 4 9 5 12 C. 12 as the atomic weight of C 4 6 5 12 D. 12.01115 as the atomic weight of C 4 6 9 E. 12 as the atomic weight of carbon found in diamond. 4260017 D 15 26464 31 006500251201 0040 If the present system of atomic weights were changed in such a way as to result in a value of 12 for oxygen, what would be the atomic weight of sulfur (S)? 16 16 12 12 A. -- (32) B. -- (12) C. -- (16) D. -- (32) 12 32 32 16 9 E. Both B and C. 4260018 EABEED 65 26469 72 0094006600251390 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2Sulfur forms four compounds with oxygen. The composition of each, 2expressed in gram of oxygen per gram of sulfur, and their specific 2gravities in the vapor state, relative to oxygen, are shown in the 2table. 2 Composition specific gravity 2compound I 0.75 3.5 2compound II 1.00 2.0 2compound III 1.50 2.5 2compound IV 1.75 5.5 0 Using this information, answer the following questions. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 Suppose compound III has been assumed to consist of one atom of each element. Then compound II would be formulated as A. S O B. SO C. SO D. S O 4 2 3 2 3 3 2 1 E. No formula could be derived under this assumption alone. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 If compound III consists of one atom of each element, the atomic weight of sulfur (relative to oxygen taken as 16) is nearest A. 11 B. 16 C. 32 D. 48 2 E. 64 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 What is the chief defect of this method for determining atomic weight? A. The experimental errors are excessive. B. Several atomic weights can be derived for the same element, depending on the molecular constitution chosen. C. No reliable method is available for determining the weight ratios of different elements in the compound. D. There is no reliable standard for the atomic weight scale. 3 E. Only relative atomic weights are possible. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 The present-day values for the atomic weights of sulfur and oxygen are 32 and 16 respectively. What is, therefore, the simplest formula for compound IV? A. SO B. SO C. SO D. S O E. S O 44 2 3 2 3 2 7 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 In order to calculate the molecular weight of compound IV on the scale in which the molecular weight of oxygen is 32, what information is required other than that given in the table? A. The specific gravity of oxygen B. The molecular weight of hydrogen C. The percent composition of compound IV D. The atomic weight of oxygen 5 E. No other information is required MACRO SUB-ITEM # 6 The calculation of molecular weight referred to above is based on the assumption that A. All molecules of the same substance are alike B. One molecular weight in grams occupies one liter C. Equal weights of all gases contain the same number of molecules D. The molecular weights of gases are proportional to their specific gravities E. Equal volumes of solids, liquids, and gases contain the same 9 number of molecules at the same temperature and pressure 4280001 E 15 26503 32 02180025800113 ETS2 OS 1. A molecule of nitrogen gas is heavier than a molecule of water vapor. 2. A molecule of water vapor is heavier than a molecule of oxygen gas. 3. A molecule of oxygen gas is heavier than a molecule of neon gas. 4. A molecule of neon weighs the same as a molecule of oxygen. Which of the following choices lists only the correct statements of those given? A. A B. B C. C D. D 9 E. A and C 4280002 E 15 26509 32 02180025800113 ETS2 OS A. A molecule of nitrogen gas is heavier than a molecule of water vapor. B. A molecule of water vapor is heavier than a molecule of oxygen gas. C. A molecule of oxygen gas is heavier than a molecule of neon gas. D. A molecule of neon weighs the same as a molecule of oxygen. Which of the following choices lists only the correct statements of those given? A. A B. B C. C D. D 9 E. A and C 4280003 C 14 26515 31 006503518004 2 OS Which term describes the sum of the atomic weights of all atoms present in the formula of any compound? A. Empirical formula B. Molecular weight C. Formula weight 9 D. Equation weight 4280004 A 14 26518 51 039805530189 0041 The mass of a mole of any element A. Is always equal to the mass of a gram atom of the element A. Avogadro's number B. Mole B. Is always greater than the mass of a gram atom of the element C. May be greater than the mass of a gram atom of the element, depending upon its physical state D. May be less than the mass of a gram atom of the element, 9 depending upon its physical state 4280005 D 14 26524 32 11100189 0041 The sum of the atomic masses of the elements in a compound, each multiplied by the number of times it appears in the formula of that compound, is called that compound's A. Empirical formula B. Molecular formula 9 C. Molecular mass D. Formula mass 4280006 B 15 26528 52 014915730128 0044 Which one of the following measurements or techniques can be used to find the atomic weight, or molecular weight of a substance? A. Heat of combustion B. Boiling point elevation C. Boiling point of pure liquid D. Electrical conductivity 9 E. Density of liquid of liquid state 4280007 C 15 26532 32 0128 0044 What is the molecular weight of the boron hydride B H ? 4 8 12 9 A. 138 B. 86.4 C. 98.6 D. 11.8 E. 20.0 4280008 E 15 26535 52 012815730149 0044 Which one of the following measurements or techniques can be used to find the atomic weight, or molecular weight, of a substance? A. Ionization potential B. Thermal conductivity. C. Electrical conductivity D. Heat of combustion 9 E. Specific heat. 4280009 B 15 26539 32 0128 0018 The molecular weight of H SO is 4 2 4 9 A. 50 B. 98 C. 100 D. 96 E. 49 4280010 C 15 26541 32 029303981316 0020 The molecular weight of Ca (PO ) is 4 3 4 2 9 A. 87 B. 191 C. 310 D. 135 E. 215 4280011 C 14 26543 32 0534 0009 The formula weight of lead iodide, PbI , is: 4 2 A. 82 + 2(53) B. 2(82 + 53) 9 C. 207 + 2(127) D. 207 + 127 4280012 A 15 26546 32 012805531201 0040 Which of the following would weigh the most? A. 1 Mole N B. 1/2 mole NH C. 2 moles H D. 3 moles He 94 2 3 2 4282001 B 15 26549 32 02930009800113 ETS2 OS Choose the correct answer(s) from the statements below: I. One molecule of pure siderite, FeCO is heavier than one molecule 4 3 of pure hematite, Fe O . 4 2 3 II. 50 kg siderite contains more molecules than does 50 kg hematite. III. One molecule of siderite contains a greater percentage iron than does one molecule of hematite. 9 A. I B. II C. III D. I and II E. I and III 4282003 C 15 26556 52 00650218800113 ETS2 OS The atomic weight of nitrogen is 14 and that of oxygen is 16. Which of the following are not true of the compound N O ? 3 ___ 4 2 5 A. There are 108 grams in one mole. B. There are 2 moles in 216 grams. C. There are 10 gram atoms of oxygen in 108 grams. D. Fifty-four grams contain one gram atom of nitrogen. 5 24 9 E. There are about 4.2 x 10 atoms of all kinds in 108 grams. 4282004 D 15 26563 31 00140065800112 ETS2 OS The atomic weight of carbon is 12 and that of oxygen is 16. The weight, at standard conditions, of 1 liter of carbon dioxide is A. 2.4 grams B. 22400 grams C. 44 grams D. 1.96 grams 9 E. None of these 4282006 E 15 26566 52 109705991184 0042 A sample of an unknown acid is titrated, and the equivalent weight is found to be 74.0. which of the following numbers is most likely to represent the molecular weight of the acid? 9 A. 37.0 B. 111 C. 130 D. 120 E. None of the above. 4282007 B 15 26570 32 018601130128 0042 The density of a gas at 27.0 degrees C and a pressure of 900 mm of Hg is 1.500 g/l. The molecular weight of this gas is: 9 A. 25.8 B. 31.2 C. 33.6 D. 36.2 E. 53.3 4282008 B 15 26573 32 022401280288 0028 Calculate the molecular mass of C H O . 4 6 12 6 9 A. 29.0 amu B. 180 amu C. 100 amu D. 156 amu E. 28.0 amu 4282009 A 15 26575 32 109702930128 0019 5 22 A sample containing 3.01 x 10 molecules has a mass of 0.9 g. The molecular mass of the substance is _______ amu. 9 A. 18 B. 9 C. 36 D. 90 E. 45 4284001 E 15 26578 32 180305651183 0042 The gram formula weight for H SO is 98. what is the equivalent 4 2 4 weight of sulfuric acid in (1) a acid base titration with NaOH; (2) a redox reaction wherein SO is formed; (3) a redox 4 3 reaction wherein S is formed? Reaction 1 reaction 2 reaction 3 A. 98/2 98 98 B. 98 98/4 98/6 C. 98 98 98/8 D. 98/2 98/2 98/4 9 E. 98/2 98/2 98/8 4284002 A 15 26587 32 001511670433 0042 A certain piece of metal weighs 0.373 g and reacts with acid to form 250.0 ml of hydrogen, collected over water at 25 degrees C. The corrected barometer reading is 743 torr, and the vapor pressure of water at 25 degrees C is 23.8 torr. What is the equivalent weight of the metal? A. 19.3 B. 1.93 C. 36.7 D. 28.8 9 E. None of these answers is acceptable. 4284003 C 15 26592 52 109701890565 0042 A sample of an element Z, weighing 4.25 g, combines with oxygen to form 5.40 g of an oxide. What is the equivalent weight of Z? A. Between 0.6 and 2 B. Between 3 and 19 C. Between 20 and 30 9 D. Above 31 E. No answer is possible with only these data given. 4284004 C 15 26596 32 001501960884 0042 If 1.46 grams of a metal liberates 0.112 liters of hydrogen measured at s.t.p. Its equivalent weight is: 9 A. 2.92 B. 146.0 C. 292.0 D. 112.0 E. Some other value. 4284005 A 15 26599 31 006500150565 0042 What would the atomic weight of a certain metal be if the equivalent weight of the metal were 43.8 and the oxidation state of the metal ion were +2? 9 A. 87.6 B. 45.8 C. 43.8 D. 41.8 E. 21.9 4284006 B 15 26602 52 152901961167 0042 The equivalent weight of a metal is 20. How many grams of hydrogen gas will 5.00 grams of the metal liberate when it reacts completely with dilute hydrochloric acid? 9 A. 0.125 g B. 0.25 g C. 0.50 g D. 5.00 g E. 5.60 g 4284007 A 15 26606 52 056504070045 0042 The equivalent weight of FeSO , used in a reaction where it is 4 4 oxidized to Fe (SO ) , is: 4 2 4 3 A. The same as the formula weight B. One half the formula weight C. Twice the formula weight D. One third the formula weight 9 E. None of these 4284008 C 14 26611 32 0565 0003 The equivalent weight of KMnO in a reaction in which this 4 4 compound is reduced to MnO is: 9 A. 12.6 g B. 79.0 g C. 31.6 g D. 39.5 g 4284009 C 14 26614 32 1447 0003 In the reduction of O by MnO , the number of equivalents of MnO 4 2 2 2 which will reduce 0.179 equiv of O is: 4 2 9 A. 86.9 B. 43.4 C. 0.179 D. 0.258 4284010 C 14 26618 52 1945 0056 The following reaction takes place: 2KHSO + Mg --> MgSO + K SO + H 4 4 4 2 4 2 5 3 when 0.2432 g of Mg reacts as above, 224 cm of hydrogen gas (dry, stp) are produced. For the above reaction calculate the gram-equivalent weight of KHSO (formula weight = 136). 4 4 9 A. 24 g B. 68 g C. 136 g D. 272 g 4284011 C 14 26624 52 1946 0057 Calculate the equivalent weight of platinum in a compound of this metal if 0.4978 gram of the metal is electrodeposited by 965 coulombs of electricity. 9 A. 24.39 B. 32.51 C. 49.78 D. 97.55 4284012 A 14 26627 52 1949 0060 For the change SO --> S , the gram equivalent weight of SO is: 4 2 2 9 A. 16 B. 32 C. 48 D. 64 4284013 B 14 26630 52 1949 0060 The number of Cr gram equivalents in 1 mole of K Cr O when un- 4 2 2 7 dergoing reduction to Cr(III) is equal to: 9 A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 6 4284014 C 14 26633 72 19541590 0061 For the change KMnO ---> MnO , the gram equivalent weight 4 4 2 of KMnO is: 4 4 9 A. 158 g B. 158/2 g C. 158/3 g D. 158/4 g 4284015 B 14 26636 72 1955 0062 For the reaction SO + NaOH ---> NaHSO , the gram equivalent 4 3 4 weight of SO (molecular weight 80) is: 4 3 9 A. 40 grams B. 80 grams C. 160 grams D. None of these 4284016 D 14 26639 52 1955 0062 In the reaction between H PO (formula weight 98) and Mg(OH) 4 3 4 2 (formula weight 58): 2 H PO + 3 Mg(OH) ---> Mg (PO ) + 6 H O 4 3 4 2 3 4 2 2 the equivalent weights of H PO and Mg(OH) are respectively: 4 3 4 2 9 A. 98, 58 B. 98 x 2, 58 x 3 C. 98/2, 58/3 D. 98/3, 58/2 4284017 C 14 26645 31 056501898004 2 OS The equivalent weight of an element is found by A. Multiplying the atomic weight by the valence B. Dividing the valence by the atomic weight C. Dividing the atomic weight by the valence 9 D. Adding the valence to the atomic weight 4284018 C 14 26649 31 044501898004 2 OS The weight of an element which combines or replaces one gram of hydrogen is known as its A. Molecular weight B. Empirical weight C. Equivalent weight 9 D. Formula weight 4300001 A 15 26652 52 02150209800113 ETS2 OS The reaction of sodium hydroxide and hydrochloric acid is given by the equation NaOH + HCl ---> NaCl + H O. How many grams of 4 2 NaOH are needed to produce 100 grams of NaCl? (Atomic weights, 9 A. 68.4 B. 52.3 C. 30.6 D. 23.4 E. 100 4300002 A 15 26657 52 044507040288 0028 If 0.600 mole of A is treated with 1.40 moles of B, how many moles of C could be produced? 3A + 8B -----> 3C + 3D + 2E + 4F (balanced) A. 0.525 mole B. 0.600 mole C. 3.73 moles 9 D. 1.40 moles E. 2.00 moles 4300003 BDD 35 45275 71 MACROITEM STEM 5 o Styrene has an empirical formula of CH. When it is heated to 200 C it is converted into a polymer, polystyrene, which has excellent 0 insulating properties. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 An experimental determination of the molar mass of styrene by a student has given the value of 104+0.4 g/mol. What is the 3 _ molecular formula of styrene? A. C H B. C H C. C H D. C H E. C H 14 8 7 8 8 9 9 7 14 7 7 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 Which of the following compounds has the same percentage of carbon and hydrogen mass as styrene? A. C H , indole C. C H O , vanillic acid E. C H , ethylene 4 8 7 8 8 4 2 4 B. C H , heptene D. C H , acetylene 24 7 14 2 2 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 5 20 What mass of styrene contains 4.0 x 10 molecules? 9 A. 0.00062 g B. 0.0062 g C. 0.062 g D. 0.069 g E. 0.078 g 4320001 C 15 26660 32 00250002800113 ETS2 OS The percentage oxygen in sodium carbonate, Na CO , is 4 2 3 9 A. 35 B. 40 C. 45 D. 50 E. 55 4320003 B 14 26666 32 80010094019613 ETS2 OS Each element composing H SO makes up a certain percent of the 4 2 4 total weight of the compound. The percent below which does not represent the percentage of one of these elements in H SO is 4 2 4 (atomic weights S = 32, O = 16) A. 2 B. 43 C. 32 9 D. 65 4320004 D 15 26671 52 01760094800113 ETS2 OS In anhydrous copper sulfate, CuSO , the percent of sulfur is 4 4 approximately 9 A. 28 B. 71 C. 50 D. 20 E. 80 4320005 B 15 26674 32 01960212800113 ETS2 OS The percent of H in CH is 4 4 9 A. 20 B. 25 C. 75 D. 300 E. 133 4320006 C 15 26676 72 01960221800113 ETS2 OS The percent of hydrogen in NH OH is 4 4 9 A. 1/35 of 100% B. 4/35 of 100% C. 5/35 of 100% D. 30/35 of 100% 4320007 B 15 26679 32 01960221800113 ETS2 OS The percent of hydrogen in NH OH is 4 4 9 A. 11.5 B. 14.3 C. 85.7 D. 26.3 E. None of these 4320008 A 15 26681 72 02160197800113 ETS2 OS 200 grams of calcium carbonate (O=16, C=12, Ca=40) on heating will yield A. 112 grams of calcium oxide and 44.8 liters of CO (at STP) 4 2 B. 100 grams of calcium oxide and 44.8 liters of CO (at STP) 4 2 C. 112 grams of calcium oxide and 22.4 liters of CO (at STP) 4 2 D. 56 grams of calcium oxide and 44.8 liters of CO (at STP) 4 2 9 E. None of these numbers 4320009 D 15 26689 52 00160222800113 ETS2 OS The percentage of aluminum in bauxite (Al O H O), (Al=27, O=16, 4 2 3 2 H=1) is 9 A. 19.6 B. 27.0 C. 42.7 D. 45.0 E. 51.2 4320010 D 15 26692 52 02180220800113 ETS2 OS The percent of nitrogen in NH NO is 4 4 3 A. (28/122) x 100 B. (14/80) x 100 C. (14/66) x 100 D. (28/80) x 100 9 E. None of these 4320011 C 14 26695 52 000900108004 2WVW The percentage of iron in an ore which is 80 per cent hematite (atomic weights; iron - 56, oxygen - 16) is approximately A. 28 percent B. 35 percent C. 56 percent 9 D. 70 percent 4320012 D 14 26698 32 80048003 2WVW The percentage of oxygen in water by weight is about A. 11 percent B. 16 percent C. 33 percent 9 D. 89 percent 4320013 B 15 26700 32 006504638004 2 OS Using these atomic weights, H = 1.00, Cl = 35.5, complete the statement: One liter of hydrogen gas combined with one liter 5 o of chlorine gas, both at 20 C, 1 atm pressure, yields a gaseous product which, when returned to the original temperature and pressure, occupies a volume (in liters) of 9 A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 36.5 4320014 D 14 26705 31 044500088004 2 OS By weight, the fractional part of water which is hydrogen is A. 1/2 B. 1/3 C. 1/8 9 D. 1/9 4320015 B 15 26707 32 003713180025 0042 The compound which contains the greatest percentage of oxygen by weight is: A. H O B. H O C. KClO D. SO E. N O 94 2 2 2 3 3 2 5 4320016 C 15 26710 32 003717851318 0044 The following nitrogen compounds could possibly be added to the soil as fertilizers. Which compound has the greatest percent nitrogen by weight? A. Ammonium sulfite, (NH ) SO MW = 116 g/mole 4 4 2 3 B. Magnesium nitrate, Mg(NO ) MW = 148 g/mole 4 3 2 C. Iron(II) azide, Fe(N ) MW = 140 g/mole 4 3 2 D. Iron(II) nitride, Fe N MW = 195 g/mole 4 3 2 9 E. More information is required. 4320017 B 15 26717 52 003717851318 0044 The following nitrogen compounds could possibly be added to the soil as fertilizers. Which compound has greatest percent nitrogen by weight? A. Ammonium sulfate, (NH ) SO MW = 132 g/mole 4 4 2 4 B. Ammonium nitrate, NH NO MW = 80 g/mole 4 4 3 C. Sodium nitride, (Na) N MW = 83 g/mole 4 3 D. Iron(II) nitride, (Fe) (N) MW = 195 g/mole 4 3 2 9 E. More information is required. 4320018 C 15 26724 52 109701680236 0044 A sample containing a mixture of NaCl and CaCl , weighing 70.3 4 2 grams, was reacted with carbonate ion to precipitate all the calcium as CaCO . The CaCO precipitate was then converted to 4 3 3 CaO by heating. If the final weight of the CaO was 18.4 grams, what is the percentage (by weight) of CaCl in the original 4 2 sample? (The molecular weights of CaCl and CaO are 111 and 56.1 4 2 grams/mole, respectively.) 9 A. 26.2% B. 73.8% C. 51.9% D. 13.3% E. 48.1% 4320019 A 15 26733 32 019602930137 0018 The weight percent of hydrogen in a molecule of ammonia, NH , is 4 3 9 A. 17.8% B. 82.4% C. 75% D. 25% E. None of these 4320020 B 15 26736 52 020402880137 0028 The percentage of Ag in the compound AgClO is 4 4 A. 67.8% B. 52.0% C. 75.2% D. 68.4% E. None of the above within + 0.5% 93 _ 4320021 A 15 26739 52 013708510204 0028 Calculate the percent composition of calcium carbonate. A. 4.0% Ca; 12.0% C; 48.0% O 9 B. 40.0% Ca; 12.0% C; 16.0% O 4320022 E 15 26741 52 013701900288 0028 A student heated 5.75 g of an unknown hydrate and found it to have a mass of 5.00 g after heating. Calculate the percent of water in the hydrate. 9 A. 15.0% B. 15.50% C. 85.0% D. 8.50% E. 13.0% 4320023 D 15 26744 52 013701900288 0028 Calculate the formula of a hydrate of iron(II) sulfate containing 45.4% water. A. FeSO .4 H O B. FeSO .5 H O C. FeSO .6 H O 4 4 2 4 2 4 2 D. FeSO .7 H O E. FeSO .8 H O 94 4 2 4 2 4320024 B 15 26748 52 131803980027 0020 The percentage by mass of zinc in the compound Zn(OH) is 4 2 A. 65/82 x 100 B. 65/99 x 100 C. 99/65 x 100 D. 65/83 x 100 9 E. None of these 4320025 A 15 26751 32 131801960066 0020 What is the percent of hydrogen in the compound H SO ? 4 2 4 9 A. 2.06 B. 32.7 C. 4.12 D. 1.03 E. 20.6 4320026 A 15 26754 52 131801890066 0020 The percent of each element in the compound CH CH OH is 4 3 2 A. 52.2% C, 13.1% H, 34.8% O B. 34.8% C, 13.1% H, 52.2% O C. 53.3% C, 11.1% H, 35.6% O D. 53.2% C, 8.9% H, 37.9% O 9 E. None of these 4320027 B 15 26758 32 13180014 0020 The percent of carbon in Al (CO ) is 4 2 3 3 9 A. 23.1 B. 15.4 C. 61.5 D. 33.2 E. 36.0 4320028 B 14 26760 32 003703020309 0009 In analyzing a compound for carbon, the compound is burned in air and the masses of products determined. What assumption do we make? A. All the oxygen in the air is converted to water, H O 4 2 B. All the carbon is converted to carbon dioxide, CO 4 2 C. Equal numbers of moles of CO and H O are produced 4 2 2 D. All the oxygen in the H O produced comes from the compound 94 2 4320029 C 15 26768 32 01371318 0040 Calculate the weight percentage of carbon (C) in CO . 4 2 A. 33.0% B. 42.9% C. 27.3% D. 72.7% 9 E. No correct response is given. 4320030 C 15 26771 32 131802610025 0035 The per cent oxygen in carbon dioxide is 9 A. 37.5% B. 57.1% C. 72.7% D. 75.0% E. None of these. 4320031 C 15 26773 32 13180137 0042 The percent by weight of oxygen in Ca(NO ) is: 4 3 2 16.0 96.0 96.0 A. ----- x 100, B. ----- x 100, C. ----- x 100, 70.1 102.1 164.1 48.0 48.0 D. ----- x 100, E. ----- x 100 102.1 164.1 9 4320032 C 15 26778 52 13780204 0540 What is the percentage by weight of oxygen in sodium superoxide ( NaO )? ( Atomic weights Na = 23 , O = 16 ) 4 2 9 A. 33 B. 29 C. 58 D. 15 E. 66 4320033 B 15 26781 52 13780204 0540 What is the percentage by weight of chlorine in copper(I) chloride? ( Atomic weights Cu = 63.5 , Cl = 35.5 ) 9 A. 50 B. 36 C. 64 D. 26 E. 74 4320034 A 15 26784 32 13780204 0540 What is the percentage by weight of calcium in calcium oxide, CaO? 9 A. 71 B. 55 C. 50 D. 29 E. 45 4320035 D 15 26787 52 13780204 0540 What is the percentage by weight of beryllium in beryllium fluoride? 9 A. 32 B. 33 C. 81 D. 19 E. 68 4320036 A 15 26790 52 13780204 0540 What is the percentage by weight of phosphorus in phosphorous(III) fluoride ( PF )? ( Atomic weights P=31, F=19) 4 3 9 A. 35 B. 62 C. 84 D. 31 E. 25 4320037 B 15 26793 52 13780204 0540 What is the percentage by weight of aluminum in aluminum(III) chloride ( Al Cl )? ( Atomic weights Al = 27 , 4 2 6 Cl = 35.5 ) 9 A. 43 B. 20 C. 10 D. 25 E. 79 4320038 C 15 26796 52 13780204 0540 What is the percentage by weight of oxygen in aluminum(III) oxide ( Al O )? ( Atomic weights Al = 27 , O = 16 ) 2 3 9 A. 60 B. 37 C. 47 D. 65 E. 28 4320039 D 15 26799 52 13780204 0540 What is the percentage by weight of sulfur in potassium sulfide ( K S )? ( Atomic weights K = 39 , S = 32 ) 4 2 9 A. 73 B. 62 C. 45 D. 29 E. 33 4320040 E 15 26802 52 13780204 0540 What is the percentage by weight of oxygen (O) in nitrogen(IV) oxide ( N O )? ( Atomic weights N = 14 , O = 16 ) 4 2 4 9 A. 53 B. 17 C. 66 D. 36 E. 70 4320041 D 15 26805 32 13780204 2240 What is the percentage by weight of fluorine in phosphorous(III) fluoride (PF )? 4 3 9 A. 35 B. 29 C. 62 D. 65 E. 84 4320042 E 15 26808 52 13780204 2240 What is the percentage by weight of chlorine in aluminum(III) chloride ( Al Cl )? ( Atomic weights Al = 27 , 4 2 6 Cl = 35.5 ) A. 43 C. 20 E. 80 9 B. 36 D. 53 4320043 A 15 26811 72 13780204 05 Which of the following iron ores contains the greatest percentage of iron? A. Wuestite, FeO B. Hematite, Fe O 4 2 3 C. Magnetite, Fe O 4 3 4 D. Gruenerite, FeSiO 4 3 E. Fayalite, Fe SiO 94 2 4 4320044 D 14 26815 52 1945 0056 The percent by weight of C in CH O is 4 2 A. 12 B. 25 C. 33 9 D. 40 4320045 D 14 26817 52 1945 0056 The percent by weight of X in an alloy was determined by taking 1.0000 g of alloy and precipitating X PO which weighed 0.2722 g. 4 3 4 The percent of X in the alloy is calculated as follows (X = 285; P = 31; 0 = 16): A. 285/380 x 0.2722 (100) B. 285/950 x 0.2722 (100) C. 855/380 x 0.2722 (100) 9 D. 855/950 x 0.2722 (100) 4320046 A 15 45264 71 A crystal of the mineral troegerite, (UO ) (AsO ) . 12H O 4 2 3 4 2 2 (FW=1304), contains what percent oxygen by mass? 9 A. 17.2 B. 20.9 C. 28.2 D. 31.9 E. 63.8 4340001 B 15 26822 72 02180072 13 ETS2 OS The weight of nitrogen in 11.2 liters of ammonia, measured at STP, if the atomic weight of nitrogen is 14, is A. 28 grams B. 7 grams C. 22.4 grams D. 14 grams 9 E. None of these numbers 4340002 C 15 26825 52 003701900128 0044 The compound Al O , molecular weight 102 grams per mole, forms a 4 2 3 hydrate. A 350 gram sample of the hydrate lost 121 grams of H O 4 2 on heating. How many waters of hydration are associated with this compound? 9 A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 8 E. 15. 4340003 D 14 26830 52 02950189022451 9000 From your knowledge of the periodic nature of the elements what formula would be expected for the compound indium sulfide? A. Ins B. Ins C. In S D. In S 94 2 2 2 3 4340004 C 14 26833 52 1945 0056 Metal X forms the chloride XCl . the sulfate of X where X exhi- 4 3 bits the same combining power as in the chloride would have the formula: A. X SO B. X(SO ) C. X (SO ) D. X (SO ) 94 2 4 4 2 2 4 3 3 4 2 4340005 A 15 26837 31 040707040224 0026 The reaction of sodium and fluorine (F ) would produce 4 2 A. NaF B. Na F C. NaF D. Na F E. NaF 94 3 2 2 2 3 4340006 D 14 26840 52 032407040288 0026 If one volume of gaseous phosphorus reacts with 10 volumes of chlorine gas to form 4 volumes of gaseous product, what is the minimum number of phosphorus atoms per molecule? 9 A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 10. 4340007 A 14 26843 52 022401370884 0026 A gaseous compound contains silicon and fluorine in the following percentage. 27% Si, 73% F. What is its formula? A. SiF B. SiF C. Si F D. None of these 94 4 2 2 6 4340008 C 15 26846 31 022400371167 0019 What would be the formula of the compound formed when gallium reacts with chlorine? A. GaCl B. GaCl C. GaCl D. Ga Cl E. Ga Cl 94 2 3 2 2 3 4340009 A 15 26849 52 033801890224 0019 5 2 4 If an element A of s p electronic configuration combines 5 2 with an element B of electronic configuration s the formula for the compound would be: A. AB B. AB C. A B D. A B E. A B 94 2 2 2 3 3 2 4340010 C 15 26854 52 The formula for lead(IV) oxide is A. PbO B. Pb O C. PbO D. Pb O E. Pb O 94 4 2 2 2 3 4340011 E 15 26856 32 022407260458 0040 The formula for aluminum sulfate is A. AlSO B. Al SO C. Al(SO ) D. Al (SO ) E. Al SO 94 4 2 4 4 2 3 4 2 3 4 4342001 D 15 26859 52 00370196800113 ETS2 OS A compound has 40% carbon, 6.6% hydrogen, and 53.3% oxygen. The simplest formula the compound could have is (H = 1, C = 12, O = 16) A. CHO B. C H O C. C HO D. CH O E. C H O 94 2 4 2 4 5 2 3 6 3 4342002 C 15 26863 52 00370196800113 ETS2 OS The percentage composition of a compound is C=52.18%, H=13.04%, the rest being oxygen. Its simplest formula is A. CH O B. C H O C. C H O D. CH O E. C H O 94 3 2 9 2 6 4 3 8 2 4342003 B 15 26867 32 01890337800113 ETS2 OS Given two elements X and Y such that the atomic number of X is 13 and Y is 8, what would be the resulting compound if both X and Y exert their usual valence? A. XY B. X Y 4 2 3 C. X Y 4 3 2 D. X Y 4 3 9 E. X and Y would not combine 4342004 B 15 26871 31 00720218800113 ETS2 OS Analysis of ammonia, a compound of nitrogen and hydrogen, shows that 28 grams of nitrogen are combined with every 6 grams of 3 ____ _____ hydrogen. Each nitrogen atom is, approximately, 14 times as heavy as a hydrogen atom. Therefore, the ratio of nitrogen to hydrogen atoms in ammonia is A. 14 to 3 B. 1 to 3 C. 3 to 1 D. 1 to 2 9 E. 2 to 1 4342005 D 15 26877 52 80010002002513 ETS2 OS The atomic weight of Na (sodium) is 23 and that of oxygen is 16. A compound of sodium and oxygen can be made which is 41.8% Na. Its formula could be which of the following? A. Na O 4 3 B. Na O 4 2 C. Na O 4 2 2 D. NaO 4 2 E. NaO 94 3 4342006 A 14 26881 52 039800258004 2WVW When the relative mass of oxygen is 8 and that of copper is 63.7, the ratio of oxygen to copper in the compound cupric oxide is A. 108 B. 901 C. 109 9 D. 801 4342007 D 14 26884 52 002702098004 2WVW On a reaction between zinc and hydrochloric acid, a student determined that 6.7 beads of zinc were used and that 15.1 beads of zinc chloride were produced. This most closely approaches which of the following ratios A. 1 to 3 B. 1 to 4 C. 1 to 2.75 9 D. 1 to 2 4342008 B 14 26888 31 040701968004 2WVW If a chemical reaction involving hydrogen and oxygen takes place to form water we would expect A. A 2 to 1 mass ratio to occur B. A hydrogen atom combining with one oxygen atom C. 2 hydrogen atoms combining with 16 oxygen atoms 9 D. An endothermic reaction to occur 4342009 E 15 26892 52 07058003 2WVW A compound was found to have the following elemental composition by weight 54.6% carbon, 9.10% hydrogen, 36.3% oxygen. What is its empirical formula? (At. Wt H=1.00, C=12.0, O=16.0) A. CH O 4 4 B. CH O 4 4 2 C. C HO 4 4 6 D. C HO 4 6 4 E. C H O 94 2 4 4342010 D 15 26897 52 07058003 2WVW A compound was found to contain 87.5% nitrogen and 12.5% hydrogen by weight. What is the empirical formula of the compound? (At. Wt H=1.0, N=14.0) A. NH 4 3 B. N H 4 2 5 C. NH 4 3 D. NH 4 2 E. HNO 94 3 4342011 E 15 26901 52 8003 2WVW A compound was found to have the following elemental composition by weight 54.6% C, 9.10% H, 36.3% O. What is its empirical formula? A. CH O 4 4 B. CH O 4 4 2 C. C HO 4 4 6 D. C HO 4 6 4 E. C H O 94 2 4 4342012 E 15 26905 32 003702040705 0042 A compound was found to have the following elemental composition by weight: 54.6% C, 9.10% H, 36.3% O . what is its empirical formula? A. CH O B. CH O C. C HO D. C HO E. C H O 94 4 4 2 4 6 6 4 2 4 4342013 C 15 26909 32 132610970705 0042 A binary compound of hydrogen and nitrogen contains 0.420 g of hydrogen in a sample having a total weight of 18.06 g. What is the empirical formula? A. NH B. HN C. NH D. HN E. HN . 94 4 3 3 2 4 4342014 A 15 26913 32 003709681296 0042 A compound is found to contain 22.8% sodium, 21.8% boron, and 55.4% oxygen. Its simplest formula is: A. Na B O B. NaBO C. NaB O D. Na B O E. Na BO 94 2 4 7 2 5 3 4 3 4 4342015 C 15 26916 52 10970062 0044 A 22.9 gram sample of an iron oxide was heated with a stream of hydrogen gas converting it completely to metallic iron. If the resultant iron weighed 17.8 grams, what is the empirical formula of the iron oxide? A. Fe O B. Fe O C. FeO D. Fe O E. Fe O 94 2 3 3 2 3 4 4 3 4342016 B 15 26921 52 027400370705 0044 An analysis of a compound gave 89.9% carbon and 10.1% hydrogen. What is the empirical formula of the compound? (Atomic weights: C=12.0, H=1.01). A. C H B. C H C. C H D. C H E. None of the above. 94 4 3 3 4 4 4 2 4 4342017 D 15 26925 52 022408090009 0044 When added to chlorine, 2.90 grams of iron formed 8.44 grams of a chloride of iron. Find the formula of the chloride. A. FeCl B. Fe Cl C. FeCl D. FeCl E. FeCl. 94 2 2 5 3 4342018 E 15 26928 52 10970062 0044 A 48.7 gram sample of iron oxide was heated with a stream of hydrogen gas converting it completely to metallic iron. If the resultant iron weighed 34 grams, what is the empirical formula of the iron oxide? A. Fe O B. FeO C. Fe O D. Fe O E. Fe O 94 3 2 4 3 3 4 2 3 4342019 C 14 44715 32 10970066096851 9000 A sample of a compound containing only nitrogen and oxygen is found to contain 0.123 g nitrogen and 0.211 grams oxygen. What is its simplest formula? A. NO B. NO C. N O D. N O E. NO 94 2 2 3 3 2 1.5 4342020 D 15 26936 52 00660968 0018 The simplest formula for a compound that contains 56.4% phosphorus, P, and 43.6% oxygen, O, is A. P O B. P O C. PO D. P O E. None of these 9 2 5 1 1.3 5 2 3 4342021 E 15 26939 52 028807050204 0028 A certain compound gave the following chemical analysis: 27.1% Na; 16.5% N and 56.5% O. The empirical formula for the compound is A. NaNO B. NaNO C. Na NO D. Na N O E. NaNO 94 2 2 2 2 2 7 3 4342022 B 15 26943 52 019807050288 0028 It has been discovered that the noble gas xenon reacts with elemental fluorine to form a compound. If 16.4 g of Xe react with 9.5 g of fluorine, what is the empirical formula for the compound? A. XeF B. XeF C. XeF D. XeF E. XeF 94 2 4 6 3 4342023 C 15 26947 52 070500661296 0020 The empirical formula for a compound that contains 82.3 percent nitrogen and 17.7 percent hydrogen is A. NH B. NH C. NH D. N H E. None of these 94 4 3 2 4 4342024 C 15 26950 52 021812840224 0020 56 g of nitrogen may combine with 8 grams of hydrogen to give a compound with the formula A. NH B. NH C. N H D. HN E. None of these 94 3 2 4 3 4342025 E 15 26953 52 070500661318 0020 The correct empirical formula for a compound that contains 27.9 percent iron, 24.1 percent sulfur, and 48.0 percent oxygen is A. FeSO B. Fe S O C. FeSO D. FeS O E. Fe (SO ) 94 4 2 3 4 6 2 8 2 4 3 4342026 D 15 26957 52 070500661318 0020 The correct empirical formula for a compound that contains 54.5 percent carbon, 9.1 percent hydrogen, and 36.4 percent oxygen is A. CH O B. C H O C. C H O D. C H O E. None of these 94 2 4 8 2 5 9 3 2 4 4342027 A 14 26961 31 070501920189 0009 An empirical or simplest formula of a substance always shows A. the element(s) present and the simplest ratio of whole numbers of atoms B. the actual numbers of atoms combined in a molecule of the substance C. the number of molecules in a sample of the substance 9 D. the gram molecular weight of the substance 4342028 D 14 26966 52 07050137 0040 A compound is found to contain 50% X (atomic weight = 10) and 50% Y (atomic weight = 20). what is the empirical formula of the compound? A. XY B. XY C. X Y D. X Y 4 2 2 5 2 9 E. No correct response is given. 4342029 A 15 26970 32 00660968 0035 A compound is found to consist of 34.8% sodium, 16.7% boron, and 48.5% oxygen. Its simplest formula is A. NaBO B. Na B O C. Na BO D. NaBO E. Na BO 94 2 2 4 7 3 4 3 3 3 4342030 B 14 26973 32 0705 0003 The simplest formula of a compound which contains 85.6% C and 14.4% H by weight is: A. CH B. CH C. C H D. CH 94 2 2 3 3 4342031 B 14 26976 32 0705 0003 The simplest formula of a compound which contains 69.9% Fe and 30.1% oxygen by weight is: A. FeO B. Fe O C. Fe O D. FeO 94 2 3 7 3 2 4342032 C 15 26979 52 The simplest formula of a compound which contains 21.9% Mg, 27.8% P, and 50.3% O by weight is: A. Mg P O B. MgP O C. Mg P O D. MgPO E. Mg (PO ) 94 2 3 5 2 4 2 2 7 4 3 3 2 4342033 C 15 26983 32 003702240286 0047 It was found that 0.367 g of cobalt gave 0.463 g of a compound when heated with phosphorus. The formula of the phosphide is A. CoP B. CoP C. Co P D. Co P E. None of the above. 94 2 2 3 2 4342034 C 14 26986 52 0705 0540 A compound contains 31% fluorine, 59% chlorine and the rest carbon by weight. What is its empirical formula? A. C ClF B. CClF C. CF Cl D. CFCl 94 2 2 2 2 4342035 C 14 26990 72 0705 0540 A compound consists of 65 percent scandium and 35 percent oxygen by weight. What is its empirical formula? ( Atomic weights Sc = 45 , O = 16 ) A. ScO B. ScO C. Sc O D. Sc O 94 2 2 3 3 4 4342036 A 14 26994 52 0705 0540 A compound consists of 28 percent nickel and 72 percent arsenic. What is its empirical formula? (Atomic weights Ni = 59 , As = 75 ) A. NiAs B. NiAs C. Ni As D. Ni As 94 2 3 2 2 4342037 B 15 26998 32 0705 0540 A compound consists of 30 percent nitrogen and 70 percent sulfur by weight. What is its empirical formula? A. S N B. SN C. S N D. SN E. S N 94 2 2 3 2 4 4 4342038 D 15 27002 52 0705 0540 A compound consists of 47 percent nitrogen and 53 percent oxygen by weight. What is its empirical formula? (Atomic weights N = 14, O = 16) A. N O B. NO C. N O D. NO E. N O 94 2 2 2 2 5 2 4342039 A 14 27006 52 1945 0056 A sample of a compound contains 0.100 g of hydrogen (A.W. 1.00) and 4.20 g of nitrogen (A.W. 14.0). The simplest formula of the compound is A. HN B. NH C. HN D. NH 94 3 3 2 2 4342040 E 15 27009 52 013700370274 78.00 g of a compound known to contain only S, H and O was found to contain 1.37 g H and 21.89 g S. Determine the empirical formula for this compound. A. H S B. HS C. SO D. H SO E. H SO 94 2 2 2 2 4 2 5 4342041 C 15 27013 52 What is the empirical formula for a compound which is 50.0% by mass sulfur atoms and 50.0% by mass oxygen atoms? A. S O B. SO C. SO D. SO E. SO 94 2 2 3 4 4342042 DB 25 27016 52 0037019602021390 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2The molecule of a certain compound is composed of carbon and 2hydrogen atoms. The weight of the molecule is 58 times the 2weight of the hydrogen atom. By an analysis it is shown that about 25/29 of the weight of the molecule is due to hydrogen, the 2remainder being due to carbon. 0 Using the information given, answer the following. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 How many carbon atoms are in the molecule of the compound? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 1 E. 5 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 How many hydrogen atoms are in the molecule of the compound? A. 10 B. 8 C. 6 D. 4 9 E. 5 4342043 D 15 45267 71 Tartaric acid, which occurs in many fruits, has a molecular mass of 150.1 and contains 63.96% oxygen by mass. How many oxygen atoms are in each tartaric acid molecule? 9 A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6 E. 8 4344001 C 15 27024 32 003701961254 0047 A compound contains 85.7% carbon by weight and the rest is hydrogen. It was found that 14.0 g of the compound, which was a gas, occupies 11.2 liters under standard conditions. The molecular formula of the compound is A. CH B. C H C. C H D. CH E. C H 94 2 2 2 4 2 4 8 4344002 D 15 27029 52 016101141254 0044 A chemist received an unknown pure liquid which analyzed 14.1% C, 83.5% Cl, and 2.38% H. At a temperature of 517 K and a pressure of .988 atmosphere the density of its vapor was 1.98 g/l. The molecular formula of the liquid is: A. CHCl B. C HCl C. C H Cl D. CH Cl E. C H Cl 94 2 2 4 2 2 2 2 3 5 4344003 D 15 27034 52 011307050884 0044 A gas which has the empirical formula SO has a density at stp of 4 2 8.58 g/liter. Its molecular formula is: A. S O B. S O C. S O D. S O E. SO 94 2 4 2 3 3 4 3 6 2 4344004 D 15 27038 52 011313410037 0044 An amount of 4.72 grams of a gaseous compound of carbon and hydrogen occupies 1.85 liters at 2.33 atmospheres and 16 deg C. The compound is: A. C H B. C H C. C H D. C H E. C H 94 4 10 2 6 4 6 2 2 3 6 4344005 B 15 27042 52 070502240288 0028 A compound contains 80.0% carbon + 20.0% hydrogen and has a molecular mass of 30.0 amu. What is the molecular formula of compound? A. CH B. C H C. CH D. C H E. C H 94 3 2 6 6 2 3 2 5 4344006 D 15 27045 32 006613181254 0020 An analysis of a pure compound of carbon and hydrogen showed that it contained 80 percent carbon and 20 percent hydrogen by mass. A separate experiment showed that the mass of one mole was 30 g. What is the molecular formula for the compound? A. CH B. C H C. CH D. C H E. None of these 94 3 2 4 4 2 6 4344007 C 15 27050 32 003707050128 0019 A compound with the empirical formula H BN has a molecular mass 4 2 of 81. What is the correct molecular formula? (Atomic masses H = 1 amu, N = 14 amu, B = 11 amu.) A. H BN B. H B N C. H B N D. H B N E. H B N 94 2 4 2 2 6 3 3 4 4 2 8 5 5 4344008 D 15 27055 32 003712960705 0019 A compound is found to contain 44 per cent boron (atomic weight 11 amu) and 56 per cent nitrogen (atomic weight 14 amu). the empirical formula for this compound is A. B N B. B N C. B N D. BN E. BN 94 4 4 4 2 2 2 4344009 D 15 27059 32 078108850224 0040 5 2 1 The valence electron configuration of element a is 3s 3p and 5 2 4 that of B is 3s 3p . What would be the probable formula for a compound of the two elements? A. A B B. A B C. AB D. A B 4 2 3 2 2 2 3 9 E. Both C and D. 4344010 A 15 27064 32 000514251254 0040 The formula for the ionic compound formed between the elements Ba and O would be A. BaO B. Ba O C. BaO D. Ba O 4 2 2 2 3 9 E. Both A and D 4344011 A 15 27067 32 088507811254 0040 The formula for the covalent compound formed between N and F would be A. NF B. NF C. N F D. N F E. N F 94 3 2 2 2 3 3 2 4344012 D 15 27070 31 022400051178 0040 5 3+ 2- The formula for the ionic compound containing Al and SO ions 4 4 would be A. Al (SO ) B. AlSO C. Al (SO ) D. Al (SO ) 4 3 4 4 2 4 2 2 4 3 E. Al (SO ) 94 2 3 4 4344013 D 15 27075 31 022400050185 0040 The formula of the ionic compound formed between a group IIa 5 3- element, M, and the phosphate ion, PO , would be 4 4 A. M PO B. M PO C. M (PO ) D. M (PO ) E. M (PO ) 94 3 4 2 4 2 4 3 3 4 2 3 3 4 4344014 B 15 27080 52 125407050853 0040 The molecular formula for a gas which has an empirical formula CH and a molecular weight of 78 is A. C H O B. C H C. C H D. C H 4 5 2 6 6 3 3 9 9 9 E. No correct response is given. 4344015 D 14 27083 32 011301920224 0009 A gaseous substance is known which can be decomposed to give only the elements phosphorus and hydrogen. When all three substances are at a convenient temperature and pressure, it is found that four volumes of the compound give one volume of phosphorus and six volumes of hydrogen. The simplest interpretation is that phosphorus gas is A. P B. P C. P D. P 94 2 3 4 4344016 C 15 27089 52 125401130968 0035 The molecular formula of a gas which has a simplest formula CH and a molecular weight of 78.1 is: A. CH B. C H C. C H D. C H E. None of these 94 3 3 6 6 9 9 4344017 D 14 27092 32 0705 0003 The simplest formula of a compound 10.0 g of which contains 7.50 g of C and 2.50 g of H is: A. C H B. C H C. CH D. CH E. C H 4 3 4 3 4 2 2 9 4344018 B 14 27095 52 1254 0003 The molecular formula of a compound which contains 96.1% As and 3.9% H by weight and which has a molecular weight of 77.9 amu is: A. As H B. AsH C. As H D. As H 94 3 3 2 6 3 9 4344019 D 14 27098 52 1254 0003 The molecular formula of a compound which contains 30.5% N and 69.5% O by weight and which has a molecular weight of 92.0 amu is: A. NO B. N O C. NO D. N O 94 2 2 2 2 4 4344020 B 14 27101 31 1254 0003 If two compounds have the same empirical formula but different molecular formulas, they must have different: A. Percentage compositions B. Molecular weights 9 C. Oxidation states D. Weights 4344021 C 14 27104 52 1254 05 A certain compound consists only of sulfur and chlorine. It contains 47.5% by weight of sulfur and has a molecular weight of 135. What is its molecular formula? A. SCl B. SCl C. S Cl D. S Cl E. S C 94 2 2 2 2 10 11 4344022 C 14 27109 32 1254 0003 The molecular formula of a gas which has a simplest formula CH and a molecular weight of 78.1 is: A. CH B. C H C. C H D. C H 94 3 3 6 6 9 9 4344023 A 15 27112 52 071101 0064 Two samples containing only vanadium and oxygen are analyzed. Sample #1 consists of 0.6281 g O/g V, and sample #2 consists of 0.7851 g O/g V. If sample #2 is the compound V O , what 4 2 5 is the formula of sample # 1? A. VO B. V O C. VO D. VO E. V O 94 2 2 3 3 2 5 4344024 E 15 45270 71 The molecular mass of a compound with the empirical formula C H O was measured by a student in the laboratory. She reported 4 3 4 the value of 170 +10 g/mol. The molecular formula of this compound 3 _ is A. C H O B. C H O C. C H O D. C H O E. C H O 94 3 4 6 8 2 6 12 3 6 12 3 9 16 3 4360001 C 15 27117 72 00420208800113 ETS2 OS How many kilograms of Mg metal can be obtained from 100 kg. of MgCO ? Atomic weights Mg, 24; C, 12; O, 16. The answer is 4 3 approximately 9 A. 16 B. 24 C. 28 D. 48 E. None of these 4360002 B 15 27120 72 00270209800113 ETS2 OS When 8.00 g zinc metal react with 60.0 mL of 6.00 M HCl, the number of grams of hydrogen formed is 9 A. 0.125 B. 0.245 C. 0.360 D. 0.490 E. 0.720 4360003 B 15 27124 52 00940057800113 ETS2 OS If sulfur is burned as shown by the equation S + O ---> SO the 4 2 2 number of kg of SO obtained by burning 5 kg of S with 5 kg 4 2 Of O is 4 2 9 A. 5 kg B. 10 kg C. 15 kg D. 64 kg E. None of these 4360004 C 15 27129 32 029303980025 0019 One molecule of oxygen has a mass of A. 32 g 5 23 B. 16/(6.02 X 10 ) g 5 23 C. 32/(6.02 x 10 ) g 5 23 D. 32 x 6.02 x 10 g 5 23 9 E. 6.02 x 10 /32 g 4360005 B 15 27133 72 00140212800113 ETS2 OS The weight of carbon dioxide produced when 1000 g of CH burns is (in grams): 4 4 9 A. 1000 B. 2750 C. 550 D. 2000 E. 364 4360006 A 15 27135 72 02138001800213 ETS2 OS The equation for the preparation of calcium chloride is CaCO + 2HCl ---> CaCl + H O + CO 4 3 2 2 2 100 73 111 18 44 where the number represents the relative weight of each compound. The number of grams of CaCl that can be formed from 80 grams of 4 2 CaCO is about 4 3 A. 89 B. 100 C. 111 D. 173 9 E. None of these 4360007 A 15 27141 72 01960212800113 ETS2 OS Methane burns according to the equation CH + 2O ---> CO + 2H O. The number of grams of hydrogen in 4 4 2 2 2 60 grams of methane is 9 A. 15 B. 20 C. 5 D. 3.75 E. 1.88 4360008 C 15 27145 72 00140200800113 ETS2 OS Assume that 176 grams of CO and 72 grams of H O are consumed 4 2 2 in the process of photosynthesis. How much glucose (in grams) would be formed? A. 30 B. 60 C. 120 D. 90 9 E. 180 4360009 B 15 27149 52 00090025800113 ETS2 OS Eighty grams of Fe O contains how many grams of the element iron? 4 2 3 9 A. 80 B. 56 C. 28 D. 62 E. 75 4360010 E 15 27152 72 00160023800113 ETS2 OS The atomic weight of aluminum is 27 and that of fluorine is 19. If you had 1.9 grams of F and 2.7 grams of Al, how much AlF could 4 2 3 you make? A. 8.4 g B. 5.6 g C. 1.4 g D. 3.3 g 9 E. 2.8 g 4360011 E 15 27156 32 01960025800113 ETS2 OS An electric spark is passed through a mixture containing 16 grams of oxygen gas and 4 grams of hydrogen gas. After the explosion, there is in the container A. 16 grams of water and 4 grams of hydrogen B. 8 grams of water and 12 grams of oxygen C. 6 grams of water and 14 grams of oxygen D. 20 grams of water 9 E. 18 grams of water and 2 grams of hydrogen 4360012 C 15 27161 52 00090094800111 ETS2 OS Iron reacts with sulfur as given by the equation, Fe + S ---> FeS. The approximate atomic weight of iron 56, sulfur 32. the number of grams of FeS obtained from 100 g of S is approximately A. 57 B. 175 C. 275 D. 157 9 E. 36 4360013 A 14 27165 52 001400258004 2WVW During the burning of one liter of carbon monoxide, the amount of oxygen required will be (in liters): 9 A. 0.5 B. 1 C. 2 D. 4 4360014 D 15 44842 72 010905468004 2WVW The number of liters of air (20% by volume O ) needed to burn 4 2 completely 8 liters of acetylene (C H ) to form CO and H O is 4 2 2 2 2 (assume that air and acetylene are measured at the same T and P.) 9 A. 40 B. 60 C. 80 D. 100 E. 20 4360015 D 14 27170 52 019600258004 2WVW If a eudiometer tube were filled with 26 milliliters of hydrogen and 24 milliliters of oxygen, and the mixture exploded, there would remain uncombined A. 2 milliliters of hydrogen B. 14 milliliters of hydrogen C. 23 milliliters of hydrogen 9 D. 11 milliliters of oxygen 4360016 A 14 27174 52 019600428004 2WVW The number of grams of hydrogen formed by the action of 6 grams of magnesium (atomic weight = 24) on an appropriate quantity of acid is A. 0.5 grams B. 8 grams C. 22.4 grams 9 D. 72 grams 4360017 E 15 27177 52 00320094800113 ETS2 OS Copper and sulfur combine to form the compound Cu S (Cu=63.6, 4 2 S=32). If 63.6 grams of copper are heated with 64 grams of sulfur, the product will A. contain 31.8 grams of excess copper B. consist of pure Cu S 4 2 C. contain 32 grams of excess sulfur D. contain 16 grams of excess sulfur 9 E. 48 g of excess sulfur 4360018 B 15 27183 52 070406548003 2WVW When 3.80 g of fluorine (F ) react completely with H , what 4 2 2 volume of HF gas is produced at stp? 5 -1 -1 (At. Wt H=1.0, F=19.0; R=0.0820 liter atm mole deg A. 0.20 liter B. 4.48 liters C. 11.2 liters D. 22.4 liters 9 E. 44.8 liters 4360019 E 15 27188 72 070407208003 2WVW The amount of arsenious oxide, As O , in a sample of the 4 2 3 mineral arsenolite may be determined by dissolving the 3 __________ sample in water and titrating the resultant solution with a standard solution of ceric sulfate, Ce(SO ) . If the 4 4 2 solution obtained from a 0.10 g sample of arsenolite required 26 ml of 0.070 normal ceric sulfate solution to be titrated to an end point, what was the percentage As O 4 2 3 purity of the mineral sample? The reaction involved in the titration is As O + 4Ce(+4) + 5H O ---> 2H AsO + 4Ce(+3) + 4H(+) 4 2 3 2 3 4 9 A. 8% B. 20% C. 45% D. 80% E. 90% 4360020 E 15 27198 52 072007048003 2WVW The average concentration of chloride ions in human blood plasma is 0.10 molar. If a 10-ml sample of blood is assumed to precipitate only AgCl upon the addition of 0.050 molar AgNO solution, how much 4 3 AgNO solution must be added if we assume that AgCl is completely 4 3 insoluble? A. 0.050 ml B. 0.10 ml C. 10 ml D. 15 ml 9 E. 20 ml 4360021 C 14 27204 31 80038004 2WVW In one kilogram of sodium bicarbonate the element present in the greatest quantity by weight is 9 A. carbon B. hydrogen C. oxygen D. sodium 4360022 C 15 27207 32 079513341590 0042 How many grams of Mn can be obtained from 39.5 grams of KMnO ? 4 4 9 A. 7.4 B. 5.5 C. 13.5 D. 24.3 E. 27.0 4360023 B 15 27210 52 030200251323 0044 How many grams of arsenic must be burned in an atmosphere of oxygen to form 43.4 grams of As O ? 4 2 3 9 A. 0.00585 B. 32.8 C. 8.21 D. 0.0304 E. 39.4 4360024 E 15 27213 52 010500271167 0044 How many grams of HCl are required to react completely with 2.17 grams of Zn? 9 A. 4.85 B. 9.70 C. 1.21 D. 0.412 E. 2.43 4360025 A 15 27215 52 030204140321 0044 The Duquesne light company burns approximately 504 tons of coal per day. If the sulfur content of the coal is 2.47% by weight, how many tons of SO are dumped into the Pittsburgh atmosphere 4 2 each day? (1 Ton = 908 kilograms) 9 A. 24.8 B. 12.4 C. 24800 D. 0.161 E. 6.22 4360026 B 15 27219 52 152500720485 0044 The Haber process for preparing ammonia involves the direct conversion of hydrogen and nitrogen gases at high temperature and pressure using a catalyst: N + 3 H <=====> 2NH 4 2(g) 2(g) 3(g) How many liters of ammonia can be prepared from 11.2 liters of N 4 2 and 49.2 liters of H , assuming complete conversion at a constant 4 2 5 o temperature of 1000 K and constant external pressure of 500 atm? A. (.333)(49.2)liters B. (2)(11.2)liters C. (1/2)(11.2)liters D. (.667)(49.2)liters 9 E. none of the above. 4360027 A 15 27228 52 01950884 0044 What volume of HI can be made if 14.2 liters of H and 23.5 4 2 liters of I react at stp? H + I -----> 2 HI 4 2 2 2 9 A. 28.4 B. 47.0 C. 23.5 D. 14.2 E. 51.9 4360028 B 15 44796 52 010500271167 0044 How many grams of HCl are required to react completely with 1.05 g Zn to produce ZnCl 4 2 9 A. 4.71 B. 1.17 C. .589 D. 2.35 E. .849 4360029 C 15 27234 52 01131306 0044 Oxygen gas is produced by the decomposition of potassium chlorate 2KClO (s) -----> 2KCl (s) + 3O (g) 4 3 2 What weight in grams of KClO is required to produce 44.8 liters 4 3 of O at STP? MW of KClO = 123 g/mole) 4 2 3 9 A. 492 B. 369 C. 164 D. 738 E. 1378. 4360030 E 15 27239 52 01950884 0044 What volume of SO can be made at STP from 177 grams of SrSO ? 4 3 4 SrSO -----> SO + SrO 4 4 3 A. 23.2 liters B. 10.8 liters C. 7.21 liters 9 D. 43.2 liters E. 21.6 liters. 4360031 C 15 27243 52 030200251323 0044 How many grams of manganese must be burned in an atmosphere of oxygen to form 45.5 grams of Mn O ? (Assume Mn O is the only 4 2 5 2 5 oxide formed.) 5 -1 -2 9 A. .380 x 10 B. 31.6 C. 26.3 D. .873 x 10 E. 6.58. 4360032 B 15 27248 52 030204140321 0044 The Duquesne light company burns approximately 474 tons of coal per day. If the sulfur content of the coal is 1.30% by weight, how many tons of SO are dumped into the Pittsburgh atmosphere 4 2 each day? (1 Ton = 909 kilograms) 5 4 9 A. 1.23 x 10 B. 12.3 C. 3.07 D. 0.325 E. 6.14 4360033 B 15 27253 52 0795 0044 How many grams of cadmium phosphide, Cd P , can be made from 4 3 2 375 grams of Cd and 61.7 grams of P? 9 A. 400 B. 396 C. 2.11 D. 444 E. 357. 4360034 B 15 27256 72 011308840407 0044 A piece of sodium (Na) weighing 9.54 grams was dropped into a 8.18 liter flask containing chlorine gas (Cl ) at STP. The 4 2 following reaction took place to completion: 2Na(s) + Cl (g) ---> 2NaCl(s) 4 2 What was the total weight of solid in the flask after reaction? A. 3.75 grams B. 24.2 grams C. 6.60 grams D. .266 grams 9 E. 48.5 grams. 4360035 C 15 27262 72 040714390884 0044 8.61 grams of Ca(HCO ) are added to 211 ml of 4 3 2 0.845 molar HCl and the following reaction proceeds to completion Ca(HCO ) (s) + 2 HCl(aq) ----> CaCl (aq) + 2 H O(l) + 2 CO (g) 4 3 2 2 2 2 how many liters of CO (g) at STP will be liberated? 4 2 A. 7.99 liters B. 4.00 liters C. 2.38 liters 9 D. 2.00 liters E. 4.68 liters. 4360036 E 15 27268 72 039804071026 0044 What mass (in grams) of Cu should be added to an excess of concentrated H SO to generate as much SO (gas) as 13.7 grams of 4 2 4 2 sodium sulfite, Na SO ? The reactions are: 4 2 3 Cu + 2 H SO -----> CuSO + SO + 2 H O 4 2 4 4 2 2 Na SO + H SO -----> Na SO + SO + H O 4 2 3 2 4 2 4 2 2 5 -2 9 A. .163 x 10 B. .290 C. 27.1 D. 13.8 E. 6.89. 4360037 E 15 27275 72 116700270113 0044 How many grams of zinc are required to react with HCl to produce the hydrogen gas necessary to reduce 109 grams of Fe O to iron? 4 3 4 5 6 -2 9 A. 31.0 B. 6.62 X 10 C. 2.90 x 10 D. 7.75 E. 123 4360038 A 15 27279 52 152500720485 0044 The Haber process for preparing ammonia involves the direct conversion of hydrogen and nitrogen gases at high temperature and pressure using a catalyst: N + 3 H <=====> 2 NH 4 2(g) 2(g) 3(g) How many liters of ammonia can be prepared from 10.5 liters of N and 51.7 liters of H , assuming complete conversion at a 4 2 2 constant temperature of 1000 degrees K and constant external pressure of 500 atm. A. (2)(10.5)Liters B. 51.7 liters C. (.333)(51.7) liters 9 D. (1/2)(10.5) liters E. none of the above. 4360039 E 15 27287 52 01950884 0044 What volume of NO can be made if 17.8 liters of N and 14.8 4 2 liters of O react at STP? N + O -----> 2NO 4 2 2 2 9 A. 14.8 B. 17.8 C. 50.4 D. 32.6 E. 29.6 4360040 D 15 27291 52 040700720113 0044 Ammonia is prepared according to the following reaction in the gas phase: N + 3H -----> 2NH 4 2 2 3 If the reaction conditions are maintained at STP, which of the following statements in incorrect? 3 _________ A. 22.4 liters of N will react with 3 x 22.4 liters of H to 4 2 2 form 2 x 22.4 liters of NH . 4 3 B. 273 liters of N will react with 819 liters of H to form 4 2 2 546 liters of NH . 4 3 C. 28.0 grams of N will react with 6.0 grams of H to form 4 2 2 44.8 liters of NH . 4 3 D. 273 liters of NH can be prepared from 546 liters of N 4 3 2 given an adequate supply of H . 4 2 E. 1 mole of N will react with 3 moles of H to form 2 moles 4 2 2 of NH . 94 3 4360041 A 15 27307 32 03510445 0018 What is the weight of one atom of boron? 5 -23 23 A. 1.8 x 10 gm B. 6.0 x 10 gm C. 5 gm 9 D. 10.8 gm E. none of these 4360042 C 15 27310 52 071101 0064 A detergent contains 10% phosphorus in the form of the compound Na P O . The compound itself contains 30% phosphorus. How many 4 6 6 18 tons of Na P O should be ordered to prepare a 38-ton batch of 4 6 6 18 detergent? 9 A. 3.8 B. 0.88 C. 13 D. 0.13 E. none of these 4360043 B 15 27314 32 044507040288 0028 Calculate the number of grams of oxygen present in 1.75 moles of calcium carbonate. 9 A. 17.5 g B. 84.0 g C. 168 g D. 28.0 g E. 56.0 g 4360044 D 15 27316 52 070607040288 0028 Consider the following unbalanced equation: N + H -----> NH (unbalanced) 4 2 2 3 what volume of NH can be produced from 0.600 liters of H ? All 4 3 2 reactants and products are measured at STP. 9 A. 0.600 L B. 1.20 L C. 1.80 L D. 0.400 L E. 0.90 L 4360045 D 15 27321 52 070407060288 0028 Calculate the number of liters of C H at STP necessary to 4 3 8 produce 11.0 g of CO . 4 2 delta C H + 5 O ------> 3 CO + 4 H O (balanced) 4 3 8 2 2 2 9 A. 5.60 l B. 1.87 l C. 29.9 l D. 89.6 l E. 269 l 4360046 C 15 27326 32 070408460288 0028 A portable hydrogen generator utilizes the reaction: CaH + 2 H O -----> Ca(OH) + 2 H 4 2 2 2 2 How many grams of hydrogen can be produced by a 21 g cartridge of CaH ? 4 2 9 A. 0.50 g B. 1.0 g C. 2.0 g D. 4.0 g E. 8.0 g 4360047 D 15 27330 52 070407060288 0028 Consider the following unbalanced equation: N + H -----> NH (unbalanced) 4 2 2 3 ---------- how many moles of ammonia could be produced from 11.2 liters of nitrogen at STP? 9 A. 0.500 B. 4.00 C. 2.00 D. 1.00 E. 0.250 4360048 C 14 27334 52 0704 0003 When sulfur burns in oxygen, the resulting compound contains two atoms of oxygen to each atom of sulfur. If 9.62 g of sulfur is burned in oxygen, the compound formed will weigh: 9 A. 9.62 g B. 14.42 g C. 19.22 g D. 24.04 g 4360049 B 15 27338 52 065407040288 0028 Calculate the number of liters of oxygen that will react with 5.0 liters of hydrogen to form water. All reactants are gases and are measured at the same temperature and pressure. H + O -----> H O (unbalanced) 4 2(g) 2(g) 2 (g) A. 5.0 liters B. 2.5 liters C. 1.25 liters 9 D. 10.0 liters E. none of these 4360050 E 15 27343 52 044507040288 0028 How many grams of Al O will be formed by the reaction of 4 2 3 aluminum with 96.0 g of oxygen? Al + O ----> Al O (unbalanced) 4 2 2 3 9 A. 96.0 g B. 306 g C. 408 g D. 102 g E. 204 g 4360051 B 14 27347 52 01370288 0026 Rubidium chloride contains 71% rubidium (symbol Rb) by weight. How many grams of chloride are required to react with 25 grams of rubidium to form rubidium chloride? 9 A. 1 B. 10.2 C. 32 D. 17.8. 4360052 A 15 27350 32 109700661318 0020 A sample of a compound composed of nitrogen and oxygen was found to contain 30.4 percent nitrogen. According to the law of definite composition, a one gram sample from any other source would contain A. 0.696 g oxygen B. 0.304 g oxygen C. 0.608 g oxygen 9 D. 0.696 g nitrogen E. none of these 4360053 C 15 27354 52 055312960196 0020 0.800 moles of H S contains 4 2 A. 6.41 g sulfur B. 0.806 g hydrogen C. 1.61 g hydrogen D. 12.82 g sulfur 9 E. 0.15 g sulfur 4360054 B 15 27357 52 039805530795 0020 What is the mass of 0.200 mole of Ca(OH) ? 4 2 A. 0.200 g B. 14.8 g C. 74 g D. 11.4 g 9 E. none of these 4360055 C 14 27360 32 055302600025 0009 In exactly one mole of baking soda, NaHCO , there is about how 4 3 much oxygen? 9 A. 16 g B. 24 g C. 48 g D. 96 g 4360056 A 14 45032 32 012806790293 0009 The molecular mass of a protein that causes food poisoning is about 900,000. The approximate mass in grams of one molecule of this protein is 5 -18 23 A. 1.5 x 10 D. 6.0 x 10 5 -6 17 B. 1.1 x 10 E. 7.0 x 10 5 5 9 C. 9.0 x 10 4360057 C 15 27367 32 070305531201 0040 Avogadro's number of zinc atoms would weigh 5 23 -23 A. 6 x 10 g B. 6 x 10 g C. 65.3 g D. 63.5 g 9 E. no correct response is given. 4360058 B 15 27370 32 07030445 0040 5 23 According to the equation, CuO + H -----> H O + Cu, 6.02 x 10 4 2 2 atoms of hydrogen upon complete reaction would give how many grams of copper? A. 63.5 B. 31.8 C. 127.0 D. 190.5 9 E. No correct response is given. 4360059 D 15 27375 52 14620704 0040 Magnesium reacts with oxygen according to the following equation: 2Mg + O -----> 2MgO. Exactly 48.6 g of Mg will react with 32.0g 4 2 of oxygen to form 80.6 g of MgO. What weight of MgO will result when a reaction is carried out between 486 g of Mg and 9 E. NO correct response is given. 4360060 C 15 27379 32 070407271201 0040 According to the reaction N + 3H -----> 2NH , how many grams of 4 2 2 3 H are needed to produce 4 moles of NH ? Which of the following 4 2 3 will give the correct answer? 1 mole NH 2 g H 4 3 2 A. 4 mole NH x ---------- x --------- 3 1 mole NH 1 mole H 4 3 2 2 moles H 2 g H 4 2 2 B. 4 moles NH x ---------- x --------- 3 3 moles NH 1 mole H 4 3 2 3 moles H 2 g H 4 2 2 C. 4 moles NH x ----------- x ----------- 3 2 moles NH 1 mole H 4 3 2 2 moles NH 1 mole H 4 3 2 D. 4 moles NH x ----------- x ----------- 3 3 moles H 2 g H 4 2 2 9 E. no correct response is given. 4360061 C 14 27394 32 0704 0003 If 16.9 g of BaO undergoes thermal decomposition, the number of 4 2 grams of O produced is: 4 2 9 A. 0.100 B. 0.200 g C. 1.60 g D. 3.20 g 4360062 A 14 27397 32 0704 0003 If 21.2 g of BaO undergoes thermal decomposition, the number of 4 2 grams of BaO produced is: 9 A. 19.2 g B. 9.60 g C. 2.00 g D. 1.00 g 4360063 A 15 27400 32 0704 0003 NiS reacts with O at elevated temperatures to form NiO and SO . 4 2 2 In order to react with 22.7 g of NiS, the weight of O necessary 4 2 is: 9 A. 6.00 g B. 12.0 g C. 96.0 g D. 9.60 g E. 8.00 g 4360064 B 15 27405 32 0706 0003 NO reacts with O to form NO . When 10.0 g of NO is formed by 4 2 2 2 this reaction, the number of grams of O consumed is: 4 2 9 A. 1.74 g B. 3.48 g C. 13.9 g D. 5.00 g E. 0.11 g 4360065 B 14 27409 52 0704 0003 The volume of nitrogen at 0 degrees C and 38.0 torr necessary to react completely with 1.80 liters of hydrogen at STP according to the reaction N (g) + 3H (g) -----> 2NH (g) is: 4 2 2 3 9 A. 0.60 liter B. 1.20 liters C. 2.24 liters D. 4.48 liters 4360066 B 14 27413 52 0704 0003 The volume of hydrogen, measured at 91 degrees K and 2.00 atm pressure, produced when 0.100 gram-atom of zinc reacts according 5 + 2+ to the equation Zn(s) + 2H -----> Zn + H (g) is: 4 2 9 A. 0.187 liter B. 0.373 liter C. 0.747 liter D. 1.87 liters 4360067 A 14 27418 52 0704 0003 In order to produce 31.8 g of copper by the reaction H (g) + CuO(s) -----> Cu(s) + H O(g), the required number of 4 2 2 liters of hydrogen measured at 152 torr and 0 degrees C is: 9 A. 56.0 B. 22.4 C. 4.48 D. 2.24 E. 11.2 4360068 B 14 27422 32 0704 0003 The number of liters of carbon dioxide at 47 degrees C and 742 torr produced when 26.0 liters of oxygen measured at the same temperature and pressure react according to the reaction C H (g) + 5O (g) -----> 3CO (g) + 4H O(g) is: 4 3 8 2 2 2 9 A. 43.3 liters B. 15.6 liters C. 14.3 liters D. 9.60 liters 4360069 A 14 27427 32 0704 0003 200 g of N is placed in a 5.00-liter container at 25 degrees C. 4 2 the pressure of the gas is: 9 A. 035.0 atm B. 1.75 atm C. 0.700 atm D. 5.25 atm 4360070 AC 25 27430 52 070404070288 0028 MACROITEM STEM A mixture containing 10.0 g hydrogen and 64.0 g oxygen is sparked so that water is formed according to the reaction. 2 H + O -----> 2 H O (balanced) 04 2 2 2 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 How many grams of water can be produced? 1 A. 72.0 g B. 45.0 g C. 450 g D. 144 g E. 90.0 g MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 Calculate the number of moles of excess reagent remaining at the end of the above reaction. A. 3.00 moles B. 2.00 moles C. 1.00 mole 9 D. 0.500 mole E. 0.250 mole 4360071 C 15 27436 32 07040654 05 If excess methane reacts with oxygen according to the equation 2CH + 3O = 2CO + 4H O to form 14 4 4 2 2 grams of carbon monoxide , how much oxygen will be required? ( Atomic weights H = 1.0 , C = 12 , O = 16 ) A. one mole D. three moles B. 1.5 moles E. 0.33 mole 9 C. 0.75 mole 4360072 B 15 27441 32 07040654 0540 On the basis of the equation 2Na + 2H O = H + 2NaOH , 4 2 2 how many liters of hydrogen at standard temperature and pressure will be evolved when 23.0 grams of sodium reacts with an unlimited amount of water? ( Atomic weights H = 1.0 , O = 16.0 , Na = 23.0 ) A. 5.6 liters D. 33.6 liters B. 11.2 liters E. 44.8 liters 9 C. 22.4 liters 4360073 D 15 27447 52 07040654 0540 On the basis of the equation 2Na + 2H O = H + 2NaOH , how 4 2 2 many liters of hydrogen at standard temperature and pressure will be evolved when 46.0 grams of sodium reacts with an unlimited amount of water? ( Atomic weights H = 1.01 , O = 16.0 , Na = 23.0 ) A. 33.6 liters D. 22.4 liters B. 44.8 liters E. 11.2 liters 9 C. 5.6 liters 4360074 C 15 27453 52 07040654 0540 On the basis of the equation 2Na + 2H O = H + 2NaOH , how 4 2 2 many liters of hydrogen at standard temperature and pressure will be evolved when 11.5 grams of sodium reacts with an unlimited amount of water? 9 A. 33.6 B. 44.8 C. 5.6 D. 22.4 E. 11.2 4360075 B 15 27459 52 07040654 0540 On the basis of the equation 2Na + 2H O = H + 2NaOH , how 4 2 2 many grams of sodium are required to produce 11.2 liters of hydrogen gas at standard temperature and pressure if an unlimited amount of water is present? ( Atomic weights Na = 23, H = 1.0, O = 16) A. 5.8 grams C. 11.5 grams E. 34.5 grams 9 B. 23 grams D. 46 grams 4360076 A 15 27465 52 07040654 0540 On the basis of the equation 2Na + 2H O = H + 2NaOH , how 4 2 2 many grams of sodium are required to produce 2.24 liters of hydrogen gas at standard temperature and pressure if an unlimited amount of water is present? ( Atomic weights Na = 23, H = 1.0, O = 16) A. 4.6 grams C. 23 grams E. 2.24 grams 9 B. 2.3 grams D. 46 grams 4360077 B 15 27471 52 07040706 22 Na O reacts with H O to yield NaOH and O . 4 2 2 2 2 How many liters of oxygen gas at STP can be produced when 39 g of sodium peroxide react with an excess of water? 9 A. 1.4 B. 2.8 C. 5.6 D. 6.3 E. 1.0 4360078 E 15 27476 52 07040706 22 According to the equation 2Na O + 2H O = 4NaOH + O , 4 2 2 2 2 how many liters of O gas at standard temperature and 4 2 pressure can be produced when 117 grams of sodium peroxide reacts with an excess of water? ( Atomic weights Na = 23 , O = 16, H = 1.00) 9 A. 1.4 B. 2.8 C. 5.6 D. 6.3 E. 16.8 4360079 C 15 27481 52 07040706 0540 According to the equation Ca + Cl = CaCl , how many grams 4 2 2 of CaCl will be produced when 20 grams of calcium reacts 4 2 with 71 grams of chlorine? ( Atomic weights Ca = 40 , Cl = 35.5) A. 17 grams D. 90 grams B. 28 grams E. 111 grams 9 C. 56 grams 4360080 C 15 27486 52 07040706 0540 According to the equation Ca + Cl = CaCl , how many grams 4 2 2 of CaCl will be produced when 40 grams of calcium reacts 4 2 with 35.5 grams of chlorine? ( Atomic weights Ca = 40 , Cl = 35.5 ) A. 17 grams D. 90 grams B. 28 grams E. 111 grams 9 C. 56 grams 4360081 A 15 27491 52 07040706 0540 According to the equation Ca + Cl = CaCl , how many grams 4 2 2 of CaCl will be produced when 20 grams of calcium reacts 4 2 with 142 grams of chlorine? ( Atomic weights Ca = 40 , Cl = 35.5) A. 56 grams D. 90 grams B. 222 grams E. 160 grams 9 C. 111 grams 4360082 D 15 27496 52 07040706 0540 According to the equation Ca + Cl = CaCl , how many grams 4 2 2 of CaCl will be produced when 10 grams of calcium reacts 4 2 with 35.5 grams of chlorine? ( Atomic weights Ca = 40 , Cl = 35.5 ) A. 56 grams D. 90 grams B. 222 grams E. 160 grams 9 C. 111 grams 4360083 A 15 27501 32 0186 05 At room temperature the volume occupied by one mole of water is about A. a tablespoonful D. a gallon B. a coffee cupful E. 5 gallons 9 C. a quart 4360084 B 15 27504 32 0186 05 At room temperature the volume occupied by one mole of salt ( sodium chloride, NaCl ) is about A. 2 tablespoonsful D. one gallon B. one cup E. five gallons 9 C. one quart 4360085 C 15 27507 32 0186 05 At room temperature the volume occupied by one mole of alcohol ( C H OH ) is about 4 2 5 A. a liter D. a gallon B. a quart E. 5 gallons 9 C. half a glassful (200 ml) 4360086 B 15 27510 32 0186 05 The volume occupied by a mole of table sugar (sucrose, Cl H O , density 1.6 g/ml , molecular weight 342 ) is 4 2 22 11 closest to A. a teaspoonful D. a gallon B. a cupful E. 5 gallons 9 C. a quart 4360087 C 15 27514 32 0186 05 The volume of a balloon filled with one mole of air at room temperature is A. too small to be seen by eye B. comparable in size to a marble C. comparable in size to a basketball D. comparable in size to an average room in a house 9 E. too large to go in the chemistry lecture room 4360088 B 14 27518 52 1948 0059 When 1.00 g Ag CO is strongly heated, Ag and CO (g) are produced. 4 2 3 2 The theoretical yield of Ag is 9 A. 0.892 g B. 0.783 g C. 1.278 g D. 2.556 g E. 2.00 g 4360089 E 15 27521 32 07030727 0540 5 23 A sample contains 6.02 x 10 molecules of H . Hydrogen has 4 2 an atomic weight of 1.0. The sample contains A. one-half mole of H D. one mole of hydrogen atoms 4 2 B. 1.0 gram of H E. 2.0 grams of H 4 2 2 C. 0.5 gram of H 94 2 4360090 C 15 27527 32 07030727 0540 5 23 A sample contains 6.0 x 10 molecules of O . Oxygen has an 4 2 atomic weight of 16. The sample contains A. 8 grams of O D. 0.5 mole of O 4 2 2 B. 16 grams of O E. one mole of oxygen atoms 4 2 C. 32 grams of O 94 2 4360091 B 15 27533 32 07030727 0540 5 23 A sample contains 12.0 x 10 molecules of N . Nitrogen has 4 2 an atomic weight of 14.0. The sample contains A. 14 grams of N 4 2 B. two moles of N 4 2 C. 28 grams of N 4 2 D. one mole of nitrogen atoms 9 E. two moles of nitrogen atoms 4360092 D 15 27538 32 07030727 0540 5 23 A sample contains 3.0 x 10 molecules of F . Fluorine has 4 2 an atomic weight of 19. The sample contains A. 38 grams of fluorine D. 19 grams of fluorine B. one mole of F E. one-half mole of fluorine atoms 4 2 C. two moles of F 94 2 4360093 D 15 27543 32 07030727 0540 5 23 A sample contains 6.0 x 10 molecules of Cl . Chlorine has 4 2 an atomic weight of 35.5. The sample contains 5 23 A. 6.0 x 10 x 35.5 grams of chlorine B. 35.5 grams of chlorine C. 0.5 mole of chlorine atoms D. one mole of Cl 4 2 9 E. one mole of Cl atoms 4360094 E 15 27548 32 07030727 0540 5 23 A sample contains 12.0 x 10 molecules of Br . Bromine has 4 2 an atomic weight of 80. The sample contains A. 80 grams of bromine D. 4 moles of Br 4 2 B. 160 grams of bromine E. 2 moles of Br 4 2 9 C. 2 moles of Br atoms 4360095 D 15 27554 32 07070727 0540 5 23 A sample contains 3.0 x 10 molecules of I . Iodine has an 4 2 atomic weight of 127. The sample contains A. one mole of I D. 127 grams of iodine 4 2 B. two moles of I E. 0.5 mole of iodine atoms 4 2 C. 63.5 grams of I 94 2 4360096 B 15 27559 32 07030727 0540 5 23 A sample contains 1.5 x 10 molecules of P . Phosphorus 4 4 has an atomic weight of 31. The sample contains A. one-fourth mole of P atoms D. 62 grams of P 4 4 B. one mole of P atoms E. 62 grams of P atoms C. four moles of P molecules 94 4 4360097 A 15 27565 32 07070727 0540 5 23 A sample contains 3.0 x 10 molecules of S . Sulfur has an 4 8 atomic weight of 32. The sample contains A. 4 moles of S atoms D. 64 grams of S 4 8 B. 4 moles of S molecules E. one-eighth mole of S 4 8 8 C. 32 grams of S 94 8 4360098 D 14 27571 32 0704 0003 If 0.200 mole of BaO undergoes thermal decomposition, the number 4 2 of grams of O produced is: 4 2 9 A. 0.100 g B. 0.200 g C. 1.60 g D. 3.20 g 4360099 A 14 27574 32 019500258004 2 OS The volume of oxygen compared to the volume of hydrogen produced by the electrolysis of water is A. 1:2 B. 1:8 C. 2:1 9 D. 8:1 4360101 B 15 27576 52 071101 0064 An ore contains 0.20% by weight of the mineral calaverite, AuTe , 4 2 a gold compound containing 43.56% Au. How many tons of the ore would have to be processed to yield 1.0 lb of pure gold? 9 A. 0.11 B. 0.57 C. 1.1 D. 2.3 E. 5.7 4360102 E 15 27581 52 071101 0064 The compound Na PO contains 42% sodium. How many grams of a 4 3 4 mixture containing 75% Na PO and 25% K PO would be needed to 4 3 4 3 4 supply 10 g of sodium? 9 A. 24 g B. 18 g C. 95 g D. 53 g E. 32 g 4360103 A 15 27585 52 071101 0064 A mining company supplies a concentrated ore that is 11% chalcocite, Cu S by weight. Cu S itself contains 79.86% copper by weight. How 4 2 2 many tons of ore should be purchased in order to produce 600 tons of an alloy containing 90% Cu? 5 3 3 3 A. 6.1 x 10 B. 7.6 x 10 C. 3.9 x 10 9 D. 74 E. 47 4360104 C 15 45160 71 5 3 What is the mass of H SO in a 50.0-cm sample of sulfuric acid 4 2 4 5 3 that has a density of 1.55 g/cm and consists of 65.0% H SO ? 4 2 4 9 A. 27.1 g B. 32.5 g C. 50.4 g D. 77.5 g E. 119 g 4360105 C 15 45260 31 What is the weight in grams of one acetic acid molecule, CH COOH? 4 3 5 25 -23 -23 -23 9 A. 3.61x10 B. 60.0 C. 9.96x10 D. 7.31x10 E. 6.02x10 4360106 B 15 45293 71 How many grams of salicylic acid are required to prepare one tablet containing 0.325 g of aspirin? 9 A. 2.36 B. 0.249 C. 0.325 D. 0.847 E. 0.424 4360107 C 15 45296 71 Elemental phosphorus is often converted to phosphoric acid in the location where it will be used. The conversion involves oxidation of molten phosphorus, follwed by the hydration of the P O to 4 4 10 phosphoric acid. The reactions are represented by the overall equation: P + 5O + 6H O ---> 4H PO 4 4 2 2 3 4 What minimum mass of phosphorus is needed to prepare 125 g of H PO ? 94 3 4 4360108 B 15 45338 71 A 1.00-g sample of KClO decomposes to yield oxygen, which is 4 3 5 o collected at 25.0 C and 735 mm Hg. What volume of oxygen is collected? The reaction is 2KClO ---> 2KCl + 3O 4 3 2 9 A. 0.227 L B. 0.309 L C. 0.208 L D. 0.155 L E. 0.465 L 4370001 B 14 27591 31 055300028004 2 OS The number of moles of sodium chloride represented by 117 grams is A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 9 D. 22.4 4370002 C 14 27593 51 055304071164 0041 Six moles of O are consumed in a certain run of the reaction 4 2 2H S + 3O -----> 2H O + 2SO . The number of moles of water 4 2 2 2 2 produced in the run is 9 A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 6 4370003 A 14 27596 32 07950553 0043 1.00 g of Ba(OH) .8H O is: 4 2 2 5 -3 -3 A. 3.17 x 10 mole B. 5.83 x 10 mole 5 -2 -2 9 C. 6.72 x 10 mole D. 4.12 x 10 mole. 4370004 D 15 27599 72 008704070884 0044 A solution of NaOH can be used to absorb Cl gas by the reaction: 4 2 5 - - - 2OH + Cl -----> H O + OCl + Cl 4 2 2 If 11.2 liters of Cl gas (STP) is bubbled into a liter of 6.0 4 2 molar NaOH, which of the following is incorrect? 3 _________ A. The solution will contain 0.5 moles of NaOCl. B. All the chlorine gas will be absorbed. 5 - C. The concentration of OH will be 5 M. D. The solution will contain 1.0 mole of NaCl 9 E. The solution will contain 5.0 mole of NaOH. 4370005 C 15 27608 52 000801901318 0044 How many moles of water are associated with each mole of Al O in 4 2 3 a sample of pure hydrate, which loses 15 percent by weight upon heating to evolve the water? (The molecular weight of Al O is 4 2 3 102.) 9 A. 4 B. 12 C. 1 D. 2 E. 6. 4370006 A 14 27613 32 01860553154251 9000 5 3 Chloroform, CHCl , has a density of 1.49 g/cm . how many moles 4 3 are contained in one liter of chloroform? 9 A. 12.5 B. 23.4 C. 4.47 D. 4.86 4370007 D 14 27616 32 02960795 51 9000 How many gram atomic weights of P are contained in 6.5 grams of P O ? 4 2 5 9 A. 0.368 B. 0.286 C. 0.184 D. 0.092 4370008 C 15 27618 32 021207270288 0028 4.0 grams of methane (CH ) represents 4 4 A. 2.5 moles of CH B. 4.0 moles of CH 4 4 4 C. 0.25 mole of CH D. 0.025 mole of CH 4 4 4 E. 0.0025 mole of CH 94 4 4370009 D 15 27622 32 05530288 0028 Calculate the number of moles of carbon atoms in 48.0 g of carbon A. 1.00 mole B. 2.00 moles C. 3.00 moles 9 D. 4.00 moles E. 5.76 moles 4370010 A 15 27624 32 055300731296 0020 How many moles of calcium are contained in 5.01 g ? A. 0.125 B. 8.00 C. 0.800 D. 1.25 9 E. None of these 4370011 A 15 27626 52 079511730087 0020 How many grams of NaCl are needed to prepare a solution that contains 5.00 moles of sodium ion ? A. 292 g B. 115 g C. 177.5 g D. 140 g 9 E. none of these 4370012 E 15 27629 52 116705531334 0020 C H reacts with O to give CO and H O. How many moles of CO 4 6 14 2 2 2 2 can be obtained from 4 moles of C H ? 4 6 14 9 A. 4 moles B. 8 moles C. 20 moles D. 16 moles E. 24 moles 4370013 B 14 27633 32 150000080553 0009 5 21 It is estimated that there are 1 x 10 kg of water in all the oceans. How many moles of water is this? 5 21 21 3 1 X 10 1 x 10 x 10 A. --------- B. --------------- 18 18 5 21 21 21 3 1 x 10 1 x 10 4 C. 1 x 10 x 18 x 10 D. --------- E. -------- 4 23 x 3 94 6 x 10 18x 10 4370014 B 14 27641 32 003705530325 0009 5 2+ 3+ In the compound Fe O , the mole ratio of Fe to Fe is 4 3 4 9 A. 101 B. 102 C. 201 D. 304 4370015 C 15 27644 32 079505531178 0019 Seven grams of lithium nitride, Li N, contains how many moles of 4 3 lithium ions? (Atomic masses Li = 7 amu, N = 14 amu.) 9 A. 0.1 B. 0.2 C. 0.6 D. 0.4 E. none of these is correct 4370016 C 15 27647 32 055312010795 0040 A person exhales about 960 g of CO per day. How many moles of 4 2 CO is this? 4 2 9 A. 42,300 B. 960 C. 21.8 D. 0.46 E. 53.3 4370017 D 14 27650 32 07030065 0003 Select the quantity which has the highest weight: A. 100 amu of copper 5 -3 B. 1.0 x 10 g of copper 5 22 C. 7.0 x 10 atoms of copper 5 -1 9 D. 8.0 x 10 gram-atom of copper 4370018 D 14 27654 32 07030065 0003 Which of the following consists of the most atoms? 5 4 A. 4.6 X 10 amu of uranium 5 -12 B. 1.6 x 10 g of hydrogen 5 8 C. 1.1 x 10 atoms of mercury 5 -4 9 D. 3.8 x 10 gram-atom of chromium 4370019 D 14 27658 32 0704 0003 BaO decomposes when heated to form BaO and O . If 0.500 mole of 4 2 2 BaO is decomposed, the number of moles of O formed is: 4 2 2 9 A. 8.00 moles B. 1.00 mole C. 0.500 mole D. 0.250 mole 4370020 B 15 27662 32 1702 05 One-half gram-mole of sulfur, whose molecular formula is S , 4 8 contains 5 23 A. 2 gram-atoms of sulfur D. 6.02 x 10 divided by 4 particles 5 23 B. 4 gram-atoms of sulfur E. 6.02 x 10 particles 9 C. 8 gram-atoms of sulfur 4370021 A 15 45255 71 Sodium cyclamate, C H NHSO Na, was used at one time as an 4 6 11 3 artificial sweetener. C H NHSO Na has a molecular mass of 4 6 11 3 201.2 g/mol. How many moles of sodium cyclamate are contained in a 25.6 gram sample? 9 A. 0.127 B. 0.193 C. 0.245 D. 7.90 E. 5180 4370022 C 14 27667 32 0727 0540 How many grams are there in 0.0100 mole of Na SO . (atomic 4 2 4 weights Na = 23, S = 32, O = 16) 9 A. 7.1 g B. 9.6 g C. 1.42 g D. 11.9 g 4370023 B 15 27670 32 0727 0540 How many grams are there in 0.0200 mole of Ca(OH) . ( atomic 4 2 weights H = 1.0, O = 16, Ca = 40) 9 A. 0.8 g B. 1.48 g C. 1.14 g D. 11.4 g E. 14.8 4370024 A 14 27673 32 0727 0540 How many grams are there in 0.30 mole CaCl . ( atomic 4 2 weights Ca = 40, Cl = 35.5) 9 A. 33.3 g B. 40 g C. 7.6 g D. 22.7 g 4370025 B 15 27676 32 07270534 0540 The formula weight of NaF is 42.0 A 0.0200 mole sample of NaF contains A. 42 grams D. 0.42 gram B. 0.84 gram E. 8.4 gram 9 C. 4.2 grams 4370026 C 15 27679 32 07270534 0540 The formula weight of NaF is 42.0 A 0.003 mole sample of NaF contains how many grams? 9 A. 42 B. 1.26 C. 0.126 D. 0.42 E. 0.042 4370027 A 15 27681 32 07270534 0540 The formula weight of CaCl is 111.0 A 0.200 mole sample of 4 2 CaCl contains 4 2 A. 22.2 grams D. 2.22 grams B. 111 grams E. 0.222 grams 9 C. 11.1 grams 4370028 A 15 27684 32 07270451 0540 Oxygen is a diatomic gas. How many grams of oxygen are in two moles of the gas? ( Atomic weights O = 16 ) A. 64 grams C. 16 grams E. 24 grams 9 B. 32 grams D. 8 grams 4370029 B 15 27687 32 07270451 0540 Oxygen is a diatomic gas. How many grams of oxygen are in one mole of the gas? ( Atomic weight O = 16 ) A. 64 grams C. 16 grams E. 24 grams 9 B. 32 grams D. 8 grams 4370030 C 15 27690 32 07270451 0540 Oxygen is a diatomic gas. How many grams of oxygen are in 0.5 mole of the gas? ( Atomic weight O = 16 ) A. 64 grams C. 16 grams E. 24 grams 9 B. 32 grams D. 8 grams 4370031 B 15 27693 32 07270451 0540 Nitrogen is a diatomic gas. Fourteen grams of nitrogen are how many moles of the gas? A. 1 Mole C. 1.5 moles E. 0.25 mole 9 B. 0.5 mole D. 2 moles 4370032 D 15 27696 32 0727 05 Nitrogen is a diatomic gas. Fifty-six grams of nitrogen gas are how many moles? ( Atomic weight N = 14 ) A. 1 mole C. 1.5 moles E. 0.25 mole 9 B. 0.5 mole D. 2 moles 4370033 E 15 27699 32 0727 05 Nitrogen is a diatomic gas. Seven grams of this are how many moles? ( Atomic weight N = 14 ) A. 1 mole C. 1.5 moles E. 0.25 mole 9 B. 0.5 mole D. 2 moles 4370034 C 15 27702 32 0727 05 One gram-atom of oxygen contains how many grams of O . 4 2 (atomic weight O = 16) 9 A. 8 g B. 12 g C. 16 g D. 24 g E. 32 g 4370035 B 15 27705 32 0727 05 One mole of O molecules weighs how many grams? 4 2 9 A. 12 B. 32 C. 24 D. 8 E. 16 4370036 D 15 27708 32 0727 05 One gram-atom of nitrogen contains how many grams of N ? 4 2 (Atomic weight N = 14) 9 A. 12 g B. 24 g C. 7 g D. 14 g E. 28 g 4370037 A 15 27711 32 0727 05 One mole of N molecules weighs how many grams? ( Atomic 4 2 weight N = 14) 9 A. 28 g B. 14 g C. 24 g D. 12 g E. 7 g 4370038 A 15 27714 32 0727 05 One mole of hydrogen atoms contains how many grams of H ? 4 ----- 2 9 A. 1 g B. 2 g C. 12 g D. 22.4 g E. 24 g 4370039 B 15 27717 32 0727 05 One mole of H molecules weighs how many grams ? 4 2 9 A. 1 g B. 2 g C. 12 g D. 22.4 g E. 24 g 4370040 B 15 27720 32 0704 05 Methane reacts with oxygen to form carbon monoxide and water, according to the equation 2CH + 3O ---> 2CO + 4H O 4 4 2 2 Eight grams of methane will react with excess oxygen to form A. one mole of CO D. two moles of CO B. one mole of H O E. four moles of H O 4 2 2 C. two moles of H O 94 2 4370041 A 15 27727 32 0704 05 Methane reacts with oxygen to form carbon monoxide and water according to the equation 2 CH + 3 O ---> 2 CO + 4 H O 4 4 2 2 Sixteen grams of methane will react with excess oxygen to form A. one mole of CO D. two moles of CO B. one-half mole H O E. four moles of H O 4 2 2 C. three moles of H O 94 2 4370042 E 15 27733 32 0704 05 Assume excess oxygen reacts with methane to form 14 g carbon monoxide according to the equation 2 CH + 3 O ---> 2 CO + 4 H O 4 4 2 2 How many moles of methane will be consumed? 9 A. 2 B. 1/3 C. 0.25 D. 1 E. 0.5 4370043 B 14 27738 32 19451702 0056 The number of moles of atoms in 92 g of sodium is A. 0.25 B. 4.0 5 23 C. 6.0 x 10 5 23 9 D. 4 x 6.0 x 10 4370044 CCEDBA 65 45699 51 MACROITEM STEM You wish to determine the number of moles of X contained in or produced from a known number of moles of Y. Choose the correct stoichiometric factor in the table below which if multiplied by the number of moles of Y would give you the moles of X. (Hint. Think of a balanced equation which relates Y to X. Any process which relates one to the other ought to work: solution, precipitation, oxidation or reduction.) Use the following stoichiometric factors: 0 A. 1/3 B. 1/2 C. 1 D. 2 E. 3 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 X Y 5 2- SO BaSO 14 4 4 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 CO Ag CO 24 2 2 3 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 UO U O 34 2 3 8 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 H O CaCl .2H O 44 2 2 2 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 C H O Cl AgCl 54 8 6 3 2 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 6 Na PO NaCl 94 3 4 4390001 C 15 27741 72 080902360035 Excess silver nitrate solution was added to a solution that contained 1.65 g of a chloride salt of an unknown element "M". A precipitate of AgCl was filtered, dried, and found to weigh 2.49 g. Further experiments showed that the ion of element "M" has a +3 oxidation number in the chloride salt. The atomic weight of the unknown element "M" is 9 A. 49.8 B. 59.4 C. 178.3 D. 168.9 E. 535 4390002 C 15 27747 72 80018002 13 ETS2 OS Twenty grams of a hypothetical compound X Y, were decomposed. 4 2 The resulting element X weighed 10 grams. If the atomic weight of the element Y is 20, what is the atomic weight of X? 9 A. 2 B. 5 C. 10 D. 20 E. 40 4390003 E 15 27751 31 03520083800112 ETS2 OS Calculate the approximate relative weight of the molecule Na SO , 4 2 3 using the nearest integral values for the relative weights of the atoms. It is about 9 A. 62 B. 94 C. 103 D. 71 E. 126 4390004 D 15 27755 72 022580018002 ETS2 OS A number of volatile compounds of an element X yield the following data molecular wt. Per cent of X 1st compound 92 50 2nd compound 116 20 3rd compound 146 32 4th compound 275 25 The approximate atomic weight of X is A. 46 B. 70 C. 12 D. 23 9 E. 32 4390006 D 15 27761 52 07268003 2WVW On analysis, a compound containing only boron and chlorine is found to contain 13.2% boron. What is the oxidation number of boron in this compound? (At. Wt B = 10.8, Cl = 35.5) A. -2 B. -4 C. +1 D. +2 9 E. +3 4390007 D 14 27765 31 022402618004 2 OS The formula weight of carbon dioxide is A. twelve B. thirty C. thirty two 9 D. forty four 4390008 C 15 27767 52 027400151436 0044 In an analysis of an ore sample 16.7 grams of pure metal, M, was separated from the other components. This quantity reacted with 2.48 grams of sulfur to form the compound M S. What is the 4 2 metal? 9 A. Rb B. Cs C. Ag D. Th E. Cu. 4390009 C 15 27771 52 065408840288 0026 Fifteen grams of a given compound occupy 11.2 liters at STP. The molecular weight must be 9 A. 15 B. 60 C. 30 D. 7.5 E. 168 4390010 B 15 27773 32 006600140398 0020 A pure compound composed of only carbon and oxygen atoms contains 42.8 percent by mass of carbon. The compound is assumed to contain an equal number of carbon and oxygen atoms per molecule. What is the ratio of the mass of an oxygen atom to that of a carbon atom? 9 A. 281 B. 1.330 C. 1.660 D. 1.2 E. None of these 4390011 A 15 27778 52 131603530006 0040 An element is made up of two naturally occurring isotopes. Seventy-five percent of the atoms of the element have a weight of 35 AMU and the remainder have a weight of 37 AMU. The observed atomic weight of the element is therefore 9 A. 35.5 AMU B. 72 AMU C. 36 AMU D. 17 AMU E. 36.5 AMU. 4390012 B 15 27782 32 012812011316 0040 Calculate the molecular weight of CH O 4 2 9 A. 29.0 AMU B. 30.0 AMU C. 4.0 AMU D. 42.0 AMU E. 31.0 AMU 4390013 A 15 27784 32 012813161201 0040 The molecular weight of ammonium phosphate, (NH ) PO , is 4 4 3 4 9 A. 149 AMU B. 303 AMU C. 113 AMU D. 434 AMU E. 131 AMU 4390014 B 14 27787 32 140701130224 0009 Two flasks of equal volume are filled with different gases, A and B, at the same temperature and pressure. The weight of gas A is 0.34 gram while that of gas B is 0.48 gram. It is known that gas B is ozone, O , and that gas A is one of the following. Which of 4 3 the following is most likely to be gas A? A. O B. H S C. SO D. SO E. CH 94 2 2 2 3 4 4390015 D 14 27793 52 0065 0003 A certain compound contains two atoms of element X for every three atoms of sulfur. If 10.00 g of the compound contains 1.87 g of sulfur, the atomic weight of element X is: 9 A. 27.0 amu B. 69.7 amu C. 93.0 amu D. 209 amu 4390016 B 15 27797 52 00650703 0003 5 22 4.65 x 10 atoms of element Q weigh 13.5 g. The atomic weight of Q is: 9 A. 290 B. 175 C. 34.4 D. 10.4 E. 0.97 4390017 BE 25 27799 72 0210021102021290 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2In laboratory work on the law of definite proportions, a student 2burned 1 gram of Mg and produced 1.67 grams of MgO. The average 2results of the class were the same. Based on this information, 0 answer the following. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 From this experiment, the atomic weight of Mg must be about A. 10.7 B. 24.0 C. 26.7 D. 9.6 1 E. 1.50 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 The atomic weight ratio of oxygen to magnesium is about A. 5/3 B. 3/5 C. 1/3 D. 3/2 9 E. 2/3 4390018 C 15 27805 32 0128 05 Which oxide of nitrogen has a molecular weight of 76? A. N O B. NO C. N O D. NO E. N O 94 2 2 3 2 2 4 4390019 D 14 27808 32 19450293 0056 5 -19 The mass of a certain molecule is 1.13 x 10 g. The molecular weight of this compound is 5 3 3 4 9 A. 533 B. 1.47 x 10 C. 1.88 x 10 D. 6.80 x 10 4390020 B 15 27812 52 04461966 TAFT The approximate atomic weight of aluminum is 26.8. Calculate a more accurate weight, given that 1.334 g aluminum displaced 1.778 liters of dry hydrogen gas 5 o measured at 23.00 C and 770 torr. 9 A. 26.96 B. 26.98 C. 27.00 D. 27.02 E. 27.04 4400001 D 14 27816 31 046308298004 2 OS Oxidation-reduction occurs in all of the following types of chemical reactions with the exception of A. decomposition B. direct combination C. single replacement 9 D. double replacement 4400002 D 14 27819 52 013015030138 0009 A solution of NaOH saturated with Cl at room temperature will 4 2 contain appreciable concentrations of all but one of the following species. Indicate the exception. 5 - - - - A. Cl B. OH C. ClO D. ClO 94 4 4400003 A 14 27824 52 1945 0056 The change, MnSO --> MnO , is 4 4 2 A. oxidation B. reduction C. neither oxidation nor reduction 9 D. both oxidation and reduction 4400004 C 14 27827 52 194710750025 0058 The change 2H O --> 2H O + O is: 4 2 2 2 2 A. oxidation only B. reduction only C. both oxidation and reduction 9 D. neither oxidation nor reduction 4410001 A 15 27830 31 00078001800211 ETS2 OS An oxidizing agent is a substance that A. takes electrons from other substances B. gives electrons to other substances C. takes protons from other substances D. gives protons to other substances E. in all cases gives oxygen to other substances 93 ___ 4410002 D 15 27834 31 00210017800111 ETS2 OS All of these statements concerning oxidation are correct except 3 ______ that A. the oxidation of a metal produces positive ions. B. the oxidizing agent increases the valence of something else C. oxidation cannot take place without reduction D. oxygen is necessary for oxidation to take place 9 E. the oxidizing agent takes electrons away from something else 4410003 C 15 27840 31 00248001800211 ETS2 OS In a chemical reaction, the valence of the element phosphorus was changed from 0 to +5. All of the following statements are true except the one stating that phosphorus 3 ______ A. reduced something else B. was oxidized C. gained protons D. lost electrons 9 E. acted as a metal 4410004 C 15 27844 51 00210025800111 ETS2 OS Which of the following statements is not true? A. An atom of the element oxygen has 6 electrons in the outermost electron shell or level. B. Oxygen is a very electronegative element. C. A chemical process involving oxidation always requires the presence of oxygen. D. Oxygen combines with nearly all of the other elements except of course the inert gases. E. Bonds between oxygen and other elements are fairly weak in 9 general making oxygen compounds fairly unstable. 4410005 D 15 27851 31 00070020800112 ETS2 OS An oxidizing agent is a substance that always A. contains oxygen B. readily gives up one or more electrons C. contains an element the valence of which readily increases D. contains an element the valence of which readily decreases 9 E. will burn 4410006 B 15 27855 31 00200021800112 ETS2 OS An increase in valence of one atom during a reaction is called A. neutralization B. oxidation C. ionization D. polymerization 9 E. hydration 4410007 A 15 27858 31 00200035800112 ETS2 OS The valence of a substance designates its A. state of oxidation B. atomic number C. atomic weight D. nuclear charge 9 E. radioactive properties 4410008 A 15 27861 52 00310041800112 ETS2 OS In the equation Cu(2+)O(2-) + H ---> Cu + H(+)H(+)O(2-) where 4 2 the signs represent the electrical charge on the atom, which one of the following is the product of reduction? A. Cu B. Cu(++) C. H(+) D. H 4 2 9 E. O(2-) 4410009 DBACC 54 27865 51 00580001 1490 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2The following contain pairs of statements which are either 2consistent (in agreement) or inconsistent with each other and 3 ___ 2either one of the statements may be true or false. For each item 2select from the key the correct response. 2 A. I and II are consistent; and both true. 2 B. I and II are consistent; but both false. 2 C. I and II are inconsistent; I true, II false. 0 D. I and II are inconsistent; I false, II true. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 I. Endothermic reactions proceed spontaneously. 1 II. Energy is absorbed in endothermic reactions. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 I. If a metal is oxidized its valence is lowered. 2 II. An oxidizing agent lends electrons to the metal it oxidizes. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 I. Astigmatism makes round objects appear slightly oval. II. In astigmatism the eye lens is more convex in one plane 3 than another. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 I. Power in science means the time rate of working. 4 II. Power equals work times time. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 I. HC H O should be classed as an acid. 4 2 3 2 9 II. All acids are capable of furnishing hydrogen ions. 4410010 CDAB 44 27879 52 0031002701961490 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2The following questions refer to the equation where the exponents 2show the ionic charge 5 +1 -1 +2 -1 Zn + 2H + 2Br ---> Zn + 2Br + H 4 2 2For each item select from the key the most appropriate response. 2 A. statement true--reason supports it 2 B. statement true--reason false 2 C. statement false--reason is consistent with the statement 0 D. statement false--reason immaterial MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 Br was reduced because its oxidation state decreased. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 The reaction was a neutralization because H O was formed. 24 2 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 3 Zn was oxidized in the reaction because it lost electrons. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 9 The hydrogen was reduced because its valence was increased. 4410011 A 15 27889 31 00200192800111 ETS2 OS The valence of a substance designates its A. state of oxidation B. atomic number C. atomic weight D. nuclear charge 9 E. radioactive properties 4410012 D 15 27892 31 00200263800111 ETS2 OS Oxidation state is A. determined from atomic weight B. acquired when protons are lent or borrowed C. indicated by the stability of a compound D. a measure of the number of electrons shared or exchanged 9 E. none of the above 4410013 D 15 27896 31 00200192800111 ETS2 OS The valence of a substance designates its A. nuclear charge B. atomic weight C. radioactivity D. state of oxidation 9 E. atomic number 4410014 E 15 27899 52 05650189800111 ETS2 OS The equivalent (combining) weight of an element is always A. one-half its molecular weight B. its atomic weight, multiplied by the valence C. the weight of 22.4 liters (STP) of the gaseous element D. its atomic weight divided by its specific heat E. the number of grams of the element which combines with 9 eight grams of oxygen 4410015 A 14 27904 31 001903518004 2 WV When a positive ion becomes an atom, it must A. gain electrons B. lose electrons C. gain protons 9 D. lose protons 4410016 DACB 45 27906 31 0020002180011190 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2Indicate the most closely related word or phrase from the following 2key. 2 A. gain of electrons 2 B. loss of electrons 2 C. presence of C and H 2 D. number of outer electrons 0 E. presence of h+ MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 Valence MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 To be reduced MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 3 Hydrocarbon MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 9 To be oxidized 4410017 E 15 27910 51 8003 2WVW Faraday's laws for electrolysis state that A. the weight of an element deposited is directly proportional to the quantity of electricity passed through the solution B. the weights of various elements deposited by a given quantity of electricity are proportional to their combining weights C. one coulomb of charge will deposit one mole of metal D. one Faraday of charge will always deposit one mole of material 9 E. both A and B are correct 4410018 DACB 45 27917 31 0020002180011190 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2Indicate the most closely related word or phrase from the following 2key. 2 A. gain of electrons 2 B. loss of electrons 2 C. presence of C and H 2 D. number of outer electrons 0 E. presence of H+ MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 Valence MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 To be reduced MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 3 Hydrocarbon MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 9 To be oxidized 4410019 B 14 27921 31 80038004 2WVW Sulfur is considered to be a reducing agent when it combines with A. hydrogen B. oxygen C. sodium 9 D. zinc 4410020 D 14 27923 31 80038004 2WVW An example of an oxidizing agent is A. carbon disulfide B. carbon monoxide C. coke 9 D. chlorine 4410021 BAC 35 27925 31 057400308004 90 2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2For each of the numbered items which follow, choose the option 2which best matches. 2 A. cathode 2 B. anode 2 C. reduction 2 D. oxidation 0 E. bonding MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 The positive terminal of an electrolytic cell MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 The negative terminal of an electrolytic cell MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 A reaction in which an atom, a group of atoms, or an ion gains 9 electrons 4410022 A 14 27930 31 026300198004 2 OS The loss of electrons from an ion, atom, or group of atoms is A. oxidation B. reduction C. electrolysis 9 D. buffering 4410023 A 14 27932 31 019202638004 2 OS A reducing agent is a substance which A. supplies electrons B. shares electrons C. takes up electrons 9 D. neutralizes electrons 4410024 B 14 27934 31 040702638004 2 OS The principal characteristic of all oxidation-reduction reactions is A. the formation of water B. the transfer of electrons C. complete irreversibility 9 D. the production of non-ionized compounds 4410025 D 14 27937 31 019202638004 2 OS An oxidizing agent is a substance that A. removes oxygen from a compound B. loses electrons C. shares electrons 9 D. gains electrons 4410026 D 14 27939 31 040708298004 2 OS If a reaction involves a change in oxidation state, the type of reaction would most likely be A. neutralization B. double replacement C. hydrolysis 9 D. single replacement 4410027 A 14 27942 31 00200351 0041 The notion of valence is a way of describing the fact that an atom can join together with A. a limited number of other atoms B. an unlimited number of other atoms 9 C. only metal atoms D. only nonmetal atoms 4410028 B 14 27945 31 078705590017 0041 The process of removing oxygen from combination with a metal is called 9 A. oxidation B. reduction C. vaporization D. electrolysis 4410029 A 14 27947 31 040702630162 0041 Reactions involving electron transfer are called oxidation reduction reactions, regardless of whether oxygen itself is involved. 9 A. True B. false 4410030 D 14 27950 32 002101890017 0041 The oxidation of an element always involves A. its combination with oxygen B. its combination with an oxide C. the gain of electrons by its atoms 9 D. the reduction of another element 4410031 B 14 27953 32 001701890021 0041 The reduction of an element never involves A. the gain of electrons by its atoms B. the loss of electrons by its atoms C. a decrease in its oxidation number 9 D. the oxidation of another element 4410032 D 15 27956 52 016204070007 0042 Consider the following redox reaction: 5H O + 2KMnO + 3H SO -----> K SO + 2MnSO + 8H O + 5O 4 2 2 4 2 4 2 4 4 2 2 Which one of the following pairs correctly indicates the oxidizing and the reducing agent in this reaction? Oxidizing agent Reducing agent 3 _______________ ______________ A. H O KMnO 4 2 2 4 B. H O H SO 4 2 2 2 4 C. KMnO H SO 4 2 4 D. KMnO H O 4 4 2 2 E. H SO KMnO 94 2 4 4 4410033 E 15 27965 31 016204070726 0042 In the oxidation-reduction reaction, 3 Fe O + 8Al <=====> 4 Al O + 9 Fe 4 3 4 2 3 A. Al is reduced. B. Fe is oxidized. C. Al changes oxidation number from +8 to +4. D. Fe changes oxidation number from +3 to +9. 9 E. Fe changes oxidation number from +8/3 to 0. 4410034 C 15 27969 52 008711670077 0042 When a solution of KCl reacts with an acidic solution of KMnO 4 4 to form chlorine gas, the oxidizing agent is 5 - 2+ - 7+ A. Cl , B. Mn , C. MnO , D. Mn , E. none of these. 94 4 4410035 E 15 27973 32 002100170407 0047 In the oxidation reduction reaction HNO + N H -----> H O + N (unbalanced) 4 3 2 4 2 2 what is being oxidized and what is being reduced? A. Oxygen is being oxidized, hydrogen reduced B. Oxygen is reduced, hydrogen oxidized C. Nitrogen is oxidized, hydrogen reduced D. Nitrogen is reduced, oxygen oxidized 9 E. Nitrogen is oxidized, Nitrogen reduced. 4410036 A 15 27979 31 016204070045 0044 In the redox reaction, 5 4+ 2+ 3+ 2+ Sn + Fe -----> Fe + Sn 5 4+ 2+ A. Sn is the oxidizing agent and Fe is the reducing agent. 5 4+ 2+ B. Sn is the reducing agent and Fe is the oxidizing agent. 5 4+ 3+ C. Sn is the reducing agent and Fe is the oxidizing agent. 5 3+ 2+ D. Fe is the oxidizing agent and Sn is the reducing agent. 5 2+ 3+ 9 E. Sn is the oxidizing agent and Fe is the reducing agent. 4410037 A 15 44468 51 059704071621 0044 Which statement correctly describes the following half-reaction in an electrolytic cell: 5 -2 - - MnO -----> MnO + e 4 4 4 A. An anion is oxidized at the anode. B. An anion is reduced at the cathode. C. A cation is reduced at the cathode. D. An anion is oxidized at the cathode. 9 E. An anion is reduced at the anode. 4410038 C 14 27993 32 14140407001251 9000 Determine which of the following statements is true for the reaction given below: 5 + 2+ Zn(s) + 2H (aq) -----> Zn + H (g) 4 2 5 + + A. H is oxidized B. H gains in oxidation state 5 + 9 C. H is reduced D. Zn(s) is reduced. 4410039 C 15 27998 31 002102631185 0020 Oxidation is A. a decrease in oxidation number B. a gain of electrons C. a loss of electrons D. always a reaction with oxygen atoms 9 E. always a reaction with oxygen molecules 4410040 A 15 28001 32 040701890045 0020 In the following reaction, which element is oxidized? 5 + + NaBrO + 6 NaI + 6 H ---> NaBr + 3 I + 3 H O + 6 Na 4 3 2 2 9 A. I B. Br C. H D. O E. Na 4410041 A 15 28005 32 040701890012 0020 In the following reaction,which element is reduced? 5 - + - 2+ 2MnO + 16H + 10Cl ---> 2Mn + 8H O + 5Cl (g) 4 4 2 2 9 A. Mn B. H C. Cl D. O E. none of these 4410042 A 15 28009 32 040700010045 0019 Which is true? In an oxidation-reduction reaction, the reducing agent A. is oxidized by the oxidizing agent B. takes electrons from the oxidizing agent C. is always reduced D. acts as a catalyst 9 E. never contains oxygen 4410043 B 15 28013 31 000100070752 0040 What is the response that makes a correct statement about the following reaction: 2H O + 2Na -----> 2NaOH + H ? 4 2 2 A. The oxidizing agent is Na. B. The reducing agent is Na. C. The oxidizing agent is the O of H O. 4 2 D. The reducing agent is the H of H O. 4 2 9 E. Both A and D. 4410044 A 15 28019 31 000100070752 0040 What is the oxidizing agent in the following reaction: 3Ag S + 2Al -----> 6Ag + Al S ? 4 2 2 3 A. Ag (in Ag S) B. S (in Ag S) C. Al D. Al S E. Ag 94 2 2 2 3 4410045 D 15 28023 31 153702630007 0040 In an oxidation-reduction reaction the oxidizing agent A. gains electrons B. becomes reduced C. experiences a decrease in oxidation number 9 D. both A and C E. both B and C. 4410046 B 15 28026 31 001700071537 0040 Name the process represented by the following reaction: 5 + - Na + e -----> Na. A. oxidation B. reduction 9 C. donation of electron D. dissolving E. ionization. 4410047 B 15 28029 32 040700210017 0038 Which of the following reactions involves neither oxidation nor reduction? A. formation of sulfur dioxide from sulfur B. neutralization of sodium hydroxide by nitric acid C. burning tin in chlorine gas D. photosynthesis by green plants in the sunlight 9 E. union of iron with sulfur 4410048 A 14 28033 52 1945 0056 Oxidation is A. loss of electrons B. gain of electrons C. increase in negative oxidation number 9 D. decrease in positive oxidation number 4410049 C 14 28036 32 040700328004 2 OS In the reaction between copper oxide and hydrogen A. the oxygen is reduced B. the copper loses electrons C. the hydrogen is oxidized 9 D. protons are set free 4420001 E 15 28039 72 00420043800113 ETS2 OS When heated, magnesium reacts with a limited supply of air to form a solid product. If this solid product is treated with water, magnesium hydroxide, (Mg(OH) ), and ammonia, (NH ), are 4 2 3 formed. From this information, the solid product can be identified as most probably being A. Mg O 4 2 B. MgO C. MgO 4 2 D. MgN E. Mg N 94 3 2 4420002 CDBCBB 64 28045 52 0059004380011490 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2Consider the following theories in explanation of the burning of 2material in air 2Theory X. During combustion, a substance escapes from the burning 2material into the surrounding air. The capacity of air to take 2up this escaping substance is limited. 2Theory Y. During combustion, the burning material unites with a 2certain component of the air. 2After the number on the answer sheet corresponding to each of the 2following items, blacken space 2 A. if the item supports theory X rather than theory Y. 2 B. if the item supports theorY Y rather than theory X. 2 C. if the item supports both theories equally well. 2 D. if the item, taken by itself, does not support either theory. 2Assume you know no facts other than those given in the numbered 0 items below. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 A candle in a closed jar stops burning before the candle is 1 completely burned. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 Air contains approximately 20 per cent oxygen. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 The product formed by burning iron in air weighs more than the 3 original iron. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 4 A candle burns more brightly in a breeze than in still air. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 5 Illuminating gas burns more brightly in chlorine than in air. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 6 Some products of burning, when heated in air which no longer supports burning, lose weight and restore the original properties 9 of the air. 4420003 C 14 28061 31 019601138004 2 OS Hydrogen is a gas which is A. easily liquefied and dissolved B. a flammable oxidizing agent C. a reducing agent which does not support combustion 9 D. a catalytic agent in gasoline 4420004 B 14 28064 31 019680048002 2 OS A blazing splint thrust slowly upward into a bottle of hydrogen held mouth downward will A. start to glow B. be extinguished C. burn more vigorously 9 D. result in an explosion throughout the hydrogen 4420005 C 14 28067 31 078700438004 2 OS The first step in the process of spontaneous combustion is A. an active burning B. accumulation of heat C. slow oxidation 9 D. raising a combustible material to its kindling temperature 4420006 A 14 28070 32 004800238004 2 OS The hottest flame as yet produced by man has been made by using A. fluorine and hydrogen B. hydrogen and oxygen C. oxygen and acetylene 9 D. oxygen and aluminum 4420007 A 14 28073 51 00431323 0043 Which of the following supports combustion? A. N O B. NO C. NH D. N O 94 2 2 3 2 5 4420008 A 15 28075 51 00480049800111 ETS2 OS Concerning flames, A. all fuels burn with the production of flame 3 ___ B. a flame is a burning gas C. the hottest portion of the flame is the innermost part D. the reducing flame is the extreme tip E. flames containing solid carbon particles are most effective 9 for heating purposes 4430001 D 15 28080 72 00390040800112 ETS2 OS Gold is below hydrogen, and sodium is above hydrogen in the electromotive series. This indicates that A. sodium is heavier than gold B. gold is relatively soft C. sodium has a complete outer ring of electrons D. gold will not oxidize in an acid solution 9 E. sodium is an integral part of acid salts 4430002 B 15 28085 52 01250016800116 ETS2 OS Ag+ ions have a greater tendency to unite with electrons than do Al(3+) ions. Which of the following is the best experimental evidence for this statement? A. Silver has a higher atomic weight than does aluminum. B. A strip of aluminum becomes covered with silver when dipped into a silver nitrate solution. C. Silver has a valence of 1+; aluminum has a valence of 3+. D. Silver is a better conductor of electricity than is aluminum. 9 E. Silver chloride is insoluble; aluminum chloride is soluble. 4430003 C 14 28092 31 001501968004 2 OS All metals above hydrogen in the activity series will A. replace hydrogen from water B. replace the metals above them from solutions C. replace hydrogen from non-oxidizing acids 9 D. replace nonmetals below hydrogen 4430004 C 14 28096 31 040700278004 2 OS The reaction between zinc and hydrochloric acid is an example of A. synthesis B. analysis C. single replacement 9 D. double replacement 4430005 B 14 28099 32 034300878004 2 OS Lead may be replaced from solutions of lead salts by A. copper B. magnesium C. mercury 9 D. silver 4430006 A 14 28101 32 008711780446 0041 Magnesium cannot displace from solution the ions of 9 A. sodium B. lead C. copper D. gold 4430007 C 15 28103 32 018911780045 0042 5 2+ An element or ion which will oxidize Zn to Zn but will not 5 2+ oxidize Cu to Cu is: 5 2+ + - A. Mn B. Pb C. H D. I E. NO . 94 2 3 4430008 C 15 28107 52 013804820407 0042 5 2+ 3+ - o Given Fe = Fe + e ; E = -0.771 5 2+ - o Cu(s) = Cu + 2e ; E = -0.345 If all ionic concentrations are 1M, the products in the spontaneous reaction which will occur are: 5 +3 +2 +3 +2 +2 A. Fe + Cu B. Fe + Cu(s) C. Fe + Cu 5 +2 9 D. Fe + Cu(s) E. none of these 4430009 B 14 28113 52 176705970416 0043 Choose the half-reaction with the most negative electrode potential: 5 2+ - A. Zn + 2e -----> Zn(s) 5 2- - - B. Zn(OH) + 2e -----> Zn(s) + 4OH 4 4 5 2+ - + - 9 C. Cu + 2e -----> Cu(s) D. Cu + e -----> Cu(s) 4430010 C 14 28118 52 176705970416 0043 Choose the half-reaction with the most positive electrode potential: 5 2+ - + - A. Zn + 2e -----> Zn(s) B. Cu + e -----> Cu(s) 5 + - + - 9 C. Au + e -----> Au(s) D. Ag + e -----> Ag(s). 4430011 C 14 28122 52 14350045 0043 One would not expect O to oxidize: 4 3 5 - - 2+ A. C H B. Cl C. F D. Mn 94 2 2 4430012 A 14 28124 32 002114481449 0019 Consider the following oxidation potentials: 5 2+ - o Ni--->Ni + 2e E +0.25 5 2+ - Cu--->Cu + 2e -0.34 5 - - 2I --->I + 2e -0.54 4 2 5 2 3+ - Fe --->Fe + e -0.77 5 + - Ag --->Ag + 2e -0.80 5 - 2+ - 2 Br --->Br + 2e -1.06 5 - - 2Cl --->Cl + 2e -1.3 94 2 4430013 B 14 28132 32 040700291191 0019 The reaction -------- will provide the highest cell voltage 5 +2 +2 +2 +2 9 A. Mg and Hg B. Mg and Hg C. Mg and Hg D. Mg and Hg 4430014 C 15 28135 52 001501680196 0047 It is found that when copper metal is added to a mixture of zinc and hydrochloric acid, the production of hydrogen is much faster than in the absence of copper. This is because A. Cu and HCl also react to form hydrogen. B. The copper reduces the overvoltage of hydrogen at zinc C. The hydrogen is actually liberated at copper, because the overvoltage of hydrogen at copper is less than the overvoltage of hydrogen at Zn 9 D. none of the above E. all of the above. 4430015 C 14 28142 72 195400150574 0061 Which metal is cathodic toward Fe? 9 A. Cr B. Zn C. Sn D. Al 4440001 A 15 28143 31 00370007 0042 Which of the following compounds are good oxidizing agents? A. F B. Na C. NO D. ZnSO E. C 94 2 2 4 4440002 C 14 28145 52 11780263153951 9000 Which ion has twenty-five electrons? 9 A. V(+2) B. Mn(+2) C. Co(+2) D. Ni(+2) 4440003 D 14 28147 32 0224 0009 The formula of calcium nitride is A. CaN B. Ca N C. Ca N D. Ca N 94 2 2 3 3 2 4440004 E 15 28149 51 00200189 0034 The valences of the elements A. can be explained adequately by Rutherford's model of the atom B. cannot be explained adequately by Rutherford's model of the atom C. can be between one and four, and each element can exhibit only one valence D. depend on the number of electron shells in the atom of the element 9 E. can vary in the case of some elements 4440005 B 14 28155 52 1949 0060 Choose the correct statement: A. because of hydrolysis, KNO is more acidic than KNO 4 2 3 B. KNO is a better oxidizing agent than K PO 4 3 3 4 C. Bi(III) is more easily oxidized than N(III) D. BiCl is more completely hydrolyzed than NCl 94 3 3 4441001 A 14 28161 32 018900350007 0041 If an element is in its lowest oxidation state, under appropriate circumstances it can act as A. a reducing agent B. an oxidizing agent C. either an oxidizing agent or a reducing agent, depending upon whether its oxidation number is negative or positive 9 D. neither an oxidizing agent nor a reducing agent 4441002 E 15 28166 31 03381362 0019 Which has a full 3d subshell? 9 A. Sc B. Cr C. Mn D. Cu E. none 4441003 C 15 28168 31 136203380560 0019 Which of the following has a half full 3d subshell? 9 A. V B. Cr C. Mn D. Fe E. CO 4441004 B 14 28170 32 0007 0003 5 - - In the reaction Cl (g) + 2Br -> Br + 2Cl , the oxidizing agent 4 2 2 is: 5 - - A. Cl B. Cl C. Br D. Br 94 2 2 4441005 A 14 28174 32 0752 0003 5 2+ - In the reaction 2Cu + 4I -> 2CuI(s) + I , electrons are 4 2 gained by: 5 2+ - A. Cu B. I C. CuI D. I 94 2 4442001 D 15 28178 32 00350006800111 ETS2 OS The oxidation state of chlorine in potassium chlorate is A. -1 B. +1 C. +3 D. +5 9 E. +7 4442002 B 15 28180 52 00310017800112 ETS2 OS The equation representing an oxidation/reduction reaction is A. SiO + 4HF --> SiF + 2H O 4 2 4 2 B. 3Cu + 8HNO --> 3Cu(NO ) + 4H O + 2NO 4 3 3 2 2 C. NaCl + H SO --> HCl + NaHSO 4 2 4 4 D. NaNO + KCl---> NaCl + KNO 4 3 3 E. Na SO + 2HCl --> 2NaCl + H O + SO 94 2 3 2 2 4442003 D 15 28186 52 00350006800112 ETS2 OS The oxidation state of chlorine in potassium chlorate is A. -1 B. +1 C. +3 D. +5 9 E. +7 4442004 E 15 28188 52 00368001000112 ETS2 OS In the equation for the manufacture of water gas, H O + C---> CO + H , carbon is 4 2 2 A. reduced B. a catalyst C. a base D. an oxidizing agent 9 E. a reducing agent 4442005 D 15 28191 32 00380021800112 ETS2 OS In the reaction, Sn + 4HNO --> SnO + 4NO + 2H O each atom of 4 3 2 2 2 tin (Sn) A. gains 2 electrons B. gains 4 electrons C. loses 2 electrons D. loses 4 electrons 9 E. none of these 4442006 A 15 28195 32 1 00208001800212 ETS2 OS By means of the Periodic Table (Figure 1), deduce the valence of chromium in the compound BaCrO . The answer is 4 4 A. +6 B. -6 C. +7 D. +3 9 E. +2 4442007 ABBBCDDA 84 28198 32 0020019600321290 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2To answer the following questions, choose the appropriate response 2from the following key. 2 A. +1 2 B. +2 2 C. -1 0 D. -2 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 The valence of hydrogen in H O 14 2 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 The valence of copper in CuSO 24 4 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 The valence of magnesium in MgSO 34 2 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 4 The valence of zinc in ZnO MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 The valence of OH in Ca(OH) 54 2 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 6 The valence of SO in H SO 64 4 2 4 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 7 7 The valence of sulphur in ZnS MACRO SUB-ITEM # 8 The valence of silver in AgNO 94 3 4442008 E 15 28206 52 00200560800111 ETS2 OS What is the valence of the element Mn in the compound HMnO ? 4 4 A. +3 B. +4 C. +5 D. +6 9 E. +7 4442009 C 15 28208 31 01960404800111 ETS2 OS When H combines with Cl A. the valence of H is reduced from +1 to zero. B. Cl is a reducing agent. C. electrons are gained by Cl. D. H is reduced. 9 E. The valence of Cl is unchanged. 4442010 C 15 28211 32 05600020800113 ETS2 OS Manganese will form the following compounds with oxygen, MnO, Mn O , MnO , and Mn O . The valence which is not represented by 3 ___ 4 2 3 3 2 7 manganese in these compounds is A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 6 9 E. 7 4442011 DBBAAD 65 28215 31 0020002500731190 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2The following questions are chemical symbols. 2Select from the key the proper oxidation state for each item 2 A. +1 2 B. +2 2 C. -1 2 D. -2 0 E. -3 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 O MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 Ca MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 3 Zn MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 4 Ag MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 5 K MACRO SUB-ITEM # 6 SO 94 4 4442012 D 15 28218 52 04078001026312 ETS2 OS In the reaction, Sn + 4 HNO ---> SnO + 4 NO + 2H O, each atom of 4 3 2 2 2 tin (Sn) A. gains 2 electrons B. gains 4 electrons C. loses 2 electrons D. loses 4 electrons 9 E. does none of these 4442013 E 15 28222 32 0726 05 Manganese (Mn) in MnO has an oxidation number of 4 2 9 A. 0 B. 1+ C. 2+ D. 3+ E. 4+ 4442014 B 15 28224 32 00200015800111 ETS2 OS The valence of the metal in Caso . 2 H O is 4 4 2 A. one B. two C. three D. four 9 E. six 4442015 D 15 28226 32 0726 05 Chromium in Cr O has an oxidation number of 4 2 3 9 A. 0 B. 1+ C. 2+ D. 3+ E. 4+ 4442016 AC 25 28228 32 075200450001 0028 MACROITEM STEM Consider the following balanced oxidation-reduction equation: 5 2+ 3+ 1- 2 Fe + Br -----> 2 Fe + 2 Br 04 2 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 The substance that has been oxidized is: 5 2+ 3+ 1- A. Fe B. Fe C. Br D. Br 14 2 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 In the above equation the oxidizing agent is: 5 2+ 3+ 1- A. Fe B. Fe C. Br D. Br 94 2 4442017 C 15 28234 31 07268003 2WVW What are the oxidation numbers of chromium in 5 2- Cr O Cr O H CrO 4 2 7 2 3 2 4 ----- ----- ------ A. 0 +1 0 B. +6 +3 +8 C. +6 +3 +6 D. +7 +3 +6 9 E. +12 +6 +6 4442018 C 15 28240 32 0726 05 Iron in FeO has an oxidation number of 9 A. 0 B. 1+ C. 2+ D. 3+ E. 4+ 4442019 E 15 28242 52 8003 2WVW The gram formula weight for H SO is 98. What is the equivalent 4 2 4 weight of sulfuric acid in (1) a acid base titration with NaOH; (2) a redox reaction wherein SO (-2) is formed; (3) a redox reaction 4 3 wherein S(-2) is formed? Reaction 1 Reaction 2 Reaction 3 A. 98/2 98 98 B. 98 98/4 98/6 C. 98 98 98/8 D. 98/2 98/2 98/4 9 E. 98/2 98/2 9,/8 4442020 D 14 28250 31 80038004 2WVW In sulfuric acid, the valence number of sulfur is A. +2 B. -2 C. -4 9 D. +6 4442021 B 14 28252 32 009401968004 2 OS The oxidation number of sulfur in combination with hydrogen is A. +6 B. -2 C. -3 9 D. +4 4442022 C 14 28254 32 035101898004 2 OS The oxidation number of an atom of a free element is A. +1 B. -2 C. 0 9 D. +2 if the element is diatomic 4442023 D 14 28256 31 009400208004 2 OS In sulfur dioxide, the valence of the sulfur atom is A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 9 D. 4 4442024 A 14 28258 32 040700278004 2 OS In the reaction between zinc and sulfuric acid, the substance which is oxidized is A. zinc B. hydrogen C. sulfur 9 D. oxygen 4442025 C 14 28260 31 019600258004 2 OS When hydrogen peroxide is a reducing agent, the oxidation number of oxygen changes from A. -1 to -2 B. -2 to 0 C. -1 to 0 9 D. -2 to -1 4442026 B 14 28263 31 018907260066 0041 Of the following elements, the one that always has the oxidation number +1 in its compounds is 9 A. hydrogen B. sodium C. fluorine D. oxygen 4442027 B 14 28265 31 072600660189 0041 An oxidation number that iron does not exhibit in its common compounds or in its elemental state is 9 A. 0 B. +1 C. +2 D. +3 4442028 D 15 28267 52 027400370726 0042 On analysis, a compound containing only boron and chlorine is found to contain 13.2% boron. What is the oxidation number of boron in this compound? 9 A. -2 B. -4 C. +1 D. +2 E. +3 4442029 B 15 28270 52 0726 1799 0042 What are the oxidation numbers of chromium in dichromate ion; 5 2- Cr O , 4 2 7 9 A. +5 B. +6 C. +3 D. +12 E. +1 4442030 B 15 28272 52 0726 0042 What is the oxidation number of chromium in chromic oxide Cr O ? 4 2 9 9 A. +7 B. +3 C. +5 D. 0 E. +1 4442031 A 15 28275 32 0726 0042 What is the oxidation number of chromium in chromic acid, H CrO ? 4 2 4 9 A. +6 B. +5 C. +7 D. 0 E. +1 4442032 B 15 28278 32 180002930351 0042 What is the formal charge on the N atom in the NOBr molecule, wherein the O atom is in the middle? 9 A. -2 B. -1 C. 0 D. +1 E. +2 4442033 D 15 28280 32 180003510293 0042 What is the formal charge on the O atom in the NOBr molecule, wherein the O atom is in the middle? 9 A. -2 B. -1 C. 0 D. +1 E. +2 4442034 E 15 28282 31 019200250726 0042 In which substance does oxygen fail to have an oxidation number of -2? A. HClO B. H C=O C. NO D. H O E. O . 94 2 2 3 4442035 A 15 28285 31 072602180072 0042 Which oxidation number is incorrect? A. Nitrogen is +3 in NH 4 3 B. Phosphorus is +5 in H PO 4 3 4 C. Oxygen is -1 in BaO 4 2 D. Hydrogen is -1 in MgH 4 2 E. Sulfur is +2 in Na S O . 94 2 2 3 4442036 E 15 28290 31 018907260020 0042 Which element can have oxidation numbers which are different than its ionic valence (neglect the zero oxidation state)? 9 A. Na B. Ca C. Al D. Fe E. Cr. 4442037 B 15 28293 32 072613710218 0042 The oxidation number of nitrogen is lowest in: A. N O B. N C. NH D. NO E. NO . 94 2 2 3 2 4442038 C 14 28295 51 0035 0043 The highest common oxidation state of chromium is: 9 A. +4 B. +5 C. +6 D. +7. 4442039 A 14 44877 52 003510580014 0043 The average oxidation state of carbon in sucrose, C H O , is 4 12 22 11 9 A. 0 B. +1 C. +2 D. +3 E. +4 4442040 A 14 28299 52 00350014 0043 The oxidation state of carbon in sodium stearate, NaOOCC H , is 4 17 35 9 A. -1.778 B. +4 C. -2 D. 0 4442041 D 14 28302 52 003700350025 0043 A compound in which the oxidation state of oxygen is positive is: A. H O B. Na S O C. ClO D. of 94 2 2 2 2 3 2 2 4442042 D 15 28304 32 07260351 0047 5 - The oxidation numbers of both atoms in the hypochlorite ion oCl are 5 +1 -2 +2 - +2 -3 -2 +1 -2 +2 9 A. O Cl B. O Cl C. O Cl D. O Cl E. O Cl 4442043 C 15 28308 32 002107261055 0044 Give the oxidation number of Mn in the following species: MnO 4 2 9 A. -2 B. 2 C. 4 D. 0 E. -4. 4442044 C 14 28311 32 01890726006651 9000 The element boron has what oxidation number in the compound sodium borate, Na B O ? 4 2 4 7 9 A. +1 B. +2 C. +3 D. +4 4442045 C 15 28313 51 07260024 0018 What is the oxidation number of phosphorus in POCl ? 4 3 9 A. 1- B. 1+ C. 5+ D. 4+ E. 0 4442046 D 15 28315 52 072607520704 0028 Calculate the oxidation number of Os in OsO . 4 4 5 + + + + A. +2 or 2 B. +4 or 4 C. +6 or 6 D. +8 or 8 9 E. none of these 4442047 B 15 28318 52 072607520704 0028 5 - Calculate the oxidation number of Br in BrO . 4 4 9 A. +8 B. +7 C. +5 D. +3 E. -1 4442048 B 15 28321 32 07520726 0028 5 2- Calculate the oxidation number of C in C O . 4 2 4 9 A. +6 B. +3 C. +4 D. +8 E. +2 4442049 D 15 28324 32 0726 05 Chromium in K Cr O has an oxidation number of 4 2 2 7 9 A. 3+ B. 4+ C. 5+ D. 6+ E. 7+ 4442050 D 15 28326 32 07260025 0020 The oxidation number of oxygen is always A. zero B. +2 C. -1 D. -2(except in peroxides) 9 E. +2(except in peroxides) 4442051 A 15 28328 32 0726 0020 The oxidation number of Mn in KMnO is 4 4 9 A. +7 B. +5 C. +3 D. +6 E. none of these 4442052 B 15 28330 31 018903700726 0020 All elements in group VI of the periodic table can be expected to have oxidation numbers of 9 A. -6 B. -2 C. +2 D. -4 E. none of these 4442053 E 15 28332 31 132302180726 0020 An oxide of nitrogen in which the oxidation number of nitrogen is zero is A. NO B. N O C. NO D. N O E. none of these 94 2 4 2 2 4442054 A 15 28335 31 072600061178 0020 The oxidation number of chlorine in the chlorate ion is 9 A. +5 B. +3 C. +1 D. +7 E. -1 4442055 B 15 28337 32 07260218 0019 The oxidation number of nitrogen in H NO is 4 3 9 A. +1 B. -1 C. +2 D. +3 E. -2 4442056 D 15 28339 51 05950035 0019 Which of the following can show only negative oxidation states? 9 A. O B. S C. Cl D. F E. H 4442057 C 15 28341 52 0035 0019 The minimum oxidation state expected for Se (At. No. = 34) Is 9 A. -6 B. -5 C. -2 D. +2 E. none is correct 4442058 E 15 28343 52 13550035 0019 The maximum oxidation state of Sb (at. No. = 51) Would be expected to be 9 A. +2 B. +3 C. +4 D. +6 E. none is correct 4442059 D 15 28345 31 003503690885 0019 The maximum oxidation state which may be exhibited by Cr is 9 A. +1 B. +5 C. -5 D. +6 E. +3 4442060 C 15 28347 31 003508850369 0019 The maximum oxidation state of V would be expected to be 23 9 A. +2 B. +3 C. +5 D. +6 E. +7 4442061 E 15 28349 31 003508850369 0019 From its position in the periodic chart, the maximum oxidation state of Tc (At. No.=43) would be expected to be 9 A. +2 B. +4 C. +5 D. +6 E. +7 4442062 C 15 28352 31 072600660094 0040 The oxidation number of S in the compound MgSO is 4 3 9 A. -1 B. +2 C. +4 D. +6 E. -4 4442063 D 15 28354 31 072611780006 0040 5 - The oxidation number of Cl in the anion ClO is 4 3 9 A. -1 B. +1 C. +3 D. +5 E. +7 4442064 D 15 28357 31 072600060018 0040 In which of the following pairs of compounds does chlorine have the same oxidation number in both members of the pair? A. HClO, HCl B. HClO , HClO C. NaCl, NaClO 4 2 3 D. NaClO, Ca(ClO) E. both A and B 94 2 4442065 C 14 28361 32 072611781590 0009 5 - The oxidation number of Mn in the MnO ion is 4 4 9 A. -2 B. +6 C. +7 D. +8 4442066 D 14 28364 32 072615910024 0009 The oxidation number of P in H PO is 4 3 4 9 A. -3 B. +1 C. +3 D. +5 4442067 B 14 28366 32 035103370263 0009 When sulfur combines to form an ionic binary compound, what is the most common charge on the sulfur ion? 9 A. +2 B. -2 C. -6 D. +16 E. +6 4442068 D 15 28369 32 018900201323 0038 If an element, X, forms the oxides XO and X O , 4 2 3 A. X should be more acidic in nature than basic. B. X should form a stronger acid than hydrochloric acid. C. The element X is said to be amphoteric. D. The indicated valence numbers of this element are 2 and 3. E. X should form the chlorides XCl and X Cl . 94 2 2 3 4442069 E 15 28375 32 0726 05 Manganese in KMnO has an oxidation number of 4 4 9 A. 3+ B. 4+ C. 5+ D. 6+ E. 7+ 4442070 E 15 28377 32 0726 05 Selenium in H SeO has an oxidation number of 4 2 4 9 A. 2- B. 1- C. 1+ D. 4+ E. 6+ 4442071 A 15 28379 32 0726 05 5 -1 The oxidation state of chromium in the ion (CrO ) is 4 2 9 A. 3+ B. 4+ C. 5+ D. 6+ E. 7+ 4442072 B 15 28382 32 0726 05 5 -2 The oxidation state of sulfur in the ion (SO ) is 4 3 A. 3+ B. 4+ C. 5+ D. 6+ E. 7+ 9 4442073 C 15 28385 32 0726 05 5 - The oxidation state of nitrogen in the NO ion is 4 3 9 A. 4- B. 4+ C. 5+ D. 6+ E. 7- 4442074 B 15 28388 32 0726 05 5 -2 The oxidation state of carbon in the (CO ) ion is 4 3 9 A. 3+ B. 4+ C. 5+ D. 6+ E. 7+ 4442075 C 14 28391 52 1945 0056 The oxidation number of P in Na P O is 5+. The value of x is 4 5 x 10 9 A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 4442076 A 14 28393 52 19490072 0060 In which can N not act as an oxidizing agent? A. Nh B. NH OH C. N H D. N 94 3 2 2 4 2 4442077 BD 25 28395 32 0020022400151290 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2Answer the following questions concerning valence. 2The valence of the metal in the positive part of the formula 2Mg (PO ) is 04 3 4 2 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 A. one B. two C. three D. four 1 E. six MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 In the preceding formula, the total negative valence is 3 _____ A. two B. three C. four D. six 9 E. eight 4442078 CBBCE 55 44495 31 MACROITEM STEM To answer the following questions, choose the appropriate response from the following key: 0 A. +1 B. +2 C. -1 D. -2 E. +4 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 The oxidation state of hydrogen in BaH 14 2 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 The oxidation state of copper in CuSO 24 4 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 The oxidation state of magnesium in Mg (PO ) 34 3 4 2 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 The oxidation state of oxygen in H O 44 2 2 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 The oxidation state of sulfur in ZnSO 94 3 4443001 B 15 28400 32 00010002800111 ETS2 OS Of the following, the most active reducing agent is A. F B. Na C. K D. Cl 9 E. C 4443002 B 15 28402 52 00030004800111 ETS2 OS Potassium, when it combines with chlorine, is A. a reducing agent and is itself reduced B. a redicing agent and is itself oxidized C. an oxidizing agent and is itself oxidized D. an oxidizing agent and is itself reduced 9 E. sharing electrons regardless of oxidation-reduction 4443003 A 15 28406 52 00030004800111 ETS2 OS Sodium, when it combines with chlorine, is A. a reducing agent and decreases the valence of chlorine B. a reducing agent and increases the valence of chlorine C. an oxidizing agent and decreases the valence of chlorine D. an oxidizing agent and increases the valence of chlorine 9 E. sharing electrons regardless of oxidation-reduction 4443004 B 15 28411 31 00140010800111 ETS2 OS In the recovery of a metal from ore, suitable reducing agents are necessary. Which one of the following is not a reducing agent? A. carbon B. carbon dioxide C. hydrogen D. coke 9 E. electric current 4443005 B 15 28414 32 00180003800111 ETS2 OS In the formation of NaCl, the sodium becomes an ion by A. the reduction of sodium to produce a positive ion B. the oxidation of sodium to produce a positive ion C. the oxidation of sodium to produce a negative ion D. the reduction of sodium to produce a negative ion 9 E. being made neutral 4443006 C 14 28418 51 00010006800111 ETS2 OS One of the following is not a reducing agent. 3 ___ A. hydrogen B. electric current C. chlorine 9 D. coke 4443007 C 15 28420 52 00440006800111 ETS2 OS Bromide ion A. is oxidized by iodine B. forms an insoluble salt with sodium ion C. is oxidized by chlorine D. is present in phosphorus tribromide E. is reduced by sulfuric acid when an attempt is made to prepare hydrogen bromide by the action of sulfuric acid on 9 potassium bromide 4443008 D 15 28425 52 00010025800111 ETS2 OS Which of the following characteristics would yield the most evidence toward determining whether an unknown gas was a good reducing agent? A. The gas has a very low density. B. The gas has a high molecular weight. C. The gas is liberated from certain salts of all metals. D. The gas burns in oxygen to form water. 9 E. The gas forms an acid solution in water. 4443009 E 15 28430 52 00078001800211 ETS2 OS In the family comprising the best oxidizing agents, oxidizing power A. increases as the valence increases B. is greatest with oxygen C. increases as the atomic weight increases D. increases as the substance increases in metallic properties 9 E. increases as the atomic number decreases 4443010 E 15 28434 72 00040026800111 ETS2 OS The halogens A. are the only non-metals which form anions B. are readily oxidized to form univalent anions C. form molecules the stabilities of which increase steadily with increased atomic weights of the elements D. form covalent compounds with nearly all other elements E. accept electrons with a tendency which decreases as the 9 atomic radius increases 4443011 A 15 28440 31 00070028800112 ETS2 OS An element which is a good oxidizing agent A. is a non-metal and is itself reduced B. is a non-metal and is itself oxidized C. is a metal and is itself oxidized D. is a metal and is itself reduced 9 E. is a metal but is not itself oxidized or reduced 4443012 B 14 28444 31 117803510293 0041 The ions and atoms (or molecules) of an element A. have very nearly the same properties except that the ions are electrically charged B. may have strikingly different properties C. always exhibit different colors D. differ in that the ions are more active chemically than the 9 atoms or molecules 4443013 A 14 28449 32 002803750023 0041 The most reactive nonmetal is 9 A. fluorine B. chlorine C. oxygen D. sulfur E. carbon 4443014 B 14 28451 32 037500150002 0041 The most active of the following metals is 9 A. aluminum B. sodium C. mercury D. copper E. argon 4443015 A 14 28453 32 05390021 0041 Rust-colored stains on recently exposed rock surfaces are usually due to the A. oxidation of ferrous compounds to ferric compounds B. oxidation of ferric compounds to ferrous compounds C. reduction of ferrous compounds to ferric compounds 9 D. reductuon of ferric compounds to ferrous compounds 4443016 D 15 28458 32 001513700001 0042 Metals with very low ionization potentials are: A. good oxidizing agents B. unresponsive toward redox C. covalent bond formers D. good reducing agents 9 E. weak electrolyte formers. 4443017 E 15 28461 32 044900350218 0042 The most stable oxidation state of nitrogen is 9 A. +1 B. -1 C. +3 D. -3 E. zero. 4443018 A 15 28463 32 01920007 0042 What substance may not act as an oxidizing agent? 3 ___ 5 - - - - A. Cl B. Cl C. ClO D. ClO E. ClO 94 2 3 4 4443019 D 14 28466 51 017400320209 0043 Boiling CuCl with Cu in concentrated HCl produces: 4 2 5 - - A. CuCl(s) B. Cu O(s) C. CuCl D. CuCl 94 2 3 2 4443020 C 14 28469 52 133107860045 0043 Br can be produced by: 4 2 5 - - A. oxidizing Br by I B. oxidizing Cl by Br 4 2 2 5 - - - C. oxidizing Br by Cl D. oxidizing I by Br 94 2 4443021 D 15 28473 51 004508090006 0047 Which of the following is likely to oxidize the chloride ion to the chlorine molecule? 5 ++ +++ ++ A. Zn B. Fe C. Na D. MnO E. Mn 94 2 4443022 B 14 28476 51 000508460001 0043 Ionic hydrides are usually: A. liquids at room temperature B. good reducing agents 9 C. good electrical conductors when solid D. easily reduced. 4443023 D 14 28479 51 00450806 0043 When H O is oxidized the product is: 4 2 2 5 2- - - A. O B. OH C. HO D. O 94 2 2 4443024 A 14 28481 32 145500010003 0043 The alkali metal with the highest ionization potential is 9 A. Li B. Na C. K D. Cs. 4443025 D 14 28483 32 0007 0019 Which of the following is the best oxidizing agent? 5 2+ - A. Mg B. Mg C. Cl D. Cl 94 2 4443026 A 15 28485 32 04071452 0019 The following reaction ----------. 5 + +2 2Cu ---> Cu + Cu A. will occur as written B. will not occur as written C. will involve transmutation of elements D. is sheer nonsense 9 E. is not an oxidation-reduction reaction 4443027 B 14 28489 52 0007 0019 The best oxidizing agent is A. NaClO B. NaClO C. NaClO D. NaClO 94 4 3 2 4443028 D 14 28491 52 01921446 0019 Which of the following substances is the strongest acid? A. H SO B. H SeO C. H SeO D. H SO 94 2 3 2 3 2 4 2 4 4443029 A 15 28493 52 080511780001 0019 Which halide ion is the strongest reducing agent? 5 - - - - 2- 9 A. I B. Cl C. F D. Br E. S 4443030 B 14 28495 32 0045 0019 5 - Which would be expected to oxidize Br to Br ? 4 2 5 - - - A. Cl B. Cl D. I D. I E. Br 94 2 2 3 4443031 A 15 28499 52 098900070001 0019 Which can function either as an oxidizing agent or as a reducing agent? 5 - - 2- A. H O B. HCl C. ClO D. MnO E. S 94 2 2 4 4 4443032 C 14 28502 52 0012 0019 5 - Which of the following is capable of reducing Br to Br ? 4 2 5 - - A. Cl B. Cl C. I D. I 94 2 2 4443033 A 14 28506 52 0001 0019 Which of the following is the worst reducing agent? A. H S B. H Se C. H Te D. H PO 94 2 2 2 2 4443034 A 14 28508 31 002109770025 0019 The oxidation of H O will yield 4 2 2 5 - - 2- A. O B. OH C. HO D. O 94 2 2 4443035 B 15 28511 52 000600670021 0038 Which of the following most clearly illustrates the oxidizing property of chlorine, Cl ? 4 2 A. Its liberation at the anode during the electrolysis of sodium chloride solution B. The reaction of chlorine with sodium bromide solution, resulting in the displacement of bromine C. The use of the chlorates as oxidizing agents in the manufacture of matches D. The fact that it may be prepared by the reaction of oxygen 9 E. Its fair solubility in water 4443036 D 15 28518 52 001501700180 0047 X, Y, and Z are three metals. Their sublimation energies are 20, 40 and 50 kcal/mole respectively. Their ionization energies are 130, 120, and 100 kcal/mole respectively. The hydration energies 5 + + + of all three ions, X , Y , and Z are the same. If entropy effects are neglected, the best reducing agent in aqueous solution is A. X B. Y C. Z 9 D. X and Y are equally good E. Y and Z are equally good. 4443037 E 15 45599 71 In the equation 5 - MnO + H C O + H SO ---> CO + K SO + MnSO + H O 4 4 2 2 4 2 4 2 2 4 4 2 The oxidizing agent is A. H C O B. H SO C. CO D. MnSO E. KMnO 94 2 2 4 2 4 2 4 4 4450001 D 15 28524 52 00218003 2WVW Consider the following redox reaction 5H O + 2KMnO + 3H SO ---> K SO + 2MnSO + 8H O + 5O 4 2 2 4 2 4 2 4 4 2 2 which one of the followng pairs correctly indicates the oxidizing and the reducing agent in this reaction? Oxidizing agent reducing agent 3 _________ _____ ________ _____ A. H O KMnO 4 2 2 4 B. H O H SO 4 2 2 2 4 C. KMnO H SO 4 4 2 4 D. KMnO H O 4 4 2 2 E. H SO KMnO 94 2 4 4 4450002 D 15 28534 51 00218003 2WVW Consider the following redox reaction 5H O + 2KMnO + 3H SO ---> K SO + 2MnSO + 8H O + 5O 4 2 2 4 2 4 2 4 4 2 2 Which one of the following pairs correctly indicates the oxidizing and the reducing agent in this reaction? Oxidizing agent Reducing agent 3 _______________ ______________ A. H O KMnO 4 2 2 4 B. H O H SO 4 2 2 2 4 C. KMnO H SO 4 4 2 4 D. KMnO H O 4 4 2 2 E. H SO KMnO 94 2 4 4 4450003 E 15 45594 71 The following reaction occurs in acid solution: 5 - - - NO + I ---> IO + NO 4 3 3 2 5 - In the balanced equation, the coefficient of NO is 4 3 9 A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 E. 6 4450004 C 15 28544 52 016204070818 0042 The following redox reaction is balanced by which set of coefficients? 5 - + +2 ? MnO + ?H + ?H S ---> ?Mn + ?S + ?H O 4 4 2 2 A. 2 8 5 2 6 8 B. 2 4 3 2 3 5 C. 2 6 5 2 5 8 D. 4 12 6 4 6 12 9 E. 2 6 4 2 4 8 4450005 D 15 28551 52 003110760263 0042 5 + - - The equation 6 H + ClO + Cl <====> Cl + 3 H O, which seems 4 3 2 2 to be correct, is not correct because: 5 - - A. ClO will not oxidize Cl to Cl (note E.M.F. Table). 4 3 2 B. This reaction would not take place in an acid solution. C. The equation is not balanced with respect to mass. D. The equation is not balanced with respect to electron charge E. This reaction contains two reduction processes but no 9 oxidation process. 4450006 D 15 28559 32 040705530263 0042 Consider the reaction: 5 2+ + - 3+ + 2Mn + 5 NaBiO (s) + 14 H <====> 2 MnO + 5Bi + 5Na + 7H O 4 3 4 2 5 2+ For every mole of Mn changed thru this reaction the number of electrons transferred is equal to: (N is Avogadro's number) 9 A. 10 N B. 14 N C. 7 N D. 5 N E. 1 N. 4450007 D 15 28565 52 010011671783 0042 When excess nitric acid (dilute) reacts with zinc metal to form a solution of zinc nitrate, which term appears in the balanced net 5 - ionic equation? Assuming that the NO is reduced to nitrous 4 3 oxide. (Use integer coefficients only.) 5 2+ - + A. Zn , B. NO , C. 2 Zn(NO ) , D. 8 H , E. H gas. 94 3 3 2 2 4450008 D 15 28572 52 003116271076 0042 In the balanced equation illustrating the disproportionation of chlorate ion (yielding perchlorate ion and chloride ion), which number appears in front of the chlorate ion? 9 A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 4450009 E 15 28575 52 107604070031 0042 Complete and balance the following reaction: 5 2- 2+ 4+ 3+ Cr O + Sn = Sn + Cr 4 2 7 The balanced equation will contain which of the following terms: 5 2- 2+ A. 2 Cr O B. 7 H O on the left C. 4 Sn 4 2 7 2 5 - D. 14 OH on the right E. 7 H O on the right. 94 2 4450010 B 15 28581 52 109717020035 0042 A 2.5 mole sample of dichlorine heptoxide, Cl O , in being 4 2 7 converted to a new compound X gains 30 moles of electrons. Compound X contains 1 gram-atom of chlorine per mole. What is the oxidation state of chlorine in compound X? 9 A. -1 B. +1 C. +3 D. +5 E. +7 4450011 D 15 28586 32 081810550031 0044 What is the sum of the coefficients of all the species in the 5 + (H ) 5 +2 balanced equation: PbO + NO -----> Pb + HNO 4 2 2 9 A. 20 B. 18 C. 13 D. 8 E. 6 4450012 A 15 28591 32 081810550031 0044 What is the sum of the coefficients of all the species in the balanced equation: 5 + -2 +3 -2 H + Cr O + H SO -----> Cr + SO + H O 4 2 7 2 3 4 2 9 A. 15 B. 20 C. 13 D. 30 E. 24. 4450013 E 15 28595 32 107617670818 0044 Complete and balance the following half-reaction which occurs in basic medium. Use the minimum integral coefficients. 5 -1 -1 Cl -----> ClO the correct result will show: 4 3 5 + - A. 5 H on right side. B. 5 OH on right side. C. 6 electrons on left side. D. 6 H O on left side. 4 2 9 E. 7 negative charges on each side. 4450014 D 14 28601 72 11900407107651 9000 Upon balancing the half-cell reaction 5 - - - NO + H O + e -----> NH + OH 4 3 2 3 the correct coefficient for the number of electrons is 9 A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8 4450015 C 15 28605 52 107508481076 0018 Hydrogen peroxide, H O , has many uses: bleaching cotton 4 2 2 fabrics, propulsion of rockets (both as a fuel and as an oxidizer), bleaching hair, as a component of some washing powder and denture-cleansing products, and as a medicinal aid. One method of determining the amount of H O in a known volume of 4 2 2 peroxide solution uses potassium permanganate, KMnO . Balance 4 4 the following equation showing the reaction between H O and 4 2 2 KMnO : 4 4 H O +KMnO +H SO ---> K SO +MnSO +H O+O 4 2 2 4 2 4 2 4 4 2 2 select the correct coefficient for H O in the properly balanced 4 2 equation. 9 A. 1 B. 2 C. 8 D. 5 E. 10 4450016 C 15 28617 52 081800311076 0018 What is the proper coefficient for C H when the following 4 2 4 equation is correctly balanced? 5 - MnO +C H ----> MnO +C H O (basic solution) 4 4 2 4 2 2 6 2 9 A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. none of these 4450017 D 14 28621 52 040700310735 0009 For the reaction: 4 Al(s) + 3 O (g) + 6 H O -----> 4 Al(OH) (s) 4 2 2 3 5 o o n in the equation: /\ G = -nFE is 3 __ 9 A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 12 4450018 C 14 28625 52 1945 0056 For the reaction HIO + H C O --> I + CO + H O 4 3 2 2 4 2 2 2 The simplest molar ratio of HIO to H C O in the balanced equa- 4 3 2 2 4 tion is A. 5HIO to 6H C O 4 3 2 2 4 B. 5HIO to 3H C O 4 3 2 2 4 C. 2HIO to 5H C O 4 3 2 2 4 D. 1HIO to 1H C O 94 3 2 2 4 4450019 B 14 28631 52 1945 0056 For the reaction KMnO + H O + H SO --> 4 4 2 2 2 4 MnSO + O + KHSO + H O 4 4 2 4 2 the correctly balanced equation has the following coefficients in consecutive order A. 2,1,4 --> 2,3,2,4 B. 2,5,4 --> 2,5,2,8 C. 4,4,8 --> 4,7,4,10 9 D. 2,3,4 --> 2,4,2,6 4450020 A 14 28636 52 1946 0057 5 2- + 2+ Balance the equation: PbO + C O + H --> Pb + CO + H O. 4 2 2 4 2 2 5 2- The sum of the coefficients of PbO and C O in the balanced 4 2 2 4 equation is: 9 A. 2 B. 3 C. 5 D. 7 4450021 C 15 28642 52 8003 2WVW Which of the following options correctly balances the equation? ? MnO (-1) + ? H(+1) + ? H S ---> ? Mn(+2) + ? S + ? H O 4 4 2 2 A. 2 8 5 2 6 8 B. 2 4 3 2 3 5 C. 2 6 5 2 5 8 D. 4 12 6 4 6 12 9 E. 2 6 4 2 4 8 4450022 D 15 45603 71 5 3+ 2- In basic solution, H O oxidizes Cr to CrO and is reduced to 4 2 2 4 5 - OH . Write the balanced net ionic equation for this reaction. 5 - How many OH are there in the balanced equation? 9 A. 4 B. 6 C. 8 D. 10 E. 16 4451001 C 15 28649 51 1809 05 STOP Which of the following is the correct detailed ionic equation for the reaction of sodium carbonate with hydrochloric acid to form sodium chloride, water, and carbon dioxide. 5 + = + - + - A. 2Na + CO + H + Cl = Na + Cl + H O + CO 4 3 2 2 5 + = + - + - B. 2Na + CO + 2H + Cl = 2Na + Cl + H O + CO 4 3 2 2 5 + 2- + - + - C. 2Na + CO + 2H + 2Cl = 2Na + 2Cl + H O + CO 4 3 2 2 5 + 2- + - + - D. Na + CO + 2H + Cl = Na + Cl + H O + CO 4 3 2 2 5 + 2- + - E. 2Na + CO + 2H + 2Cl = 2NaCl + H O + CO 94 3 2 2 4451002 B 15 28662 31 1809 05 STOP Which of the following is the correct detailed ionic equation for the reaction of zinc metal with hydrochloric acid to yield zinc chloride and hydrogen gas? 5 + - 2+ - A. Zn + H + Cl = Zn + Cl + H 4 2 5 + - 2+ - B. Zn + 2H + 2Cl = Zn + 2Cl + H 4 2 5 + 2+ C. Zn + 2H = Zn + H 4 2 5 + - 2+ - D. Zn + 2H + Cl = Zn + Cl + H 4 2 5 + - E. Zn + 2H + 2Cl = ZnCl + H 94 2 2 4451003 C 15 28671 31 1809 05 MSU Which of the following is the correct net ionic equation for the reaction of calcium chloride with sodium phosphate to form solid calcium phosphate and sodium chloride? 5 2+ 3- 2+ 3+ A. Ca + PO = Ca (PO ) D. 3Ca + 2PO = 2Ca (PO ) 4 4 3 4 2 4 3 4 2 5 2+ 3- 2+ 3- 2+ 3- B. 3Ca + PO = Ca (PO ) E. 3Ca + 2PO = 3Ca + 2PO 4 4 3 4 2 4 4 5 2+ 3- 2+ 3- C. 3Ca + 2PO = 3Ca + 2PO 94 4 4 4451004 D 15 28680 51 1809 05 STOP Which of the following is the correct net ionic equation for the reaction of barium nitrate with sodium sulfate to form sodium nitrate and barium sulfate? 5 2+ - + 2- + - A. Ba + 2NO + 2Na + SO = BaSO + 2Na + 2NO 4 3 4 4 3 5 2+ - + 2- + - B. Ba + NO + Na + SO = BaSO + Na + NO 4 3 4 4 3 5 + 2- 2+ 2- + - C. Ba(NO ) + 2Na + SO = Ba + SO + 2Na + 2NO 4 3 2 2 4 3 5 2+ 2- D. Ba + SO = BaSO 94 4 4 4451005 B 15 28690 51 1809 05 STOP Which of the following reactions can be classified as a net ionic equation? 5 + - 2- + A. Zn(s) + 2Na + 2OH = ZnO + H + 2Na 4 2 2 5 - 2- B. Zn(s) + 2OH = H + ZnO 4 2 2 C. 2NaF + H SO = Na SO + 2HF 4 2 4 2 4 5 + - + - + 2- D. 2Na + 2F + H + HSO = 2Na + SO + 2HF 4 4 4 5 - + 2- 2- E. 2F + 2H + SO = 2HF + SO 94 4 4 4451006 D 15 28699 51 1809 05 STOP Consider the equation 5 + - 3+ 2- 6Na + 6OH + 2Al + 3SO ----> 4 4 5 + 2- 2Al(OH) (s) + 6Na + 3SO 4 3 4 A. The equation is not balanced B. The equation has the form of a net ionic equation 5 2- C. If the SO were deleted from both sides of the 4 4 equation, it would be the net ionic equation 5 + 2- D. If the Na and SO ions were deleted from both sides 4 4 of the equation, it would become the net ionic equation 5 3+ - E. If 2Al(OH) (s) were written as 2Al + 6OH the 4 3 9 equation would be the detailed ionic equation 4451007 B 14 28711 51 1809 05 STOP Which of the following is a net ionic equation? 5 + - + 3+ - + - A. 3K + 3OH + Al + 3Cl ----> Al(OH) (s) + 3K + 3Cl 4 3 5 + 2+ B. Ca(OH) (s) + 2H ----> Ca + 2H O 4 2 2 5 + 2- + - + - C. 2Na + CO + 2H + 2Cl ----> 2Na + 2Cl + CO + H O 4 3 2 2 5 + - D. HNO + KOH ----> K + NO + H 94 3 3 2 4451008 E 15 28720 51 1809 05 STOP Solid MnS reacts with hydrochloric acid to form the soluble salt MnCl and hydrogen sulfide. Consider the following 4 2 5 + - + 2- equation for that reaction MnS + 2H + 2Cl = MnCl + 2H + S 4 2 A. It is a correct net ionic equation. 5 + B. If 2H were deleted from each side of the equation, it would be the correct net ionic equation. 5 2- C. If S were deleted from the right side of the equation, it would be the correct net ionic equation. 5 + 2- D. If the 2H + S on the right hand side were replaced with H S, it would be the correct net ionic 4 2 equation. 5 + E. The equation should be changed to read MnS + 2H = 5 2+ Mn + H S. That is the correct net ionic equation. 94 2 4451009 C 15 28733 51 1809 05 STOP Which of the following represents a balanced, net ionic equation? 5 + - A. HgCl + 2NaOH = HgO(s) + 2Na + 2Cl + H O 4 2 2 5 2+ - + - + - B. Hg + 2Cl + 2Na + 2OH = HgO(s) + 2Na + 2Cl + H O 4 2 5 2+ - C. Hg + 2OH = H O + HgO(s) 4 2 5 2+ - + - D. Hg + 2OH = H + OH + HgO(s) 5 2+ + E. Hg + 2NaOH = HgO(s) + 2Na + H O 94 2 4451010 D 15 28742 51 1809 05 STOP Which of the following reactions can be classified as a net ionic equation? 5 2+ - A. Pb + 2NO + H S = PbS + 2HNO 4 3 2 3 5 2- - B. Pb(NO ) + S = PbS + 2NO 4 3 2 3 5 2+ - + - C. Pb + 2NO + H S = PbS + 2H + 2NO 4 3 2 3 5 2+ + D. Pb + H S = PbS + 2H 4 2 9 E. none of the above 4451011 B 15 28749 51 1809 05 STOP Gaseous CO is produced when solutions of sodium bicarbonate 4 2 and hydrochloric acid are mixed. The net ionic equation which describes this reaction is 5 + - + - A. NaHCO + H + Cl = CO + Na + Cl + H O 4 3 2 2 5 - + B. HCO + H = CO + H O 4 3 2 5 + - + - + C. Na + HCO + H + Cl = Na + CO + H O 4 3 2 5 + - + - + - D. Na + HCO + H + Cl = Na + Cl + CO + H O 4 3 2 2 5 - + - - E. HCO + H + Cl = CO + H O + Cl 94 3 2 2 4451012 E 15 28760 51 1809 05 STOP Consider the equation 5 + 2- 2+ - + - 2K + SO + Pb + 2NO -----> PbSO + 2K + 2NO 4 4 3 4(s) 3 A. The equation is not balanced. 5 + B. The equation would be a net ionic equation if the K ions were deleted from both sides of the equation. C. The equation would be a detailed ionic equation if the 5 2+ 2- PbSO were written as Pb + SO . 4 4(s) 4 D. The equation is a net ionic equation. 5 + E. The equation would be a net ionic equation if the K 5 - and NO ions were deleted from both sides of the equation. 94 3 4451013 C 15 28772 51 1809 05 STOP Which of the following is a net ionic equation? 5 + 2- 2+ 2- A. CaF + 2H + SO -----> Ca + SO + 2HF 4 2(s) 4 4 B. Cl + H O -----> HCl + HOCl 4 2 2 5 2- + C. SO + 2H -----> H O + SO 4 3 2 2 5 - - D. HClO + OH -----> H O + ClO 4 4 2 4 9 E. none of the above 4451014 D 15 28779 52 1809 05 STOP Potassium sulfite reacts with hydriodic acid to produce potassium iodide, water and sulfur dioxide. Consider the following equation for the reaction 5 + 2- + - 2K + SO + 2HI -----> 2K + 2I + H O + SO 4 3 2 2 A. It is a correct detailed ionic equation. B. It is a correct net ionic equation. C. It would be a correct net ionic equation if k+ ions were deleted from both sides of the equation. D. It is not a correct detailed ionic equation because HI 9 ionizes in water solution. 4470001 C 15 28787 52 040700170028 0042 Which reaction does not involve the reduction of the specified 3 ____ ___ non metal? A. Chlorine: laboratory preparation of oxygen by heating 3 ________ potassium chlorate and manganese dioxide B. Oxygen: combination with magnesium to form magnesium oxide 3 ______ C. Nitrogen: reaction of nitrogen and oxygen in the presence 3 ________ of an electric arc D. Iodine: combination with hydrogen to form hydrogen iodide 3 ______ E. Sulfur: dissolving copper in hot sulfuric acid 93 ______ 4470002 C 15 28795 31 147301250799 0040 The common tarnish that appears on silver plate is composed of A. silver oxide B. silver carbonate C. silver sulfide D. silver sulfate 9 E. hydrogen sulfide 4470003 C 15 28798 31 012514730194 0040 Sterling silver is an alloy containing A. 95% silver B. 90% silver C. 92.5% silver D. 50.0% silver 9 E. no correct response is given. 4470004 B 15 28800 31 147301940039 0040 14-carat gold is A. 14% gold B. a 14/24 fraction of gold C. 14 parts of gold per 100 parts alloy D. 14 ounces of gold 9 E. pure gold 4470005 B 14 28803 52 1949 0060 Cloudy dispersion in a bottle of H S solution exposed to the air 4 2 is probably: A. H S B. S C. SO D. O 94 2 2 2 4470006 A 14 28806 52 1949 0060 Which of the following reduces SO ? 4 2 A. H S B. HCl C. CO D. Br 94 2 2 2 4470007 D 14 28808 52 1949 0060 Starting with a solution of CrCl and K CrO , if NaOH were added 4 3 2 4 in excess, which ion pairs would be present in largest concentra- tion? 5 3+ 2- - 2- A. Cr and Cr O B. Cr(OH) and Cr O 4 2 7 4 2 7 5 3+ 2- - 2- C. Cr and CrO D. Cr(OH) and CrO 94 4 4 4 4470008 A 15 28815 52 00060021800111 ETS2 OS Chlorine may be made by A. the oxidation of the chloride ion B. the reduction of chlorine atoms C. the action of sulfiric acid on chlorides D. heating potassium chlorate with manganese dioxide 9 E. the action of bromine upon chlorides 4470009 D 14 28819 31 80048003 2WVW The halogen that may be obtained commercially from kelp, a sea weed, is A. fluorine B. chlorine C. bromine 9 D. iodine 4470010 D 14 28821 31 040403448004 2 OS Chlorine may be prepared in the laboratory by reacting potassium permanganate with hydrochloric acid. The potassium permanganate acts as A. a dehydrating agent B. a catalytic agent C. an oxidizing agent 9 D. a reducing agent 4470011 D 14 28825 31 056008108004 2 OS The manganese dioxide used in the laboratory preparation of bromine from a bromide salt. A. an etching agent B. a catalytic agent C. a reducing agent 9 D. an oxidizing agent 4470012 D 15 28828 51 0089 05 MSU Consider the compounds HCl, NaOH, HC H O , NH , and H SO . 4 2 3 2 3 2 4 Among these, A. NaOH and NH are weakly basic electrolytes. 4 3 B. HC H O and H SO are weakly acidic electrolytes. 4 2 3 2 2 4 C. HCl is the only strongly acidic electrolyte. D. NaOH is the only strongly basic electrolyte. 9 E. Three of these compounds are weak acids. 4470013 B 15 28834 51 11760315 05 MSU Which of the following is true when electricity is flowing in an electrolytic solution ? A. Anions migrate toward the cathode. B. Anions migrate toward the anode. C. Cations migrate towards the anode. 9 D. Electrons, not ions, move through the solution. 4470014 D 14 28838 51 03150104 05 MSU Metallic conduction involves A. migration of cations toward a positively charged electrode. B. migration of cations toward a negatively charged electrode. C. migration of anions toward a positively charged electrode. 9 D. passage of electrons from one atom of a metal to another. 4470015 B 14 28842 51 00890315 05 MSU Electrolytic conduction is characterized by A. migration of positively charged ions in solution to the anode B. migration of negatively charged ions in solution to the anode C. transfer of electrons from one ion to another 9 D. transfer of electrons from one metal atom to another 4470016 A 14 28846 51 0315 05 MSU When two wires connected to a battery are dipped into a solution of an electrolyte and current is passed through the solution, A. cations in solution migrate toward the cathode B. cations in solution migrate toward the anode C. electrons in solution are transferred from one ion to another 9 D. electrons in solution are transferred from one atom to another 4470017 A 14 28851 51 03151176 05 MSU Two wires connected to the terminals of a battery serve as electrodes when dipped into electrolytic solution. Which of the following is true ? A. The negatively charged wire is the cathode. B. The negatively charged wire is the anode. C. A reaction will take place only at the negatively charged wire. D. A reaction will take place only at the positively 9 charged wire. 4470018 B 14 28857 51 0315 05 MSU When a sodium salt is dissolved in water, hydration of ions takes 5 + place. What forces hold water molecules to the Na ion? A. Attraction of the positive end of the dipole moment of 5 + water to the Na ion B. Attraction of the negative end of the dipole moment of 5 + water to the Na ion 5 + C. Transfer of an electron from water to the Na ion 5 + 9 D. Transfer of a proton from water to the Na ion 4470019 A 15 28866 51 0315 MSU When two wires connected to a battery and light bulb are dipped into a solution, the light bulb lights up, showing that the solution conducts electricity. Thus the substance dissolved in the solution must be a(n) A. electrolyte D. covalent compound B. nonelectrolyte E. none of the above 9 C. soluble 4470020 D 15 28871 31 0315 05 MSU When two wires connected to a battery and light bulb are dipped into a solution, the light bulb does not light up, showing that the solution does not conduct electricity. Thus the substance dissolved in the solution must be a(n) A. electrolyte D. nonelectrolyte B. hydrate E. None of the above 9 C. ionic compound 4470021 E 15 28876 51 0315 05 MSU Wires connected to the terminals of a battery are dipped into a beaker of water. Substance A is added to the water. If NO current flows, which of the following might be substance A? A. NaOH B. LiF C. KNO D. HCl E. CCl 94 3 4 4470022 E 15 28880 51 0089 05 MSU In the following list, the compound which is a weak electrolyte is A. ZnCl B. HBr C. H SO D. NaOH E. NH OH 94 2 2 4 4 4470023 B 15 28883 51 0089 05 MSU Which of the following lists contains only strong electrolytes? A. LiOH Al(OH) HNO NH OH D. Na O KOH NH OH Al(OH) 4 3 3 4 2 2 4 3 B. NaOH Ba(OH) ZnCl HCl E. KCl NaC H O SnCl H CO 4 2 2 2 3 2 2 2 3 C. KOH Ca(OH) HNO HC H O 94 2 3 2 3 2 4470024 D 15 28889 51 0315 05 MSU Which of the following substances, when dissolved in water, would conduct an electrical current only very poorly ? A. NaC H O B. KOH C. Li O D. CH E. Na O 94 2 3 2 2 4 2 2 4470025 C 14 28892 51 03150104 05 MSU Which of the following substances, when dissolved in pure water, will serve as an electrical conductor ? A. CO B. Cl C. CaBr D. CH 94 2 2 4 4470026 E 15 28895 51 0089 05 MSU Which of the following solutes will produce the fewest number of ions when 1.0 mole is dissolved in 1.0 liter of water? A. KOH B. NaBr C. CaBr D. HCl E. Cl 94 2 2 4470027 A 15 28898 51 0089 05 MSU Which of the following solutes will produce the greatest number of ions when 1.0 mole is dissolved in 1.0 liter of water? A. KOH B. CCl C. NH D. HF E. Br 94 4 3 2 4470028 D 15 28901 51 0089 MSU Which of the following lists of acids contains only strong electrolytes ? A. HC H O , H S, HCl C. HI, HCl, HOCl E. H S, HF, H PO 4 2 3 2 2 2 3 4 B. HBr, HI, H S D. H SO , HCl, HNO 94 2 2 4 3 4470029 B 15 44388 51 0089 05 MSU Consider 1 M aqueous solutions of HCl, H SO , HC H O , 4 2 4 2 3 2 H S, NaOH, and NH . Choose the correct statement: 4 2 3 A. H S and NH are weakly acidic 4 2 3 B. HCl, H SO , and NaOH are strong electrolytes 4 2 4 C. HCl, H SO and HC H O are strong electrolytes 4 2 4 2 3 2 D. NaOH and NH are strongly basic electrolytes 4 3 E. H SO and H S are electrolytes of comparable strength 94 2 4 2 4470030 A 15 28912 51 00890315 05 MSU Consider the following three statements: 1. NH is a weak basic electrolyte. 4 3 2. All group 1a and group 2a hydroxides except insoluble Be(OH) and Mg(OH) are strong electrolytes. 4 2 2 3. H SO , H AsO and H PO are weak acids. 4 2 4 3 4 3 2 The true statements are 9 A. 1 and 2 B. 2 and 3 C. 1 and 3 D. 2 E. 1 4470031 C 15 28918 51 00890315 05 MSU Which of the following statements is correct? A. Water solutions of H SO , HNO , HCN and HCl are strong 4 2 4 3 electrolytes. B. KOH, NaOH, and NH are strongly basic electrolytes. 4 3 C. All group 1a hydroxides are strong electrolytes. D. All group 2a hydroxides are insoluble strong electrolytes. E. All acids which contain only one proton--such as HCl, HBr, and HC H O --are strong electrolytes. 94 2 3 2 4470032 A 15 28925 51 00890315 05 MSU Wires connected to a battery and light bulb are dipped into a beaker of water. No current flows, so the light bulb remains unlit. If, however, substance A is added to the water, the light bulb glows immediately. Which of the following substances could A be? A. HCl B. Cl C. HCCl D. CO E. none of the above 94 2 3 2 4470033 E 15 28930 51 00890315 05 MSU Wires connected to a battery and light bulb are dipped into a beaker of water. No current flows, so the light bulb remains unlit. If, however, substance A is added to the water, the light bulb glows immediately. Which of the following substances could A be ? A. HCl B. HBr C. NaOH D. H SO E. any of the above 94 2 4 4470034 D 15 28935 51 00890315 05 MSU Wires connected to a battery and light bulb are dipped into a beaker of water. No current flows , so the light remains unlit. Substance B is added to the water, but the light remains unlit. Which of the following substances could B be ? A. NaOH B. HCl C. H SO D. CCl E. KCl 94 2 4 4 4470035 C 15 28940 51 03150089 05 MSU One way to decompose water into its elements hydrogen and oxygen is to pass electricity through it. However, pure water will not conduct an electrical current and thus cannot be decomposed. A small amount of an electrolyte must be added to the water in order to break it down. Which of the following substances would you add ? A. CO B. CCl C. HCl D. Cl E. none of the above 94 2 4 2 4470036 E 15 28946 31 0089 05 MSU Which of the following lists contains only strong electrolytes? A. NH , NaCl, HCl C. KOH, NaOH, CO E. KC H O , HClO , HI 4 3 2 2 3 2 4 B. HNO , KNO , NO D. HC H O , KBr, MgCl 94 3 3 2 3 2 2 4470037 B 15 28950 51 0089 05 MSU Consider the following statements: 1. NH is a weakly basic electrolyte. 4 3 2. HF, HCl, HBr and HI are all strongly acidic electrolytes. 3. All group 1 hydroxides are strongly basic electrolytes. The true statements are 9 A. 1 and 2 B. 1 and 3 C. only 1 D. 2 and 3 E. all are true 4470038 A 15 28955 31 0089 05 MSU Which of the following lists contains only weak electrolytes? A. NH , HC H O , H S C. KOH, NaOH, Mg(OH) E. HClO , HI, HNO 4 3 2 3 2 2 2 4 3 B. HNO , KNO , NO D. HC H O , KBr, HF 94 3 2 2 3 2 4471001 B 15 28959 52 00090010800111 ETS2 OS All of the following are reasons for the extensive use of iron except that A. its ores are widely distributed B. it is easily extracted from its ores C. it has many useful physical properties D. it forms numerous alloys 9 E. it combines readily with oxygen 4471002 B 15 28963 31 00160010800111 ETS2 OS The reduction of aluminum ore differs from the reduction of iron in that A. aluminum ore is generally a sulfide rather than an oxide B. an electric current is needed for a source of electrons with aluminum C. carbon is indirectly used as the reducing agent for aluminum D. aluminum in ore is largely found in a free state E. the impurities furnish the fuel for the roasting process 9 in the case of aluminum 4471003 A 15 28969 51 00500007800111 ETS2 OS The Goldschmidt process A. often employs ferric oxide as the oxidizing agent B. has as its sole object the attainment of high temperature C. is a good example of an endothermic action D. is sometimes employed as a substitute for the action of thermit E. involves no change in the oxidation states of the elements 9 taking part in the reaction 4471004 E 15 28974 52 00090051800111 ETS2 OS When iron rusts A. the process is a simple union of iron and oxygen to form Fe O 4 2 3 B. the greater the amount of the impurities that iron contains, in general the less apt it is to rust C. iron loses electrons at one point to form Fe(2+)ions, while water takes up electrons at another point to form OH(-) ions D. pure iron never rusts, even if in contact with water 9 E. the rust forms a protective coating over the metal 4471005 A 15 44719 72 00320009800111 ETS2 OS In copper metallurgy A. the sulfide of copper is oxidized more easily than is the sulfide of iron B. silica combines readily with an iron oxide, but not with copper oxide C. copper sulfide ore is wetted preferentially by water, rather than by oil D. copper ore is refined electrolytically before it is smelted 9 E. sulfide of copper is leached with cyanide 4471006 B 15 28986 51 00090017800111 ETS2 OS Which is most nearly correct? A. Most metals occur in the form of the free element in nature. B. One type of iron ore is Fe O and iron is obtained by 4 2 3 reducing with carbon in the form of coke. C. Another metal, sodium, occurs in sodium chloride and is obtained by the reduction of the sodium with carbon D. More active metals are more easily converted to free metals than the less active ones. 9 E. Steel is the purest form of iron. 4471008 CACE 45 28998 52 0033003400221290 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2The charge of a blast furnace includes iron ore in the form of 2Fe O and C in the form of coke. The chief end products are 4 2 3 2Fe and CO . Choose the correct answer from the following: 4 2 A. Fe(+++) B. O(=) C. C D. C(2+) 02 E. Fe MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 The substance that loses electrons during the process MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 The substance that gains electrons during the process MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 3 The reducing agent MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 9 The chief material in the pig iron that is formed 4471009 A 15 29004 31 02860507800111 ETS2WVW The coefficient of expansion (increase in length per unit length or volume per unit volume per degree change in temperature) A. of metals is much larger than for liquids B. of liquids is much larger than for gases C. is the same for all gases D. differs very little from one metal to another metal E. is greater when fahrenheit rather than centigrade degrees 9 are used 4471010 A 14 29010 31 008400328004 2WVW In the electrolytic refining of copper, the impure copper is made at the A. anode B. cathode C. solvent 9 D. electrolyte 4471011 A 14 29012 31 002708518004 2WVW Before extracting zinc, the carbonate and sulfide ores are first converted into A. oxides B. sulfates C. carbides 9 D. nitrates 4471012 D 14 29014 31 80048003 2WVW The most active metals are extracted from their ores by the process of reduction A. with aluminum B. with carbon C. with hydrogen 9 D. by electrolysis 4471013 C 14 29017 31 80048003 2WVW Pig iron is essentially the same as A. low carbon steel B. wrought iron C. cast iron 9 D. bessemer steel 4471014 D 14 29019 31 80048003 2WVW Solder is an alloy of A. aluminum and copper B. copper and tin C. mercury and silver 9 D. tin and lead 4471015 D 14 29021 31 80048003 2WVW Many low grade sulfide ores are concentrated by A. saponification B. filtration C. evaporation 9 D. flotation 4471016 D 14 29023 31 005100098004 2 OS The rusting of certain metals like iron is called A. combustion B. burning C. spontaneous combustion 9 D. slow oxidation 4471017 C 14 29025 31 001608278004 2 OS Which one of the following statements is true of aluminum in the thermite reaction? A. It gains electrons and is oxidized. B. It gains electrons and is reduced. C. It loses electrons and is oxidized. 9 D. It loses electrons and is reduced. 4471018 C 14 29029 51 080608270009 0043 One product of the thermite reaction is: A. Fe O B. Al C. Fe D. CO 94 2 3 2 4471019 A 14 29031 51 158713310016 0043 In the Hall-Heroult process for producing aluminum the substance produced at the cathode is: A. Al B. Al O C. F D. C 94 2 3 2 4471020 B 14 29034 51 019604070215 0043 Hydrogen gas can be produced by reaction of aluminum with a concentrated solution of: A. Fe O B. NaOH C. HNO D. NaF 94 2 3 3 4471021 A 14 29037 51 001700740050 0043 The reduction of metal oxides is sometimes accomplished by using aluminum in the: A. Goldschmidt reaction B. Silberschmidt reaction 9 C. Bayer reaction D. Zilch reaction. 4471022 D 14 29040 52 0009 0043 Iron may be rendered passive by application of: A. PbO B. Pb(OH) C. PbCO D. Pb O 94 2 3 3 4 4471023 D 14 29042 51 1578 0168 0043 When aqua regia dissolves HgS, the function of the HCl in the mixture is to: A. oxidize the sulfur B. oxidize the mercury 9 C. complex the sulfur D. complex the mercury. 4471024 D 14 29045 31 00510045 0026 In the reaction known as rusting of iron, the reactants are: A. iron and water B. iron and air C. iron, air, and heat 9 D. iron, oxygen, and water. 4471025 B 14 29048 51 137210400032 0019 The last step in the commercial production of copper metal is most probably A. oxidation of its sulfides B. reduction of its oxide C. electrolytic refining 9 D. adding gangue 4471026 A 15 29051 31 007313350231 0040 The calcium in the limestone added to a blast furnace ends up in A. slag B. calcium carbonate C. metallic calcium D. steel 9 E. both B and C 4471027 B 15 29054 31 046114730009 0040 The two main elements making up steel are A. iron and chromium B. iron and carbon C. iron and silicon D. iron and oxygen 9 E. no correct response is given. 4471028 D 15 29057 31 046100091473 0040 Iron is the most widely used metal in industry. The reason for this is A. the abundance of metal B. metal is easily obtained from ores C. metal is widely distributed D. both B and C are correct 9 E. both A and C are correct 4471029 A 15 29061 31 14730009 0040 The product of the blast furnace operation is impure iron called A. pig iron B. cast iron 9 C. galvanized iron D. stainless steel E. coke 4471030 B 15 29063 31 14730461 0040 A steel is manufactured with a very high tensile strength. The ductility of the steel would be A. very high B. very low C. moderately high D. unrelated to tensile strength 9 E. either A or C 4471031 B 15 29066 31 14730461 0040 Stainless steel is iron which has A. been coated to prevent corresion B. been alloyed with other metals C. had the surface reacted with materials to provide a protective coating D. been highly polished to prevent corrosion 9 E. both A and C 4471032 D 15 29070 31 14730016 0040 Which of the following metals is manufactured electrolytically? A. Copper B. Gold C. Iron D. Aluminum 9 E. both A and D 4471033 D 15 29072 31 14730032 0040 Copper metal is commonly refined electrolytically to a purity in excess of 99.9%. the use of copper which makes this necessary is A. alloys with gold B. use in brass C. decorative alloys D. electrical wire 9 E. both A and B 4471034 C 15 29076 51 03341473 0040 Corrosion is a problem with a number of metals. Which of the following compounds does not represent a common product of 3 ________ corrosion? A. Fe O .xH O B. Cu(OH) .CuCO C. Ag S D. AuO 4 2 3 2 2 3 2 9 E. no correct response is given. 4471035 D 15 29080 52 001300870018 0038 Which of the following metals as prepared industrially involves the electrolysis of an aqueous solution of a salt of the metal? 9 A. Magnesium B. Sodium C. Calcium D. Copper E. Aluminum 4471036 D 14 29083 72 195402310082 0061 CaO does not react with which oxide in a blast furnace to produce 3 ___ a slag? A. Al O B. SiO C. P O D. MgO 4 2 3 2 2 5 9 E. Slag doesn't form in a blast furnace. 4471037 D 14 29086 31 2WVW Which of the following metals is always in an amalgam? A. Gold B. Tin C. Lead 9 D. Mercury 4472001 B 15 29088 31 00540055800111 ETS2 OS In developing a photographic plate A. sodium thiosulfate is used as a reducing agent B. the exposed plate is reduced most rapidly where the most light has been absorbed C. it is left in the developer until all of the silver bromide has been reduced D. no visible change takes place 9 E. free bromine is liberated 4472002 A 14 29093 31 005508058004 2 OS Most photographic film contains a light sensitive halide of A. silver B. sodium C. sulfur 9 D. mercury 4472003 C 14 29095 31 000200558004 2 OS A sodium compound used as a fixer is photography is commonly called A. borax B. lye C. hypo 9 D. chili saltpeter 4472004 A 14 29097 51 00551454 0043 The black image on an exposed and developed photographic film is composed of: 5 3- A. Ag B. AgBr C. Ag(S O ) D. Ag O 94 2 3 2 2 4472005 C 14 29100 51 008700551768 0043 The solution known as photographer's hypo contains: 5 + - 2- - A. Ag B. Br C. S O D. CN 94 2 3 4472006 A 15 29103 31 00550125 0040 The black image on an exposed and developed photographic film is composed of 5 3- A. Ag B. Ag(s O ) C. hypo D. AgBr 4 2 3 2 9 E. both A and D are correct 4472007 C 15 29106 31 00550125 0040 In a fixed photographic negative, a light image would appear in the form of A. activated AgBr B. complex of silver and hypo C. metallic silver 9 D. an area with metallic silver washed away 4472008 B 15 29109 51 00550125 0040 Photographic paper is usually coated with gelatin containing 4 3- A. Ag B. AgBr C. Ag(S O ) D. hypo 9 E. both B and C 4472009 D 15 29112 51 14641966 OS The common name "hypo" in the photographic process refers to the compound A. hypoquinone B. sodium hypobromite C. silver hypobromite D. sodium thiosulfate 9 E. silver bromide 4473001 B 15 29115 51 00140046800111 ETS2 OS Carbon dioxide A. acts as an oxidizing agent on red hot coke B. may be made by dehydrating formic acid C. is heavier than hydrogen but lighter than oxgen D. removes protons from water in which it is dissolved 9 E. is an important constituent of water gas 4473002 C 15 29119 51 00560057800111 ETS2 OS Concentrated sulfuric acid A. is a liquid the vapor pressure of which at room temperature is greater than that of water B. is an electrovalent compound C. when hot, is capable of being reduced to SO 4 2 D. gives off choking fumes at room temperature E. has a lower specific gravity than either concentrated 9 hydrochloric or nitric acids 4473003 A 14 29125 31 80048003 2WVW Nitric acid is a strong A. oxidizing agent B. dehydrating agent C. reducing agent 9 D. binary agent 4473004 C 14 29127 32 001500778004 2 AR The compound formed when an active metal reacts completely with an acid is A. hydrogen B. a base C. a salt 9 D. an anhydride 4473005 D 14 29129 32 082708318004 2 OS In the thermite reaction, the oxidizing agent is 9 A. aluminum B. aluminum oxide C. iron D. iron oxide 4473006 C 15 29131 52 038318090407 0042 In the completely balanced ionic equation for the reaction of metallic copper with excess concentrated nitric acid, one of the terms is: (use integer coefficients only.) 5 + A. 3 Cu B. H C. 4H O D. 2 NO E. NO 94 2 3 2 4473007 D 14 29135 51 0009 0087 0043 Iron may be rendered passive by treatment with a concentrated solution of: A. KSCN B. H C O C. HCl D. HNO 94 2 2 4 3 4473008 C 14 29138 51 002100871331 0043 5 2+ Oxidation of Fe in acid solution produces: 3+ + A. Fe(OH) B. Fe(OH) C. Fe D. Fe(OH) 94 2 3 2 4473009 D 14 29141 31 005100090485 0043 The rusting of iron is catalyzed by: 5 + A. Fe B. O C. Zn D. H O 94 2 3 4473010 C 14 29143 51 055401000806 0043 When CuS is dissolved by hot HNO , one of the products is: 4 3 5 2+ 2- A. CuO B. Cu(NH ) C. S D. S 94 3 4 4473011 C 14 29146 31 011301000015 0043 The brown gas formed when HNO is reduced by metal is: 4 3 A. N O B. N O C. NO D. NO 94 2 5 2 3 2 4473012 D 14 29149 51 0037 0043 H S O is: 4 2 2 8 A. a detergent B. an intermediate in the manufacture of H SO 4 2 4 9 C. thiosulfuric acid D. a peroxy compound. 4473013 B 14 29152 51 11780007 0043 The perchlorate ion is not often employed as an oxidizing agent because: A. It is not a strong one B. It is not a fast one. 9 C. It is too unstable D. It hydrolyzes too rapidly. 4473014 A 14 29155 51 005611730045 0043 Concentrated H SO can be used to prepare HBr from NaBr, but it 4 2 4 usually is not because: A. it oxidizes HBr B. it reduces HBr C. it reacts too slowly with NaBr 9 D. it causes the HBr to disproportionate. 4473015 B 15 29159 31 002711670209 0020 When zinc reacts with hydrochloric acid A. zinc gains two electrons B. zinc loses two electrons C. zinc is reduced D. hydrogen is oxidized 9 E. none of these 4473016 B 14 29162 31 117808480289 0019 The ion which is responsible for the bleaching action in liquid laundry bleaches is 5 - - - - A. Cl B. ClO C. ClO D. ClO 94 3 4 4473017 C 14 29165 52 194900720100 0060 Which reaction produces NH ? 4 3 A. Cu and dilute HNO 4 3 B. Ag and concentrated HNO 3 C. Zn and very dilute HNO 4 3 D. Hg and concentrated HNO 94 3 4473018 A 14 29169 72 195402091590 0061 5 - 2+ Of listed reagents, which is the first to convert MnO ---> Mn ? 4 4 A. HCl B. HNO C. HCl + HNO D. saturated chlorine water 94 3 3 4473019 C 14 29173 31 010008398004 2WVW Nitric acid turned this food yellow. This indicates that the tested food was A. Sugar B. Starch C. Protein 9 D. Fat 4473020 B 15 45582 71 Besides its ability to function as an acid, hydrosulfuric acid, H S, 4 2 is able to act as a reducing agent. Which one of the following equations illustrates this property? 5 2+ + A. H S(aq) + Cu (aq) ---> CuS(s) + 2H (aq) 4 2 5 + - B. 3H S(aq) + 2H (aq) + 2NO (aq) ---> 3S(s) + 2NO(g) + 4H O(l) 4 2 3 2 5 + 2- C. H S(aq) + 2Na(s) ---> H (g) + 2Na (aq) + S (aq) 4 2 2 5 - 2- D. H S(aq) + 2OH (aq) ---> S (aq) + 2H O(l) 4 2 2 5 + - E. H S(aq) + 2AgI(s) ---> Ag S(s) + 2H (aq) + 2I (aq) 94 2 2 4474001 A 15 44780 52 00120013800111 ETS2 OS A product which is a good reducing agent may be obtained by A. the reaction of zinc in concentrated HCl B. heating mercuric oxide C. burning carbon with a generous supply of oxygen D. heating potassium chlorate (KClO ) with a suitable catalyst 4 3 9 E. burning Mg metal 4474002 C 15 29179 51 00210017800111 ETS2 OS With reference to oxidation and reduction A. zinc is a better oxidizing agent than copper because it is above the latter element in the activity series B. the fluoride ion is a powerful reducing agent C. oxidation always takes place at the anode in electrolysis D. in the union of copper with chlorine, the latter element is oxidized E. the oxidation state of sulfur is +6 in all its compounds 9 containing oxygen 4474003 D 14 29185 51 001300198004 2WVW In the elctrolysis of a solution of cupric sulfate, the cupric ions are A. oxidized at the anode B. oxidized at the cathode C. reduced at the anode 9 D. reduced at the cathode 4474004 D 14 29188 31 001302098004 2WVW During the electrolysis of hydrochloric acid, which particles are attracted to the cathode? A. Chloride ions B. Chlorine atoms C. Hydrogen atoms 9 D. Hydrogen ions 4474005 B 14 29191 31 80048003 2WVW The cathode of an electrolysis apparatus resembles a reducing agent because both A. are metals B. supply electrons C. remove electrons 9 D. absorb neutrons 4474006 B 14 29194 31 80048003 2WVW In the electrolysis of brine solution, an electron is lost by which one of the following? A. Chloride ion B. Hydroxyl ion C. Hydrogen atom 9 D. Sodium hydroxide 4474007 A 14 29197 31 80048003 2WVW In electrolysis, oxidation takes place at the A. anode B. cathode C. anode or cathode 9 D. anode and cathode 4474008 E 15 29199 52 059703270087 0044 What weight of zinc will be deposited at an inert electrode on passage of a current of 28.5 amps through a solution of zinc chloride for 4.87 hours? The reduction 5 2+ - equation is: Zn + 2e -----> Zn 5 (28.5)(4.87)(3600) (65.4)(28.5)(4.87) A. ------------------ grams B. ------------------ grams 4 (96500)(65.4) (96500)(2) 5 (65.4)(4.87)(3600) (65.4)(28.5)(4.87)(3600) C. ------------------ grams D. ------------------------ grams 4 (96500)(28.5) 96500 5 (65.4)(28.5)(4.87)(3600) E. ------------------------ 94 (96500)(2) 4474009 B 15 29208 52 031500871535 0044 The same quantity of electricity that caused the deposition of 143 grams of silver from a AgNO solution was passed through a 4 3 solution of a titanium salt containing Ti cations of unknown charge. 15.9 grams of Ti were deposited. What is the charge of the Ti cation? (AW's: Ag = 108, Ti = 47.9) 9 A. 3 B. 4 C. 2 D. 1 E. none of the above. 4474010 C 15 29214 52 074300870597 0044 Suppose 0.10 Faradays of charge are passed through 500 ml of 1.00 M NaCl solution. The electrode reactions are: 5 - - anode 2Cl -----> Cl + 2e 4 2 5 - - cathode 2H O + 2e -----> 2OH + H 94 2 2 4474011 B 15 29219 52 044505970327 0044 What molar mass of gallium (69.7 amu) will be deposited at an inert inert electrode on passage of a current of 96.5 amps through a solution of gallium(III) chloride for 5.12 hours? 5 3+ - The reduction equation is: Ga + 3e -----> Ga. (96.5)(5.12)(3600) (69.7)(96.5)(5.12)(3600) 4 A. ------------------ grams B. ------------------------ grams 4 (96500)(69.7) (96500)(3) (69.7)(96.5)(5.12)(3600) (69.7)(96.5)(5.12) 4 C. ------------------------ grams D. ------------------ grams 4 96500 (96500)(3) 9 E. none of the above. 4474012 C 14 29228 31 040880048002 2 OS Metallic sodium may be obtained from molten sodium chloride by A. ionization B. hydrolysis C. electrolysis 9 D. neutralization 4474013 E 15 29230 51 00230013800111 ETS2 OS Fluorine is produced by A. the action of powerful chemical oxidizing agents on fluorides B. the action of chlorine on potassium fluoride C. the decomposition of fluorspar at high temperatures D. the reduction of the fluoride ion E. the electrolysis of KHF 94 2 4474014 A 15 29234 32 001300321122 0040 Electrolysis is commonly used to refine which of the following metals? A. Copper B. Gold C. Silver D. more than one response is correct 9 E. no correct response is given. 4475001 B 15 29237 52 00290030800112 ETS2 OS When a storage cell normally discharges, the anode changes from PbO to PbSO . During this change the 4 2 4 A. specific gravity of the electrolyte increases B. PbO is reduced 4 2 C. voltage stays constant until the end of the process D. the cathode is oxidized 9 E. anode becomes negatively charged 4475002 E 15 29242 51 8003 2WVW In a voltaic cell, oxidation occurs at the A. anode B. cathode C. + electrode D. - electrode 9 E. both A and D are correct 4475003 B 14 29244 31 081105608004 2 OS In the dry cell the manganese dioxide acts as A. an anode B. an oxidizing agent C. a catalytic agent 9 D. a reducing agent 4475004 A 14 29246 31 081105748004 ETS2 OS In the dry cell the cathode is A. carbon B. zinc C. zinc chloride 9 D. ammonium chloride 4475005 B 14 29248 52 022701490029 0009 Which one of the following equilibrium constants would be most difficult to obtain from cell measurements? A. K for NH B. K for H (g) + Cl (g) ----> 2 HCl (g) b 3 C 2 2 5 2+ C. K for Cu(NH ) D. K for water 94 d 3 4 w 4476001 C 15 29252 31 00060007800111 ETS2 OS Chlorine is useful in purifying water because A. its odor keeps bacteria away B. it precipitates poisonous material C. of its oxidizing properties D. of its neutralizing properties 9 E. it readily escapes as a gas 4476002 A 14 29256 31 80038004 2WVW Chemically pure water may be obtained by the process of A. ion exchange B. water softening C. sedimentation 9 D. filtration 4476003 A 14 29258 31 80048003 2WVW Chemically pure water may be made from tap water by the process A. distillation B. boiling C. electrolysis 9 D. softening 4476004 D 14 29260 31 80048003 2WVW A coagulant frequently added to water to remove suspended sediment is A. copper nitrate C. calcium bicarbonate E. chlorine 9 B. zinc chloride D. aluminum sulfate 4476005 B 15 29263 32 00081168 0040 Which of the following pairs of ions could be the cause of temporarily hard water and produce boiler scale in heating pipes? 5 + 2- 2+ - 2+ - 2+ - A. Na , CO B. Ca , HCO C. Fe , NO D. Ca , Cl 4 3 3 3 9 E. no correct response is given. 4476006 D 15 29268 32 00081122 0040 Which of the following is not ordinarily used for purifying water 3 ______ for drinking? A. Sand and gravel B. Chlorine gas C. Aluminum sulfate D. Zeolite 9 E. no correct response is given. 4476007 B 15 29271 32 00081122 0040 Water softeners are used to A. make water safe to drink B. remove objectionable positive ions C. remove objectional negative ions D. add desired negative ions 9 E. melt water 4476008 B 15 29274 52 00081122 0040 Water may be softened by means of sodium polyphosphate (calgon). this is done through the A. formation of insoluble carbonate salt such as CaCO 4 3 B. formation of soluble complex with offending ions C. formation of insoluble soap salt D. tie up and retention of offending ions on large molecules such as zeolites 9 E. no correct response is given. 4476009 B 15 29280 32 000811681122 0040 5 2+ Upon analysis a sample of water is found to contain the ions Ca 5 - and HCO . This water would best be classified as 4 3 A. hard B. temporarily hard C. softened D. deionized 9 E. no correct response is given. 4476010 A 15 29284 32 000811681122 0040 Hard water is 5 2+ 2+ A. water containing Ca or Mg 5 + B. water containing Na C. ice 5 - 2- D. water containing HCO or SO 4 3 4 9 E. no correct response is given. 4476011 C 15 29288 32 000811681122 0040 Hard water is water in which A. any positive ions are present B. specific negaitve ions are present C. specific positive ions are present D. any negative ions are present 9 E. no correct response is given. 4476012 D 15 29291 32 000811681122 0040 Some hard water is softened by the addition of a chemical substance. Which of the following could be the product of such treatment? 5 2+ 2+ A. CaCO B. Ca C. Ca(NaPO ) 4 3 3 n D. both A and C are correct 9 E. no correct response is given. 4476013 D 15 29296 52 000811681122 0040 Common problems encountered in trying to obtain fresh water from salt water using distillation include A. dissolved salt begins to precipitate on surfaces at higher temperatures B. the resulting vapor is extremely hard to condense C. hot sea water is very corrosive to metal surfaces D. more than one correct response given 9 E. no correct response is given. 4476014 B 15 29301 32 00081122 0040 The most common process in use today for producing fresh water from sea water is A. freezing B. distillation C. electrodialysis D. a membrane process 9 E. no correct response is given. 4476015 D 15 29304 32 00081122 0040 A common flocculating agent used in water purification is A. Al (SO ) B. CaCO C. Ca(OH) D. Al(OH) 4 2 4 3 3 2 3 9 E. no correct response is given. 4476016 D 14 29307 52 19481614 0059 Hard water containing dissolved Ca(HCO ) cannot be softened by 4 3 2 A. boiling B. adding soap 9 C. adding limewater D. adding NaCl 4544001 D 14 29310 52 003707050980 0009 A compound has the empirical formula CoCl .4 NH . One mole of it 4 3 3 yields one mole of AgCl on treatment with excess AgNO . Ammonia 4 3 is not removed by treatment with concentrated sulfuric acid. The formula of the compound is best represented by A. Co(NH ) Cl B. (Co(NH ) )Cl 4 3 4 3 3 4 3 C. (Co(NH ) Cl )NH D. (Co(NH ) Cl )Cl 94 3 3 3 3 3 4 2 5000001 D 15 29317 72 02260227 13 ETS2 OS In the reversible reaction, A + B <===> C + D, 2 moles each of A and B are present in a liter at the start and equilibrium is reached when the concentration of C reaches 0.5 mole per liter. The equilibrium constant is 9 A. 0.50 B. 0.3333 C. 0.25 D. 0.1111 E. 0.0625 5000002 A 14 29321 31 1004 0003 The mechanism of a reaction can sometimes be deduced from: A. the temperature dependence of the rate B. the net equation C. the rate law 9 D. the activation energy 5000003 D 14 29324 31 1192 0003 The activation energy of a reaction may be lowered by: A. raising the temperature B. lowering the temperature C. removing the products of the reaction 9 D. adding a catalyst 5000004 D 14 29327 31 0485 0003 A catalyst: A. increases the average kinetic energy of reacting species B. increases the activation energy C. alters the reaction mechanism 9 D. increases the frequency of collision of reacting species 5000005 D 14 29330 31 0749 0003 Given the equilibrium PCl (g) <=====> PCl (g) + Cl (g) delta H = +22 kcal 4 5 3 2 the concentration of Cl at equilibrium will be increased by: 4 2 A. lowering the temperature B. adding PCl to the mixture 4 3 C. increasing the pressure D. adding PCl to the mixture 94 5 5000006 A 14 29336 51 04071439 0003 In which of the following cases does the reaction go farthest to completion? 5 2 -2 9 A. K = 10 B. K = 10 C. K = 10 D. K = 1 5000007 C 14 29339 31 0245 0003 Given the equilibrium A(g) + 2B(g) <====> 2C(g) If this equilbrium is established by adding equal numbers of moles of A and B to a box, then the following statement always holds true at equilibrium: A. [C]=[B] B. [A]=[B] 9 C. [B] is less than [A] D. [A] is less than [B] 5000008 B 14 29343 31 0245 0003 Solid CaCO and CaO and gaseous CO are placed in a box and are 4 3 2 allowed to reach equilibrium. CaCO (s) <=====> CaO(s) + CO (g) delta H = +43 kcal 4 3 2 the weight of CaO in the box could be increased by: A. adding more CaCO 4 3 B. removing some CO 4 2 C. lowering the temperature 9 D. reducing the volume of the box 5000009 B 14 29349 32 0245 0003 If the value of the equilibrium constant for A(g) + 2B(l) <====> 4C(g) is 0.123, then the value of the equilibrium constant for 4C(g) <====> A(g) + 2B(l) is: 9 A. 0.123 B. -0.123 C. 6.47 D. 8.13 5000010 C 14 29352 52 0245 0003 If the equilibrium constant for A(g) + 2B(g) <====> 3C(g) is 2.25, then the concentration of A in equilibrium with 2.00 moles per liter of B and 3.00 moles per liter of C is: 9 A. 1.00 B. 2.00 C. 3.00 D. 4.00 E. 0.33 5000011 C 14 29356 51 0245 0003 The equilibrium constant for 5 + 2- Ag Se(s) <=====> 2Ag + Se is called: 4 2 A. an electrolyte constant B. a rate constant 9 C. a solubility product D. a dissociation constant 5000012 C 14 29359 52 0245 0003 For the system A(g) + B(g) <=====> C(g) + D(g) 5 4 the specific rate constants are 0.16 and 4.0 x 10 for the forward and reverse reactions, respectively. If each reaction occurs in one step, the equilibrium constant is: 5 4 5 -5 -6 9 A. 2.5 x 10 B. 2.5 x 10 C. 2.5 x 10 D. 4.0 x 10 5000013 B 14 29365 52 0245 0003 If the equilibrium constant for X(s) + Y(g) <=====> 3Z(g) is 0.128, the concentration of Z in equilibrium with Y at a concentration of 0.50 mole per liter is: A. 0.064 mole /liter B. 0.40 mole/liter 9 C. 0.25 mole/liter D. 1.50 moles/liter 5000014 B 14 29369 51 1527 0003 If the solubility of AB is 0.10 mole per liter, the solubility 5 + - product for AB(s) <=====> A + B is: 5 2 -2 4 -4 9 A. 1.0 x 10 B. 1.0 x 10 C. 1.0 x 10 D. 1.0 x 10 E. 0.1 5000015 B 14 29373 31 0245 0003 In the system 5 + - AB(s) <=====> A + B 5 + doubling the equilibrium concentration of A will cause the 5 - equilibrium concentration of B to change to: A. two times its original value B. one-half of its original value C. one third of its original value 9 D. one fourth of its original value 5000016 D 14 29379 51 1444 0003 The following substances may be added to 1 liter of water to prepare a buffer: A. 1 mole of HC H O and 1 mole of HCl 4 2 3 2 B. 1 mole of NH OH and 1 mole of NaOH 4 4 C. 1 mole of NH Cl and 1 mole of HCl 4 4 D. 1 mole of HC H O and 0.5 mole of NaOH 94 2 3 2 5000017 A 14 29384 51 0215 0003 Adding sodium hydroxide to a solution of acetic acid: 5 - + A. increases [C H O ] B. increases [H O ] 4 2 3 2 3 C. increases [HC H O ] D. decreases the pH 94 2 3 2 5000018 B 14 29388 31 0087 0003 Mixing 0.10 mole of NaOH, 0.10 mole of HC H O , and 1 liter of 4 2 3 2 water yields a solution which is: 9 A. acidic B. neutral C. basic D. red 5000019 B 14 29391 31 0191 0003 The following substance undergoes hydrolysis in aqueous solution: A. HCl B. HC H O C. NH OH D. NH Cl 94 2 3 2 4 4 5000020 B 15 29394 52 0227 40 STOP The weak acid HA is 20 percent ionized in water solution. Calculate K for a sample which is made by dissolving 4 a 1.0 mole of HA in enough water to make 1.0 liter of solution. 5 + - The net ionic equation for ionization is HA <===> H + A 9 A. 20 B. 0.05 C. 0.20 D. 1.0 E. 0.25 5000021 A 15 29399 52 0227 40 STOP A 0.1 M solution of crotonic acid, HC H O , is 1.40% ionized 5 + - according to the equation HC H O -----> H + C H O . The 4 4 5 2 4 5 2 equilibrium constant for the ionization of crotonic acid is 5 -5 -2 -4 A. 2.0 x 10 C. 1.4 x 10 E. 2.0 x 10 5 -6 -3 9 B. 2.0 x 10 D. 1.4 x 10 5000022 B 15 29405 52 0227 40 STOP A 0.05 M solution of hydrocyanic acid (HCN) is 0.012 percent ionized. What is the numerical value of the equilibrium constant for the ionization of HCN according to the equation 5 + - HCN -----> H + CN ? 5 -7 -10 -7 -6 -3 9 A. 2.9x10 B. 7.2x10 C. 3.6x10 D. 7.2x10 E. 2.9x10 5000023 C 15 29410 52 0227 40 STOP In 0.1 M solution, the weak acid phenol is 0.04% ionized 5 + - according to the equation C H OH -----> H + C H O . What is the 4 6 5 6 5 equilibrium constant for the ionization of phenol? 5 -4 -9 -10 -8 -6 9 A. 1.6x10 B. 1.6x10 C. 1.6x10 D. 1.6x10 E. 4x10 5000024 C 15 29416 52 0227 40 STOP Nitrous acid ionizes according to the equation 5 + - HNO -----> H + NO . 4 2 2 If a 0.1 molar solution is 0.2 percent ionized, calculate K for this ionization. 4 eq 5 -5 -3 -7 -9 -1 9 A. 2.0x10 B. 2.0x10 C. 4.0x10 D. 4.0x10 E. 1.0x10 5000025 C 15 29421 52 0227 40 STOP A weak acid, HB, ionizes according to the equation 5 + - HB -----> H + B Calculate the value of K for this ionization if 1.0 4 eq mole of the acid is dissolved in enough water to make 1.0 liter of solution and the solution is 25 percent ionized. 9 A. 0.25 B. 0.75 C. 0.083 D. 0.33 E. 0.625 5000026 B 15 29426 72 00700528 40 MSU A 0.1 molar solution of benzoic acid is 8 percent ionized 5 + (one H per molecule). What is its ionization constant? 5 -2 -4 -10 -8 5 9 A. 8x10 B. 6.4x10 C. 6.4x10 D. 6.4x10 E. 1.5x10 5000027 D 15 29430 51 19661967 OS The Law of Mass Action was first published by A. Michaelson and Morley B. Pauling and Corey C. Bronsted and Lowry D. Guldberg and Waage 9 E. Hahn and Strassman 5100001 D 15 29433 31 02810307049511 ETS2 OS Which one of the following is the best observational evidence 3 ____ _____________ ________ for the statement in the kinetic theory that molecules are in continual motion? A. convection takes place in gases B. escaping hydrogen gas diffuses throughout a room C. tornadoes are very destructive D. small suspended particles in a solution move about E. on collision with the walls of a container, molecules of a gas 9 suffer no net loss of kinetic energy 5100002 ADCCBBC 74 29440 52 168004910407 0043 MACROITEM STEM The following questions refer to the hypothetical reaction and its rate law: 3A(g) + B(g) + 2C(g) ----> D(g) + 2E(g) 5 d(D) 2 rate of formation of D = ---- = k[A][B] 04 dt MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 Doubling the concentration of A increases the rate of the reaction by a factor of: 1 A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 9 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 d[C] - ---- is equal to dt d[A] d[B] d[D] d[E] A. - ---- B. - ---- C. ---- D. ---- 2 dt dt dt dt MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 The rate of the reaction is unaffected by a change in: 3 A. [A] B. [B] C. [C] D. temperature. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 Doubling the concentration of B increases the rate of the reaction by a factor of: 4 A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 9 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 the value of k, the specific rate constant, can be increased by: A. increasing [C] B. increasing the temperature 5 C. increasing [A] D. decreasing [D] MACRO SUB-ITEM # 6 in order to convert the rate law from the form given to one showing the rate of disappearance of C, it would be necessary to multiply the value of k by: 6 A. 1/2 B. 2 C. 4 D. 8 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 7 If the volume of the container is suddently reduced to one-half its original volume, the rate will increase by a factor of: 9 A. 2 B. 4 C. 8 D. 16. 5110001 A 15 29456 31 04940293 11 ETS2WVW According to collision theory the rate of a chamical reaction is directly proportional to A. the product of the molecular concentrations of the reacting substances B. the sum of their molecular concentrations C. the product of their masses D. the product of their percentage concentrations 9 E. the absolute temperature 5110002 A 15 29461 31 02930494013812 ETS2 OS An effective way to increase the number of molecular collisions besides that of increasing the concentration is to A. increase the velocity of the molecules B. increase the mass of the molecules C. reduce the temperature of the molecules D. increase the size of the molecules 9 E. decrease the kinetic energy of the molecules 5110003 B 14 29466 31 02930529053011 ETS2 OS Molecules of a dye can move at the rate of 200 miles per hour but they may actually require weeks to diffuse an inch up a tube of water. This phenomenon can be accounted for A. because the dye molecules move upward slowly due to the pull of gravity B. because other molecules impede upward movement of the dye molecules by constantly changing the direction of their movements C. by more than one of the above 9 D. by none of the above 5110004 C 15 29473 52 02930317053112 ETS2 OS Molecular motions are maintained by no outside force, yet continue indefinitely with no sign of diminishing speed. The reason that friction does not bring these tiny particles to rest, as it does other moving particles, is that A. the molecules are too far apart for friction to have any effect B. the molecular speed and momentum are too great for the force of friction to have any effect C. friction between molecules would merely mean a transformation of one form of molecular energy into another form of molecular energy D. molecular motion is the result of more than one factor--several of which are not affected by friction 9 E. more than one of the above are correct 5110005 B 15 29483 52 04940293 05 0018 Which of the following is NOT a true statement? A. In the collision theory the assumption is made that the reaction proceeds through collisions of molecules. B. All collisions between molecules are effective. C. In order for collisions to be effective,the reactant molecules must be properly oriented with respect to each other. D. The reactant molecules must have sufficient energy to produce an effective collision. E. The maximum amount of energy required in order for a reaction to occur is called the activation energy for 9 that reaction. 5110006 D 15 29491 71 16470491077905 0035 Bimolecular reactions generally occur at much slower rates than one would predict from the rate of collision between molecules as calculated from the gas kinetic theory. Part of the discrepancy can be explained in terms of A. intermolecular repulsions B. the heat of reaction C. erroneous estimates of molecular size D. activation energies of reaction 9 E. the uncertainty principle. 5110007 E 15 29497 51 02761433049105 0034 According to the collision theory, which of the following factors does not directly affect the rate of a chemical reaction? A. energy of collision B. orientation of colliding molecules C. number of colliding molecules per volume D. volume 9 E. all of the above factors affect the rate 5130001 E 15 29501 32 1 041907549024 95 2WVW In Figure 24, which identification is correct? 3 _______ A. C = potential energy of activated complex B. B = potential energy of reactive intermediate C. C-D = Ea D. A-B = Ea 9 E. E-A = del E overall 5130002 EDCB 45 29505 52 OS83 MACROITEM STEM N and O combine according to a two step process: 4 2 2 1 1 4 - N + - O ----> NO 4 2 2 2 2 1 4 NO + - O ----> NO 4 2 2 2 For the following four statements, choose the best response from the key which accompanies the figure below. A. I B. II C. III D. II-I E. V-I | | | *** | ** ^ ** | * | * |****** | * *** | ^ | * ** ^ ** | | | ** * | * | | | * * | * Energy | | | *** | * | | | ^ | * | | | | | * | | | | | ** | | | | | ************** | | | | | ^ | | I |II |III |IV |V | | | | | | |__|_______|__________|______|_____________|_______________ Reaction Progress 0 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 The energy of formation of NO 14 2 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 The activation energy, E , for the first step. 24 a MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 3 The energy content of the compound NO. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 9 The energy of the first transition state. 5130003 C 14 29523 71 2WVW __________, the greater is the concentration of the transition state and the faster is the rate of the reaction. A. The larger the enthalpy and entropy of activation B. The smaller the enthalpy and entropy of activation C. The smaller the enthalpy and larger the entropy of activation 9 D. The larger the enthalpy and smaller the entropy of activation 5130004 B 14 29528 32 119208010407 0041 Activation energy A. is always required for an exothermic reaction to occur B. is sometimes required for an exothermic reaction to occur C. is never required for an exothermic reaction to occur D. can be provided by stirring a solution of the reacting 9 substances 5150001 C 14 29532 51 100404071441 0043 The mechanism of a reaction can sometimes be deduced from: A. the temperature dependence of the rate B. the net equation 9 C. the rate law D. the activation energy. 5150002 A 15 29535 51 003110040943 0020 Chemical equations cannot tell us A. the mechanism for a reaction B. the stoichiometry involved C. the moles of product formed per mole of reactant D. the moles of reactants needed to form one mole of product 9 E. the volume relationships 5150003 C 14 29539 51 12151523 0009 For the chain reaction between H and F , the step 4 2 2 H + F -----> HF represents A. chain initiation B. chain propagation 9 C. chain termination D. the overall mechanism of the reaction 5150004 B 14 29543 31 060005661004 0009 The decomposition of ozone is believed to occur by the mechanism O <=====> O + O 4 3 2 O + O -----> 2 O (rate determining) 4 3 2 When the concentration of O is increased, the rate will 4 2 9 A. increase B. decrease C. stay the same D. cannot say 5150005 A 14 29548 31 040710040996 0009 Enzyme-catalyzed reactions resemble surface reactions most closely in A. mechanism B. E C. delta G D. delta H 94 a 5150006 A 14 29550 52 100400210485 0009 The following mechanism is proposed for the oxidation of iodide ion NO + 1/2 O -----> NO 4 2 2 5 - + NO + 2 I + 2 H -----> NO + I + H O 4 2 2 2 5 - - I + I -----> I 4 2 3 A catalyst in this reaction is 5 - + A. NO B. I C. O D. H E. I 94 2 2 5150007 AE 25 45632 51 MACROITEM STEM Use the data below to answer the following two questions. The complete mechanism for a reaction is considered to occur in two steps, one of which is slow and other fast: A + B ---> C + D slow 0 A + C ---> E + F fast MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 The rate expression for the rate of the overall reaction is 5 2 2 1 A. k[A][B] B. k[A][B][C] C. k[A] [B][C] D. k[A][C] E. k[A] [B] MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 The stoichiometric equation for the reaction is A. A + B ---> C + D D. A + C ---> E + F B. A + B ---> D + E + F E. 2A + B ---> D + E + F 9 C. A + B + C ---> D + E + F 5170001 A 15 29556 31 04190744 2WVW What are the units of the rate constant for a first order reaction? 5 -1 A. sec B. sec 5 -1 -1 C. Mole liter sec 5 -1 D. liter mole sec 9 E. None of the above 5170002 D 15 29559 32 0419 2WVW The rate of the reaction 3A + 2B--->4C +2D is found equal to 5 2 2 k[A] [B] The rate equation is A. incorrect because of stoichiometry B. zero order C. second order D. fourth order 9 E. reversible 5170003 B 15 29563 52 2WVW The table below gives experimental data on the initial rate of the reaction 2NO + 2H --->N + 2H O 4 2 2 2 What is the rate law? Initial partial pressures Initial rate of reaction 3_________________________ [H ] [NO] (mm/100 sec) 4 2 o o t=0 3__________________________________________________________ 400 150 25 400 300 100 300 300 75 5 2 2 A. rate = k[H ] [NO] 4 2 5 2 B. rate = k[H ][NO] 4 2 C. rate = k[H ][NO] 4 2 5 2 D. rate = k[NO] /[H ] 4 2 5 2 2 2 E. rate = k[N ][H O] /[NO] [H ] 94 2 2 2 5170004 C 14 29575 51 2WVW A chemical reaction (such as A + B = P) is second order overall. The rate law will be A. first order in A and first order in B B. second order in P C. not enough information given to determine the rate law 9 D. none of the preceding alternatives is correct 5170005 C 15 29579 51 2WVW What are the units of a rate constant, k, for a rate law of the form -d[A]/dt = k[A][B]? A. per second B. second C. liter per mole second D. mole per liter second 9 E. liter squared per mole squared second 5170006 E 15 29582 51 2WVW What are the units of a rate constant, k, for a rate law of the form d[A]/dt = k[A][B][C]? 5 -1 -1 -1 2 -2 -1 A. sec C. Liter mole sec E. Liter mole sec 5 -1 -1 9 B. sec D. mole liter sec 5170007 E 15 29587 51 2WVW What are the units of a rate constant, k, for a rate law of the 5 2 form d[A]/dt = k[A][B] ? A. per second B. second C. liter per mole second D. mole per liter second 9 E. liter squared per mole squared second 5170008 A 15 29591 51 2WVW What are the units of a rate constant, k, for a rate law of the form d[A]/dt = k[A]? A. per second B. second C. liter per mole second D. mole per liter second 9 E. liter squared per mole squared second 5170009 C 15 29594 72 2WVW For the thermal decomposition of acetaldehyde, CH -CHO, 4 3 CH -CHO = CH + CO 4 3 4 the following data were obtained at 800 K. Reactant concentration Rate of decomposition of CH -CHO 4 3 (moles per liter) (moles per liter second) 5 -7 0.100 9.0 x 10 5 -7 0.200 36.0 x 10 5 -6 0.400 14.4 x 10 The rate equation is 5 0.5 A. k(CH CHO) 4 3 5 1.0 B. k(CH CHO) 4 3 5 2.0 C. k(CH CHO) 4 3 5 3.0 D. k(CH CHO) 4 3 9 E. none of the preceding 5170010 C 15 29607 72 2WVW For the ozonation of 1-pentene in CCl at 27 degrees centigrade 4 4 C H + O = C H O , the following data have been obtained: 4 5 10 3 5 10 3 Rate of disappearance of Reactant concentration, mole C H (mole per liter sec.) per liter C H O 4 5 10 5 10 3 5 -2 -3 2.2 1.0 x 10 2.8 x 10 5 -3 -3 1.1 5.0 x 10 2.8 x 10 5 -2 -3 4.4 1.0 x 10 5.6 x 10 The rate is A. k(C H ) 4 5 10 5 0.5 B. k[C H ][O ] 4 5 10 3 C. k[C H ][O ] 4 5 10 3 5 0.5 D. k[C H ] [O ] 4 5 10 3 9 E. none of the preceding 5170011 D 15 29620 72 2WVW The reaction F + 2 ClO has been studied in the 4 2 2 gaseous state. The data at 250 degrees K may be summarized as rate of disappearance of reactant concentrations, mole F (mole per liter second) per liter 4 2 F ClO 4 2 2 5 -3 1.2x 10 0.10 0.010 5 -3 4.8 x 10 0.10 0.040 5 -3 2.4 x 10 0.20 0.010 The rate equation is 5 2 A. k[F ] 4 2 5 2 B. k[F ][ClO ] 4 2 2 5 2 C. k[ClO ] 4 2 D. k[F ][ClO ] 4 2 2 9 E. none of the preceding 5170012 D 15 44429 72 2WVW The rate of recombination of iodine atoms in the presence of He 5 o has been studied in the gaseous state at 27 C. 2 I(g) + He(g) ---> I (g) + He(g) 4 2 The following data have been obtained: Rate of disappearance of Reactant concentrations, moles per I (moles per liter second) liter [I] [He] 5 -5 -6 -3 1.3 x 10 2.8 x 10 1.1 x 10 5 -5 -6 -3 5.2 x 10 5.6 x 10 1.1 x 10 5 -5 -6 -3 20.8 x 10 5.6 x 10 4.4 x 10 The rate of disappearance of I(g) is equal to 5 2 A. k[I][He ] 5 2 0.5 B. k[I] [He] C. k[I][He] 5 2 D. k[I] [He] 9 E. none of the preceding is correct 5170013 E 15 29644 71 2WVW The mechanism of the reaction 2NO + O --->2NO is 4 2 2 NO + NO ---> N O (a fast reaction, with equilibrium constant K ) 4 2 2 1 N O + O <===> 2 NO (a slow reaction, with a rate constant k ) 4 2 2 2 2 2 A valid expression for the rate of formation of NO is 4 2 A. (k )[N O ][O ] 4 2 2 2 2 B. (K )[N O ] 4 1 2 2 5 2 C. (K )(k )[NO] [O ] 4 1 2 2 D. A and B are both correct 9 E. A and C are both correct 5170014 C 15 29653 71 2WVW The mechanism of the reaction 2A + B = 2 C is 4 2 A + A = A (a fast reaction, with equilibrium constant (K )) 4 2 1 A + B = 2 AB (a slow reaction, with rate constant (k )) 4 2 2 2 a valid expression for the rate of formation of AB in terms of change of concentration of B with time is 4 2 5 2 2 A. (k )[A ] B. K x k [A] C. k [A ][B ] 4 2 1 2 2 2 2 D. K x k [A ][B ] E. none of these is correct 94 1 2 2 2 5170015 E 15 44399 71 2WVW For the elementary reaction sequence X + Y = A (slow) 2A + B = 2C + D (fast) A. rate of appearance of C is equal to rate of appearance of A B. rate of appearance of D is equal to one half the rate of appearance of A C. rate of appearance of C is equal to rate of appearance of B D. A and C are both true 9 E. A and B are both true 5170016 C 15 29667 71 2WVW For the reaction sequence P + Q --> R (fast) 2 R + S --> 2 T + U (slow) A. the rate of appearance of T is twice the rate of disappearance of P B. the rate of appearance of T is equal to the rate of disappearance of P C. the rate of appearance of U is equal to the rate of disappearance of S D. A and C are both true 9 E. B and C are both true 5170017 E 15 29673 71 2WVW For the reaction sequence A + B --> C + D (slow) A + C --> E + F (fast) A. the rate of appearance of E is equal to the rate of appearance of F B. the rate of appearance of E is equal to the rate of appearance of D C. the rate of appearance of D is not equal to the rate of appearance of C D. A and C are both true 9 E. A and B are both true 5170018 C 15 29679 71 2WVW For the reaction sequence A + B = C + D (fast) B + D = 2E (fast) C + E = 2F (slow) A. the rate of appearance of F is equal to the rate of appearance of C B. the rate of appearance of F is equal to the rate of appearance of E C. the rate of appearance of F is not dependent on the rate of disappearance of A D. A and B are both true 9 E. A and C are both true 5170019 CBDBACCDC94 29685 52 013804910272 0043 MACROITEM STEM Use this table to answer the following questions: 2P + 3Q + R -----> 2U + T 4----------------------------------------------------------------- 5 2 experiment initial molar concentration x 10 initial rate of --------------------------------- formation of t, P Q R M/min ----------------------------------------------------------------- I 1.0 1.0 1.0 3.0 II 1.0 2.0 2.0 6.0 III 1.0 2.0 3.0 6.0 IV 1.0 3.0 4.0 9.0 V 2.0 3.0 5.0 36 VI 3.0 3.0 6.0 81 0 ----------------------------------------------------------------- MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 Doubling the concentration of P increases the rate of the reaction by a factor of: 1 A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 8 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 Tripling the concentration of Q: A. doubles the rate B. triples the rate 2 C. quadruples the rate D. has no effect on the rate MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 Tripling the concentration of R: A. doubles the rate B. triples the rate 3 C. quadruples the rate D. has no effect on the rate. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 The rate of the reaction is proportional to: 5 2 3 4 4 A. [P] B. [P] C. [P] D. [P] MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 The rate of the reaction is proportional to: 5 2 3 4 5 A. [Q] B. [Q] C. [Q] D. [Q] MACRO SUB-ITEM # 6 d[T] The rate of formation of T, ----, is equal to: dt 5 2 3 2 2 A. k[P] [Q] [R] B. k[P] [Q][R] C. k[P] [Q] 6 D. k[P][Q][R] MACRO SUB-ITEM # 7 The value of k in the correct answer to question (above) is: 5 4 -1 -2 -4 -1 -2 A. 3.0 x 10 min M B. 3.0 x 10 min M 5 6 -1 -2 -6 -1 -2 7 C. 3.0 x 10 min M D. 3.0 x 10 min M MACRO SUB-ITEM # 8 In experiment IV the initial rate of formation of U is: 8 A. 3.0 M/min B. 6.0 M/min C. 9.0 M/min D. 18 M/min MACRO SUB-ITEM # 9 In experiment I the rate of disappearance of P is: 9 A. 1.0 M/min B. 3.0 M/min C. 6.0 M/min D. 9.0 M/min 5170020 A 14 29713 52 091801380407 0043 If a plot ln [C] versus t gives a straight line for a given reaction, then the reaction is: A. first order B. second order 9 C. third order D. fourth order. 5170021 A 14 29716 52 049104070138 0043 If the rate of a reaction is independent of the concentration of all reactants, the order of the reaction is: 9 A. zero B. first C. second D. third. 5170022 C 15 29719 52 055804910272 0044 In each of the gas phase experiments listed below the initial rate was measured for the reaction 2 NO + Cl -----> 2 NOCl 4 2 exp. = P P rate of press. drop 4 (NO) (Cl ) 4 2 5 -4 1 0.50 atm. 0.50 atm. 2.3 x 10 atm/sec 5 -3 2 1.00 atm. 1.00 atm. 1.84 x 10 atm/sec 5 -4 3 0.50 atm. 1.00 atm. 4.6 x 10 atm/sec Based on the above, select the one correct statement. 3 _______ A. The reaction is second order with respect to NOCl. B. The reaction is second order with respect to Cl . 4 2 C. Experiments 2 and 3 tell us the order with respect to NO. D. The reaction is of minus two order with respect to NOCl. E. The rate of this reaction is independent of the total pressure as long as P is twice as much as P 4 (NO) (Cl ) 94 2 5170023 C 15 29735 52 049109850113 0044 The initial rate of formation of N O was measured in the 4 2 following experiments; all reactants and products are gases. 2 NO + H -----> N O + H O 4 2 2 2 Exp. [NO] (M) [H ] (M) d[N O] ,t = 0 4 o 2 o 2 3 ______ dt 1 0.042 0.042 0.10 M/min 2 0.084 0.042 0.40 M/min 3 0.084 0.084 0.40 M/min Based on the above, select the one correct statement. 3 _______ A. Since all reactions are truly reversible this must be minus-one order with respect to N O and also H O. 4 2 2 B. Experiments 2 and 3 tell us the order with respect to NO. C. The rate of decrease of [H ] equals the rate of increase of 4 2 [N O]. 4 2 D. Experiments 1 and 3 tell us the order with respect to H . 4 2 E. The rate of reaction is independent of the concentration 9 of NO. 5170024 D 14 29752 51 040701381607 0009 In the reaction: A ---> B ---> C, the concentration of the intermediate B is likely to A. increases steadily with time B. decrease steadily with time C. be independent of time throughout the reaction 9 D. remain constant through most of the reaction 5170025 D 14 29756 51 141404070491 0009 Which of the following statements is true for all first order reactions? A. The activation energy is very low B. The concentration of reactant does not change with time C. The rate constant, k, is zero 9 D. The rate is independent of time 5170026 A 14 29760 52 040706200491 0009 In a first order reaction the half life is 20 minutes. The rate 5 -1 constant k in min is about 9 A. 0.035 B. 0.35 C. 13.9 D. cannot tell 5170027 A 14 29763 52 04070138 0009 For a reaction of 3/2 order, it takes 20 minutes for the concentration to drop from 1.0 M to 0.60 M. The time required for the concentration to drop from 0.60 M to 0.20 M will be A. more than 20 min B. 20 min 9 C. less than 20 min D. cannot tell 5170028 C 14 29767 51 04071439 MSU When one of the products of a reaction is a gas which escapes, A. the reaction can be reversible B. the reverse reaction is endothermic C. the reaction goes to completion 9 D. equilibrium is established slowly 5170029 B 15 45608 71 Consider the reaction aA + bB ---> dD + eE, in the presence of C, a catalyst. 5 q r s The rate law is Rate = k[A] [B] [C] . Which of the following statements is FALSE? A. The exponents q, r, and s are often integers. B. The exponents q and r are always equal to the coefficients a and b, respectively. C. The exponent s must be determined experimentally. D. The symbol k represents the rate constant. 9 E. The overall reaction order is q + r + s. 5170030 BE 25 45615 71 MACROITEM STEM Use the following data to answer the two questions below: The acid-catalyzed reaction of propanone with iodine can be represented by the reaction 5 + - + CH COCH + I ---> CH ICOCH + H + I (H catalyst) 4 3 3 2 2 3 It is found experimentally that the reaction is first order with respect to both propanone and the hydrogen ion. The rate of the 0 reaction is independent of the iodine concentration. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 The reaction is carried out with the concentrations of propanone, iodine, and the hydrogen ion all 0.10 M. The experiment is then repeated with the initial concentrations 0.20 M. This increase in concentration would increase the initial rate of the reaction by 1 A. 2 times B. 4 times C. 6 times D. 8 times E. no increase MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 All of the following conclusions could be drawn from the experimental results above EXCEPT: A. The uncatalyzed reaction would have a different pathway. B. Iodine is not involved in the rate-determining step. C. The reaction takes place stepwise. 5 + D. The rate equation for the reaction is rate - k[CH COCH ][H ] 4 3 3 9 E. The overall reaction is first order. 5190001 B 15 29770 32 01140107029311 ETS2WVW Changes in pressure have only a slight effect on reactions between liquids. The best explanation of this is that A. liquids are only slightly reactive B. in liquids, molecular freedom is limited C. liquids are not appreciably compressible D. liquid molecules move slowly 9 E. liquids are not reactive 5190002 D 15 29775 32 01140407016912 ETS2WVW Changes in pressure have only a slight effect on reactions between solids. The best explanation of this is that A. solid molecules move very slowly B. solids are not appreciably reactive C. solids are not appreciably compressible D. in solids, molecular freedom is limited 9 E. none of the above is a satisfactory explanation 5190003 C 15 29780 32 04330413041212 ETS2WVW A student made a barometer by filling a long glass tube (closed at one end) with mercury, holding his finger over the open end and inverting the tube, then placing the open end in a dish of mercury and finally removing his finger. As a result, some of the mercury ran out of the tube but eventually the height of the mercury column was 75 cm. of mercury which checked rather closely with the laboratory barometer. Experimenting further he introduced a drop of water into the lower end of the tube and noted that the drop worked its way upward and after reaching the top, the barometer read 73 cm. of mercury. This relatively large decrease in the reading is explained as follows A. The weight of the water drop on top of the mercury caused the decrease. B. The drop contained a lot of dissolved air which destroyed the vacuum. C. The drop vaporized and exerted a vapor pressure. D. Moisture in the air always increases a barometer reading. E. The water formed a film on top of the mercury and 9 prevented contact with the vacuum space. 5190004 A 14 29794 51 013504910087 0041 Chemical reaction rates in solution do not depend to any great extent upon 9 A. pressure B. temperature C. concentration D. catalysts 5190005 B 14 29796 31 0491 0026 Which of the following does not affect the rate of a chemical 3 ____ ___ reaction? 9 A. temperature B. color C. concentration D. particle size. 5190006 B 15 29799 52 049106000114 0020 The rate of decomposition of ammonia can be studied by A. titration B. observing the pressure change C. by using indicators D. observing the color change 9 E. none of these 5190007 D 15 29802 52 049101350161 0020 Rates of chemical reactions are influenced by A. concentrations B. temperature C. catalysts D. all of these 9 E. none of these 5190008 D 15 29804 31 013601380161 0040 Which of the following would probably slow down the rate of a reaction? A. increasing temperature B. increasing concentration C. using a larger beaker (reaction is occurring in a liquid solution) D. lowering the temperature 9 E. both B and D. 5190009 D 14 29808 52 02450227 0009 In which of the following cases will the least time be required to arrive at equilibrium? A. K is very small B. K is approximately one 4 c c C. K is very large D. cannot say 94 c 5190010 B 14 29811 51 024501351613 0009 In order to reach equilibrium in a shorter time interval, which one of the following would be appropriate to most any chemical reaction? A. decrease the concentrations of reacting substances B. increase the temperature and pressure C. decrease the temperature 9 D. use only stoichiometric amounts of reactants 5190011 C 15 29816 51 119204070159 0034 The energy of activation for a reaction may be defined as A. the amount of energy released in a chemical reaction B. the amount of energy released in the reaction of a fixed amount of reactants C. the amount of energy which must be supplied to reacting molecules in order to achieve the activated state D. the amount of energy that is released by reacting molecules on achieving the activated state 9 E. none of the above 5190012 A 14 29823 51 0407 MSU If the reaction of A and B to produce C is exothermic, then A. the decomposition of C into A and B must be endothermic B. the reaction goes to completion C. increasing the temperature will increase the equilibrium concentration of C 9 D. the equilibrium constant will be 1.0 or less 5191001 D 15 29828 72 2WVW Data for the oxidation of hydrazobenzene to azobenzene by iodine at 25 degrees C, (C H )HN-NH(C H ) + I ----> 2 HI + (C H )N=N(C H ) 4 6 5 6 5 2 6 5 6 5 Rate of disappearance of Reactant concentrations, moles I (moles per liter second) per liter 4 2 I (C H )HN-NH(C H ) 4 2 6 5 6 5 2.0 0.010 0.010 4.0 0.020 0.010 12.0 0.020 0.030 The rate constant is 5 -4 A. 1.0 x 10 5 4 B. 1.0 x 10 5 -4 C. 2.0 x 10 5 4 D. 2.0 x 10 9 E. none of the preceeding alternatives is correct 5191002 A 15 29839 72 2WVW Kinetic data at 25 degrees C for the reaction 5 - - - - OCl + I ---> OI + Cl Reactant concentrations Rate of appearance of 5 - - - - -1 -1 [OCl ] [I ] [OH ] [OI ] (mol L sec ) 5 4 0.0017 0.0017 1.00 1.75 x 10 5 4 0.0034 0.0017 1.00 3.50 x 10 5 4 0.0017 0.0034 1.00 3.50 x 10 5 4 0.0017 0.0017 0.50 3.50 x 10 The rate constant is: 5 9 A. 6.0 x 10 5 -6 B. 2.9 x 10 5 4 C. 3.5 x 10 5 7 9 E. 4.2 x 10 5191004 C 15 29871 72 2WVW For the reaction 2 NO(g) + 2 H (g) ---> N (g) + 2 H O(g), the 4 2 2 2 5 o the following rate data were obtained at 700 C: Rate of disappearance of NO Concentrations, moles per liter (moles per liter second) NO H 5 -4 8.0 x 10 0.50 0.20 5 -4 4.0 x 10 0.50 0.10 5 -4 2.0 x 10 0.25 0.20 5 2 The rate of disappearance of NO = k[H ][NO] . The rate constant is 4 2 5 -2 -2 -2 -2 2 9 A. 4.0x10 B. 8.0x10 C. 1.6x10 D. 2.5x10 E. 3.0x10 5191005 D 14 29883 31 013801920407 2 OS It is not true that A. the dissociation of an electrolyte is a reversible reaction B. the presence of free ions facilitates chemical changes C. the point of dynamic equilibrium is reached when the reaction in one direction just balances the reaction in the opposite direction D. the greater the concentration of the substances involved in 9 a reaction, the lower the speed of the reaction 5191006 A 15 29889 52 The mechanism of a one-step reaction is given as A + B ---> AB. If this reaction proceeds at rate r, what will be the rate if the concentration of A is doubled and B is tripled? 9 A. 6r B. 2r C. 3r D. 108r E. 36r 5191007 B 15 29892 32 049101380136 0028 5 2 In a given reaction, the rate = k[a] , where [a] is the concentration of the reactant in mole per liter. Doubling the concentration of A would have what effect on the rate? A. two fold increase B. four fold increase 9 C. remain the same D. one-half E. one-fourth 5191008 D 14 29897 52 039201380491 0019 Which of the following quantities is not independent of 3 ___ concentration? A. The rate constant for a reaction B. The equilibrium constant C. The ionization constant 9 D. The rate of a reaction 5191009 B 15 29901 52 144104071442 0019 5 2 The rate law for a reaction involving A, B, and C is r= k[A] [B]. 5 -3 The initial reaction rate is 4.12 x 10 where the initial concentrations of A, B, and C are 0.600 M. Which of the following is the correct value of k? 5 3 -2 -3 A. 0.087 x 10 B. 1.91 x 10 C. 11.44 x 10 5 3 9 D. 0.05 x 10 E. none of these 5191010 B 15 29908 32 040702450114 0019 In which of the following reactions would the equilibrium shift to the left with an increase in pressure? A. CO(g) + H O(g) <====> CO (g) + H (g) 4 2 2 2 B. 2SO (g) <====> 2SO (g) + O (g) 4 3 2 2 C. CO(g) + 2H (g) <====> CH OH(g) 4 2 3 D. 4HCl(g) + O (g) <====> 2H O(g) + 2Cl (g) 4 2 2 2 9 E. none of the above 5191011 D 14 29914 52 040704911319 0009 For the reaction: 2 NO(g) + O (g) -----> 2 NO (g), the rate is 4 2 2 expressed as -d[O ]/dt. An equivalent expression 4 2 would be A. d[NO ]/dt B. - d[NO ]/dt 4 2 2 C. -2 d[NO ]/dt D. 2 d[NO ]/dt 94 2 2 5191012 D 14 29919 52 060001380407 0009 For a certain decomposition the rate is 0.30 mole/lit-sec when the concentration of reactant is 0.20 M. If the reaction is second order, the rate (mole/lit-sec) when the concentration is 0.60 M will be: 9 A. 0.30 B. 0.60 C. 0.90 D. 2.7 5191013 B 14 29923 72 19551609 0062 If the rate-determining step of the reaction: A + B ---> C is given by the equation 5 1/2 r = k[A]/[C] then, of the following, the rate will be increased most by: A. increasing the concentrations of A and of C B. increasing the concentration of A and decreasing the concentration of C C. decreasing the concentrations of A and of C D. decreasing the concentration of A and increasing the 9 concentration of C 5191014 A 14 29930 72 1955 0062 If the rate of a reaction is given by the expression 5 2 rate = k [A] [B] how many times as fast would be the rate if, simultaneously, the concentration of A is doubled and the concentration of B halved? 9 A. 0.5 B. 1 C. 2 D. 4 5193001 C 15 29934 32 04530407050511 ETS2WVW Two substances which absorb heat when they react are heated until the reaction occurs at a fairly rapid rate. If the heat source is removed A. the speed of the reaction will increase due to the increase in concentration B. the reaction will be explosive C. the speed of the reaction will decrease D. the speed of the reaction will remain unchanged 9 E. the temperature will rise 5193002 A 15 44931 51 5 -E/RT In the relation K = Ae , as the temperature increases, A. K increases C. A increases E. e increases 9 B. K decreases D. A decreases 5193003 A 14 29940 32 001501610196 2 OS Which metal requires the highest temperature in order to liberate hydrogen from water A. iron B. lithium C. potassium 9 D. sodium 5193004 B 14 29942 32 049104070161 0041 Reaction rates increase with temperature primarily because A. more collisions occur between ions and molecules B. a greater number of activated molecules are formed C. equilibrium does not occur at high temperatures 9 D. of Le Chatelier's principle 5193005 E 15 29946 52 040704910161 0042 If A + B -----> AB proceeds at rate r at 20 degrees C, and at rate 3r at 30 degrees C, what is the most likely rate at 60 degrees C? 9 A. 6r B. 9r C. 12r D. 16r E. 81r 5193006 C 14 29949 52 119204070918 0043 The energy of activation of a reaction may be readily found from a plot of: A. k vs. T B. 1/k vs. ln t 9 C. ln k vs. 1/T D. ln k vs. ln t. 5193007 B 14 29951 51 024508710683 0043 For a given equilibrium system an increase in temperature will: A. increase the rate of the exothermic reaction more than that of the endothermic B. increase the rate of the endothermic reaction more than that of the exothermic C. increase both rates equally 9 D. have no effect on either rate. 5193008 A 15 29956 52 089508961192 0044 The conversion from the cis to the trans isomer of a certain metal complex occurs 24 times as fast at 474 K as it does at 438 K. What is the energy of activation (in kcal/mole) for the process? 5 -8 9 A. 36.6 B. -36600 C. 5.20 x 10 D. 636 E. 25.7 5193009 D 15 44443 72 119215220161 0044 The energy of activation of a certain chemical reaction is 40.6 kJ/mole. At what temperature should it be run in order to obtain a rate constant 4.50 times as great as it is at 298 K? 5 -1 -1 The gas constant R = 8.31 J mol deg 9 A. 313K B. 318K C. 323K D. 328K E. 333K 5193010 B 15 29964 51 119204071195 0020 The activation energy for a reaction is the energy needed to A. activate the products B. form the active complex C. stabilize the products D. oxidize the reactants 9 E. reduce the reactants 5193011 C 14 29967 52 119214140491 0009 Two reactions, r and r , have activation energies of 40 kcal and 4 1 2 20 kcal, respectively. Which one of the following statements must be true? A. r is faster than r at any given t. 4 1 2 B. r is slower than r at any given t. 4 1 2 C. The rate of r increases with t more rapidly than that of r 4 1 2 D. the rate of r is doubled by increasing the temperature 4 1 9 10 degrees C. 5193012 D 14 29975 52 11920407 0009 The activation energy of a certain reaction is 15 kcal. The activation energy for the reverse reaction is 9 A. -15 kcal B. > 15 kcal C. < 15 kcal D. cannot tell 5193013 D 14 29978 31 096204070491 0009 The principle reason for the increase in reaction rate with temperature is: A. molecules collide more frequently at high temperatures B. the pressure exerted by reactant molecules increases with t C. the activation energy increases with t 9 D. the fraction of high energy molecules increases with t 5193014 E 15 29983 31 049109430407 0019 The rate of a chemical reaction is not affected by 3 __ ___ A. concentration B. temperature C. pressure D. catalyst 9 E. phase of the moon 5193015 B 14 29986 52 024508710491 0019 For a given equilibrium system an increase in temperature will: A. increase the rate of the exothermic reaction more than that of the endothermic B. increase the rate of the endothermic reaction more than that of the exothermic C. increase both rates equally 9 D. have no effect on either rate 5193016 E 15 29991 32 117201610494 0019 The principal reason that an increase in temperature increases the reaction rate is that: A. the energy of activation is lowered B. all nonreversible reactions are endothermic C. more collisions will occur D. the apparent concentrations of reactants are increased 9 E. more molecules have the energy of activation 5195001 D 15 29996 31 2WVW The addition of a catalyst to chemical reactants changes the A. amount of heat energy absorbed by the reaction B. amount of heat energy released by the reaction C. products of the reaction D. speed of the reaction 9 E. amount of reagents needed 5195002 D 14 30000 51 119204070161 0043 The activation energy of a reaction may be lowered by: A. raising the temperature B. lowering the temperature 9 C. removing the products of the reaction D. adding a catalyst. 5195003 C 14 30003 51 048504071004 0043 A catalyst which speeds up a chain reaction A. increases the average kinetic energy of reacting species B. increases the activation energy C. alters the reaction mechanism 9 D. increases the frequency of collision of reacting species 5195004 B 14 30007 31 11920407048551 9000 The activation energy for a particular reaction may be lowered by which of the following procedures? A. increasing the reactant concentrations B. adding a catalyst C. decreasing the particle size of the reactants 9 D. raising the temperature. 5195005 D 15 30011 31 048504910407 0020 A catalyst A. alters reaction rates B. does not appear in reaction products C. may lower the activation energy requirements D. all of these 9 E. none of these 5195006 A 15 30014 31 053900661196 0020 Surface compounds are A. surface-containing intermediates B. compounds with a large surface C. substances with porous surfaces D. compounds with high surface tension 9 E. none of these 5195007 B 15 30017 31 019204910407 0020 A substance that changes the rate of a chemical reaction but does not itself appear in the reaction products is called a A. promoter B. catalyst C. pentoxide D. hydrate 9 E. reactant 5195008 A 14 30020 31 04851192 0009 The effectiveness of a catalyst depends upon its ability to A. decrease the activation energy B. increase K 4 c 9 C. increase reactant concentration D. increase temperature 5195009 D 15 30024 32 016104401201 0040 A carrot cooks in 15 minutes in boiling water (100 degrees C). Approximately how long will it atke to cook a carrot inside a 5 o pressure cooker where the temperature reaches 120 C? A. 30 min B. 7.5 min C. 5.0 min D. 3.7 min 9 E. It cannot be determined from the information given 5195010 D 15 30029 31 119204850505 0040 A catalyst speeds up a reaction by A. increasing the net energy released B. decreasing the net energy released C. increasing activation energy D. decreasing activation energy 9 E. no correct response is given. 5197001 D 15 30032 31 04070495049411 ETS2 OS For a reaction to take place, it is necessary that A. the particles be in the form of a gas B. the substance must be under a high pressure C. a force of attraction exist between the particles D. the particles collide 9 E. the particles move at their maximum speed 5197002 D 14 30036 31 005600150196 2 OS Dilute sulfuric acid reacts with metals above hydrogen in the activity series more vigorously than concentrated acid because the dilute acid A. has a lower boiling point B. is less stable C. readily evolves heat 9 D. is more highly ionized 5197003 B 14 30040 31 040703820833 2 OS Reaction rates involving organic compounds are usually much slower than those involving inorganic compounds because organic compounds A. are usually ionized B. are generally nonionic C. have lower boiling points 9 D. have lower molecular weights 5197004 A 14 30044 52 040711780161 0041 The speeds of reactions between ions in solution A. depend critically upon temperature B. are essentially independent of temperature C. dependent upon which catalyst is used 9 D. are slow in general 5197005 C 14 30047 52 013805580245 0043 The concentration of a pure condensed (solid or liquid) phase is left out of the statement of the equilibrium condition because: A. solids and liquids react slowly B. solids and liquids react rapidly C. the concentration of a pure solid or liquid is constant D. solids and liquids have slower-moving molecules than gases 9 do. 5197006 B 15 30052 51 029308061020 0018 Which of the following statements is not true? A. Increasing the concentration of reactants generally increases the rate of a reaction. B. In general,covalent molecules are found to yield products more rapidly than ionic reactants. C. Reactant molecules must have sufficient energy to produce an effective collision. D. In order for collisions to be effective, molecules must be properly oriented. E. An increase in temperature increases the rate of a chemical 9 reaction. 5300001 D 14 30059 31 2WVW In a chemical reaction equilibrium has been established when the A. opposing reactions cease B. concentrations of the reactants and the products are equal C. reaction ceases to generate heat D. velocity of the opposing reaction is the same as that of the 9 forward reaction 5300002 D 15 30063 31 074902270737 0028 The equilibrium expression for the following reaction is: 4 H + CS <=====> CH + 2 H S 4 2(g) 2(g) 4(g) 2 (g) A. K = [H S][CH ]/[H ][CS ] 4 2 4 2 2 B. K = [CS ][H ]/[CH ][H S] 4 2 2 4 2 5 4 2 C. K = [CS ][H ] /[H S] [CH ] 4 2 2 2 4 5 2 4 D. K = [H S] [CH ]/[CS ][H ] 4 2 4 2 2 5 2 E. K = [H S] [CH ]/[CS ][H ] 94 2 4 2 2 5300003 B 14 30071 31 073702450072 0026 Which of the following statements about the following reaction are not true? N + 3H <=====> 2NH 4 2 2 3 A. it is reversible B. it can never reach equilibrium C. more ammonia (NH ) will be produced by decreasing the 4 3 ammonia concentration 9 D. nitrogen reacts with hydrogen to give ammonia. 5300004 C 14 30076 51 02450070 05 MSU Sometimes, in a problem involving the equilibrium ionization of a weak acid or base, X, the amount of acid which does ionize cannot be ignored when subtracted from the amount of 5 -6 acid which does not ionize. For an acid with K = 3.6 x 10 what is the smallest initial concentration of the acid solution given below at which one can still ignore X? 5 -7 9 A. 1.0 M B. 0.00001 M C. 0.1 M D. 10 M 5300005 A 14 30083 51 02450070 05 MSU Sometimes, in a problem involving the equilibrium ionization of a weak base or acid, X, the amount of base which does ionize cannot be ignored when subtracted from the amount 5 -7 which does not ionize. For a base with K = 4.9 x 10 , at what concentration of base given below should you not ignore X? 9 A. 0.0001 M B. 0.10 M C. 1.0 M D. 10 M 5300006 A 14 30089 51 0070 05 MSU Which of the following reactions correctly describes the third ionization of phosphoric acid, H PO ? 4 3 4 5 2- + 3- A. HPO + H O <==> H O + PO 4 4 2 3 4 5 - 2- B. H PO + 2OH <==> HPO + 2H O 4 3 4 4 2 5 - 2- + C. H PO + H O <==> HPO + H O 4 2 4 2 4 3 5 2- - - D. HPO + H O <==> H PO + OH 94 4 2 2 4 5300007 B 14 30097 51 1809 05 MSU 5 2- - - The net ionic equation HPO + H O ---> H PO + OH describes 4 4 2 2 4 A. The first ionization of H PO 4 3 4 5 2- B. The hydrolysis of HPO 4 4 5 - C. The hydrolysis of H PO 4 2 4 9 D. The second ionization of phosphoric acid 5300008 C 14 30104 51 0070 05 MSU Which of the following equations correctly describes the second ionization of sulfuric acid in water solution? A. KOH + H SO ---> K SO + H O 4 2 4 2 4 2 5 + + B. H SO + H O ---> H O + H SO 4 3 4 2 3 2 4 5 - + 2- C. HSO + H O ---> H O + SO 4 4 2 3 4 5 2- + - D. SO + NH ---> HSO + NH 94 4 4 4 3 5300009 C 15 30111 51 0070 05 MSU Which of the following equations correctly describes the ionization of acetic acid? 5 + A. HC H O ---> H O + HC O 4 2 3 2 3 2 5 + B. HC H O + H O ---> 2H O + C O 4 2 3 2 2 3 2 2 5 + - C. HC H O + H O ---> H O + C H O 4 2 3 2 2 3 2 3 2 5 + 2- D. HC H O ---> 2H + C H O 4 2 3 2 2 3 2 5 + - E. HC H O ---> H + C HO + H O 94 2 3 2 2 2 5300010 B 14 30119 51 0191 05 MSU 5 3- The hydrolysis of the phosphate ion (PO ) occurs in three 4 4 steps. What is the third step in the hydrolysis of this ion? 5 - - + A. H PO + OH ---> HPO + H O 4 3 4 4 3 5 + - B. H PO + H O ---> H PO + OH 4 2 4 2 3 4 5 3- 2- - C. PO + H O ---> HPO + OH 4 4 2 4 5 2- - - D. HPO + H O ---> H PO + OH 94 4 2 2 4 5300011 B 15 30127 51 0070 05 MSU Which equation represents the second ionization of carbonic acid, H CO ? 4 2 3 5 + 2- A. H CO ---> 2H + CO D. H CO ---> H O + CO 4 2 3 3 2 3 2 2 5 - + 2- B. HCO ---> H + CO E. H CO ---> H CO + OH 4 3 3 2 3 3 3 5 + - C. H CO ---> H + HCO 94 2 3 3 5300012 B 15 30133 51 0070 05 MSU 5 - + 2- The equation HSO ---> H + SO represents 4 4 4 5 2- A. The first ionization of SO 4 4 B. The second ionization of H SO 4 2 4 5 - C. The second ionization of HSO 4 4 D. The first ionization of H SO 4 2 4 E. The third ionization of H SO 94 2 4 5300013 B 14 30141 51 0070 05 MSU Which equation is the correct one for the first ionization of H S? 4 2 5 + 2- - + 2- A. H S ---> 2H + S C. HS ---> H + S 4 2 5 + - 2- + - B. H S ---> H + HS D. S + H ---> HS 94 2 5300014 C 15 30146 51 0070 05 MSU Which of the following acids would ionize in three steps? A. H SO B. H CO C. H AsO D. HC H O E. HCN 94 2 4 2 3 3 4 2 3 2 5300015 E 15 30149 51 0070 05 MSU Which of the following equations correctly describes the ionization of the weak acid HCN? 5 - - A. HCN + H O ---> H + CNOH D. H O + CN ---> HCN + OH 4 2 2 2 5 + + - + - B. HCN + H O ---> H CN + OH E. HCN + H O ---> H O + CN 4 3 2 2 3 5 - + C. H O + HCN ---> CH O + NO 94 2 2 5300016 D 15 30156 51 0070 05 MSU The first ionization of carbonic acid, H CO , is described 4 2 3 by which of the following equations? 5 + - - + A. H O + H CO <===> H CO + OH D. H O + H CO <===> HCO + H O 4 2 2 3 3 3 2 2 3 3 3 5 - + 2- 2- - B. HCO + H O <==> H O + CO E. CO + 2H O <==> 2OH + H CO 4 3 2 3 3 3 2 2 3 5 - - C. H O + HCO <===> OH + H CO 94 2 3 2 3 5300017 C 15 30165 51 0070 05 MSU The second ionization of carbonic acid, H CO , is described 4 2 3 by which of the following equations? 5 2- + 2- - A. H CO + 2H O ---> CO + 2H O D. CO + 2H O ---> 2OH + H CO 4 2 3 2 3 3 3 2 2 3 5 - - - + B. HCO + H O ---> OH + H CO E. HCO + H O ---> CO + 2H O 4 3 2 2 3 3 3 2 2 5 - 2- + C. H O + HCO ---> CO + H O 94 2 3 3 3 5300018 E 15 30174 51 0070 05 MSU The second ionization of phosphorous acid, H PO , is 4 3 3 correctly described by which of the following equations? 5 - - 3- + A. H PO + OH ---> PO H O 4 2 3 3 3 5 2- + B. H O + H PO ---> H PO + H O 4 2 3 3 2 3 3 5 2- - 3- C. HPO + OH ---> PO + H O 4 3 3 2 5 2- + - D. HPO + H O ---> H PO + H O 4 3 3 2 3 2 5 - 2- + E. H PO + H O ---> HPO + H O 94 2 3 2 3 3 5300019 A 14 30184 51 0070 05 MSU The ionization of ammonia in water is described correctly by which equation? 5 + - + + A. H O + NH ---> NH + OH D. NH + H O ---> NH + H O 4 2 3 4 4 2 3 3 5 - - B. OH + NH ---> NH + H O E. H O + NH ---> NH OH + H 4 3 2 2 2 3 2 2 5 + 2+ - C. NH + H O ---> NH + OH 94 3 3 5 5300020 B 15 30191 51 0070 05 MSU Which of the following equations correctly describes the ionization of acetic acid in water? 5 + + A. HC H O + H O ---> H C H O + H O 4 2 3 2 3 2 2 3 2 2 5 + - B. HC H O + H O ---> H O + C H O 4 2 3 2 2 3 2 3 2 5 + - C. H O + HC H O ---> HC H O + OH 4 2 2 3 2 2 4 2 5 - - D. HC H O + OH ---> C H O + H 4 2 3 2 2 3 3 2 5 + - E. H O + C H O ---> HC H O + H O 94 3 2 3 2 2 3 2 2 5310001 E 15 30200 31 02270737 2WVW Consider the following two gaseous equilibrium reactions and the corresponding equilibrium constants at 25 deg. C 1/2 N (g) + 1/2 O (g) = NO(g); K 4 2 2 1 2NO(g) = O (g) + N (g); K 4 2 2 2 The numerical values of the equilibrium constants are related by A. K = K 4 1 2 B. K = 1/K 4 1 2 5 2 C. K = (K ) 4 1 2 5 2 D. K = 1/(K ) 4 1 2 5 1/2 E. K = 1/(K ) 94 1 2 5310002 A 14 30207 52 013804070245 0020 Given the reaction: PCl (g) + heat <====> PCl (g) + Cl (g) 4 5 3 2 the concentration of PCl (g) at equilibrium can be increased by 4 3 A. increasing the temperature B. lowering the temperature C. adding more Cl 4 2 9 D. increasing the pressure 5310003 D 15 30212 32 073802450485 0040 A chemical system is at equilibrium and a catalyst is added. What happens? A. The position of equilibrium shifts to the right. B. The position of equilibrium shifts to the left. C. The position of equilibrium shifts, but the direction cannot be predicted without knowing what the reaction is. D. Nothing happens. 9 E. An explosion occurs 5310004 A 15 30217 51 02450647 MSU Consider the gaseous equilibrium system PCl <===> PCl + Cl . 4 5 3 2 how would the composition of the system at equilibrium change if one mole of PCl were added? 4 5 A. all substances would increase. B. PCl would increase PCl and Cl would decrease. 4 5 3 2 C. PCl and PCl would increase Cl would decrease. 4 5 3 2 D. PCl and Cl would increase PCl would decrease. 4 5 2 3 9 E. All substances would decrease. 5310005 D 14 30225 51 02450138 MSU To decrease the equilibrium concentration of B in the gaseous system A + B <===> 2C, A. decrease the pressure B. decrease the volume C. decrease the concentration of A 9 D. increase the concentration of A 5310006 D 15 30228 51 02450138 MSU To increase the equilibrium concentration of q in the gaseous system M + N <===> P + Q, A. increase the volume B. decrease the pressure C. decrease the concentration of M D. decrease the concentration of P 9 E. decrease the concentration of N 5310007 E 15 30232 51 0245 MSU How could you increase the amount of NO at equilibrium in the gaseous system 2NO + O <===> 2NO + heat? 4 2 2 A. increase the pressure D. add more O to the system 4 2 B. lower the temperature E. none of these C. remove some NO from the system 94 2 5310008 C 15 30237 51 02450161 MSU Assume that the equilibrium 4NH + 5O <===> 4NO + 6H O + heat 4 3 2 2 is established. All substances are gases. The amount of NO at equilibrium can be increased by A. increasing the pressure D. adding a catalyst B. removing NH from the mixture E. none of these 4 3 9 C. decreasing the temperature 5310009 B 14 30243 51 024502270161 MSU What would be the effect of an increase in temperature on the following gaseous system at equilibrium: N + O + heat <===> 2NO 4 2 2 A. It would shift the position of the equilibrium to the left. B. The numerical value of K would increase. C. It would have no effect on the position of the equilibrium. D. It would have no effect on the numerical value of K. 9 E. There would be NO change in pressure. 5310010 B 15 30249 51 024501141341 MSU In the following system, substances exist as gases at equilibrium 2CS + 5O <===> 2CO + 4SO + heat. Which of the 4 2 2 2 following is correct? A. Addition of more O would decrease the SO concentration. 4 2 2 B. Reducing the pressure would increase the amount of CS at equilibrium. 4 2 C. Increasing the temperature would not affect the value of K. D. Increasing the temperature would increase the amount of CO at equilibrium. E. Removing SO would increase the amount of CS at equilibrium. 94 2 2 5310011 C 15 30258 51 05530245 MSU How could you increase the number of moles of N at 4 2 equilibrium in the gaseous system N O <===> N + 2O + heat? 4 2 4 2 2 A. increase the temperature D. add O to the system 4 2 B. increase the pressure E. add a catalyst to the system. C. add N O to the system 94 2 4 5310012 C 15 30264 51 134102450161 MSU How could you decrease the amount of NO at equilibrium in the gaseous system 2NO + O <===> 2NO + heat? 4 2 2 A. decrease the pressure D. remove O from the system 4 2 B. add NO to the system E. increase the volume 4 2 9 C. lower the temperature 5310013 A 15 30269 51 024501141341 MSU Consider the gaseous equilibrium system N + 2O <===> 2NO + heat. 4 2 2 2 Which statement is correct? A. Reducing the pressure would decrease the amount of NO 4 2 at equilibrium. B. Removing O would increase the amount of heat released. 4 2 C. Addition of N would shift the equilibrium to the left. 4 2 D. Raising the temperature would increase the amount of NO 4 2 at equilibrium. E. Increasing the volume would decrease the amount of N 4 2 9 at equilibrium. 5310014 C 14 30279 51 024513410195 MSU Consider this gaseous equilibrium system CH CHO + heat <===> CH + CO 4 3 4 Which statement is correct? A. A decrease in temperature would increase the pressure in the system. B. Addition of methane (CH ) would increase the amount of 4 4 heat absorbed by the system. C. An increase in volume of the system would increase the amount of CO at equilibrium. D. An increase in temperature would increase the amount of CH CHO at equilibrium. 94 3 5310015 A 15 30287 51 01380245 MSU What effect would heating have on the gaseous equilibrium 2H + O <===> 2H O + heat? 4 2 2 2 A. increase the concentration of H D. decrease pressure 4 2 B. increase concentration of H O E. no effect 4 2 9 C. decrease volume of system 5310016 A 15 30292 52 02270245 MSU For the gaseous reaction N + O <===> 2NO, the value of the 4 2 2 equilibrium constant is greater than 1. Which of the following is true at equilibrium? 5 2 2 A. [N ][O ] < [NO] D. [N ][O ] = [NO] 4 2 2 2 2 5 2 2 B. [N ][O ] > [NO] E. [N ] = [O ][NO] 4 2 2 2 2 5 2 C. [N ] = [O ] = [NO] 94 2 2 5310017 C 14 30300 52 01380245 MSU The gas phase reaction A + B <===> C has the following relative concentrations of gases at equilibrium [A][B] = 2[C]. What is a possible value for K ? 4 c 2 -2 9 A. 1.0 x 10 B. 1.0 x 10 C. 0.5 D. 2.0 5310018 C 14 30304 52 01380245 MSU The gas phase reaction Cl + Br <===> 2ClBr has an equilibrium 4 2 2 5 2 constant K = 1 x 10 . What can be said about the relative 4 c concentrations of these gases at equilibrium? 5 2 A. [Cl ] = [Br ] = 2[ClBr] C. [Br ][Cl ] < [ClBr] 2 2 2 2 5 2 B. [ClBr] < [Cl ][Br ] D. [Br ][Cl ] = [ClBr] x 10 94 2 2 2 2 5310019 B 14 30312 52 01380245 MSU The gas phase reaction COCl <===> CO + Cl has an equilibrium 4 2 2 5 -4 constant of K = 1 x 10 . What can be said about the 4 c relative concentrations of these gases at equilibrium? 5 -4 A. [COCl ] = 4[COCl ] C. [CO] = [Cl ] = [COCl ] x 10 4 2 2 2 2 5 4 2 B. [COCl ] = [COCl ] x 10 D. [COCl ] > [COCl ] 94 2 2 2 2 5311001 C 15 30320 32 01380245003111 ETS2WVW The equation for the dissociation of acetic acid is given by 5 - + HC H O (aq) <===> C H O (aq) + H (aq) 4 2 3 2 2 3 2 If a strong base is added 5 + A. the concentration of the H (aq) ions will be increased B. fewer acetic acid molecules will dissociate C. more acetic acid molecules will dissociate D. no change will occur in the equilibrium 9 E. it will act as a catalyst and hasten both reactions 5311002 D 15 30327 32 024517820138 0047 In which equilibrium system does an isothermal increase in pressure produce no change in equilibrium concentration A. N (g) + 3H (g) <=====> 2NH (g) 4 2 2 3 B. PCl (g) + Cl (g) <=====> PCl (g) 4 3 2 5 C. 2SO (g) + O (g) <=====> 2SO (g) 4 2 2 3 D. 3Fe(s) + 4H O(g) <=====> Fe O (s) + 4H (g) 4 2 3 4 2 E. 2H (g) + O (g) <=====> 2H O(g) 94 2 2 2 5311003 B 15 30334 32 07290738 2WVW For the equilibrium reaction 2NO <=====> N O 4 2 2 4 the standard enthalpy change is negative. How would one increase the equilibrium concentration of N O ? 4 2 4 A. Decrease the total pressure. B. Increase the total pressure. C. Add a catalyst. D. Raise the temperature. 9 E. None of the above. 5311004 B 15 30339 31 0738 2WVW The reaction aA + bB <====> cC is exothermic. If the temperature is increased A. C increases B. A and B increase C. K increases D. the ideal gas law fails 9 E. A increases and B decreases 5311005 B 14 30342 31 2WVW Le chatelier"s principle applies to A. neither chemical nor physical equilibria B. chemical and physical equilibria C. physical equilibria only 9 D. chemical equilibria only 5311006 A 14 30345 31 040702450161 2 OS For reversible reactions at equilibrium, a rise in temperature will A. favor the endothermic reaction B. decrease the rates of the reactions C. cause the evolution of more heat 9 D. have no effect upon the equilibrium 5311007 B 14 30349 31 07380245 0041 Le Chatelier's principle is concerned with A. catalysts B. chemical equilibrium 9 C. photosynthesis D. activated molecules 5311008 A 14 30351 52 011304070114 0041 When a gas reaction involves a decrease in the total number of molecules, the equilibrium can be shifted in the direction of higher yield by A. increasing the pressure B. decreasing the pressure 9 C. increasing the temperature D. decreasing the temperature 5311009 B 15 30355 52 022604070245 0042 The reversible reaction: 2 H (g) + CO(g) <=====> CH OH(g) + heat 4 2 3 is carried out by mixing carbon monoxide and hydrogen gases in a closed tank under high pressure with a suitable catalyst. After equilibrium is established at high temperature and pressure, all three substances are present. If the pressure on the system is lowered, with the temperature kept constant, then: A. the amount of CH OH will be increased 4 3 B. the amount of CH OH will be decreased 4 3 C. the amount of each substance will be unchanged D. the amount of each substance will be increased 9 E. the result cannot be predicted from the information given. 5311010 D 14 30365 52 024501380168 0043 Given the equilibrium 22 kilojoules + PCl (g) <=====> PCl (g)+ Cl (g), 4 5 3 2 the concentration of Cl at equilibrium will be increased by: 4 2 A. lowering the temperature B. adding PCl to the container 4 3 C. increasing the pressure D. adding PCl to the mixture. 94 5 5311011 AC 24 30371 32 1390 ETS2WVW MACROITEM STEM Answer the following questions. In the manufacture of ammonia, hydrogen is combined with nitrogen. All substances are gaseous. The following equilibrium is known to exist 3H + N <=====> 2NH + heat 04 2 2 3 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 Starting from a system in equilibrium an increase in pressure A. will favor production of NH 4 3 B. will favor decomposition of NH 4 3 C. will have no effect upon production of NH 4 3 1 D. will change the temperature of the reaction MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 The reason for the effect observed in the preceding item is A. gases decompose under high pressure B. increase in pressure raises temperature C. increase in pressure favors the formation of fewer molecules 9 D. high pressure always makes gases combine 5311012 BA 24 30382 52 016901130245 0043 MACROITEM STEM Solid CaCO and CaO and gaseous CO are placed in a box and 4 3 2 allowed to reach equilibrium: CaO(s) + CO (g) <====> CaCO (s) /\H = -180 kJ 04 2 3 -- MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 The quantity of CaO in the box could be increased by: A. adding more CaCO B. removing some CO 4 3 2 1 C. lowering the temperature D. reducing the volume of the box. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 The equilibrium constant for the reaction above is: [CaCO ] 4 1 [CaO] 3 A. K = ----- B. K = ------- C. K = [CO ] D. K = ------- 4 [CO ] [CaCO ] 2 [CaO] 94 2 3 5311013 C 15 30392 52 024501131026 0018 Given the equilibrium mixture of gases at a temperature of 200 degrees centigrade 4NH + 7O <=====> 6H O + 4NO + heat, which 4 3 2 2 2 of the following statements is true? A. Increasing temperature would shift the position of equilibrium to the right. B. An increase in pressure would shift the position of equilibrium to the left. C. Adding excess ammonia would shift the position of equilibrium to the right. D. Adding excess nitrogen dioxide would shift the position of equilibrium to the right. E. Removing water would shift the position of equilibrium to 9 the left. 5311014 D 15 30401 52 040710370114 0018 Which of the following reactions will be shifted to the right by an increase in external pressure? A. C +CO <=====> 2CO(g) 4 (s) 2(g) B. 2SO <=====> 2SO +O (g) 4 3(g) 2(g) 2 C. 2NaCl <=====> 2Na +Cl (g) 4 (s) (s) 2 D. 2NO <=====> N O (g) 4 2(g) 2 5 E. O <=====> 3O(g) 94 3(g) 5311015 A 15 30407 52 104008011044 0018 The production of ammonia is an exothermic process: N (g) + 3H (g) <=====> 2NH (g) 4 2 2 3 Select the conditions that will result in maximum production of ammonia, which is an important compound in the manufacture of both fertilizers and high explosives. A. Low temperature and high pressure B. Low temperature and low pressure C. High temperature and low pressure D. High temperature and high pressure E. Changing the temperature and pressure will have no effect 9 on maximizing the production of ammonia 5311016 C 15 30415 52 016104070226 0018 At very high temperature the reaction between hydrogen and oxygen is rapidly reversible. 2H +O <=====> 2H O +heat 4 2(g) 2(g) 2 (g) A decrease in temperature would A. not affect equilibrium B. produce more oxygen C. shift the equilibrium to the right D. shift the equilibrium to the left 9 E. favor the endothermic reaction 5311017 C 15 30420 31 073702450738 0028 In the equilibrium reaction 2 SO + O <=====> 2 SO + heat energy 4 2(g) 2(g) 3(g) the equilibrium can be shifted to the right by A. adding a catalyst B. selectively removing oxygen gas C. increasing the pressure D. increasing the temperature 9 E. none of these 5311018 B 14 30425 52 024508710195 0009 The position of equilibrium would not be affected by changes in container volume for the system: A. H (g) + I (s) <=====> 2HI(g) 4 2 2 B. N (g) + O (g) <=====> 2NO(g) 4 2 2 C. N (g) + 3H (g) <=====> 2NH (g) 4 2 2 3 D. H O (l) <=====> H O(l) + 1/2 O (g) 94 2 2 2 2 5311019 B 14 30430 52 087101130245 0009 If a system contains SO , O , and SO gases at equilibrium, 4 2 2 3 SO (g) + 1/2 O (g) <=====> SO (g) 4 2 2 3 addition of more oxygen to the system will result in A. a reaction in which some SO is formed 4 2 B. a reaction in which part of the added O is consumed 4 2 C. a reaction in which all of the added O is consumed 4 2 9 D. no reaction 5311020 C 14 30437 31 152501140977 0009 In the Haber process for making ammonia, high pressures are used to A. increase the yield, leaving the rate unchanged B. increase the rate, leaving the yield unchanged C. increase the yield and the rate 9 D. increase the equilibrium constant and the rate 5311021 A 14 30441 32 040714350482 0009 Consider the reaction: SnO(s) + 1/2 O (g) -----> SnO (s). This 4 2 2 reaction would be expected to A. become less spontaneous at high temperatures B. become less spontaneous at high pressures C. become less spontaneous at low temperatures 9 D. not occur at any temperature or pressure 5311022 D 14 30446 32 117209770114 0009 To increase the yield of SO from SO in the reaction with O , 4 3 2 2 we could A. increase the temperature B. use more SO 4 2 9 C. add a catalyst D. increase the pressure 5311023 D 14 30450 52 024501380168 0019 Given the equilibrium 22 kcal +PCl (g) <====> PCl (g) + Cl (g), 4 5 3 2 the concentration of Cl at equilibrium will be increased by: 4 2 A. lowering the temperature B. adding PCl to the container 4 3 C. increasing the pressure D. adding PCl to the mixture 94 5 5311024 C 15 30456 52 024501380272 0019 Let us assume we have an equilibrium represented by A <====> B, where K=10 and where, in a certain experiment, the equilibrium concentration in moles/liter are A = 0.10, B = 1.0. Now imagine adding 0.1 moles/liter of B to the equilibrium mixture. In the new equilibrium resulting from this addition, the concentration of A in moles/liter is expected to be: 9 A. 0.01 B. 0.011 C. 0.109 D. 1.1 E. 1.09 E. none of these 5311025 D 15 30462 31 016107380138 0040 Which of the following changes will, according to Le Chatelier's principle, shift the equilibrium of the reaction below to the left? N + 3H <=====> 2NH + heat 4 2 2 3 A. increase concentration of N 4 2 B. increase concentration of NH 4 3 C. increase the temperature 9 D. both A and C E. both B and C. 5311026 C 15 30468 31 073802450485 0040 Which of the following changes would, according to Le Chatelier's principle, shift the following equilibrium to the right? heat + 2HI <=====> H + I 4 2 2 A. add a catalyst B. add H C. remove I D. remove heat 4 2 2 9 E. increase the total pressure of the system 5311027 D 14 30473 52 040714090806 0009 It is sometimes the case that K is very small for a reaction 4 c under almost all conditions. Yet the reaction may be used to produce significant amounts of products. How can this be? A. A catalyst is used to increase the yield B. The reaction is carried out at very high temperatures C. An alternate series of reactions, giving the same result, is used 9 D. Product is removed from the system as it is formed 5311028 D 14 30480 52 040701141341 0009 For the reaction: 4 NH (g) + 7 O (g) <=====> 2 N O (g) + 6 H O(l), increasing 4 3 2 2 4 2 the pressure by the addition of neon gas would be expected A. to increase the yield of N O at equilibrium 4 2 4 B. to decrease the yield of N O at equilibrium 4 2 4 C. to speed up the reaction in the forward direction D. to make no change in the relative amounts of NH and N O 4 3 2 4 9 at equilibrium 5311029 D 14 30488 51 117209771020 0009 Which of the following changes will invariably increase the yield of products at equilibrium? A. an increase in temperature B. an increase in pressure C. addition of a catalyst 9 D. increasing reactant concentrations 5311030 A 15 30492 31 143304170245 0034 Which of the following does not affect the concentration of the 3 ____ ___ reactants and products at equilibrium in a chemical reaction? A. a change in the activation energy B. a change in the temperature C. an increase in the concentration of products D. a decrease in the concentration of reactants 9 E. removal of product 5311031 BABBD 54 30497 52 02450138 0043 MACROITEM STEM The following questions refer to the equilibrium: 2SO (g) + O (g) <=====> 2SO (g) + 190 kilojoules. 04 2 2 3 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 The concentration of O at equilibrium will increase if: 4 2 A. SO is added to the system 4 2 B. SO is added to the system 4 3 C. the temperature of the system is lowered 1 D. an inert gas is added to the system. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 The concentration of SO at equilibrium will increase if: 4 3 A. the temperature of the system is lowered B. the volume of the container is increased C. SO is removed from the system 4 2 2 D. an inert gas is added to the system. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 The concentration of SO in the system at equilibrium will 4 2 increase if: A. the temperature is lowered B. the volume is decreased C. O is added D. SO is removed. 34 2 3 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 The number of moles of SO in the system at equilibrium will 4 2 increase if: A. the temperature is lowered B. the volume is increased C. O is added to the system 4 2 D. SO is removed from the system. 44 3 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 The number of moles of O at equilibrium will decrease if: 4 2 A. a catalyst is added B. an inert gas is added to the system C. O is added to the system 4 2 D. SO is removed from the system 94 3 5311032 D 15 30515 52 15370162179905 All but one of the following changes would cause the equilibrium to shift to the left. Identify the EXCEPTION 5 -2 +2 + +3 +3 Cr O + 6 Fe + 14 H <===> 2 Cr + 6 Fe + 7 H O 4 2 7 2 5 +3 A. Increase [Fe ] 5 - B. Increase [OH ] 5 +3 C. Increase [Cr ] D. Remove water 5 -2 E. Decrease [Cr O ] 94 2 7 5311033 C 14 30522 51 07380871 If one has a system of water and steam at equilibrium, how could one increase the amount of water according to Le Chatelier's principle? A. remove some of the water vapor present B. decrease the pressure on the system C. remove heat from the system 9 D. it is not possible to do SO in this particular system 5311034 B 14 30527 72 1955 0062 For the reaction N (g) + 3 H (g) <===> 2 NH (g) + 22.1 kcal 4 2 2 3 Which of the following statements is not correct? 3 ___ A. The equilibrium concentration of NH is greater at lower temperature 3 B. It takes longer to reach equilibrium at higher temperature C. A catalyst does not change the equilibrium concentration of NH 4 3 D. At constant temperature, an increase in pressure does not 9 change the equilibrium constant of the reaction. 5311035 B 15 30535 52 Consider the following endothermic reaction at equilibrium: CaCO (s) = CaO(s) + CO (g) 4 3 2 The equilibrium concentration of CO could be increased by 4 2 A. decreasing the pressure on the system. B. increasing the temperature of the system. C. adding CaCO to the system. 4 3 D. A, B and C are all correct. 9 E. Only B and C are correct. 5311036 C 15 30541 52 Given the equilibrium system: 2C(s) + 3H (g) <===> C H (g) /\H = -84.4 kJ 3 __ 4 2 2 6 Which of the following will change the numerical value of the equilibrium constant, K ? 4 eq A. Increasing pressure on the system. B. Adding more C(s) C. Changing the temperature. D. Adding a catalyst. 9 E. A and C are both correct. 5311037 B 15 45518 71 5 o The melting point of benzene at 1 atm is 5.5 C. The density of liquid benzene is 0.90 g/mL, and that of the solid is 1.0 g/cc. At an applied pressure of 10 atm, the melting point of benzene is: 5 o o A. equal to 5.5 C D. slightly less than 5.5 C 5 o o B. slightly greater than 5.5 C E. much less than 5.5 C 5 o 9 C. much greater than 5.5 C 5313001 A 15 30547 31 02450407 11 ETS2WVW When a chemical reaction has reached equilibrium A. the forward and backward reactions are proceeding at exactly the same rate B. the product of the concentrations of the reactants is equal to the product of the concentrations of the products C. the partial pressure of any gases involved is unity D. the addition of a catalyst will displace the reaction in the exothermic direction E. chemical reaction of the molecules in the mixture has 9 entirely ceased 5313002 D 15 30554 31 02450485 11 ETS2WVW The value of the equilibrium constant in a given reaction A. is the same at all temperatures B. depends upon initial concentrations of the reactants C. gives the absolute rate of the reaction D. is not affected by the presence of catalysts 9 E. is the same for all reactions, if the temperature is constant 5313003 C 14 30559 31 2WVW When a reversible reaction is in equilibrium, opposing forces A. stop acting B. are shifted to the right C. are in constant operation 9 D. go to an end 5313004 B 14 30562 31 024504070491 0041 At equilibrium, A. both forward and reverse reactions have ceased B. the forward and reverse reactions are proceeding at the same rate C. the forward reaction has come to a stop, and the reverse reaction is just about to begin 9 D. a considerable amount of heat is evolved 5313005 A 14 30566 51 040701350226 0041 Most chemical reactions are 9 A. reversible B. irreversible C. exothermic D. endothermic 5313006 E 15 30568 52 024510200806 0018 Which of the following statements is not true? A. When a chemical reaction occurs, the reactants are converted to products that have different chemical and physical properties from those of the reactants. B. Chemical reactants proceed at different rates and the rate of a reaction depends on the following factors: nature of reactants, concentration of reactants, temperature and catalysts. C. Chemical reactions are generally reversible. D. Exothermic reactions are those that release energy(heat). E. A dynamic chemical equilibrium is one in which both 9 reactants and proucts are in a 50:50 ratio. 5313007 E 15 30577 51 02450491 0020 Equilibrium is established when A. K=100 B. The specific rate constants are equal C. The concentrations of both reactants are different D. The concentrations of both reactants are the same 9 E. The forward rate equals the reverse rate 5313008 B 15 30581 31 028402450407 0038 Which of the following is true, by definition, for a system which has reached a state of chemical equilibrium? A. The substance having the smaller volume increases in quantity B. no further reaction occurs in either direction C. The concentrations of reactants and products are necessarily equal D. The opposing reactions have equal velocities E. The total mass of the products is equal to the total mass 9 of the reactants 5313009 C 14 30587 72 07491201 40 MSU The gaseous system defined by H + Cl <===> 2HCl has the 4 2 2 following composition at equilibrium: [H ] = [Cl ] = 4.0 moles/liter, [HCl] = 8.0 moles/liter 4 2 2 If the concentration of HCl is increased by 1.0 mole/liter and the system allowed to reequilibrate, which of the following equations could be used to calculate the final concentrations? Let x equal the change in concentration of H 4 2 5 2 2 (9.0 - x) (9.0 - 2x) A. 4.0 = ---------- C. 4.0 = ----------- 5 2 2 (4.0 + x) (4.0 + x) 5 2 (9.0 - x) (4.0 + x) B. 2.0 = --------- D. 0.25 = ------------ 5 (4.0 + x) 2 9 (9.0 + 2x) 5313010 C 14 30602 52 0749 40 MSU A system of gases in a 1.0 liter flask is composed of 6.0 moles each of H , O and H O. If equilibrium is established 4 2 2 2 according to the equation 2H + O = 2H O, where K = 31, what 4 2 2 2 is the proper equation to use in calculating the equilibrium concentrations of all substances ? Let x be the change in the number of moles of H O. 4 2 5 2 2 (6.0-x) (6.0+x) 4 A. 31 = -------- C. 31 = ------------------ 4 2 2 4 (6.0+x) (6.0-x) (6.0-0.5x) 5 2 (6.0+x) (6.0+x) 4 B. 31 = -------- D. 31 = --------------- 4 2 (6.0-x)(6.0-2x) 94 (6.0-x) 5313011 C 15 30614 52 0749 40 MSU In the reaction Cl + IBr = ClBr + ICl at equilibrium, the 4 2 concentrations of all these gases are each 1.0 mole/liter. If an additional mole each of ClBr and ICl are added to the system, what will be the new equilibrium concentration of Cl (moles/liter)? 4 2 9 A. 0.50 B. 2.5 C. 1.5 D. 2.0 E. 1.15 5313012 C 14 30619 52 07491201 40 MSU The equation CO + Cl <===> COCl describes a system of gases at 4 2 2 equilibrium in which the concentrations of CO and Cl are both 4 2 1.0 mole/liter and the concentration of COCl is 6.0 mole/liter. 4 2 If 2.0 moles of COCl is added to the system and equilibrium is 4 2 reestablished at constant temperature, which of the following equations could be used to solve for x, the increase in the concentration of CO? 5 2 (6-x) (8-x) (8-x) (6+x) 4 A. 6 = ------ B. 6 = ------ C. 36 = ------ D. 3 = ------ 4 2 2 2 2 94 (1+x) (1+x) (1+x) (1+x) 5313013 C 15 30631 52 0749 40 MSU For the gaseous system A + B = C + D at equilibrium, a 1.0 liter sample contains 1.0 mole each of A and B plus 2.0 moles each of C and D. If 2.0 moles of C and 2.0 moles of D are added to the system, what is the final concentration of A when equilibrium is reestablished at constant temperature (moles/liter)? 9 A. 3.0 B. 2.0 C. 1.67 D. 0.67 E. 0.00 5313014 D 15 30636 72 07491201 40 MSU A gaseous equilibrium system described by the equation PCl + Cl <===> PCl 4 3 2 5 contains 6.0 moles/liter each of PCl and Cl , and 72 moles/liter 4 3 2 of PCl . If the concentration of PCl is increased by 10 moles/liter 4 5 5 and equilibrium reestablished at constant temperature, which of the final concentrations given below is correct? Let x equal amount of change in concentration of PCl after the addition of the 10 moles. 4 5 A. [PCl ] = (6.0-x) C. [PCl ] = (6.0-x) E. [PCl ] = (6+6+x) 4 3 5 3 B. [Cl ] = (6.0-x) D. [PCl ] = (72+10-x) 94 2 5 5313015 C 14 30646 72 07491201 40 MSU A gaseous system at equilibrium described by the equation PBr + Br <===> PBr contains 4.0 moles/liter each of PBr and 4 3 2 5 3 Br and 64 moles/liter of PBr . If the concentration of PBr 4 2 5 5 is increased by 6.0 moles/liter at constant temperature, which of the following is true when the system again reaches equilibrium? Let x equal the change in concentration of Br . 4 2 A. [PBr ]=(4.0-x) B. [PBr ]=(10+x) C. [PBr ]=(70-x) D. [Br ]=x 94 3 3 5 2 5313016 D 14 30655 52 07491201 40 MSU The 1.0 liter sample of the gaseous system A + B = C contains 2.0 moles each of A, B and C at equilibrium. If 1.0 mole of B is added and the system allowed to re-equilibrate at constant temperature, which of the following equations could be used to find the final equilibrium concentrations? (2.0+x) (2.0+x) 4 A. 2.0 = -------------- C. 0.5 = ---------- 4 2 4 (2.0-x)(3.0-x) (2.0+x) 5 2 (3.0-x) (2.0-x) (2.0+x) 4 B. 2.0 = --------------- D. 0.5 = -------------- 94 (2.0+x) (2.0-x)(3.0-x) 5313017 C 15 30664 52 0749 40 MSU For the gaseous system SO + NO <===> SO + NO at equilibrium, 4 2 2 3 a 1.0 liter sample contains 1.0 mole each of SO and NO and 4 2 2 4.0 moles each of SO and NO. If 2.0 moles each of SO and 4 3 3 NO are added to the system at constant temperature what will be the final equilibrium concentration of NO (moles/liter)? 4 2 9 A. 16 B. 2.2 C. 1.4 D. 0.40 E. 0.00 5313018 D 14 30672 52 07491201 40 MSU Carbon dioxide can be formed in the reversible reaction C(s) + O (g) <===> CO (g). A 1.0 liter system at equilibrium 4 2 2 contain 100 moles of CO and 4.0 moles each of C and O . If 4 2 2 4.0 moles more O are added to the system and equilibrium 4 2 reestablished at constant temperature, which of the following equations could be used to calculate the final concentration of CO ? Let x equal the change in concentration of CO . 4 2 2 (100+x) (100-x) 4 A. 25 = -------------- C. 25 = -------------- 4 (4.0-x)(8.0-x) (4.0+x)(8.0+x) (100+x) (100+x) 4 B. 25 = -------------- D. 25 = ------- 94 (4.0-x)(4.0-x) (8.0-x) 5313019 D 14 30684 52 07491201 40 MSU An equilibrium system of gases described by the equation N (g) + 3H (g) <===> 2NH (g) contains 9.0 moles of NH and 3.0 moles 4 2 2 3 3 each of N and H in a 1.0 L flask. If 2.0 moles of H is added to 4 2 2 2 the system, which of the following expressions will give the concentration of H once equilibrium is reestablished at constant 4 2 temperature? Let 2x = the amount of new NH formed. 4 3 9 A. 3.0 - x B. 5.0 + x C. 3.0 + x D. 5.0 - 3x 5313020 B 15 45660 52 0749 40 MSU A and B react according to the equation A + B <===> 2C A 1.0 liter system of these three gases contains 2.0 moles of A, 1.0 mole of B and 12 moles of C at equilibrium. If 5.0 moles of C are removed from the system and equilibrium reestablished at constant temperature, which of the following equations would allow you to calculate all final concentrations ? 5 2 2 (12-x) (12+x) 4 A. -------------- = 12 C. -------------------- = 72 4 (2.0-x)(1.0-x) (2.0-0.5x)(1.0-0.5x) 5 2 (7.0+x) (12+x) 4 B. -------------------- = 72 D. -------------- = 6 4 (2.0-0.5x)(1.0-0.5x) (2.0-x)(1.0-x) (7.0+x) 4 E. -------------------- = 72 94 (2.0-0.5x)(1.6-0.5x) 5313021 C 15 30702 52 07491201 40 MSU A gaseous system defined by the equation 2HBr <===> H + Br has 4 2 2 the following composition at equilibrium HBr = 4.0 moles/liter, H = 3.0 moles/liter, Br = 1.0 moles/liter. If 2.0 moles of HBr 4 2 2 are added and the system is reequilibrated at constant temperature, which of the following expressions represents the final equilibrium concentration of HBr? Let x be the change in concentration of H . 4 2 9 A. 4.0-x B. 4.0+x C. 6.0-2x D. 2.0-x E. x 5315001 D 15 30710 52 0227 2WVW Two moles of ammonia gas are introduced into a previously evacuated 1.0-liter container in which it partially dissociates at high T. 2 NH (g)<===> N (g) + 3 H (g) 4 3 2 2 At equilibrium 1.0 mole of NH (g) remains. 4 3 5 2 -2 Kc = 27/16 = 1.7 mole liter The entire mixture is then transferred to a previously evacuated 3.50-liter container at the same temperature. What is the new K ? 4 c 5 2 -2 A. 1/4 = 0.25 mole liter 5 2 -2 B. 27/64 = 0.42 mole liter 5 2 -2 C. 27/32 = 0.84 mole liter 5 2 -2 D. 27/16 = 1.7 mole liter 5 2 -2 9 E. 27/4 = 6.8 mole liter 5315002 C 15 30721 52 0091 2WVW What is the pH of a 0.01-molar solution? (note HNO is a strong 4 3 acid.) 5 -14 2 -2 (K = 1 x 10 mole liter .) 4 w 9 A. 0.01 B. -2 C. 2 D. 12 E. 14 5315003 BBA 34 30725 52 035501590407 90 2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2Using the bond dissociation energies or bond energies given in the 2table below, estimate /\H for the reactions in the following 3 __ questions. 5 -1 2 Average single bond enthalpies (kJ mol ) 2 | S Si I Br Cl F O N C H 2--------------------------------------------------------------- 2H | 339 339 299 366 432 563 463 391 413 436 2C | 259 290 240 276 328 441 351 292 348 2N | 200 270 2O | 369 203 185 139 2F | 541 258 237 254 153 2Cl| 250 359 210 219 243 2Br| 289 178 193 2I | 213 151 2Si| 213 0 ----------------------------------------------------------------- MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 Given the reaction 2 HCl = H + Cl , delta H is 4 2 2 A. -184 kJ B. +184 kJ C. -1112 kJ 1 D. +1112 kJ MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 Given the reaction H + CCl = CH Cl + Cl , delta H is 4 2 4 2 2 2 A. -40 kJ B. +40 kJ C. -3700 kJ 2 D. +3700 kJ MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 Given the reaction CH Cl + Cl = H + CCl , delta H is 4 2 2 2 2 4 A. -40 kJ B. +40 kJ C. -3700 kJ 9 D. +3700 kJ 5315004 CDA 34 30742 52 035501590407 90 2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2Using the bond dissociation energies or bond energies given in the 2table below, estimate delta H for the reactions in the following 2questions. 5 -1 2 Average single bond enthalpies (kj x mol ) 2 | S Si I Br Cl F O N C H 2--------------------------------------------------------------- 2H | 339 339 299 366 432 563 463 391 413 436 2C | 259 290 240 276 328 441 351 292 348 2N | 200 270 2O | 369 203 185 139 2F | 541 258 237 254 153 2Cl| 250 359 210 219 243 2Br| 289 178 193 2I | 213 151 2Si| 213 0 ----------------------------------------------------------------- MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 Given the reaction O=CH + H = (CH )OH (O=CH is formaldehyde), 4 2 2 3 2 delta H is A. -4000 kJ B. +4000 kJ C. -100 kJ 1 D. +100 kJ MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 Given the reaction (CH )OH = H + O=CH , (O=CH is formaldehyde), 4 3 2 2 2 delta H is A. -4000 kJ B. +4000 kJ C. -100 kJ 2 D. +100 kJ MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 Given the reaction CH -CH + O = CH CHO + HOH (CH -CHO is 4 3 3 2 3 3 acetaldehyde), delta H is A. -80 kJ B. -160 kJ C. +160 kJ 9 D. +340 kJ 5315005 EBCD 45 30760 52 035501590407 90 2 OS MACROITEM STEM Using the bond dissociation energies or bond energies given in the table below, estimate /\H for the reactions in the following 3 __ questions. 5 -1 Average single bond enthalpies (kJ mol ) 2 | S Si I Br Cl F O N C H 2--------------------------------------------------------------- 2H | 339 339 299 366 432 563 463 391 413 436 2C | 259 290 240 276 328 441 351 292 348 2N | 200 270 2O | 369 203 185 139 2F | 541 258 237 254 153 2Cl| 250 359 210 219 243 2Br| 289 178 193 2I | 213 151 2Si| 213 0 ----------------------------------------------------------------- MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 Given the reaction N + 3 (Cl) = 2 N(Cl) , /\H is 4 2 2 3 -- 1 A. -260 kJ B. -520 kJ C. -585 kJ D. +260 kJ E. +520 kJ MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 Given the reaction 2 N(Cl) = N + 3 (Cl) , /\H is 4 3 2 2 -- 2 A. -260 kJ B. -520 kJ C. -585 kJ D. +260 kJ E. +520 kJ MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 Given the reaction 2 C=O + O = 2 CO , /\H is 4 2 2 -- 3 A. -185 kJ B. -360 kJ C. -835 kJ D. +185 kJ E. +360 kJ MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 Given the reaction CH -CH + HOH = CH -CH + O , (CH -CHO is 4 3 3 3 3 2 3 acetaldehyde), /\H is 3 __ 9 A. -340 kJ B. -170 kJ C. +170 kJ D. +340 kJ E. +400 kJ 5315006 C 15 30780 52 024506950871 2WVW If the equilibrium constant for the isomerization reaction normal-butane = iso-butane is 100.0 (one hundred) and the initial system contains a 1.01 M (one point zero one molar) concentration of normal-butane but NO isobutane, what concentration of iso-butane will be present when equilibrium has been reached? A. 0.01 M B. 0.10 M C. 1.00 M D. 1.01 M 9 E. 0.50 M 5315007 E 15 30785 52 024506950871 2WVW If the equilibrium constant for the isomerization reaction iso-butane = normal-butane is 0.01 (one one-hundredth) and the initial system contains a 1.01 M (one point zero one molar) concentration of iso-butane but no normal-butane, what concentration of normal-butane will be present when equilibrium has been reached? A. 1.01 M B. 1.00 M C. 0.50 M D. 0.10 M 9 E. 0.01 M 5315008 B 15 30791 52 024506950871 2WVW If the equilibrium constant for the isomerization reaction iso-butane = normal-butane is 0.01 and the initial system contains a 1.01 M concentration of iso-butane but no normal-butane, what concentration of iso-butane (units of molarity) will be present when equilibrium has been reached? 9 A. 1.01 B. 1.00 C. 0.50 D. 0.10 E. 0.01 5315009 C 15 30796 52 024506950871 2WVW If the equilibrium constant for the isomerization reaction cis-2-butene = trans-2-butene is 10.0 (ten) and the system contains a 1.1 M (one point one molar) concentration of cis-2-butene but none of the trans isomer, what concentration of cis-2-butene will be present when equilibrium is reached? A. 0.55 M B. 1.1 M C. 0.1 M D. 1.0 M 9 E. more data needed to answer the question 5315010 D 15 30802 52 024506950871 2WVW If the equilibrium constant for the isomerization reaction cis-2-butene = trans-2-butene is 10.0 (ten) and the system contains a 1.1 M (one point one molar) concentration of cis-2-butene but none of the trans isomer, what concentration of trans-2-butene will be present when equilibrium is reached? A. 0.55 M B. 1.1 M C. 0.1 M D. 1.0 M 9 E. more data needed to answer the question 5315011 E 15 30808 52 024504070138 2WVW If the equilibrium constant for the reaction 2 N + O = 2 N O 4 2 2 2 is 0.10 (one-tenth), what is the concentration of N O in 4 2 equilibrium with 0.10 M (one-tenth molar) N and 0.10 M (one-tenth 4 2 molar) O ? 4 2 A. 10.0 M B. 1.00 M C. 0.50 M D. 0.10 M 9 E. 0.01 M 5315012 D 15 30814 52 024504070138 2WVW If the equilibrium constant for the reaction 2N + O = 2N O 4 2 2 2 is 0.10 (one-tenth), what is the concentration of O in equilibrium 4 2 with 0.10 M (one-tenth molar) N 0 and 1.00 M (one molar) N ? 4 2 2 A. 10.0 M B. 1.00 M C. 0.50 M D. 0.10 M 9 E. 0.02 M 5315013 D 14 30820 52 069504070245 2WVW If the isomerization reaction A = B has an equilibrium constant of ten, and the initial concentration of A is 1.1 M (initial concentration of B is zero), then at equilibrium the concentration of A will be A. 0.55 B. more information needed to answer the question C. 1 M 9 D. 0.17 5315014 C 14 30824 52 069502450138 2WVW If the isomerization reaction A = B has an equilibrium constant of ten, and the initial concentration of A is 1.1 M (initial concentration of B is zero), then at equilibrium the concentration of B will be A. 0.55 B. more information need to answer the question C. 1 M 9 D. 0.1 M 5315015 B 15 30828 52 040702450138 2WVW For the reaction 2NO + O = 2NO , the equilibrium constant is 4 2 2 100. What is the concentration of O in equilibrium with 0.01 M NO 4 2 and 0.1 M NO ? 4 2 A. 0.1 M B. 1.0 M C. 10 M D. 100 M 9 E. none of the preceding 5315016 A 15 30833 52 040702450138 2WVW For the reaction 2 NO + O + 2 NO , the equilibrium constant is 4 2 2 100. What is the concentration of NO in equilibrium with 1.0 M O 4 2 and 0.1 M NO ? 4 2 A. 0.01 M B. 0.1 M C. 1.0 M D. 10.0 M 9 E. none of the preceding 5315017 B 15 30838 52 040702450138 2WVW For the reaction 2NO + O <===> 2NO , the equilibrium constant is 4 2 2 100. What is the concentration of NO in equilibrium with 1.0 M O 4 2 2 and 0.01 M NO? A. 0.01 M B. 0.1 M C. 1.0 M D. 10 M 9 E. none of the preceding 5315018 C 15 30843 52 024506950871 2WVW If the equilibrium constant for the isomerization reaction trans-2-butene = cis-2-butene is 0.10 (one-tenth) and the initial system contains a 1.1 M (one point one molar) concentration of trans-2-butene but none of the cis isomer, what concentration of cis-2-butene will be present when equilibrium is reached? A. 0.55 M B. 1.1 M C. 0.1 M D. 1.0 M 9 E. more information needed to answer 5315019 D 14 30849 52 024506950871 2WVW If the equilibrium constant for the isomerization reaction trans-2-butene = cis-2-butene is 0.10 (one-tenth) and the initial system contains a 1.1 M (one point one molar) concentration of trans-2-butene but none of the cis isomer, what concentration of trans-2-butene will be present when equilibrium is reached? A. 0.55 M B. 1.1 M C. 0.1 M 9 D. 1.0 M 5315020 A 15 30854 52 024506950871 2WVW If the equilibrium constant for the isomerization reaction normal-butane = iso-butene is 100.0 (one hundred) and the initial systems contains a 1.01 M (one point zero one molar) concentration of normal-butane but no isobutane, what concentration of normal- butane will remain when equilibrium has been reached? A. 0.01 M B. 0.10 M C. 1.00 M D. 1.01 M 9 E. 0.50 M 5315021 A 15 45080 52 07480227 2WVW Which of these formulations of the equilibrium constant are wrong? 3 _____ reaction K (supposed) 3 ________ ____________ (1) SrCO (s) <===> SrO(s) + CO (g) K = P 4 3 2 P CO 4 2 (2) SO (g) + 1/2 O (g) <===>SO (g) K = [SO ]/[SO ][O ] 4 2 2 3 3 2 2 5 2 2 (3) 2H (g) + O (g) <===>2H O(g) K = [H ] [O ]/[H O] 4 2 2 2 2 2 2 5 + (4) Zn(s) + 2 Ag (aq) <===> 5 2+ + 2 2+ Zn (aq) + 2 Ag(s) K = [Ag ] /[Zn ] 5 2+ 4+ 3+ 3+ (5) Fe (aq) + Ce (aq) <===> K = [Fe ][Ce ] 3 ____________ 5 3+ 3+ 2+ 4+ Fe (aq) + Ce (aq) [Fe ][Ce ] A. (2), (3), and (4) B. (1) and (5) C. (2) D. (2) and (5) 9 E. none of the above combinations 5315022 E 15 44785 52 0749 40 MSU In the following question, A, B and C are all gases. Suppose that 4.0 moles each of A and B are placed in a 1.0 liter container and allowed to react according to the equation A + 2B <===> 2C. When equilibrium is established, 2.0 moles of C are found to be present in the system. What is the numerical value of K in liters/mole? 9 A. 1.0 B. 0.50 C. 0.22 D. 0.11 E. 0.33 5315023 A 15 30879 52 0749 40 MSU A mixture of 3.0 moles of NO and 2.0 moles of O were enclosed in 4 2 a 1.0 liter flask. When equilibrium was established according to the equation 2NO + O <===> = 2NO , it was found that 2.0 moles of 4 2 2 NO had been formed. What is the equilibrium constant K for this 4 2 reaction (in liters/mole)? 9 A. 4.0 B. 2.0 C. 3.0 D. 0.5 E. 0.17 5315024 A 15 30885 52 0749 40 MSU Consider the reaction A(g) + B(g) <===> 2C(g). Initially 4.0 moles each of A and B are placed in an empty 1.0 liter container and 5 o heated to 400 C. When equilibrium is established, only 0.80 mole each of A and B remain. What is the numerical value of the equilibrium constant ? 9 A. 64 B. 10 C. 16 D. 4 E. 8 5315025 B 15 30890 52 0749 40 MSU Consider the equilibrium A(g) + 2B(g) <===> 2C(g). Suppose that 0.6 mole each of A and B are placed in an empty 1.0 liter container. If, when equilibrium is established, 0.4 mole of C is present in the mixture, what is the numerical value of the equilibrium constant? 9 A. 100 B. 10 C. 40 D. 5.0 E. 20 5315026 A 15 30895 52 0749 40 MSU A mixture of 1.0 mole each of N and O were placed in a 1.0 liter 4 2 2 5 o vessel and heated to 1000 C. When equilibrium was estabished according to the reaction N (g) + O (g) <===> 2NO(g), 0.4 mole of 4 2 2 N remained. What is the value of K? 4 2 9 A. 9.0 B. 0.44 C. 2.25 D. 7.50 E. 8 5315027 A 15 30901 52 0749 40 MSU At 300 K, 6.0 moles of NO and 4.0 moles of Cl were introduced into 4 2 an empty 1.0 liter container. When the reaction 2NO(g) + Cl (g) <===> 2NOCl(g) has come to equilibrium, 3.0 moles of 4 2 NOCl had been produced. What is the value of the equilibrium constant? 9 A. 0.4 B. 1.0 C. 3.0 D. 2.5 E. some other value 5315028 B 15 44625 52 0749 40 MSU Consider the gaseous reaction N O <===> 2NO . Suppose that 4 2 4 2 0.60 moles of N O is placed in an empty 1.0 liter flask. After 4 2 4 equilibrium is attained, 0.20 moles of N O remains. What is the 4 2 4 of the equilibrium constant (K )? 4 c 9 A. 2.5 B. 3.2 C. 0.8 D. 10 E. 5 5315029 E 15 30913 52 07491201 40 MSU Hydrogen and oxygen react according to the equation 2H + O <===> 2H O. If 1.0 mole each of H and O are placed in a 2 2 2 2 2 1.0 liter container and allowed to come to equilibrium, which expression will represent the equilibrium concentration of H ? 4 2 Let x equal the change in the amount of oxygen at equilibrium. 5 2 9 A. 2x B. 2-x C. (1-2x) D. 1-x E. 1-2x 5315030 B 15 30920 52 07491201 40 MSU A gaseous system is defined by the equation 2NO + Cl <===> 2NOCl. If 4.0 moles of NOCl are placed in an empty 4 2 1.0 liter vessel and equilibrium is established, which of the following expressions represents the equilibrium concentration of Cl ? Let x equal the change in the amount of NOCl. 4 2 9 A. x B. 0.5x C. 1.0+x D. 4.0-x E. 4.0+x 5315031 B 14 30925 52 0227 MSU The rate constant for the forward reaction at equilibrium is k. What is the value for the reverse reaction constant k"? 9 A. k" = k B. k" = 1/k C. k" = 1-k D. k" = 1 - 1/k 5315032 B 14 30928 51 01140245 MSU The equilibrium constant, K , 4 eq A. changes as the initial concentrations of reactants change. B. changes as the temperature changes. C. changes as the pressure changes. 9 D. is lowered by the addition of a catalyst. 5315033 B 14 30932 51 01140245 MSU For the pressure exerted on a reaction system to affect the equilibrium, the A. equilibrium constant must be larger the 1.0 B. volume of the reactants must be different from the volume of the products C. equilibrium constant must be less than 1.0 9 D. reaction must absorb or release heat 5315034 C 14 30937 51 0227 MSU The larger an equilibrium constant, A. the slower the reverse reaction will proceed B. the more exothermic the reaction C. the equilibrium lies further to the right 9 D. the less product is produced for a given amount of reactants 5315035 D 14 30941 51 0245 MSU When equilibrium has been established in a reaction system A. the rate of the forward reaction goes to zero B. the equilibrium constant K for the forward reaction is equal to the equilibrium constant K" for the reverse reaction C. the products of the reaction have been used up 9 D. the rates of the forward and reverse reactions are equal 5315036 C 14 30946 51 07410245 MSU The equilibrium expression shows A. whether a reaction is exothermic or endothermic B. how fast equilibrium will be reached C. concentrations of reagents at equilibrium 9 D. the temperature of an equilibrium system 5315037 D 14 30950 51 0227 MSU The smaller an equilibrium constant A. the slower the reaction will proceed B. the more endothermic the reaction C. the further toward completion the reaction will go 9 D. the less product is produced for a given amount of reactant 5315039 C 15 30959 52 0227 MSU What are the units of the equilibrium constant for the gas 5 o phase reaction CO + 2H ----> CH OH at 500 C? 4 2 3 5 2 2 A. mol/liter C. liter /mol E. K has no units 5 2 2 9 B. liter/mol D. mol /liter 5315040 E 15 30964 52 0227 MSU What are the units of the equilibrium constant for the gas 5 o phase reaction C + H O <====> CO + H at 2500 C? 4 2 2 A. liter/mol C. mol/liter E. K has no units 5 2 2 2 2 9 B. liter /mol D. mol /liter 5315041 D 15 30969 52 0227 MSU What are the units of the equilibrium constant for the gas o phase reaction N + 3H <====> 2NH at 500 C? 4 2 2 3 A. mol/liter C. liter/mol E. K has no units 5 2 2 2 2 9 B. mol /liter D. liter /mol 5315042 C 13 30974 52 0227 MSU Which one of the following gas phase reactions would have an 5 2 2 equilibrium constant with units of liter /mol ? A. 2H S + 3O <===> 2H O + 2SO C. CO + 3H <===> CH + H O 4 2 2 2 2 2 4 2 B. CH CHO <===> CH + CO 94 3 4 5315043 C 13 30979 52 0227 MSU Which one of the following gas phase reactions would have an equilibrium constant with units of mol/liter? A. 2H + O <===> 2H O C. BrF + 2H <===> HBr + 3HF 4 2 2 2 3 2 B. 2NO + 4H <===> N + 4H O 94 2 2 2 5315044 C 13 30983 52 0227 MSU Which one of the following gas phase reactions would have an 5 2 2 equilibrium constant with units of mole /liter ? A. 4NO + 3O <===> 2N O C. C H + 2O <===> CO + CO + 4HCl 4 2 2 5 2 6 2 2 B. CCl + 4H <===> CH + 4HCl 94 4 2 4 5315045 A 13 30988 52 0227 MSU Which one of the following gas phase reactions would have an equilibrium constant with units of liter/mole? A. 2 H + O <===> 2H O C. N H + O <===> N + 2 H O 4 2 2 2 2 4 2 2 2 B. CH Br + O <===> CO + 2 HBr 94 2 2 2 2 5315046 E 15 30992 52 0227 MSU What units would the equilibrium constant K have if it represents the gas phase reaction NCl3 + 3 H2 <===> NH3 + 3HCl? 4 3 2 3 5 2 2 4 4 2 2 9 A. L/mol B. L /mol C. mol /L D. mol /L E. K has no units 5315047 D 15 30996 52 0227 MSU What units would the equilibrium constant K have if it represents the equation 2S(s) + 3 O (g) <===> 2 SO (g)? 4 2 3 2 2 2 2 9 A. K has no units B. L /mol C. mol /L D. L/mol E. mol/L 5315048 B 15 31000 52 02450407 2 OS Choose the correct equilibrium expression for the reaction 2 NO = 2 NO + O 4 2 2 5 2 A. [NO ] 4 2 3 ______________ 5 2 [NO] x [O ] 4 2 5 2 B. [NO] x [O ] 4 2 3 ______________ 5 2 [NO ] 4 2 C. [NO] x [O ] 4 2 3 ___________ [NO ] 4 2 D. [NO ] 4 2 3 ___________ [NO] x [O ] 4 2 E. 2 x [NO] x [O ] -2 x [NO ] 94 2 2 5315049 D 15 31008 52 02450407 2 OS Choose the correct equilibrium expression for the reaction 4 NH + 5 O = 4 NO + 6 H O. 4 3 2 2 A. [NO] + [H O] 4 2 3 ______________ [NH ] + [O ] 4 3 2 5 4 6 B. [NO] + [H O] 4 2 3 __________________ 5 4 5 [NH ] + [O ] 4 3 2 C. [NO] x [H O] 4 2 3 ____________ [NH ] x [O ] 4 3 2 5 4 6 D. [NO] x [H O] 4 2 3 __________________ 5 4 5 [NH ] x [O ] 4 3 2 5 4 5 E. [NH ] x [O ] 4 3 2 3 __________________ 5 4 6 [NO] x [H O] 94 2 5315050 C 15 45006 32 02450407 2 OS Choose the correct equilibrium expression for the reaction NH Cl(s) ---> NH (g) + HCl(g) 4 4 3 A. [NH Cl] 4 4 3 __________ [NH ][HCl] 4 3 B. [NH Cl] x [HCl] x [NH ] 4 4 3 C. [NH ] x [HCl] 4 3 [NH ][HCl] 4 3 4 D. ---------- 4 [NH Cl] 4 4 E. [NH ] + [HCl] - [NH Cl] 94 3 4 5315051 E 15 31023 52 02450407 2 OS Choose the correct equilibrium expression for the reaction N + Cl + 4 H = 2 NH Cl 4 2 2 2 4 4 A. [N ] x [Cl ] x [H ] 4 2 2 2 3 ______________________ 5 4 [NH Cl] 4 4 B. [NH Cl] - [N ] - [Cl ] - 2 x [H ] 4 4 2 2 2 5 2 C. [NH Cl]- [N ] - [Cl ] - [H ] 4 4 2 2 2 D. [NH Cl] 4 4 3 ___________________ [N ] x [Cl ] x [H ] 4 2 2 2 5 2 E. [NH Cl] 4 4 3 _______________________ 5 4 [NH ] x [Cl ] x [H ] 94 2 2 2 5315052 C 15 31033 52 02450407 2 OS Choose the correct equilibrium expression for the reaction 2 N + O = 2 N O (nitrous oxide) 4 2 2 2 5 2 2 A. [N O] - [O ] - [N ] 4 2 2 2 5 2 2 B. [N O] x [O ] x [N ] 4 2 2 2 5 2 C. [N O] 4 2 3 ______________ 5 2 [O ] x [N ] 4 2 2 5 2 D. [N ] 4 2 3 ______________ 5 2 [O ] x [N O] 4 2 2 5 2 E. [N ] x [O ] 4 2 2 3 ______________ 5 2 [N O] 94 2 5315053 E 15 31042 52 02450407 2 OS Choose the correct equilibrium expression for the reaction N + O = 2 NO (nitric oxide) 4 2 2 5 2 A. [N ] x [NO] x [O ] 4 2 2 B. [N ] x [O ] 4 2 2 3 ___________ 5 2 [NO] 5 2 C. [N ] x [O ] 4 2 2 3 _________________ [NO] D. [NO] 3 _________________ 5 2 2 [N ] x [O ] 4 2 2 5 2 E. [NO] 3 ___________ [N ] x [O ] 94 2 2 5315054 B 15 31049 52 02450407 2 OS Choose the correct equilibrium expression for the reaction N + 2 O = 2 NO (nitrogen dioxide) 4 2 2 2 5 2 A. [O ] x [N ] 4 2 2 3 ______________ 5 2 [NO ] 4 2 5 2 B. [NO ] 4 2 3 ______________ 5 2 [O ] x [N ] 4 2 2 5 2 2 C. [NO ] x [O ] x [N ] 4 2 2 2 D. [NO ] 4 2 3 ___________ [N ] x [O ] 4 2 2 E. [N ] x [O ] 4 2 2 3 ___________ [NO ] 94 2 5315055 D 15 31057 52 02450407 2 OS Choose the correct equilibrium expression for the reaction 2 N O (nitrous oxide) + O = 4 NO (nitric oxide) 4 2 2 A. [NO] 3 ____________ [O ] x [N O] 4 2 2 B. [O ] x [N O] 4 2 2 3 ____________ 5 4 [NO] 5 2 C. [O ] x [N O] 4 2 2 3 _______________ 5 4 [NO] 5 4 D. [NO] 3 ______________ 5 2 [O ] x [N O] 4 2 2 5 4 E. [NO] 3 _______________ 5 2 [N O] x [O ] 94 2 2 5315056 C 15 31066 52 02450407 2 OS Choose the correct equilibrium expression for the reaction 2 NO + O = N O (dinitrogen tetroxide). 4 2 2 4 5 2 A. [NO] x [O ] x [N O ] 4 2 2 4 B. [NO] x [O ] 4 2 3 ___________ [N O ] 4 2 4 C. [N O ] 4 2 4 3 ______________ 5 2 [NO] x [O ] 4 2 5 2 D. [NO] x [O ] 4 2 3 ______________ [N O ] 4 2 4 E. [N O ] 4 2 4 3 ___________ [NO] x [O ] 94 2 5315057 A 15 31074 52 02450407 2 OS Choose the correct equilibrium expression for the reaction 2 N O (nitrous oxide) + 3 O = 4 NO (nitrogen dioxide) 4 2 2 2 5 4 A. [NO ] 4 2 3 ___________________ 5 3 2 [O ] x [N O] 4 2 2 5 3 2 B. [O ] x [N O] 4 2 2 3 ___________________ 5 4 [NO ] 4 2 C. [NO ] 4 2 3 ____________ [O ] x [N O] 4 2 2 D. [O ] x [N O] 4 2 2 3 ____________ [NO ] 4 2 5 2 E. [NO ] 4 2 3 _________________ 5 3/2 [N O] x [O ] 94 2 2 5315058 B 15 31084 52 02450407 2 OS Choose the correct equilibrium expression for the reaction N + H = N H (hydrazine) 4 2 2 2 4 5 2 A. [N ] x [H ] 4 2 2 3 ______________ [N H ] 4 2 4 B. [N H ] 4 2 4 3 ______________ 5 2 [N ] x [H ] 4 2 2 C. [N ] x [H ] 4 2 2 3 ___________ [N H ] 4 2 4 D. [N H ] 4 2 4 3 ___________ [N ] x [H ] 4 2 2 5 1/2 E. [N H ] 4 2 4 3 ________________ 5 1/2 [N ] x [H ] 94 2 2 5315059 E 15 31093 52 02450407 2 OS Choose the correct equilibrium expression for the reaction N H + 2 NO = 2 N + 2 HOH 4 2 4 2 5 2 2 2 A. [N H ] x [NO] - [H O] x [N ] 4 2 4 2 2 B. [H O] x [N ] 4 2 2 3 _____________ [N H ] x [NO] 4 2 4 C. [N H ] x [NO] 4 2 4 3 _____________ [H O] x [N ] 4 2 2 5 2 D. [N H ] x [NO] 4 2 4 3 ________________ 5 2 2 [H O] x [N ] 4 2 2 5 2 2 E. [H O] x [N ] 4 2 2 3 __________________ 5 2 [N H ] x [NO] 94 2 4 5315060 D 14 31102 32 024504630161 2 OS The numerical value of the equilibrium constant for any chemical change is affected by changing the A. concentration B. catalyst C. concentration of reacting substances 9 D. temperature 5315061 E 15 31105 51 180804070385 0042 In a first-order reaction k has the units: 5 2 liter mole liter A. ------------ B. ------------ C. ------------ 5 2 (mole)(sec) (liter)(sec) (mole )(sec) 5 2 liter liter D. ------------ E. ------------ 9 (mole)(sec) sec 5315062 D 15 31111 32 022704071319 0047 The equilibrium constant expression, K for the following reaction as written is C H (g) <=====> C H (g) + 3H (g) 4 6 12 6 6 2 [C H ] [C H ] 4 6 6 3 6 12 4 A. K = ------------ B. K = [C H ]x[H ] C. K = ------------ 4 3 6 6 2 2 4 [C H ][H ] [C H ][3H ] 4 6 12 2 6 6 2 5 3 [C H ][H ] [C H ] 4 6 6 2 6 12 4 D. K = ------------ E. K = ------------ 4 [C H ] 3 4 6 12 [C H ]3[H ] 94 6 6 2 5315063 A 14 31122 52 04071439 0043 In which of the following cases does the reaction go furthest to completion? 5 2 -2 9 A. K = 10 B. K = 10 C. K = 10 D. K = 1. 5315064 C 14 31125 52 024505530407 0043 Given the equilibrium A(g) + 2B(g) <====> 2C(g). Equal numbers of moles of A and B are added to a sealed vessel and the system is allowed to equilibrate. Which of the following statements is true at equilibrium: 9 A. [C] = [B] B. [A] = [B] C. [B] < [A] D. [A] < [B]. 5315065 D 14 31129 52 11970227 0043 If the value of the equilibrium constant for A(g) + 2B(l) <=====> 4C(g) is 0.123, the value of the equilibrium constant for 4C(g) <=====> A(g) + 2B(l) is: 9 A. 0.123 B. -0.123 C. 6.47 D. 8.13 5315066 D 14 31132 52 087118280407 0043 For the system A(g) + B(g) <====> C(g) + D(g) the specific rate 5 4 constants are 0.16 and 4.0 x 10 for the forward and reverse reactions, respectively. If each reaction occurs in one step, the equilibrium constant is: 5 4 5 -5 -6 9 A. 2.5 x 10 B. 2.5 x 10 C. 2.5 x 10 D. 4.0 x 10 . 5315067 C 14 31137 51 01130021022751 9000 The gas phase oxidation of NO to NO by means of O has an 4 2 2 equilibrium constant that can be correctly expressed in which of the following forms? 5 2 2 2 [NO ] [NO] [O ] [NO ] [NO][O ] 4 2 2 2 2 A. -------- B. --------- C. --------- D. -------- 5 2 [NO][O ] [NO ] [NO] [O ] [NO ] 94 2 2 2 2 5315068 C 15 31145 52 04070227 0018 For the reaction H + Cl <=====> 2HCl, the correct equilibrium 4 2 2 constant expression is 5 2 A. K = [H ][Cl ]/[HCl] B. K = [HCl]/[H ][Cl ] 4 2 2 2 2 5 2 2 C. K = [HCl] /[H ][Cl ] D. K = [H ][HCl] /[Cl ] 4 2 2 2 2 9 E. none of these 5315069 A 15 31151 52 053702450227 0018 If 2 moles of ammonia, NH , are introduced into a previously 4 3 evacuated 1 liter container and 1 mole remains at equilibrium, which of the following is the correct equilibrium constant? 2NH (g) <=====> N (g) + 3H (g) 4 3 2 2 5 3 2 A. (1/2)(3/2) /(1) 5 2 3 B. (1) /(1/2)(3/2) C. (1/2)(3/2)/(1) D. (1)/(1/2)(3/2) 9 E. 2(1)/(1/2)(3)(3/2) 5315070 D 15 31157 32 11970407 0020 Which of the following values of K represents the most complete 4 eq reaction? A. 5.00 5 5 B. 5.8 x 10 5 -10 C. 4.7 x 10 5 10 D. 4.7 x 10 5 -43 9 E. 8.0 x 10 5315071 C 15 44729 72 02270407 0020 The concentration equilibrium constant expression for the reaction of H (g) with I (g) is 4 2 2 5 2 2 2 2 A. [HI] /{[H ][I]} C. [HI] /{H ][I ]} E. [H I] /{[H ] [I ]} 4 2 2 2 2 2 2 B. [HI]/{[H ][I ]} 2 4 2 2 D. [H ][I ]/[HI] 94 4 4 5315072 B 15 31166 51 022711980407 0020 The equilibrium constant for a reaction is 2.0. What is the equilibrium constant for the reverse reaction at the same temperature? A. the same B. 0.50 C. 4.0 D. 8.0 9 E. need more information 5315073 B 15 31169 52 031801380407 0020 What is the effect of increasing the concentration of B in the reaction: A + B <=====> C + D ? A. value of K decreases B. reaction shifts to right C. reaction shifts to left D. value of K increases 9 E. no effect 5315074 B 15 31173 52 119904070245 0020 A reaction vessel in which the reaction, CO(g) + Cl (g) <====> COCl (g) 4 2 2 had reached equilibrium was found to contain 3.00 moles of CO, 2.00 moles of Cl , and 8.00 moles of COCl . What is the value of 4 2 2 the equilibrium constant? A. 13.1 B. 1.33 C. 0.133 D. 0.75 9 E. 7.5 5315075 C 15 31178 51 13190245 0009 The expression for K for the equilibrium: 4 c C(s) + CO (g) <=====> 2CO(g) is 4 2 5 2 2 2[CO] 2[CO] [CO] [CO] [CO] 4 A. -------- B. ----- C. ----- D. ----- E. -------- 4 [C][CO ] [CO ] [CO ] [CO ] [C][CO ] 94 2 2 2 2 2 5315076 B 14 31184 32 070410200806 0009 Approximately stoichiometric amounts of two reactants are mixed in a a suitable container. Given sufficient time, the reactants may be converted almost entirely to products if A. K is much less than one 4 c B. K is much larger than one 4 c C. the free energy change is zero 9 D. the free energy change is a large positive number 5315077 D 14 31189 32 016104070871 0009 At a certain temperature, K = 1 for the reaction: 4 c 2 HCl(g) <=====> H (g) + Cl (g). In this system, then, one can 4 2 2 be sure that A. [HCl] = [H ] = [Cl ] = 1 4 2 2 B. [H ] = [Cl ] 4 2 2 C. [HCl] = 2 x [H ] 4 2 [H ] [Cl ] 4 2 2 D. ----------- = 1 5 2 9 [HCl] 5315078 C 14 31195 32 02270407 0009 Given the equilibrium constants for the following reactions: 2Cu(s) + 1/2 O (g) <=====> Cu O(s), K 4 2 2 1 Cu O(s) + 1/2 O (g) <=====> 2CuO(s), K 4 2 2 2 one can show that for: 2Cu(s) + O (g) <=====> 2CuO(s), K is equal to 4 2 c A. K + K B. K - K C. K x K D. K /k 94 1 2 2 1 1 2 2 1 5315079 C 14 31201 52 022704070806 0009 How do the equilibrium constants for forward and reverse reactions compare to each other? A. they are always the same B. their sum must equal one C. their product must equal one 9 D. they are not related 5315080 B 15 31204 31 022704070161 0019 The value of the equilibrium constant for a given reaction Is affected by A. concentration B. temperature C. pressure D. catalyst 9 E. phase of the moon 5315081 C 15 31207 31 119704071438 0019 Which of the following K values represents the most complete reaction? 5 -10 -11 -4 -5 A. 5.8 x 10 B. 5.8 x 10 C. 2.5 x 10 D. 2.5 x 10 5 -15 9 E. 3.0 x 10 5315082 B 15 31211 32 117201610407 0019 What is the effect of increasing the temperature in the following reaction? A + B <=====> C + D + heat A. increases K; shifts to right B. decreases K; shifts to left C. increases K; shifts to left D. decreases K; shifts to right 9 E. none of these 5315083 A 14 31215 51 040714391440 0019 In which of the following cases does the reaction go farthest to completion? 5 2 -2 9 A. K = 10 B. K = 10 C. K = 10 D. K = 1 5315084 C 14 31218 52 023902540227 0009 5 -4 A certain weak acid has a dissociation constant of 1 x 10 . the equilibrium constant for its reaction with a strong base is: 5 -4 -10 10 14 9 A. 1 x 10 B. 1 x 10 C. 1 x 10 D. 1 x 10 5315085 C 14 31222 51 040713240227 0009 For the following reaction, one would predict the form of K to 4 c 5 + - be: AgCl(s) + 2 NH (aq) <=====> Ag(NH ) (aq) + Cl (aq) 4 3 3 2 5 + - [Ag(NH ) ] + [Cl ] 4 3 2 A. ------------------- 5 2 [NH ] 4 3 5 + - B. [Ag ] [Cl ] 5 + - [Ag(NH ) ] [Cl ] 4 3 2 C. ------------------ 5 2 [NH ] 4 3 1 D. ------- 9 [AgCl] 5315086 C 14 31231 51 022704071319 0034 The equilibrium constant for the reaction is expressed by: A + B <=====> C + D [A] x [B] [A] + [B] 3 A. K = __________ B. K = __________ [C] x [D] [C] + [D] [C] x [D] [C] + [D] 3 C. K = __________ D. K = __________ [A] x [B] [A] + [B] 9 E. K = ([A] + [B])([C] + [D]) 5315087 C 14 31236 52 1947 0058 5 -54 K at room temperature is 1 x 10 for the reaction 4 c 3O (g) <==> 2O (g). A certain space contains 0.01 mole/liter of O 4 2 3 2 in equilibrium with O . Calculate the volume that would contain, 4 3 on the average, one mole of O (in liters). 4 3 5 7 6 30 56 9 A. 10 B. 1.7 x 10 C. 1 x 10 D. 1 x 10 5315088 B 14 31243 31 08710245 What stress could be put on a system of water and ice at equilibrium in order to decrease the amount of water present? A. Heat the system. B. Cool the system. C. Increase the pressure on the system. 9 D. Decrease the vapor pressure of the liquid. 5315089 B 14 31247 52 087102450286 What stress could be put on a system of water and steam at equilibrium to increase the amount of steam? A. Increase the pressure on the system B. Supply heat to the system C. Remove some of the water present 9 D. Cool the system 5315090 C 15 31251 51 01440871 The vapor phase of H O is much less dense than the liquid. 4 2 If one applies pressure to a system of water and steam at equilibrium, what will occur? A. Only the amount of steam will decrease. B. Only the amount of water will decrease. C. The amount of steam will decrease while the amount of water will increase. D. The amount of steam will increase while the amount of water will decrease. 9 E. No change will take place. 5315091 C 15 31258 52 0227 MSU What are the units of K, the equilibrium constant, for the 5 o gas phase reaction CO + 2 H <===> CH OH at 500 C? 4 2 3 5 2 2 2 2 9 A. mol/L B. L/mol C. L /mol D. mol /L E. K has no units 5315092 E 15 31263 52 0227 MSU What units would the equilibrium constant K have if it 5 o represents the gas phase reaction C + H O <===> CO + H at 500 C? 4 2 2 5 2 2 2 2 9 A. L/mol B. L /mol C. mol/L D. mol /L E. K has no units 5315093 B 15 31268 52 0227 MSU What units would the equilibrium constant K have if it represents the gas phase reaction 5 o CH CONH + H O <===> CO + CH + NH at 500 C? 4 3 2 2 2 4 3 5 2 2 2 2 3 3 9 A. mol /L B. mol/L C. L /mol D. L /mol E. L/mol 5315094 A 15 31273 51 01380245 MSU To increase the equilibrium concentration of Y in the following reaction X(g) + Y(g) <===> 2Z(g), one would A. decrease the concentration of X B. decrease the concentration of Z C. increase the concentration of X D. decrease the volume 9 E. increase the volume 5315095 C 14 31277 51 0245 MSU Upon addition of one mole of Q to the gaseous system P + Q + R <===> S at equilibrium, which of the following is true? A. P, Q, R and S all increase in concentration B. P, Q and R decrease while S increases C. Q and S increase while P and R decrease 9 D. P, R and S decrease while Q increases 5315096 B 14 31282 51 02450647 MSU Consider the reversible reaction A + B <===> C + D. How would the composition of the system at equilibrium change if one mole of B were added? A. A, B and C would increase but D would decrease. B. B, C and D would increase but A would decrease. C. A, B, C and D all would increase. 9 D. A, C and D would increase but B would decrease. 5315097 D 15 31287 51 02450647 MSU Consider the gaseous equilibrium system S + O <===> SO . How 4 2 2 would the composition of the system at equilibrium change if one mole of O were added? 4 2 A. All substances would increase. B. S and O would increase SO would decrease. 4 2 2 C. S and O would decrease SO would increase. 4 2 2 D. S would decrease O and SO would increase. 4 2 2 9 E. All substances would decrease. 5315098 D 15 31295 51 02450138 MSU To decrease the equilibrium concentration of M in the system M(g) + N(g) <===> P(s) + Q(g), A. decrease the pressure on the system B. increase the volume of the system C. decrease the concentration of P D. decrease the concentration of Q 9 E. decrease the concentration of N 5315099 B 14 31299 51 01951341 MSU In which one of the following reactions would an increase in the volume of the container cause an increase in the amount of products at equilibrium? (all substances are gases unless marked otherwise.) A. 2NO + 5H <===> 2NH + 2H O C. SO + HF <===> HSO F (l) 4 2 3 2 3 3 B. CH CHO + heat <===> CH + CO D. 2H S + O <===> 2H O + 2S(s) 94 3 4 2 2 2 5315101 B 14 31305 51 01950245 MSU Consider the equilibrium Ti(s) + 2Cl <===> TiCl + heat. How 2 4 could you increase the equilibrium concentration of TiCl ? 4 4 A. heat the system C. add titanium (Ti) 9 B. decrease the volume D. decrease the pressure 5315102 E 15 31310 51 0245 MSU What effect would the addition of carbon have on the equilibrium C(s) + O (g) <===> CO (g) + heat 4 2 2 A. increase O concentration D. increase CO concentration ( 4 2 2 B. decrease CO concentration E. no effect 4 2 9 C. produce heat 5315103 D 15 31315 51 01380161 MSU How could you increase the concentration of COCl in the 4 2 reaction C(s) + O (g) + HCl(g) <===> COCl (g) + H O(g) + heat? 4 2 2 2 A. remove some carbon C. decrease pressure E. add water 9 B. increase volume D. lower temperature 5315104 B 14 44909 51 13410871 MSU What effect would addition of CH OH have on the system 4 3 BF + CH OH <===> B(OH) (s) + CH F + heat? 4 3 3 3 3 A. increase the concentration of BF 4 3 B. increase the amount of B(OH) 4 3 C. decrease the amount of heat evolved D. have no effect on the equilibrium concentrations E. decrease the amount of CH F 94 3 5315105 B 15 31326 51 02860114 MSU How could the amount of heat evolved be increased in the system C(s) + O (g) + 2HCl(g) <===> COCl (g) +H O(g) + heat? 4 2 2 2 A. add some carbon D. raise the temperature B. increase the pressure E. increase the volume 9 C. add water 5315106 E 15 31331 51 0245 MSU What effect would decreasing the amount of tin (Sn) have on the equilibrium Sn(s) + 2Br (g) <===> SnBr (g) + heat? 4 2 4 A. decrease the amount of heat evolved B. increase the pressure in the system C. increase the amount of bromine D. increase the amount of SnBr 4 4 9 E. no effect on the equilibrium concentrations 5315107 D 14 31337 51 02451341 MSU Consider the equilibrium system 2Hg(s) + O <===> 2HgO(s) + heat. 4 2 heat. Which of the following statements is correct? A. addition of Hg would shift the equilibrium to the left. B. Decreasing the temperature would increase the concentration of Hg. C. Addition of O would decrease the amount of HgO. 4 2 D. Removal of O would increase the amount of Hg. 94 2 5315108 D 15 31343 51 024501611341 MSU Consider the following equilibrium system NaOH(s) + 2F (g) <===> F O(g) + NaF(s) + HF(g) + heat 4 2 2 Increasing the temperature would A. increase the amount of NaF D. increase the amount of NaOH B. increase the amount of HF E. increase the volume C. decrease the amount of F 94 2 5315109 A 14 31348 52 0227 MSU The equilibrium expression K = S Cl 4 2 2 3 _________ [S ][Cl ] 4 2 2 represents which equation? A. S (g) + Cl (g) <===> S Cl (g) C. S Cl (g) <===> S (g) + Cl (g) 4 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 B. 2S(s) + 2Cl(g) <===> 2SCl(g) D. 2S(g) + 2Cl(g) <===> S Cl (g) 94 2 2 5315110 D 14 44416 52 0227 MSU [PCl ] 4 5 The equilibrium constant expression K = ------------ 4 c [PCl ][Cl ] 4 3 2 represents which gas phase reaction? A. PCl <===> PCl + Cl C. PCl + PCl <===> Cl 4 5 3 2 3 5 2 B. PCl + 2Cl <===> PCl D. PCl + Cl <===> PCl 94 3 5 3 2 5 5315111 C 14 31362 52 0227 MSU [CO][H ] 4 2 3The equilibrium expression K = ________ [C][H O] 4 2 represents which gas phase reaction? A. CO + H <===> C + H O C. C + H O <===> CO + H 4 2 2 2 2 B. CO + H O <===> C + H D. C + H O <===> CO + 2H 94 2 2 2 5315112 A 14 31369 52 0227 MSU [SO ][NO ] 4 2 2 3The equilibrium expression K = __________ [SO ] [NO] 4 3 represents which gas phase reaction? A. SO + NO <===> SO + NO C. 2SO + 2NO <===> 2SO + NO 4 3 2 2 2 2 3 B. SO + NO <===> NO + SO D. SO + NO <===> SO + NO 94 3 2 2 2 2 3 5315113 D 15 31376 52 0227 MSU For the reaction CO(g) + H (g) <===> C(s) + H O(g) the 4 2 2 expression for the equilibrium constant is A. [H O][C] C. [CO][H ] E. [H O] 4 -------- 2 2 3 ________ _________ [CO][H ] [H O] [CO][2H ] 4 2 2 2 B. [H ][CO] D. [H O] 4 2 2 3 ________ _________ [C][H O] [CO] [H ] 94 2 2 5315114 A 15 31383 52 0227 MSU For the reaction 4NdOBr(s) <===> Nd O Br(s) + NdBr (g), the 4 3 4 3 equilibrium constant K equals A. [NdBr ] D. 1/[NdBr ] 4 3 3 B. [NdBr ][Nd O Br] E. [Nd O Br]/[NdOBr ] 4 3 3 4 3 4 4 C. [NdBr ][Nd O Br]/[NdOBr ] 94 3 3 4 4 5315115 A 14 31389 52 0227 MSU What is the equilibrium expression for the reaction SCl + Cl <===> SCl 4 4 2 6 if all substances are gases? A. K = [SCl ]/[SCl ][Cl ] C. K = [SCl ]/[Cl ][SCl ] 4 6 4 2 4 2 6 B. K = [SCl ]/([SCl ]+[Cl ]) D. K = ([S] + 6[Cl])/([S] + 4[Cl]) 94 6 4 2 5315116 B 14 31394 52 02451319 MSU The equilibrium expression K = [NH ][CHF ]/[NF ][CH ] corresponds to 4 3 3 3 4 which reaction? A. NH + CHF <===> NF + CH C. NH + NF <===> CHF + CH 4 3 3 3 4 3 3 3 4 B. NF + CH <===> NH + CHF D. 3NF + 4CH <===> 3CHF + 3NH 94 3 4 3 3 3 4 3 3 5315117 D 14 31400 52 02451319 MSU What is the equilibrium expression for the reaction C + D <===> A + B [C][D] [C]+[D] [A]+[B] [A][B] 4 A. ------ B. ------- C. ------- D. ------ 94 [A][B] [A]+[B] [C]+[B] [C][D] 5315118 C 14 31404 52 02451319 MSU The equilibrium expression K [W][X]/[Y][Z] corresponds to which reaction? A. W + X <===> Y + Z C. Z + Y <===> X + W 9 B. Z + W <===> Y + X D. W + Y <===> Z + X 5315119 D 14 44791 52 13190227 MSU The equilibrium K = [ClF][HF] corresponds to which reaction? 3 _________ [HCl][F ] 4 2 A. HCl + 2F <===> ClF + HF C. ClF + HF <===> HCl + 2F B. ClF + HF <===> HCl + F D. HCl + F <===> ClF + HF 94 2 2 5315120 C 15 31411 52 13190227 MSU What is the expression for the equilibrium constant for the following system? PCl (g) <===> PCl (g) + Cl (g) 4 5 3 2 [PCl ] [PCl ] [PCl ][Cl ] [PCl ][Cl ]-[PCl ] 4 5 3 3 2 D. 3 2 5 4 A. ----------- B. ------ C. ----------- 4 [PCl ][Cl ] [PCl ] [PCl ] 94 3 2 5 5 5315121 D 15 31417 52 0245 MSU For the hypothetical reaction A + B <===> C, the value of 5 5 K = 1.0 x 10 . This would indicate that at equilibrium A. [A]=[B]=[C] D. [A]x[B] is less than [C] B. [C]=[A]x[B] E. [C] is less than [A]x[B] 5 5 9 C. [A]x[B]=[C]x1.0x10 5315122 B 15 44741 32 02450227 MSU For the gaseous reaction X(g)+O (g)<==>XO (g) (X is a hypothetical 4 2 2 element), the value of the equilibrium constant is less than 1. Which of the following is true at equilibrium? A. [X][O ] < [XO ] D. [X][O ] = [XO ] 4 2 2 2 2 B. [X][O ] > [XO ] E. [X] = [O ][XO ] 4 2 2 2 2 C. [X] = [O ] = [XO ] 94 2 2 5315123 B 15 31427 52 02450138 MSU For the hypothetical reaction A + B <===> C, the value of K is 5 6 1.0 x 10 . What can be said about the relative concentrations of A, B and C at equilibrium? A. [A][B] > [C] D. [A][B] = [C] 5 6 B. [A][B] < [C] E. [A][B] = [C]x10 9 C. [A] = [B] = [C] 5315124 C 14 31432 52 02270138 MSU The value of the equilibrium constant is 2.0 for the gas phase reaction C <===> B + A. What can be said about the relative concentrations of A, B, and C at equilibrium? A. [A] = [B] = [C] C. [A][B] > [C] 9 B. [A] + [B] = [C] D. [A][B] < [C] 5315125 C 15 31436 52 02270138 MSU What is the value of the equilibrium constant for the reaction 2 CO(g) + O (g) <===> 2CO (g) at a certain 2 2 temperature, if at equilibrium the concentrations are [CO]=0.10 mol/L, [O ]=0.03 mol/L and [CO ]=3.0 mol/L? 4 2 2 A. 2000 L/mol C. 30000 L/mol E. 3000 L/mol 9 B. 20000 L/mol D. 10000 L/mol 5315126 B 15 31442 52 0227 MSU In the system N + 3 H <===> 2 NH , at equilibrium 1.0 mole of N , 4 2 2 3 2 3.0 moles of H , and 4.0 moles of NH are present in a 1.0 liter 4 2 3 vessel, what is the numerical value of the equilibrium constant, K ? 4 c 9 A. 4.0 B. 0.59 C. 1.35 D. 0.79 E. 1.8 5315127 A 15 31448 52 02450138 MSU For A + 2B <===> 3C, K is 4.0. If the equilibrium concentration of B = 4.0 moles/liter and of C = 4.0 moles/liter, what is the equilibrium concentration of A (in mol/L)? 9 A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 8 5315128 A 15 31451 52 01380245 MSU At a certain temperature, K is 4.0 for the formation of NH by 4 c 3 the reaction N + 3H <===> 2NH . If the equilibrium concentration 4 2 2 3 of N is 1.0 mol/L and H is 1.0 mol/L, what is [NH ] (in mol/L)? 4 2 2 3 9 A. 2.0 B. 8.0 C. 9.0 D. 1.5 E. 36 5315129 D 15 31457 52 0138 MSU For the reaction A + 2B <===> 3C, the value of K at a certain 4 c temperature is 2.0. What would be the concentration of B at equilibrium if the concentration of A is 2.0 moles/liter and the concentration of C is 4.0 moles/liter? A. 8.0 mol/L B. 2.0 mol/L C. 6.0 mol/L D. 4.0 mol/L 9 E. some other value 5315130 D 15 31462 52 0227 MSU A 5.0 liter container holds 5.0 moles of CaCO , 10 moles of 4 3 CaO and 20 moles CO . If the system is at equilibrium and 4 2 the substances interact according to the equation CaCO3(s) CaCO (s) <===> CaO(s) + CO (g), calculate the value of K . 4 3 2 c 9 A. 40 B. 20 C. 8.0 D. 4.0 E. 0.13 5315131 D 15 31468 52 0138 MSU A 1.0 liter vessel contains 2.0 moles each of CO gas and 4 2 solid carbon in equilibrium with CO gas according to the equation CO + C <===> 2CO, where K = 18. What is the 4 2 c concentration of CO (in mol/L)? 9 A. 72 B. 36 c. 8.5 D. 6.0 E. 3.6 5317001 E 15 31473 52 0737 2WVW When I is heated, some of it will decompose (dissociate) 4 2(g) to atoms 5 -6 I (g)<===> 2I(g) K = 4 x 10 atm at T 4 2 p 1 When 0.006 mole of I in a flask is heated to temperature T , the 4 2 1 5 -3 partial pressure of I atoms is 2 x 10 atm. What is the equilibrium partial pressure of I ? 4 2 5 -6 A. 2 x 10 atm 5 -6 B. 4 x 10 atm 5 -3 C. 2 x 10 atm 5 -3 D. 4 x 10 atm 9 E. 1.0 atm 5317002 C 15 31483 52 0737 2WVW A system containing NH HS, NH , and H S at equilibrium exhibited 4 4 3 2 the following partial pressures NH HS(S) <===> NH (g) + H S(g) 4 4 3 2 24.0 4.0 3.0 atm Then 1.0 atm. of H S is added to the reaction vessel. What is the 4 2 new partial pressure of NH when equilibrium is reestablished? 4 3 A. 0.53 atm. B. 3.0 Atm. C. 3.5 Atm. D. 4.0 Atm. 9 E. 4.5 Atm. 5317003 A 15 31490 52 0749 2WVW K for the reaction 4 c PCl (g) <=====> PCl (g) + Cl (g) 4 5 3 2 is 0.025 at 500 K. If the equilibrium concentrations of PCl and PCl are 0.010 and 1.0 M, respectively, what is the 4 5 3 equilibrium concentration of Cl ? 4 2 5 -4 9 A. 2.5 x 10 M B. 0.010 M C. 0.050 M D. 0.50 M E. 1.0 M 5317004 C 14 31500 52 02270138 0043 If the equilibrium constant for A(g) + 2B(g) <====> 3C(g) is 2.25, the concentration of A in equilibrium with 2.00 M of B and 3.00 M of C is: 9 A. 1.00 M B. 2.00 M C. 3.00 M D. 4.00 M E. 0.33 M 5317005 B 14 31504 52 022701380245 0043 If the equilibrium constant for X(s) + Y(g) <====> 3Z(g) is 0.128 the concentration of Z in equilibrium with Y at a concentration of 0.50 mole/liter is: A. 0.064 mole/liter B. 0.40 mole/liter 9 C. 0.25 mole/liter D. 1.50 moles/liter. 5317006 B 14 31508 52 087102450138 0043 In the system AB(s) <====> A(g) + B(g) doubling the equilibrium concentration of a will cause the equilibrium concentration of B to change to: A. two times its original value B. one-half its original value C. one-third its original value 9 D. one-fourth its original value. 5317007 D 14 31512 52 02450138 0043 5 o At 986 C the K for H (g) + CO (g) <===> H O (g) + CO (g) 4 eq 2 2 2 is 1.60. If the equilibrium concentration of H at that temperature 4 2 is 1.0 M, that of CO is 0.50 M, and that of H O is 0.40 M, the 4 2 2 equilibrium concentration of CO is: 9 A. 0.40 M B. 0.50 M C. 1.0 M D. 2.0 M E. 0.20 M 5317008 C 14 31518 52 01380553 0043 At 986 deg. C the K for H (g) + CO (g) <====> H O(g) + CO(g) is 4 c 2 2 2 1.60. If 0.40 mole of H and 0.40 mole of CO are placed in a 4 2 2 1.0-liter container at 986 degrees C, the final equilibrium concentration of H O will be: 4 2 9 A. 0.80 M B. 0.25 M C. 0.23 M D. 0.20 M. 5317009 A 14 45012 72 140705530407 0009 5 o Into a one-liter flask at 400 C are placed one mole of N , three moles of H and two moles of NH . If K for the 4 2 2 3 c following reaction is about 0.5 at 400 degrees C, what reaction, if any, can be expected to occur? N (g) + 3 H (g) <=====> 2 NH (g) 4 2 2 3 A. left to right B. right to left C. system is at equilibrium D. decomposition of NH 94 3 5317010 B 15 31530 32 013804071037 0019 What is the effect of increasing the concentration of A in the following reaction? A + B <=====> C + D A. increases the value of K B. shifts to the right C. decreases the value of K D. shifts to the left 9 E. no effect 5317011 B 15 31534 72 024501380553 0019 5 -8 Consider the equilibrium 2A + B<====> 2C K=2.0 x 10 . If one mole of A and two moles of B were introduced into a one liter container and allowed to attain equilibrium, what would be the concentration of C (moles/liter)? 5 -5 -4 -8 -4 -8 9 A. 5 x 10 B. 2 x 10 C. 4 x 10 D. 1 x 10 E. 2.0 x 10 5317012 C 15 31540 32 024501130114 0019 In which of the following equilibria, all of which involve only gases, will the position of equilibrium be shifted to the right (--->) by an increase in the external pressure? 3 ________ A. N O <====> 2NO 4 2 4 2 B. 2CO <====>2CO+ O 4 2 2 C. CO + Cl <====> COCl 4 2 2 D. 2N O <====> 2N + 3O 2 3 2 2 E. H + Cl <====>2HCl 94 2 2 5317013 A 14 31546 52 153701380482 0009 5 2+ 2+ For the redox reaction: A(s) + B (aq) <=====> A (aq) + B(s), 5 2+ 2+ K = 10. When the concentrations of B and A are 0.5 M and 0.1 M, respectively: A. the forward reaction is spontaneous B. the system is at equilibrium C. the reverse reaction is spontaneous 9 D. cannot say 5317014 B 14 31552 52 1949 0060 When 1 mole of N O is placed in a box at 40 degrees C, 31% dis- 4 2 4 sociates under a total pressure of 1 atmosphere: N O (g) <==> 2NO (g) 4 2 4 2 The total number of moles of all gases at equilibrium is: 9 A. 0.69 B. 1.31 C. 1.62 D. 1.69 5317015 B 15 31557 52 0749 40 MSU The equation A(g) + B(g) <===> C(g) + 2D(liquid), where K = 10, describes a 1.0 liter equilibrium system which contains 2.0 moles of A, 5.0 moles of B and 2.0 moles of D. What is the equilibrium concentration of C ? 9 A. 200 M B. 100 M C. 25 M D. 0.10 M E. 0.025 M 5317016 D 15 31561 52 0749 40 MSU For the hypothetical reaction A + B <===> 2C, if 5.0 moles of A and 5.0 moles of B are initially placed in a 1.0 liter container, how many moles of C are present at equilibrium ? The equilibrium constant for the reaction is 16. A. 2.0 moles C. 8.9 moles E. 4.4 moles 9 B. 1.28 moles D. 6.6 moles 5317017 B 15 31566 52 0749 40 MSU When 3.0 moles of ICl are placed in a 1.0 liter container, decomposition occurs according to the equation 2ICl <===> Cl + I with K = 4.0. What will be the 4 2 2 equilibrium concentration of I in moles/liter? 4 2 9 A. 2.4 B. 1.2 C. 2.0 D. 0.0 E. 0.75 5317018 E 15 31571 52 0749 40 MSU When 7.0 moles each of CO and H O are placed in an empty 4 2 1.0 liter vessel, equilibrium is established according to the equation CO + H O <===> CO + H . In the system all substances 4 2 2 2 are gases and K = 36. What is the equilibrium concentration of CO? 9 A. 36 M B. 5.0 M C. 144 M D. 1.0 M E. 0.23 M 5317019 D 15 31577 52 0749 40 MSU The gaseous system described by NO + SO = SO + NO has an 4 2 2 3 equilibrium constant of 1/25 at a certain temperature. If 6.0 moles each of NO and SO are introduced into an empty 4 2 2 1.0 liter vessel and allowed to equilibrate at that temperature, what will be the final NO concentration (moles/liter)? 9 A. 900 B. 5.0 C. 144 D. 1.0 E. 0.23 5317020 C 15 31583 52 0749 40 MSU If 6 moles each of A and B are introduced into an empty 1.0liter container, equilibrium is established according to the equation A + B <===> C + D, where all substances are gases and K=25. Calculate the equilibrium concentration of D (moles/liter). 9 A. 150 B. 5.8 C. 5.0 D. 1.0 E. 1.2 5317021 D 15 31587 72 0749 40 MSU The equilibrium constant is 16 for the gas phase reaction SO + NO = SO + NO at a certain temperature. If 3.0 moles 4 2 2 3 each of SO and NO are placed together in an empty 1.0 liter 4 2 2 flask and the system allowed to come to equilibrium, what will be the concentration of SO at equilibrium (moles/liter)? 4 3 9 A. 0.18 B. 2.8 C. 0.6 D. 2.4 E. 0.00 5317022 C 15 31593 52 0749 40 MSU At a certain temperature the equilibrium constant is 16 for the gas phase reaction H + CO = H O + CO. If 5.0 moles 4 2 2 2 each of H and CO are placed in an empty 1.0 liter container at 4 2 2 this temperature, what will be the equilibrium concentration of H O (moles/liter)? 4 2 9 A. 15 B. 10 C. 4.0 D. 2.0 E. 1.0 5317023 E 15 31598 52 0749 40 MSU At a certain temperature, the equilibrium constant is 16 for the gas phase reaction H + CO = H O + CO. If 5.0 moles each of H O 4 2 2 2 2 and CO are placed in an empty 1.0 liter flask at this temperature, what will be the equilibrium concentration of H (moles/liter)? 4 2 9 A. 15 B. 10 C. 4.0 D. 2.0 E. 1.0 5317024 D 15 31604 52 0749 40 MSU A 1.0 liter container initially holds 1.0 mole each of C and D. Equilibrium is established according to the reaction A + B <===> C + D (all substances are gases), K = 9.0. What will be the concentration of B in moles/liter at equilibrium ? 9 A. 0.51 B. 0.10 C. 0.09 D. 0.25 E. 0.20 5317025 E 15 31608 52 0749 40 MSU A 1.0 liter container initially holds only 9.0 moles each of A, B, and C. Equilibrium is established according to the equation A(g) + B(g) + C(s) <===> D(g) + E(liquid) + F(g), where K = 64. What is the equilibrium concentration of A (moles/liter)? 9 A. 8.0 B. 7.2 C. 3.0 D. 1.8 E. 1.0 5317026 A 14 44735 72 07491201 40 MSU An empty 1.0 liter container is filled with 10 moles each of N and O gases and 1.0 mole of NO gas. If the temperature is held 4 2 2 constant and the equilibrium N (g) + O (g) <===> 2NO(g) is established (K=1.00), calculate the 4 2 2 final equilibrium concentration of N (molar). 4 2 9 A. 7.0 B. 5.5 C. 5.0 D. 4.5 E. 3.0 5317027 A 15 44814 52 0749 40 MSU A mixture of gases in a 1.0 liter flask initially has the following composition: PCl = 10 moles, PCl = 5 moles, Cl = 5 moles. 4 5 3 2 If equilibrium is established according to the equation PCl = PCl + Cl , where K = 17, what is the proper equation to use 4 5 3 2 eq to calculate the equilibrium concentrations of all substances? Let x be the number of moles of PCl that react. 4 5 5 2 2 2 A. 17=(5+x) B. 17= x C. 17=(5-x) D. 17=(10-x) 3 ______ ______ ______ ______ (10-x) (10-x) (10-x) 2 94 (5+x) 5317028 C 14 31627 52 07491201 40 MSU Ammonia is formed in the gaseous system described by N + 3H <===> 2NH , where K = 98. If 5 moles of N , 6 moles of H 4 2 2 3 2 2 and 10 moles of NH are placed in a 1.0 liter vessel and allowed to 4 3 equilibrate, what equation could be used to calculate the equilibrium concentration of ammonia ? 5 2 2 (10+x) (10+2x) 4 A. 98 = ------------ C. 98 = ------------ 4 3 3 4 (5-x)(6-3x) (5-x)(6-3x) 5 2 (10+2x) x 4 B. 98 = ----------- D. 98 = ----------- 4 3 94 (5-x)(6-3x) (5-x)(6-x) 5317029 A 14 31639 52 07491201 40 MSU An empty 1.0 liter container is filled with 4.0 moles each of H and I gases plus 3.0 moles HI gas. If the system is 4 2 2 allowed to equilibrate at constant temperature according to the equation H + I = 2HI where K = 4, what is the final 4 2 2 concentration of HI (in moles/liter)? 9 A. 5.5 B. 5.0 C. 4.0 D. 2.7 E. 2.0 5317030 A 14 31644 52 09491201 40 MSU The reversible gas phase reaction 2NOCl = 2NO + Cl has an 4 2 equilibrium constant of 14 at a certain temperature. If a mixture of 4.0 moles of NOCl and 1.0 mole each of NO and Cl 4 2 are allowed to equilibrate at this temperature, which of the following equations would be used to find the equilibrium concentration of any of the substances? Let x be the change in the number of moles of NOCl. 5 2 2 (1.0+x) (1.0+0.5x) (1.0-x) (1.0-0.5x) 4 A. 14 = ------------------ C. 14 = ------------------ 4 2 2 4 (4.0-x) (4.0+x) 5 2 (4.0-x) (4.0-x) 4 B. 14 = -------- D. 14 = ---------------- 4 2 2 94 (1.0+x) (1.0+x) (1.0-2x) 5317031 D 15 31658 32 07491201 40 MSU A gaseous equilibrium is defined by the equation 2HI <===> H + I . 4 2 2 If a 1.0 liter container initially contains only 2.0 moles of HI and is allowed to equilibrate, which expression will represent the equilibrium concentration of I ? Let x equal the change in the 4 2 amount of HI. 9 A. 2.0-x B. 2.0+x C. x D. 0.5x E. 2.0x 5317032 C 15 31664 32 07491201 40 MSU A gaseous system is defined by the equation 2A + 4B <===> C. If 7.0 moles of A and 6.0 moles of B are placed in a 1.0 liter flask and allowed to equilibriate, what is the correct expression for the equilibrium amount of B? Let x represent the amount of C formed. 9 A. 7.0-x B. 6.0-x C. 6.0-4x D. 6.0+4x E. 7.0+4x 5317033 B 15 31669 32 07491201 40 MSU Ammonia and chlorine establish the following equilibrium: 2NH + Cl <===> N H + 2HCl. All substances in this system are 4 3 2 2 4 gases. When 2 moles/liter each of ammonia and chlorine are allowed to react, which expression will represent the concentration of HCl at equilibrium ? Let x represent the amount of N H formed. 4 2 4 9 A. x/2 B. 2x C. x D. 2+x E. 2-0.5x 5317034 C 15 31675 52 07491201 40 MSU A gaseous system is described by the equation 3A + 2B <===> C. If 10 moles of C are placed in a 1.0 liter container, which expression will represent the concentration of a at equilibrium? Let x equal the change in concentration of C. 5 3 9 A. x/3 B. 30-3x C. 3x D. x E. 10-x 5317035 E 15 31680 52 07491201 40 MSU The gases X, Y, and Z establish equilibrium according to the 3X <===> Y + Z. When 9.0 moles/liter of X decompose until equilibrium is established, what expression will represent the concentration of Z at equilibrium ? Let x equal the change in concentration of X. 5 3 9 A. 9-3x B. 9-x C. x D. 3x E. x/3 5330001 D 15 31685 52 040700720227 0020 5 + - For the reaction, NH OH <=====> NH + OH , the value of the 4 4 4 5 -5 equilibrium constant is 1.8 x 10 . This shows that A. ammonia is only slightly soluble in water B. ammonium hydroxide is a strong base C. equilibrium is difficult to attain D. ammonium hydroxide is only slightly dissociated in aqueous solutions 9 E. none of these 5331001 D 14 31692 31 082902260806 2WVW In double replacement, the reaction is reversible if A. one of the products is a gas B. one of the products is a precipitate C. one of the products is water 9 D. the products formed are soluble 5331002 B 14 31695 51 024504561037 0018 5 + - In the equilibrium NH +H O<=====>NH +OH , addition of lime, 4 3 2 4 Ca(OH) , would 4 2 A. have no effect on equilibrium B. shift the equilibrium to the left C. shift the equilibrium to the right + D. result in the ultimate formation of more NH . 94 4 5337001 B 15 31701 31 00700087029311 ETS2 OS The degree of ionization of a solution refers to A. the number of molecules in the solution B. the ratio of molecules dissociated to those undissociated C. the ratio of molecules dissociated to the total number of molecules D. the quantity of electricity produced 9 E. the quantity of free electrons produced 5337002 C 15 31706 51 00910070052805 MSU The pH of a 1.0 M solution of the weak acid HCN is 4.65. What is the ionization constant of this acid? 5 -4 9 -10 -5 -9 9 A. 4.5x10 B. 2.0x10 C. 5.0x10 D. 2.2x10 E. 4.5x10 5337003 E 15 31710 52 00700528 05 MSU What is the concentration of hydronium ion in a 0.20 M solution of ascorbic acid (vitamin C) which has a first 5 -5 ionization constant of 8.0 x 10 ? 5 -5 -4 -3 A. 8.0x10 M C. 4.0x10 M E. 4.0x10 5 -3 -2 9 B. 9.0x10 M D. 2.0x10 M 5339101 C 14 31715 51 02540458 0043 5 2- The dissociation constant for SO is: 4 4 9 A. negative B. 1 C. extremely small D. extremely large. 5339102 D 14 31718 52 025415320227 0009 5 2+ The dissociation constant for the complex ion Zn(NH ) is the 4 3 4 equilibrium constant for the reaction represented by the equation: 5 2+ 2+ A. Zn (aq) + 4 NH (aq) <=====> Zn(NH ) (aq) 4 3 3 4 5 2+ 2+ B. Zn(NH ) (aq) + H O <=====> Zn(NH ) [H O] (aq) + NH (aq) 4 3 4 2 3 3 2 3 5 2+ - C. Zn(NH ) + 2 e <=====> Zn(s) + 4 NH (aq) 4 3 4 3 5 2+ 2+ D. Zn(NH ) (aq) + 4 H O <=====> Zn[H O] (aq) + 4 NH (aq) 94 3 4 2 2 4 3 5339501 A 14 31730 52 102601000087 0043 The addition of excess HNO to a solution containing 4 3 5 2+ Cu(NH ) produces: 4 3 4 5 2+ A. Cu(H O) B. Cu(OH) C. Cu(NO ) D. Cu 94 2 4 2 3 2 5339502 C 15 31734 52 024512841037 0019 Consider the equilibrium 5 + + Ag(NH ) <====> Ag + 2NH 4 3 2 3 5 + What effect would addition of H have on the equilibrium? A. it will have no effect because no common ion is involved 5 + B. it will combine the Ag to give AgH, thus shifting the equilibrium to the left 5 + C. it will remove NH as NH thus shifting the equilibrium 4 3 4 to right 5 + o D. the added acid would reduce Ag to Ag , thus completely destroying the equilibrium 9 E. none of the answers above is correct 5350001 D 15 31744 31 0091 2WVW Which one of the following solutions is characterized by the highest pH? A. 0.1 M HCl in 0.1 M NaCl B. 0.1 M HCN in 0.1 M NaCl C. 0.1 M HCN in 0.1 M HCl D. 0.1 M HCN in 0.1 M NaCN 9 E. 0.1 M HCl in 0.2 M NaCl 5350002 B 14 31747 31 00930087 2 OS An alkaline solution would have a pH of A. 1 B. 10 C. 7 9 D. 4 5351001 C 14 31749 31 009100990087 0041 A pH of 7 signifies A. an acid solution B. a basic solution 9 C. a neutral solution D. a solution of polar molecules 5351002 A 15 31751 52 132305540087 0042 An ionic metallic oxide dissolved in water produces a solution that: A. has a higher hydroxide ion concentration than water. B. has a higher hydrogen ion concentration than water. C. fails to conduct an electric current. D. exhibits the properties of a non-polar compound 9 E. is neither acidic nor basic. 5351003 B 15 31756 52 007500920091 0044 The hydroxide ion concentration in an aqueous solution is 0.100 mole per liter. What is the pH? 9 A. 7.00 B. 13.00 C. 2.30 D. 0.100 E. 1.00 5351004 A 15 31758 52 009211820091 0044 The pOH of an aqueous solution is 9.26. What is the pH? 5 -5 -10 9 A. 4.74 B. 7.00 C. 1.82 x 10 D. 9.26 E. 5.50 x 10 . 5351005 C 15 31761 52 009211820079 0044 5 + The pOH of an aqueous solution is 5.97. What is the [H ]? 5 -7 -9 -6 9 A. 1.0 x 10 B. 8.03 C. 9.33 x 10 D. 1.07 x 10 E. 5.97 5351006 E 15 31765 52 009211820075 0044 5 - -8 The [OH ] of an aqueous solution is 1.12 x 10 . What is the pOH? 5 -8 -7 9 A. 7.00 B. 1.12 x 10 C. 8.91 x 10 D. 6.05 E. 7.95 5351007 C 15 31768 52 007900750092 0044 5 + -9 The [H ] of an aqueous solution is 3.16 x 10 . What is the 5 - [OH ]? 5 -9 -7 -6 9 A. 3.16 x 10 B. 1.0 x 10 C. 3.16 x 10 D. 8.50 E. 5.50 5351008 A 15 31772 52 118200920075 0044 The pOH of an aqueous solution is 4.09. What is the hydroxide 5 - ion concentration, [OH ]? 5 -5 -7 -10 A. 8.13 x 10 B. 1.00 x 10 C. 4.09 D. 1.23 x 10 9 E. 9.91 5351009 D 15 31776 52 009200790091 0044 5 + The pH of an aqueous solution is 3.21. What is the [H ]? 5 -4 -3 -3 A. 1.6 x 10 B. 2.1 x 10 C. 6.2 x 10 5 -4 -2 9 D. 6.2 x 10 E. 1.6 x 10 . 5351010 B 15 31780 52 009200911174 0044 What is the pH of a 0.00226 molar HNO aqueous solution? 4 3 9 A. 11.35 B. 2.65 C. 0.00226 D. 6.09 E. 7.00 5351011 E 15 31783 52 009211740091 0044 What is the pH of a 0.142 molar KOH aqueous solution? 9 A. 0.142 B. 0.85 C. 1.95 D. 9.50 E. 13.15 5351012 B 15 31785 52 009200791182 0044 5 + -8 The [H ] of an aqueous solution is 5.25 x 10 . What is the pOH? 5 -6 -9 9 A. 7.00 B. 6.72 C. 1.91 x 10 D. 5.25 x 10 E. 8.28 5351013 D 15 31789 72 008711740091 0044 5 -8 What is the pH of a 2.80 x 10 M HClO solution? 4 4 5 -8 9 A. 7.55 B. 2.80 x 10 C. 7.89 D. 6.94 E. 7.06 5351014 B 14 31792 32 055300870138 0019 One mole of NaOH and one mole of HCl are added to enough water to make one liter of solution. The hydrogen-ion concentration is: 5 -7 -14 9 A. 1 M B. 1 x 10 M C. 1 x 10 D. 0.5 M 5351015 D 14 31795 32 00910087 0019 5 -3 The pH of a 1.0 x 10 M NaOH solution is: 9 A. 3.0 B. 5.0 C. 9.0 D. 11.0 5351016 E 15 44943 71 What is the pH of a 0.02 M cyanic acid (HCNO) solution? K for 4 a 5 -4 cyanic acid is 3.5 x 10 5 -6 -4 9 A. 7.00 B. 1.6 C. -log(7.0x10 ) D. -log(3.5x10 ) E. 2.6 5353001 C 15 31797 52 0739 2WVW An HCN (HCN<===> H+ + CN-) solution has the following composition 5 -5 H+ = 2.00 x 10 molar 5 -5 CN- = 2.00 x 10 molar HCN = 1.00 molar to 1.00 liter of this solution, 1.25 moles of HCN are added such that the volume of the solution is essentially unchanged. What is the new H+? 5 -5 A. 1.0 x 10 molar 5 -5 B. 2.0 x 10 molar 5 -5 C. 3.0 x 10 molar 5 -5 D. 4.0 x 10 molar 9 E. 2.25 molar 5353002 D 15 31804 52 1 00919023 95 2WVW The following question refers to Figure 23. What is the pH of a 0.10-molar solution of the strong electrolyte sodium benzoate? (pK (benzoic acid) = 4.2; pK = 14.) 4 a w 9 A. 4.2 B. 5.4 C. 4.9 D. 9.8 E. 14 5353003 D 15 31808 52 008714030091 0042 Which one of the following solutions is characterized by the highest pH? A. 0.1 M HCl in 0.1 M NaCl B. 0.1 M HCN in 0.1 M NaCl C. 0.1 M HCN in 0.1 M HCl D. 0.1 M HCN in 0.1 M NaCN 9 E. 0.1 M HCl in 0.2 M NaCl 5353004 D 15 31811 52 008700910227 0042 Which one of the solutions listed has the lowest pH, given the equilibrium constants? 5 -10 -5 K (HCN) = 4 x 10 , K (CH COOH) = 1.8 x 10 4 a a 3 5 -4 -5 K (HNO ) = 5 x 10 , K (NH ) = 1.8 x 10 4 a 2 b 3 A. 0.1M NH , B. 0.1M KCN, C. 0.1M KOAc, 4 3 D. 0.1M HCN E. 0.1M NH CN. 94 4 5353005 E 15 31817 52 023900871174 0042 5 -4 - A weak acid HZ has a K of 1.4 x 10 . What is the Z molarity 4 a in a .0010 M solution of the acid? 5 -4 -3 -7 A. 3.7 x 10 , B. 1.0 x 10 , C. 1.0 x 10 , 5 -3 -4 9 D. 2.9 x 10 , E. 3.1 x 10 . 5353006 A 15 31822 52 007702540087 0042 5 -8 A monoprotic acid has a dissociation constant of 1.4 x 10 . 5 + What is the [H ] in a .0010 M solution of the acid? 5 -6 -5 -4 A. 3.7 x 10 B. 3.7 x 10 C. 1.2 x 10 5 -3 -7 9 D. 1.0 x 10 E. 1.0 x 10 5353007 A 14 31827 52 021500870103 0043 Adding sodium hydroxide to a solution of acetic acid: 5 - + A. increases (C H O ) B. increases (H O ) 4 2 3 2 3 C. increases (HC H O ) D. decreases the pH. 94 2 3 2 5353008 C 14 31831 52 021509770087 0043 Mixing 0.10 mole of NaOH, 0.10 mole of HC H O , and one liter of 4 2 3 2 water yields a solution which is: 9 A. acidic B. neutral C. basic D. red. 5353009 D 14 31834 52 009102150087 0043 5 -3 The pH of a 1.0 x 10 M NaOH solution is: 9 A. 3.0 B. 5.0 C. 9.0 D. 11.0. 5353010 C 14 31836 52 00910087 0043 The pH of a 0.020 M Ca(OH) solution is: 4 2 9 A. 12.0 B. 12.3 C. 12.6 D. 13.6. 5353011 A 14 31838 52 009102540087 0043 5 -5 The pH of a 0.30 M HC H O (K = 1.8 x 10 ) solution is: 4 2 3 2 diss 9 A. 2.6 B. 2.4 C. 4.2 D. 11.3 E. 0.5 5353012 C 14 31841 52 025400720081 0043 At 25 degrees C the dissociation constant for HC H O just 4 2 3 2 happens to be almost exactly the same numerically as that for: A. HCl B. H O C. NH D. NaOH 94 2 3 5353013 D 14 44663 52 010300871443 0043 One mole of NaOH and one mole of HC H O are added to enough 4 2 3 2 5 + water to make one liter of solution. The H (aq) concentration is: 5 -5 (K = 1.8 x 10 ) 4 a 5 -5 -10 -7 A. 2.4 x 10 M B. 5.6 x 10 M C. 1.0 x 10 5 -10 -5 9 D. 4.2 x 10 M E. 1.8 x 10 5353014 B 15 31850 52 009100770087 0044 What is the pH of a .967 molar formic acid solution? ( K for 4 a 5 -4 HCOOH is 1.70 x 10 ) 9 A. 3.77 B. 1.89 C. 12.11 D. 0.89 E. 0.967 5353015 A 15 31853 52 009110680087 0044 What is the pH of a .895 molar glycine solution? (K for 4 b 5 -4 HOOCCH NH is 4.0 x 10 ) 4 2 2 5 -4 9 A. 12.28 B. 0.895 C. 4.00 x 10 D. 11.28 E. 0.0189 5353016 C 15 31857 52 0091 0239 0044 A 0.232 M solution of a weak monoprotic acid has a pH of 2.53. calculate the ionization constant, K , of the weak acid. 4 a (neglect H O dissociation). 4 2 5 -2 -6 -5 A. 1.27 x 10 B. 8.70 x 10 C. 3.81 x 10 D. 1.90 5 -4 9 E. 1.27 x 10 5353017 D 15 31862 52 009117600070 0044 A 0.0445 M solution of a weak base has a pH of 10.32. Calculate the ionization constant, K , of the weak base. (Neglect H O 4 b 2 dissociation). 5 -8 -3 -7 9 A. 4.29 x 10 B. 214 C. 4.67 x 10 D. 9.57 x 10 E. 6.01 5353018 D 15 31867 52 009101600254 0044 A .357 molar solution of a weak acid is found by conductivity measurements to be 0.0303% ionized at 25 degrees C. What is the dissociation constant of the acid? 5 -10 A. 0.00257 B. 0.000303 C. 3.28 x 10 5 -8 -6 9 D. 3.28 x 10 E. 3.28 x 10 5353019 B 15 31872 52 009101600070 0044 A .241 molar solution of a weak base is found by conductivity measurements to be 0.0246% ionized at 25 degrees C. What is the ionization constant of the base? 5 -8 A. 0.000246 B. 1.46 x 10 C. 0.0246 D. 0.00251 5 -10 9 E. 1.46 x 10 5353020 C 15 31876 52 009100870254 0044 5 -8 The numerical value of K for hypochlorous acid is 2.95 x 10 . 4 a What percentage of a .939 molar solution of HClO is ionized? 5 -8 -6 A. 2.95 x 10 B. 2.77 x 10 C. 0.0177 5 -6 9 D. 2.95 x 10 E. 0.000177 5353021 A 15 31881 52 009102540087 0044 5 -4 The numerical value of K for glycine is 4.00 x 10 . What 4 b percentage of a .130 molar solution of HOOCCH NH is ionized? 4 2 2 5 -5 9 A. 5.56 B. 0.000400 C. 0.0400 D. 5.18 x 10 E. 0.0556 5353022 E 15 31886 72 009100870254 0044 5 -5 What is the pH of a 2.71 x 10 molar cyanic acid solution? K 4 a 5 -4 for HCNO is 2.19 x 10 . Assume water dissociation to be negligible. 9 A. 7.00 B. 9.43 C. 4.57 D. 4.11 E. 4.61 5353023 B 15 31891 52 00910087 0044 5 -4 What is the pH of a 9.25 x 10 molar ammonia solution? K for 4 b 5 -5 NH is 1.85 x 10 . (assume water dissociation is negligible.) 4 3 9 A. 10.12 B. 10.09 C. 7.00 D. 3.91 E. 3.03 5353024 D 15 31895 52 009100870077 0044 What is the pH of a .594 molar sodium hypobromite solution? 5 -9 (K for hypobromous acid, HBrO, is 2.09 x 10 .) 4 a 9 A. 4.45 B. 7.00 C. 8.68 D. 11.23 E. 9.55 5353025 C 15 31898 52 0091 1530 0044 30.0 milliliters of a .250 molar monoprotic weak acid are titrated with 0.250 molar NaOH. What is the pH at the equivalence point? (the dissociation constant of the weak acid 5 -7 is 3.78 x 10 .) 9 A. 6.42 B. 13.70 C. 9.76 D. 4.24 E. 3.51 5353026 A 15 31902 52 009111830077 0044 64.3 ml of a 0.350 M monoprotic weak acid are titrated with 0.250 M NaOH. What is the pH when 45.0 ml of the base have been used? 5 -6 (The dissociation constant of the weak acid is 2.24 x 10 ) 9 A. 5.65 B. 5.74 C. 3.10 D. 7.00 E. 8.47 5353027 B 15 31906 52 009111830128 0044 A monoprotic weak acid, HA, was titrated with standard base in a molecular weight determination. Data: #grams of HA = 1.07, molarity of NaOH = 0.250 and volume of NaOH = 35.6 ml. What is the molecular weight of the acid? 9 A. 60 B. 120 C. 107 D. 85.6 E. 240 5353028 C 14 31910 32 00870138009251 9000 An aqueous cyanide solution has concentrations of 5 - -10 [CN ] = 0.25 M and (HCN) = 0.1 M. If K for HCN is 7.2 x 10 , 4 a 5 + calculate [H ] for this solution. 5 -4 -3 -11 A. 1.6 x 10 M B. 1.0 x 10 M C. 1.8 x 10 M 5 -5 -10 9 D. 7.1 x 10 M E. 2.8 x 10 5353029 B 15 31916 52 007500870221 0020 5 - What is the [OH ] in a 0.02 M solution of ammonium hydroxide? 5 -5 K = 1.8 x 10 4 i 5 -3 -4 -4 -3 A. 1.3 x 10 B. 6 x 10 C. 1.3 x 10 D. 6 x 10 9 E. none of these 5353030 A 15 31920 52 120100870138 0020 5 + Calculate the [H O ] of a 0.10 M solution of acetic acid to which 4 3 sodium acetate has been added in an amount sufficient to make the acetate concentration 0.30 M. 5 -5 K = 1.8 x 10 4 i 5 -6 A. 6 x 10 M 5 -3 B. square root of 6 x 10 M 5 -6 C. square root of 6 x 10 M 5 -3 D. 1.8 x 10 M 9 E. none of these 5353031 C 14 31926 32 008711780061 0009 Which one of the following ions upon addition to water would give a basic solution? 5 + + - - A. NH B. Na C. C H O D. NO 94 4 2 3 2 3 5353032 C 14 31929 52 003104070087 0009 The equation for the reaction of a water solution of the weak acid HF with a solution of NaOH is best written as 5 + - A. H (aq) + F (aq) -----> HF(aq) 5 + - B. H (aq) + OH (aq) -----> H O 4 2 5 - - C. HF(aq) + OH (aq) -----> H O + F (aq) 4 2 D. HF(aq) + NaOH(aq) -----> H O + NaF(aq) 94 2 5353033 A 15 31935 52 040701380087 0019 5 - - At 25 degrees C, for the reaction CN + H O <====> HCN + OH is 4 2 5 -5 2.5 x 10 . On the basis of this it is expected that the concentration in moles/liter of hydroxide ions in a 0.1 M NaCN solution will be: 5 -3 -2 A. (square root of 2.5) x 10 B. 5 x 10 5 -2 -3 9 C. (square root of 2.5) x 10 D. 5.x 10 E. none of these 5353034 E 15 31942 31 009100870061 0019 5 -3 The pH of a 10 M solution of a weak base is: A. 3 B. 11 C. 9 D. 14 E. cannot be calculated without a value for the ionization 9 constant 5353035 B 14 31945 32 01381174 0019 5 + -10 The concentration of H in 1.0 M HCN (k = 4.0 x 10 ) is: 4 d 5 -10 -5 -10 A. 2.0 x 10 M B. 2.0 x 10 M C. 4.0 x 10 M 5 -5 9 D. 4.0 x 10 M 5353036 D 15 31949 52 00700522008805 MSU The ionization constant for NH at a certain temperature is 4 3 5 -5 - 1.9 x 10 . the concentration of the OH ion in a one liter solution of 0.20 M NH to which 0.1 moles of NH Cl is added 4 3 4 is (molarity) 5 -3 -3 -6 -5 -10 9 A. 1.9x10 B. 3.8x10 C. 3.8x10 D. 3.8x10 E. 2.7x10 5353037 E 15 31955 52 00880520 05 MSU A solution is made 0.1 M in NH Cl and 0.02 M in ammonia 4 4 5 -5 (NH ). The ionization constant for ammonia is 1.8 x 10 . 4 3 5 - What is the OH ion concentration of the solution (molarity)? 5 -9 -4 -5 -5 -6 9 A. 2.8x10 B. 6.0x10 C. 1.8x10 D. 9.0x10 E. 3.6x10 5353038 B 15 31961 52 0739 05 MSU A 0.5 M solution of acetic acid, HC H O , is made 0.1 M in 4 2 3 2 5 -5 + NaC H O (K = 1.8 x 10 for acetic acid). What is the H 4 2 3 2 i concentration of the solution (molarity)? 5 -10 -5 -3 -6 -4 9 A. 1x10 B. 9x10 C. 3x10 D. 3.6x10 E. 1.8x10 5353039 C 15 31967 52 0091 05 MSU What is the pH of a 0.5 M solution of formic acid, HCO H, 4 2 5 -4 which is also 0.1 M in sodium formate, NaCO H? K = 2.0x10 4 2 a for formic acid. 9 A. 4 B. 2 C. 3 D. 10 E. 0.3 5353040 D 15 31972 52 00880520 05 MSU A solution is 0.01 M in NH and 0.50 M in NH Cl. What is the 4 3 4 hydroxide ion concentration (molarity) in the solution? 5 -5 (K of ammonia = 1.8 x 10 ) 4 c 5 -3 -4 -4 -7 -1 9 A. 3x10 B. 4x10 C. 9x10 D. 3.6x10 E. 5x10 5353041 B 15 31977 52 1182 05 MSU What is the pOH of a 500 ml solution of 0.50 M NH Cl to 4 4 5 -5 which 0.25 mole of NH has been added? (K for NH = 1.8 x 10 ) 4 3 b 3 9 A. 2.5 B. 4.7 C. 5.0 D. 4.4 E. 9.2 5353042 C 15 31982 52 0091 05 MSU Calculate the pH of a 0.003 M solution of acetic acid to which has been added enough sodium acetate to make the 5 -5 solution 0.01 M in this salt. K for acetic acid is 1.8x10 . 4 a 9 A. 4.7 B. 7.3 C. 5.3 D. 2.2 E. 2.5 5353043 B 15 31987 32 0091 05 MSU Calculate the pH of a 1.0 liter solution which contains 0.04 moles of HF and to which has been added 0.08 moles of KF. 5 -4 K for HF is 6.7 x 10 . 4 a 9 A. 3.15 B. 3.47 C. 4.55 D. 1.40 E. 4.54 5353044 B 14 31991 31 00911182 05 MSU In the calculation of the pH of a solution of a weak acid, sometimes X, the amount of acid which ionizes, cannot be ignored compared to the concentration of unionized acid. What value of an acid ionization constant would make it inaccurate to ignore X for a 0.10 M acid solution? 5 -60 -2 -8 -7 9 A. 1.0x10 B. 4.1x10 C. 7.8x10 D. 7.7x10 5353045 B 15 31997 31 0091 05 MSU Which of the following expressions correctly defines pH? 5 + + + A. 1 / log H C. log (-1/H ) E. log (-H ) 5 + + 9 B. -log H D. 1 / log 1/H 5353046 B 14 32001 31 00911182 05 MSU What is the relation between pH and pOH? 5 -14 A. pH + pOH = 10 C. pH + pOH = -14 5 -14 9 B. pH = 14 - pOH D. pH x pOH = 10 5353047 C 14 32005 31 0091 05 MSU In the calculation of the pH of a solution of a weak acid, sometimes X, the amount of acid which ionizes, cannot be ignored compared to the concentration of acid. What concentration of acid would make it most inaccurate to 5 -7 ignore X if the acid constant is 5.0 x 10 ? A. 10.0 M C. 0.00 M 5 -1 9 B. 5.0 x 10 D. 5.0 5353048 D 15 32011 31 0091 05 MSU If you were given the pH of a solution, which expression could you use to calculate the hydronium ion concentration? 5 -14 A. antilog (pH) C. 14 - pH E. 10 x pH 5 -14 9 B. 10 /pH D. antilog (-pH) 5353049 A 15 32015 31 0091 05 MSU If you knew the pH of a solution and wanted to find the hydroxide ion concentration, you could A. multiply the pH by -1, then take its antilog, and 5 -14 divide the result into 10 B. divide the pH by 14, multiply the result by -1, and take the antilog C. subtract the pH from 14 and take the logarithm of the result D. Take the logarithm of the pH and multiply the result 5 -14 by 10 5 -14 9 E. divide the pH into 10 and take the logarithm 5353050 B 15 32023 31 00911182 05 MSU Which of the following relationships is correct? 5 -14 - A. pH x pOH = 14 C. pOH = 10 /pH E. [OH ] = 14 5 -14 + - 9 B. pOH = 14 - pH D. 10 = [H ] + [OH ] 5353051 D 15 32027 51 1182 05 MSU 5 + If you were given the H ion concentration of a solution, which of the following methods could be used to calculate pOH? i. Find pH and subtract from 14. 5 + -14 ii. Divide [H ] ion concentration into 10 and take the negative logarithm of the result. 5 + -14 iii. Subtract H ion concentration from 10 and take the antilog of the result. 9 A. i only B. ii only C. iii only D. i,ii E. i,iii 5353052 D 15 32034 51 0091 05 MSU To calculate the pH of a solution whose hydroxide ion concentration is known, A. subtract the hydroxide ion concentration from 14 and take the antilogarithm 5 -14 B. divide the hydroxide ion concentration by 10 , take the logarithm, and multiply by -1 C. multiply by -1, take the antilogarithm, and divide 5 -14 into 10 D. take the logarithm of the hydroxide ion concentration, multiply by -1, and subtract from 14 E. take the antilogarithm of the hydroxide ion 9 concentration, multiply by -1, and subtract 14 5353053 E 15 32043 51 1182 05 MSU To calculate the pOH of a solution whose hydrogen ion concentration is known, A. subtract from 14, multiply by -1, and take the antilogarithm B. Take the logarithm of the hydrogen ion concentration and subtract from 14 5 -14 C. divide the hydrogen ion concentration by 10 , multiply by -1, and take the logarithm D. Take the antilogarithm of the hydrogen ion concentration, multiply by -1, and subtract from 14 5 -14 E. divide the hydrogen ion concentration by 10 , take 9 the logarithm, and multiply by -1 5353054 C 15 44748 51 OS90 A chemist mixes 100.00 mL 1.00 M HCl with 100.00 mL 1.00 M NaH C O (sodium acetate). The resulting solution has 4 3 2 2 A. pH greater than 7 D. pH fixed to give a buffer B. pH equal to 7 E. pH of zero 9 C. pH less than 7 5355001 D 15 32052 71 009102540077 0044 The stepwise acid dissociation constants for a hypothetical diprotic acid are: 5 + - -6 H A <=====> H + HA K = 8.69 x 10 4 2 1 5 - + 2- -10 HA <=====> H + A K = 1.25 x 10 4 2 5 2- What is the approximate molar concentration of A in a 4.25 molar solution of H A? 4 2 5 -6 A. 4.25 molar B. 0.125 molar C. 8.69 x 10 molar 5 -10 9 D. 1.25 x 10 molar E. 0.00608 molar 5355002 D 15 32061 72 009102540077 0044 The stepwise acid dissociation constants for a hypothetical diprotic acid are: 5 + - -7 H A <=====> H + HA K = 2.78 x 10 4 2 1 5 - + 2- -12 HA <=====> H + A K = 6.91 x 10 4 2 5 - What is the approximate molar concentration of HA in a 4.62 molar solution of Na A? 4 2 5 -8 A. 0.00145 molar B. 3.59 x 10 molar C. 0.176 molar 9 D. 0.0818 molar E. 4.62 molar. 5357001 C 15 32070 52 00910740 2WVW You have prepared an acetic acid - acetate buffer of the following composition HAc = 0.50 molar Ac- = 2.5 molar 5 + -6 H = 4.0 x 10 molar (pH = 5.4) (approx.) What is the new pH when 100 ml. of the buffer is added to 100 ml. of 0.10 normal HNO ? 4 3 pK (HAc) = 4.7 4 a 9 A. 1.0 B. 1.3 C. 5.3 D. 5.4 E. 5.5 5357002 C 15 32075 52 00910740 2WVW You have prepared an acetic acid - acetate buffer of the following composition [HAc] = 0.50 molar 5 - [Ac ] = 2.5 molar 5 + -6 [H ] = 4.0 x 10 molar (pH = 5.4) What is the new pH when 100 ml. of the buffer is added to 100 ml. of 0.10 normal HNO ? 4 3 (pK (HAc) = 4.7) 4 a 9 A. 1.0 B. 1.3 C. 5.3 D. 5.4 E. 5.5 5357003 C 14 32080 31 2WVW If a solution of sodium acetate is added to an acetic acid solution, the concentration of the H positive ion A. would remain the same B. would increase slightly C. would decrease 9 D. would double 5357004 B 15 32083 51 144401380018 0042 In a buffer solution in which the concentrations of a weak monoprotic acid and its salt are the same: A. the pH of the buffer is 1.0. B. the pH of the buffer is equal to -log K . 4 a C. the pH of the buffer will depend only on the free acid concentraion. D. the addition of base results in the formation of free acid from the salt. 9 E. None of these statements is true. 5357005 A 15 32089 32 008701680077 0042 Solid NaC H O is added to a 1N solution of HC H O . The 4 2 3 2 2 3 2 mixture will: A. be less acidic than 1N HC H O 4 2 3 2 B. be less basic than 1N HC H O 4 2 3 2 C. have the same acidity as 1N HC H O 4 2 3 2 5 - D. contain less OH than 1N HC H O 4 2 3 2 5 + - E. contain equal concentrations of H and C H O 94 2 3 2 5357006 D 14 32097 52 019214440215 0043 The following substances may be added to one liter of water to prepare a buffer: A. one mole of HC H O plus one mole of HCl 4 2 3 2 B. one mole of NH plus one mole of NaOH 4 3 C. one mole of NH Cl plus one mole of HCl. 4 4 D. one mole of HC H O plus 0.5 mole of NaOH. 94 2 3 2 5357007 B 14 32102 52 008711730554 0043 A solution prepared by dissolving equal numbers of moles of HOCl 5 -8 (K = 3.2 x 10 ) and NaOCl in water is a buffer for a pH of: 4 a 9 A. 8.0 B. 7.5 C. 3.2 D. 4.8 5357008 C 14 32105 52 019113231331 0043 5 2- The hydrolysis of the oxide ion (O ) in water produces: 5 + - A. H O B. H O C. OH D. O 94 2 3 2 5357009 C 14 32108 52 009100980087 0043 The pH of a 0.20 M NaC H O solution is: 4 2 3 2 9 A. 4.9 B. 2.7 C. 9.0 D. 11.3 5357010 B 15 32110 52 144400770023 0044 What is th pH of a buffer solution for which the hydrofluoric acid concentration is 0.731 molar and the fluoride concentration 5 -4 is 1.18 molar? (K for HF is 6.76 x 10 .) 4 a 5 -4 -3 9 A. 11.04 B. 3.38 C. 4.20 x 10 D. 10.62 E. 1.09 x 10 5357011 B 15 32115 52 008700911591 0044 5 - Calculate the pH of a solution that is 1.09 molar in H PO and 4 2 4 5 2- .828 molar in HPO . For phosphoric acid, H PO , K , K , K 4 4 3 4 1 2 3 5 -3 -8 -13 are: 7.50 x 10 , 6.20 x 10 , and 4.80 x 10 respectively. 5 -8 9 A. 6.91 B. 7.09 C. 7.21 D. 8.19 X 10 E. 7.33 5357012 A 15 32123 52 144400810407 0044 A weak acid with a pK of 3.27 dissociates according to the 4 a 5 + - following reaction: HA <=====> H + A A buffer is prepared in which the concentration of HA is .216 M 5 - and the concentration of A is .230 M. If .0733 moles of NaOH are added to one liter of the solution, what is the pH of the resulting solution? (assume no volume change.) 9 A. 3.60 B. 10.40 C. 10.70 D. 3.00 E. 3.30 5357013 D 15 32130 52 055300910070 0044 A solution made by mixing 0.206 moles of sodium bromoacetate with 97.0 ml of 0.685 M bromoacetic acid has a pH of 3.20. What is the ionization constant, K , of bromoacetic acid? 4 a 5 -4 -3 -4 A. 5.14 x 10 B. 5.14 x 10 C. 1.92 x 10 5 -3 -6 9 D. 2.05 x 10 E. 2.05 x 10 5357014 A 15 32135 52 14440168 0044 Which of the following mixtures gives a buffer solution? 4 -5 (acetic acid is a weak, monoprotic acid, K = 1.76 x 10 .) A. 20 ml of 0.15 molar acetic acid plus 25 ml of 0.20 molar sodium acetate. B. 25 ml of 0.20 molar acetic acid plus 15 ml of 0.25 molar hydrochloric acid. C. 30 ml of 0.25 molar sodium acetate plus 20 ml of 0.18 molar sodium hydroxide. D. 20 ml of 0.50 molar hydrochloric acid plus 20 ml of 0.25 molar sodium acetate. 9 E. None of the above. 5357015 D 15 32143 52 009100870072 0044 Calculate the pH of a solution made by mixing 50 ml of 0.40 molar ammonia with 50 ml of 0.20 molar HCl. K for ammonia is 4 b 5 -5 1.79 x 10 . 9 A. 4.75 B. 5.75 C. 10.25 D. 9.25 E. 8.73 5357016 C 14 32147 51 106010870083 0009 Which one of the following might you expect to be an "active ingredient" in brand x antacid? A. KOH B. SO (OH) C. NaHCO D. NH Cl 94 2 2 3 4 5357017 C 14 32150 32 134114440091 0019 When a small amount of NaOH is added to a buffer containing HCN and NaCN, the pH changes very little because: A. of common ion effect B. the NaCN suppresses the ionization of the NaOH 5 + - C. some H from the HCN reacts with the OH from the NaOH to form water 9 D. the NaCN reacts with water to form NaOH and HCN 5357018 B 15 32155 52 14440871 0019 Which of the following constitutes a buffer system? A. H O, HCl, NH Cl B. H O, HCN, NaCN C. H O, NaOH, NaCl 4 2 4 2 2 D. H O, NH OH, HCl E. H O, NH Cl, NaOH 94 2 4 2 4 5357019 B 14 32159 52 008705531444 0019 A solution prepared by dissolving equal numbers of moles of HOCl 5 -8 (K = 3.2 x 10 ) and NaOCl in water is a buffer for a pH of: 4 d 9 A. 8.0 B. 7.5 C. 3.2 D. 4.8 5357020 C 15 32162 72 009100870103 0019 5 -2 What is the pH of a solution which is 10 M in acetic acid and 1 M in sodium acetate? 5 -5 K = 1.8 x 10 for acetic acid. 4 d 9 A. 5 B. 2 C. 7 D. 3 E. 11 5357021 A 14 32166 52 144400870209 0009 5 - A certain buffer contains equal concentrations of X and HX. The 5 - -10 K of X is 10 . The pH of the buffer is 4 b 9 A. 4 B. 7 C. 10 D. 14 5357022 B 14 32169 52 144402090087 0009 A buffer is formed by adding 500 ml of 0.20 M HC H O to 500 ml 4 2 3 2 of 0.10 M NaC H O . What is the maximum amount of HCl that can 4 2 3 2 be added to this solution without exceeding the capacity of the buffer? 9 A. 0.01 mole B. 0.05 mole C. 0.10 mole D. 0.20 mole 5357023 C 15 32174 32 144400911173 0009 5 - 2- If one were to prepare a buffer by using HSO and SO , its pH 4 3 3 5 - -8 would probably be in the range of -----. (K HSO = 3 x 10 ) 4 a 3 9 A. 2.5-4.5 B. 4.5-6.5 C. 6.5-8.5 D. 8.5-10.5 E. 10.5-12.5 5359001 E 15 32180 32 0191 2WVW HNO is a strong acid. Fe(OH) is a weak base. A solution of 4 3 3 Fe(NO ) is 4 3 3 A. saturated B. neutral C. amphoteric D. basic 9 E. acidic 5359002 C 14 32183 31 000812961178 0041 Pure water contains 5 + - A. only H O ions B. only OH ions 4 3 5 + - + - C. both H O and OH ions D. neither H O nor OH ions 94 3 3 5359003 A 15 32187 72 009100870191 0042 The pH of a 0.20 M KOAc solution is 9.0. What is the degree of hydrolysis? 5 -5 -6 -9 A. 5 x 10 , B. 2 x 10 , C. 5 x 10 , 5 -10 -4 9 D. 2 x 10 , E. 5 x 10 . 5359004 E 15 32191 52 001800870091 0042 Which salt, when added to water, will produce the solution with the highest pH? A. Mg(NO ) B. FeCl C. NH NO D. KC H O E. Na S 94 3 2 3 4 3 2 3 2 2 5359005 C 15 32194 51 019109770103 0047 5 - Hydrolysis of C H O yields: 4 2 3 2 5 - - A. HC H O B. NaC H O + OH C. HC H O + OH 4 2 3 2 2 3 2 2 3 2 9 D. NaOH E. none of the above. 5359006 C 14 32198 51 01910977 0043 5 - Hydrolysis of C H O yields: 4 2 3 2 A. HC H O + H O 4 2 3 2 2 5 - B. NaC H O + OH 4 2 3 2 5 - C. HC H O + OH 4 2 3 2 D. NaOH 5 2- E. C H O 94 2 2 2 5359007 A 14 32202 51 01910977 0043 5 - Hydrolysis of CN yields: 5 - + A. HCN + OH B. CNOH + H C. HCN + H O D. CNOH + H O 94 2 2 5359008 C 14 32205 51 019108500977 0043 5 + Hydrolysis of NH yields: 4 4 5 + + A. NH + H O C. NH + H O E. NH OH + H 4 3 2 3 3 2 5 - - B. NH + OH D. NH OH + OH 94 3 4 5359009 C 14 32209 51 01910977 0043 5 3+ Hydrolysis of Cr(H O) yields: 4 2 6 5 2+ 2- A. Cr(H O)(OH) B. Cr(H O)(OH) 4 2 5 2 5 4 2+ 2+ C. Cr(H O)(OH) D. Cr(H O) (OH) 9 2 5 2 6 5359010 B 14 32214 51 01910977 0043 5 6+ Hydrolysis of S yields: 5 - - 2- A. HSO B. HSO C. SO D. SO 94 3 4 2 3 5359011 B 14 32217 51 01910977 0043 5 5+ Hydrolysis of N yields: 5 - - A. N O B. NO C. NO D. NO 94 2 3 3 2 2 5359012 C 14 32220 51 019111780185 0043 The degree of hydrolysis is high for an ion with: A. large charge and radius B. small charge and radius C. large charge and small radius 9 D. small charge and large radius. 5359013 D 14 32223 51 019201910092 0043 The following substance undergoes hydrolysis in aqueous solution: A. HCl B. HC H O C. NH D. NH Cl. 94 2 3 2 3 4 5359014 B 14 32225 51 02840192082851 9000 According to the Bronsted-Lowry definition, which substances are the acids in the equation 5 + - HCN + H O <=====> H O + CN 4 2 3 5 + A. HCN and H O B. HCN and H O 4 2 3 5 - + - C. H O and CN D. H O and CN 94 2 3 5359015 C 15 32231 52 000800570255 0020 5 + SO (g) +2H O ---> H O + ______ 4 2 2 3 5 2- - - A. SO B. HSO C. HSO D. S(OH) E. none of these 94 4 4 3 2 5359016 B 15 32234 51 024105540008 0020 When sodium acetate is dissolved in water A. the solution becomes acidic B. some acetic acid is formed by hydrolysis C. the acetate ions act as an acid D. acetate ions give up a proton 9 E. none of these 5359017 C 14 32237 72 009100870103 0019 5 -5 The pH of a 0.20 M NaC H O (K for HAc = 1.8 x 10 ) solution 4 2 3 2 a is: 9 A. 4.9 B. 2.7 C. 9.0 D. 11.3 E. 7.2 5359018 B 14 32240 52 1949 0060 Hydrolysis of NCl produces: 4 3 A. HCl B. HClO C. HClO D. HClO 94 2 3 5359101 A 14 32242 31 019202240061 0041 A substance whose formula does not contain OH yet which yields a basic solution when dissolved in water is A. NH B. CO C. HCl D. NaCl 94 3 2 5359102 C 14 32245 51 144716010087 0041 When an equivalent amount of a strong base is added to a weak acid, the resulting solution will be 9 A. neutral B. acid C. basic D. opaque 5359103 B 15 32247 52 082800310407 0042 Disregarding facts except those deduced from the Bronsted acid-base equation for the following reaction in an aqueous 5 - + 2- solution: HSO + H O <====> H O + SO 4 4 2 3 4 It may be said from this equation: A. water acts as an acid. B. hydronium ion is the conjugate acid of water. 4 2- C. SO is a weaker base than water. 4 4 5 + D. H SO is a stronger acid than H O . 4 2 4 3 9 E. water can act as both an acid and a base. 5359104 B 15 32255 31 08981591 0042 5 - The conjugate base of H PO is: 4 2 4 5 3- 2- + A. PO B. HPO C. H PO D. H O E. P O 94 4 4 3 4 3 2 5 5359105 D 15 32259 52 000800561446 0047 In water, sulfuric acid is a strong acid while benzoic acid is a weak acid. Which of the following statements is correct? A. benzoic acid is a strong acid in glacial acetic acid. B. Sulfuric acid is a weak acid in anhydrous liquid ammonia. C. Benzoic acid is a stronger acid than sulfuric acid in glacial acetic acid. D. Benzoic acid is a strong acid in anhydrous liquid ammonia. 9 E. Benzoic acid is a weak acid in anhydrous liquid ammonia. 5359106 D 14 32266 52 009100870072 0043 5 -5 The pH of a 0.20 M NH (K = 1.8 x 10 ) solution is: 3 diss 9 A. 2.7 B. 2.4 C. 12.1 D. 11.3 5359107 A 14 32269 52 055311780087 0043 5 6+ If it were possible to take one mole of S ions and add them to one liter of water, the resulting solution would be: A. very acidic B. very basic 9 C. slightly acidic D. slightly basic. 5359108 C 14 32273 52 055311780087 0043 5 5+ If it were possible to take one mole of N ions and add them to 5 + sufficient water to make one liter of solution, the (H O ) in the 4 3 solution would be: 9 A. 1 M B. 5 M C. 6 M D. 8 M 5359109 A 15 32278 52 08980458 0044 5 - The conjugate base of HSO is: 4 4 5 2- + - A. SO B. HSO C. H SO D. HSO E. OH 94 4 4 2 4 4 5359110 C 15 32282 31 00610828 0028 According to the Bronsted-Lowry theory, which one of the following acts as a base in water 5 + A. HCl B. H SO C. NH D. HClO E. NH 94 2 4 3 4 4 5359111 D 15 32286 51 040700770008 0020 5 - - In the reaction: H O + CH CO ---> H(CH CO ) + OH 4 2 3 2 3 2 5 - A. OH is an acid B. H O is a base 4 2 C. acetate ions are acids D. H O is an acid 4 2 E. H(CH CO ) is a base 94 3 2 5359112 D 15 32291 51 007202490087 0020 Ammonia is amphiprotic. This means (depending on the solvent) that ammonia A. solutions are basic B. solutions are acidic C. solutions are neutral D. solutions can be either acidic or basic 9 E. can never be neutral 5359113 B 14 32295 52 022608280407 0009 In the reversible reaction: 5 - - 2- HCO (aq) + OH (aq) <=====> CO (aq) + H O, the Bronsted acids 4 3 3 2 are 5 - 2- - A. HCO and CO B. HCO and H O 4 3 3 3 2 - - 2- C. OH and H O D. OH and CO 94 2 3 5359114 B 14 32301 52 040700770898 0009 5 2- - - For the reaction: HPO (aq) + H O -----> H PO (aq) + OH (aq) 4 4 2 2 4 2- - A. HPO is an acid and OH its conjugate base 4 4 5 - B. H O is an acid and OH its conjugate base 4 2 2- - C. HPO is an acid and H PO its conjugate base 4 4 2 4 4 2- D. H O is an acid and HPO its conjugate base 94 2 4 5359115 D 14 32309 72 055400870077 0009 To indicate that Fe(NO ) dissolves in water to give 4 3 3 an acidic solution, we might write: 5 + - A. H O <=====> H (aq) + OH (aq) 4 2 5 3+ - B. Fe(NO ) (s) <=====> Fe (aq) + 3 NO (aq) 4 3 3 3 5 3+ + C. Fe (aq) + 3 H O <=====> Fe(OH) (s) + 3 H (aq) 4 2 3 5 3+ 2+ + D. Fe(H O) (aq) <=====> Fe(H O) (OH) (aq) + H (aq) 94 2 6 2 5 5359116 C 14 32318 52 008714430138 0019 Which of the following solutions will have the lowest H ion concentration? A. 0.1 M HC H O 4 2 3 2 B. 0.1 M HC H O in 0.1 M NaCl 4 2 3 2 C. 0.1 M HC H O in 0.1 M NaC H O 4 2 3 2 2 3 2 D. 0.1 M HC H O in 0.1 M HCl 94 2 3 2 5359117 D 14 32322 51 117800770061 0019 5 - The Br ion is a/an: A. acid in the Bronsted sense B. acid in the Lewis sense 9 C. base in the Arrhenius sense D. none is correct 5359118 A 15 32324 32 08971178 0019 5 = What is the conjugate acid of the HPO ion? 4 4 5 - 3- A. H PO B. PO C. H PO D. none of these 4 2 4 4 3 4 5 = E. HPO is not a conjugate base 94 4 5359119 B 15 32328 32 0897 0019 The conjugate acid of H SO is ______. 4 2 4 5 - + - 2- A. H SO B. H SO C. HSO D. HSO E. SO 94 3 4 3 4 4 4 4 5359120 C 14 32331 51 003104070087 0009 The equation for the reaction of a water solution of ammonia with a water solution of HCl is best written as 5 + - A. NH (aq) + H O -----> NH (aq) + OH (aq) 4 3 2 4 5 + + B. NH (aq) -----> NH (aq) + H (aq) 4 4 3 5 + + C. NH (aq) + H (aq) -----> NH (aq) 4 3 4 5 + - D. NH (aq) + HCl(aq) -----> NH (aq) + Cl (aq) 94 3 4 5359122 E 15 32339 32 082800770061 0035 According to the Bronsted-Lowry theory which chemical species can function both as an acid and as a base? 5 - + + -- - A. Cl B. NH C. H O D. SO E. HCO 94 4 3 4 3 5359123 D 15 32343 32 0897 0035 5 -- The conjugate acid of HPO is 4 4 5 3- - + A. PO B. H PO C. P O D. H PO E. H O 94 4 3 4 2 5 2 4 3 5359124 C 15 32347 51 031808280284 0034 What effect did the Bronsted-Lowry definition of acids and bases have on the science of chemistry? A. It completely changed the definitions of acids and bases B. It had only a slight effect since the definitions were changed only slightly C. Its effect was mainly to allow reactions to be viewed in a different way which placed greater emphasis on the role of the solvent D. It corrected fallacies in Arrhenius theory 9 E. All of the above 5359125 A 15 32354 52 08280828 0047 Which of the following is both a Bronsted acid and a Bronsted base 5 - = + - A. HSO B. CO C. NH D. BF E. Cl 94 4 3 4 3 5359126 C 14 32357 52 19470898 0058 5 - The conjugate base of NH is: 4 2 5 - 2- 2- A. NH B. OH C. NH D. O 94 3 5359301 D 15 32360 31 12000008 0020 K 4 w 5 -14 A. equals 10 B. is the ion product of water 5 + - C. equals [H O ][OH ] 4 3 D. all of these 9 E. none of these 5359302 C 14 32363 52 117802540072 0009 5 -5 + K for NH is 2 x 10 . K for the NH ion is 4 b 3 a 4 5 -5 -9 -10 -19 9 A. 2 x 10 B. 5 x 10 C. 5 x 10 D. 2 x 10 5359303 D 14 32367 52 013800870075 0009 5 + -4 - The concentration of H in a solution is 2 x 10 M. The (OH ) is 5 -4 -10 -10 -11 9 A. 2 x 10 M B. 1 x 10 M C. 2 x 10 M D. 5 x 10 M 5359304 C 15 32371 52 000811970254 0035 5 + -6 At 90 degrees pure water has a (H O )-1 x 10 . What is the 4 3 value of K at 90 degrees C? 4 w 5 -6 -12 -12 A. 1 x 10 B. 7 x 10 C. 1 x 10 5 -14 -14 9 D. 1 x 10 E. 7 x 10 5359305 D 15 32376 51 021500870091 0047 If one milliliter of a sodium hydroxide solution with a pH value of 9 is diluted to one liter with distilled water, the resulting pH will be A. 12.0 B. exactly 7 C. slightly less than 7 9 D. slightly more than 7 E. 6.0 5500001 D 15 32380 52 07491307 40 MSU Assume that 2.0 moles each of Cl and SiO are placed in a 1.0 liter 4 2 2 container and react according to the equation SiCl (g) + O (g) <===> SiO (s) + 2Cl (g) with K = 36. What will 4 4 2 2 2 be the equilibrium concentration of oxygen in moles/liter ? 9 A. 0.92 B. 0.12 C. 0.29 D. 0.25 E. 0.40 5500002 B 15 32385 52 07491307 40 MSU A 400 mole sample of CaCO is placed in a 2.0 liter container 4 3 and allowed to decompose according to the equation CaCO (s) <===> CaO(s) + CO (g). If K=25 moles/liter, what is 4 3 2 the equilibrium concentration of CO (in moles/liter)? 4 2 9 A. 100 B. 25 C. 12.5 D. 5.0 E. 2.5 5500003 C 15 32390 52 07491307 40 MSU At a certain temperature, the following system has an equilibrium constant of 1/36. SiCl (g) + O (g) <===> 2SiO (s) + 2Cl (g). 4 4 2 2 2 If 26 moles each of SiCl and O are placed in a 1.0 liter 4 4 2 container and allowed to equilibrate at the above temperature, what is the final concentration of Cl (in moles/liter)? 4 2 9 A. 24 B. 3.7 C. 4.0 D. 2.0 E. 19.5 5500004 B 15 32397 52 07491307 40 MSU A 10 mole sample of CaCO is contained in a 1.0 liter vessel 4 3 and allowed to react according to the equation CaCO (s) <===> CaO(s) + CO (g), where K=81. What is the equilibrium 4 3 2 concentration of CO (in moles/liter)? 4 2 9 A. 810 B. 81 C. 8.1 D. 1.0 E. 0.012 5500005 D 15 32402 52 07491307 40 MSU The reaction C(s) + O (g) <===> CO (g) has an equilibrium 4 2 2 constant of 1.0 at a certain temperature. If 2.0 moles of C and 4.0 moles O are placed in an empty 1.0 liter flask at 4 2 this temperature, what will be the equilibrium concentration of CO (moles/liter)? 4 2 9 A. 60 B. 4.0 C. 3.0 D. 2.0 E. 0.00 5500006 B 15 32408 52 07491201 MSU The system defined by the equation 2Na(s) + Cl (g) <===> 2NaCl(s) 4 2 has the following composition at equilibrium Na = 1.0 mole/liter, Cl = 4.0 moles/liter, NaCl = 10 moles/liter. If 2.0 moles of 4 2 additional Cl is added to a 1.0 liter sample of this system at 4 2 equilibrium and the temperature is kept constant while the system re-equilibrates, what expression could be used to calculate the final concentration of Cl ? Let x be the change in 4 2 concentration of Cl after addition of the 2.0 moles. 4 2 2 4 2 (10+2x) 4 A. 25 = (10+2x) C. 0.25 = --------------- 4 (1.0-2x)(6.0-x) 5 1 B. 0.25 = ------- D. 25 = (6.0 + x) 94 (6.0-x) 5500007 A 14 32420 31 07480085 MSU Once you have opened a bottle of pop, the CO will remain in 4 2 solution longest (the pop will keep its fizz) under which conditions ? A. Tightly capped, in the refrigerator B. Uncapped, at room temperature C. Uncapped, in the refrigerator 9 D. Tightly capped, at room temperature 5500008 E 15 45215 31 All of the following compounds are soluble in water except A. NaCl B. ZnCl C. FeCl D. BaCl E. Hg Cl 94 2 2 2 2 2 5500009 E 15 45218 71 A precipitate is expected when an aqueous solution of potassium iodide is added to an aqueous solution of A. sodium sulfate C. calcium perchlorate E. lead nitrate 9 B. iron(II) chloride D. barium hydroxide 5500010 A 15 45221 71 A precipitate will be formed when an aqueous carbonic acid solution is added to an aqueous solution of: A. barium hydroxide C. sodium sulfate E. sulfurous acid 9 B. ammonium sulfide D. potassium acetate 5510001 D 15 32425 72 01100741 2WVW One liter of saturated solution of AgBr is in equilibrium with 0.010 mole of the pure salt. How many moles of NH must be added 4 3 to the solution to dissolve the salt completely? (neglect hydrolysis of NH and neglect volume changes.) 4 3 5 -13 K (AgBr) = 5.0 x 10 ; the formation constant for 4 sp 5 + 8 Ag(NH ) is 1.0 x 10 . 4 3 2 5 -7 A. 7.1x10 C. 0.71 E. 2.8 5 -3 9 B. 1.4x10 D. 1.4 5510002 D 15 32432 52 0110 2WVW 5 -12 The solubility product of Ag (CrO ) is 4.0 x 10 . The solubility 4 2 4 of the salt is 5 -12 -1 A. 4 x 10 mole liter 5 -6 -1 B. 1 x 10 mole liter 5 -6 -1 C. 2 x 10 mole liter 5 -4 -1 D. 1 x 10 mole liter 5 -4 -1 9 E. 2 x 10 mole liter 5510003 A 15 32439 52 0110 2WVW 5 -11 What is the solubility of La(IO ) (K = 2.7 x 10 ) in a 4 3 3 sp 5 - solution whose IO is 0.30 molar? 4 3 5 -9 A. 1 x 10 molar 5 -9 B. 3 x 10 molar 5 -3 C. 1 x 10 molar 5 -3 D. 3 x 10 molar 9 E. 0.30 molar 5510004 C 15 32445 52 0110 2WVW How many moles of MgF can be dissolved in one liter of H O if its 4 2 2 5 -8 K = 8.0 x 10 ? 4 sp 5 1/2 -4 -4 A. 8.0 x 10 = 2.8 x 10 5 1/3 -3 -3 B. 0.5 x 20 x 10 = 1.4 x 10 5 1/3 -3 -3 C. 20 x 10 = 2.7 x 10 5 1/3 -3 -3 D. 80 x 10 = 4.3 x 10 5 1/3 -3 -3 9 E. 2.0 x 20 x 10 = 4.5 x 10 5510005 D 15 32452 52 152701100018 0042 5 -12 The solubility product of Ag (CrO ) is 4.0 x 10 . The 4 2 4 solubility of the salt (in mole/liter) is 5 -12 -6 -6 -4 -4 9 A. 4x10 B. 1x10 C. 2x10 D. 1x10 E. 2x10 5510006 A 15 32459 52 011000871174 0042 5 -11 What is the solubility of La(IO ) (K = 2.7 x 10 ) in a 4 3 3 sp 5 - solution whose [IO ] is 0.30 molar? 4 3 5 -9 -9 -3 A. 1 x 10 molar B. 3 x 10 molar C. 1 x 10 molar 5 -3 9 D. 3 x 10 molar E. 0.30 molar 5510007 B 15 32465 72 18391963013805 CRHS The concentration of the ferric ion (Iron III) in a saturated 5 -36 solution of ferric hydroxide is (K for ferric hydroxide = 1.1 x 10 ) 4 sp 5 -9 A. 3.5 x 10 M 5 -10 B. 4.5 x 10 M 5 -9 C. 1.0 x 10 M 5 -12 D. 7.8 x 10 M 5 -9 9 E. 1.3 x 10 M 5510008 E 15 32471 31 003701100075 0042 Which class of compounds is sparingly soluble? A. acetates B. bromides C. sulfates 9 C. chlorides E. hydroxides. 5510009 C 15 32473 52 152705540138 0042 Given the K values below, which compound would dissolve in 5 sp 5 + water to give the largest Ag concentration? 5 -10 A. AgCl; K = 1.8 x 10 , 4 sp 5 -12 B. Ag CrO ; K = 1 x 10 , 4 2 4 sp 5 -12 C. Ag CO ; K = 8 x 10 , 4 2 3 sp 5 -12 D. AgCN; K = 2 x 10 , 4 sp 5 -12 E. AgCNS; K = 1 x 10 . 94 sp 5510010 A 15 32481 52 117401101527 0042 What is the molar solubility of zinc sulfide if it has a 5 -20 solubility product constant of 1 x 10 ? 5 -10 -20 -20 A. 1 x 10 M B. 1 x 10 M C. 0.5 x 10 M 5 -20 -10 9 D. 2 x 10 M E. 1.4 x 10 M 5510011 B 14 32486 52 0808 0043 Which of the following is least soluble? 5 -21 -73 A. NiS (K = 3 x 10 ) B. PtS (K = 8 x 10 ) 4 sp sp 5 -16 -19 C. MnS (K = 7 x 10 ) D. FeS (K = 4 x 10 ) 94 sp sp 5510012 D 15 45050 72 0808 0043 Which of the following is most soluble? 5 -37 A. CuS (K = 8 x 10 ) 4 sp 5 -51 B. Ag S (K = 6 x 10 ) 4 2 sp 5 -70 C. Bi S (K = 1 x 10 ) 4 2 3 sp 5 -16 D. MnS (K = 7 x 10 ) 4 sp 5 -19 E. FeS (K = 4 x 10 ) 94 sp 5510013 B 14 32496 52 01380126 0043 5The concentration of H O in 1.0 HCN (K = 4.0 x 10 ) is: 4 3 diss 5 -10 -5 A. 2.0 x 10 M B. 2.0 x 10 M 5 -10 -5 9 C. 4.0 x 10 M D. 4.0 x 10 M. 5510014 A 14 32500 52 01101527 0043 5 -7 The solubility of SrSO (K = 7.6 x 10 ) is: 4 4 sp 5 -4 -7 6 A. 8.7 x 10 M B. 7.6 x 10 M E. 1.3 x 10 5 -8 -4 9 C. 8.7 x 10 M D. 2.8 x 10 M. 5510015 C 14 32504 52 120005541527 0043 If the ion product of a dissolved salt exceeds the solubility product, the solution must be: 9 A. unsaturated B. saturated C. supersaturated D. hot. 5510016 E 15 32507 52 152701101174 0044 5 -8 The solubility product for AgIO is 3.10 x 10 . What is the 4 3 molar solubility of AgIO in pure H O? (neglect hydrolysis.) 4 3 2 5 -8 -8 A. 1.55 x 10 B. 7.51 C. 0.00314 D. 3.10 x 10 9 E. 0.000176 5510017 C 15 32512 52 152711740110 0044 5 -19 The solubility product for Cu(OH) is 1.60 x 10 . What is the 4 2 molar solubility of Cu(OH) in pure H O? (neglect hydrolysis.) 4 2 2 5 -7 -19 -7 A. 5.43 x 10 B. 1.60 x 10 C. 3.42 x 10 5 -10 9 D. 4.00 x 10 E. 18.8 5510018 C 15 32518 52 152711740110 0044 5 -12 The solubility product for Ag CO is 8.20 x 10 . What is the 4 2 3 molar solubility of Ag CO in pure H O? (neglect hydrolysis.) 4 2 3 2 5 -6 A. 0.000202 B. 1.43 x 10 C. 0.000127 5 -12 -6 9 D. 8.20 x 10 E. 2.86 x 10 5510019 B 15 32524 52 011000870191 0044 What is the solubility of CuBr in a 1.20 M solution of NaBr? 5 -9 K = 5.90 x 10 , neglect hydrolysis.) 4 sp 5 -9 -9 A. 1.20 molar B. 4.91 x 10 molar C. 5.90 x 10 molar 5 -5 -5 9 D. 7.01 x 10 molar E. 7.68 x 10 molar. 5510020 B 15 32529 52 117401100087 0044 Calculate the molar solubility of Ag C O in a solution of 4 2 2 4 5 -11 1.25 molar AgNO . K for Ag C O = 1.10 x 10 ; 4 3 sp 2 2 4 (Neglect hydrolysis.) 5 -6 -12 -11 A. 2.66 x 10 B. 7.02 x 10 C. 1.10 x 10 5 -12 9 D. 0.000140 E. 8.84 x 10 5510021 A 15 32535 52 152701380087 0044 5 -12 The solubility product for Ag CrO is 1.2 x 10 . Calculate the 4 2 4 5 + Ag concentration remaining in solution after adding 200 ml of 0.120 molar Na CrO to 300 ml of 0.090 molar AgNO . 4 2 4 3 (neglect hydrolysis.) 5 -6 -6 -6 A. 7.56 x 10 B. 3.78 x 10 C. 1.89 x 10 5 -5 -6 9 D. 6.70 x 10 E. 1.41 x 10 5510022 A 15 32542 52 179301380236 0044 It is proposed to fluoridate a city's water supply by adding sodium fluoride. However, the city's water is hard with a 5 -4 calcium ion concentration of 7.0 x 10 moles per liter. What is the maximum weight of sodium fluoride that can be added per liter of water without precipitating CaF ? (K for CaF is 4 2 sp 2 5 -11 3.9 x 10 (neglect hydrolysis.) 5 -3 -6 -6 A. 9.9 x 10 g B. 2.3 x 10 g C. 1.2 x 10 g 5 -3 -2 9 D. 2.5 x 10 g E. 3.1 x 10 g. 5510023 B 15 32551 52 1794 0236 0044 In an analytical procedure for SO in stacK gas, the SO is 4 2 2 5 = oxidized by H O in aqueous solution to SO , which is then 4 2 2 4 precipitated as BaSO with excess BaCl solution. If the 4 4 2 precipitation is made from a solution of total volume 250 ml, what 5 2+ should be the concentration of excess Ba so that not more than 5 -5 2.00 x 10 g of sulfur is lost in the supernatant liquid? 5 -9 (K for BaSO is 1.5 x 10 (neglect hydrolysis.) 4 sp 4 5 -3 -4 -3 A. 1.8 x 10 M B. 6.0 x 10 M C. 3.2 x 10 M 5 -3 -4 9 D. 2.4 x 10 M E. 2.4 x 10 M 5510024 D 15 32563 52 152700870553 0044 5 -10 The solubility product of AgCl is 1.7 x 10 and for AgI is 5 -17 8.5 x 10 . If 0.015 moles of AgNO is added to a one liter 4 3 solution containing 0.0045 moles of NaCl and 0.0065 moles of NaI, what will be the result? (select the one correct answer.) 5 - - A. both [Cl ] and [I ] are very small and in the ratio 5 - [Cl ] .0045 4 ----- = ----- . 4 - .0065 4 [I ] 5 - - -14 B. [Cl ] = [I ] = 2.1 x 10 . 5 - -10 [Cl ] .0045 1.7 x 10 4 C. the ratio ----- = ----- x ----------- 4 - .0065 -17 4 [I ] 8.5 x 10 5 - -8 - -5 9 D. [Cl ] = 4.3 x 10 M E. [Cl ] = 1.3 x 10 M 5510025 C 15 32575 52 011000871444 0044 What is the solubility of AgCN in a solution buffered at 5 -14 -9 pH = 6.48? for AgCN, K = 1.58 x 10 , for HCN, K = 2.09x10 4 sp a 5 -7 -14 A. 1.26 x 10 molar B. 1.58 x 10 molar 5 -6 9 C. 1.58 x 10 molar D. 13.8 molar E. 0.00275 molar. 5510026 C 15 32581 52 013801300087 0020 What is the concentration of copper(II)ions in a saturated solution of copper(II) sulfide? 5 -38 K = 4 x 10 4 sp 5 -38 A. 4 x 10 M 5 -38 B. 2 x 10 M 5 -19 C. 2 x 10 M 5 -20 D. 2 x 10 9 E. none of these 5510027 C 14 32585 52 005315270808 0009 The metal sulfides CoS, CuS and FeS have solubility products of 5 -21 -25 -17 10 , 10 and 10 , respectively. The most soluble in acid will be 9 A. CoS B. CuS C. FeS D. cannot say 5510028 B 14 32588 52 152700870138 0009 5 -12 The solubility product of PbCO is 1 x 10 . In a solution in 4 3 5 2- 2+ which [CO ] = 0.2 M, the equilibrium concentration of Pb is 4 3 5 -12 -12 -11 -6 9 A. 1 x 10 M B. 5 x 10 M C. 2 x 10 M D. 1 x 10 M 5510029 D 14 32594 51 15271319 0009 The solubility product expression for As S is: K = 4 2 3 sp 5 3+ 2- 3+ 2 2- A. [As ] x [S ] B. [As ] x [S ] 5 3+ 3 2- 2 9 C. [As ] x [S ] D. none of these 5510030 D 14 32598 31 001802240110 0009 For a salt of formula MX , the solubility, S, will be related to 4 2 K by 4 sp 5 2 3 3 A. S = K B. S = K C. 2s = K D. 4s = K 94 sp sp sp sp 5510031 E 15 32602 52 117801300087 0042 The largest number of ions would be present in a saturated solution of A. AgCl B. Fe S C. NH OH D. PbSO E. Ba(OH) . 94 2 3 4 4 2 5510032 A 14 32605 72 195408261029 0061 A clear, colorless solution is tested for the presence or absence of 5 - 2- 2- 3- significant concentrations of the ions NO , CO , SO , PO . 4 3 3 4 4 5 2+ Adding Ba to the solution produced no visible effect. Which ion must be tested further to prove its presence or absence? 5 - 2- 2- 3- A. NO B. CO C. SO D. PO 94 3 3 4 4 5510033 E 15 32612 52 1966 VNYS How many grams of solid NaOH are required to start the precipitation of Mg(OH) in 100 ml of a solution which contains 4 2 0.100g of MgCl ? 4 2 5 -12 (K of Mg(OH) = 8.9 x 10 ) 4 sp 2 5 -2 -12 -10 A. 1.05 x 10 g B. 8.9 x 10 g C. 8.48 x 10 g 5 -5 -4 9 D. 2.90 x 10 g E. 1.16 x 10 g 5510034 E 15 32618 51 OS82 Silver chloride is soluble in ammonia while lead chloride is not because A. AgCl has a larger solubility product than PbCl 4 2 B. PbCl has a larger solubility product than AgCl 4 2 C. AgCl has more ionic character than PbCl 4 2 5 + 2+ D. hydrated Ag is a stronger acid than hydrated Pb 5 + 9 E. Ag forms a complex ion. 5510035 AB 25 45710 51 MACROITEM STEM Consider the following compounds and their solubility products: Compound Solubility Product 5 -14 A. PbCO 7.4 x 10 4 3 5 -11 B. La(IO ) 1.0 x 10 4 3 3 5 -23 C. Ag AsO 6.0 x 10 4 3 4 5 -11 D. Ag C O 3.5 x 10 4 2 2 4 5 -15 E. Fe(OH) 4.1 x 10 04 2 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 Determine the compound which is the LEAST soluble. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 9 Determine the compound which is the MOST soluble. 5530001 D 15 32625 32 0110 2WVW A solution has the following concentrations 5 + -3 -1 [Ag ] = 1.5 x 10 mole liter 5 2+ -2 -1 [Hg ] = 1.2 x 10 mole liter 5 + -1 -1 [Cu ] = 5.0 x 10 mole liter A sodium iodide (NaI, a strong electrolyte) solution is added to this, drop by drop. Which iodide will precipitate first? DATA 5 -16 K (AgI) = 1.5 x 10 4 sp 5 -28 K (HgI ) = 1.2 x 10 4 sp 5 -12 K (CuI) = 5.0 x 10 4 sp 2 A. AgI B. HgI C. CuI 4 2 9 D. Two of these precipitate simultaneously 5530002 C 15 32635 52 0750 2WVW 4 -2 What is the solubility of Ag CrO in 1.0 x 10 molar AgNO 4 2 4 3 (a strong electrolyte) solution? 5 -12 (K ( Ag CrO = 1.2 x 10 ) 4 sp 2 4 5 -12 A. 1.2 x 10 molar 5 -10 B. 1.2 x 10 molar 5 -8 C. 1.2 x 10 5 -8 D. 2.4 x 10 molar 5 1/3 -4 9 E. 0.30 x 10 molar 5530003 A 14 32642 52 117302360407 0009 To prepare pure RbCl from Rb SO , one might use a precipitation 4 2 4 reaction in which the other reagent is A. BaCl B. BaSO C. NaCl D. RbCl 94 2 4 5530004 B 14 32645 52 05530236 0009 When 200 ml of 0.10 M BaCl is added to 100 ml of 0.30 M Na SO , 4 2 2 4 the number of moles of BaSO precipitated is 4 4 9 A. 0.010 B. 0.020 C. 0.030 D. 0.20 5530005 B 14 32649 52 055313010087 0009 200 ml of 0.10 M NiCl is added to 100 ml of 0.20 M NaOH. The 4 2 5 2+ number of moles of Ni left in solution after precipitation is 9 A. 0 B. 0.010 C. 0.030 D. 0.10 5530006 A 14 32652 31 008702361159 0009 When solutions of Pb(NO ) and Na SO are mixed, the precipitate 4 3 2 2 4 that forms is A. PbSO B. NaNO C. PbSO and NaNO D. none 94 4 3 4 3 5530007 D 14 32655 52 151800871527 0009 5 + In order to remove 90% of the Ag from a solution originally 5 + 2- -12 0.10 M in Ag , the (CrO ),(K Ag CrO = 1 x 10 ), must be 4 4 sp 2 4 5 -12 -11 -10 -8 9 A. 1.1 x 10 B. 1 x 10 C. 1 x 10 D. 1 x 10 5550001 B 15 32660 31 04380506049611 ETS2WVW If two miscible liquids are placed in contact without stirring, one will A. remain separate from the other B. slowly diffuse into the other C. coalesce, and the liquids separate into different layers D. form an immediate mixture with globules of the other 9 E. evaporate before the other 5550002 D 15 32664 31 01310008011411 ETS2WVW What is the vapor pressure of water at 100 degrees C.? A. 0 millimeters of mercury B. 4.6 millimeters of mercury C. 380 millimeters of mercury D. 760 millimeters of mercury 9 E. it varies, depending upon the atmospheric pressure 5550003 B 15 32668 31 04380131011411 ETS2WVW A liquid boils when A. its vapor pressure equals the vapor pressure of the atmosphere B. its vapor pressure equals the pressure of the atmosphere C. its pressure equals its vapor pressure D. its vapor pressure equals the presssure of the water vapor in the atmosphere 9 E. it changes to a gas 5550004 D 15 32673 31 04900161016911 ETS2WVW The triple point is defined as the point for which temperature and pressure is such that A. solid and liquid are in equilibrium B. liquid and vapor are in equilibrium C. solid and vapor are not in equilibrium D. solid, liquid, and vapor are in equilibrium 9 E. vapor is condensing into liquid 5550005 C 15 32678 31 1 9021 95 2WVW In the phase diagram (Figure 21) showing solid, liquid, and vapor phases, the substance may correctly be described as one with A. a boiling point that increases with altitude B. a freezing point that increases with altitude C. a freezing point that decreases with altitude D. no liquid phase at room temperature 9 E. no triple point 5550006 C 14 32683 31 2WVW If a precipitate was formed when a crystal of hypo was placed in a clear solution of hypo, the solution must have been A. contaminated B. saturated C. supersaturated 9 D. unsaturated 5550007 B 14 32686 31 01130808011451 9000 A gas is generally more soluble in a liquid when A. the pressure is high and the temperature is high B. the pressure is high and the temperature is low C. the pressure is low and the temperature is high 9 D. the pressure is low and the temperature is low. 5550008 C 14 32690 52 055300080114 0009 When one mole of liquid water is placed in a 100 ml flask at 25 degrees C, it eventually establishes a constant pressure of 24 mm Hg. If a 200 ml flask were used instead, the final pressure would have been: 9 A. 12 mm Hg B. 48 mm Hg C. 24 mm Hg D. 760 mm Hg 5550009 E 15 32694 51 141411491388 0019 Which of the following is a correct statement concerning vapor pressure? A. Its value is proportional to the amount of material present B. Its value is dependent upon the external applied pressure C. It is an extrinsic property D. All of the above are correct 9 E. None of the above is correct 5550010 E 15 32699 51 114907910484 0019 A liquid is placed in a sealed vessel and the vessel is placed in a thermostated bath. When the liquid exhibits a constant vapor pressure, A. the rate of evaporation is zero and there is no net evaporation B. the rate of evaporation is greater thean zero and there is net evaporation C. the rate of evaporation is greater than zero and there is no net evaporation D. the rate of evaporation equals the rate of condensation 9 E. both C and D are correct 5550011 E 15 32706 51 114904381114 0019 The vapor pressure of a liquid is A. a function of the liquid B. a function of temperature C. a reflection of an equilibrium process D. a measure of its escaping tendency 9 E. all are correct 5550012 A 14 32709 52 011401720631 0019 The fact that you ice skate on a thin film of water indicates that A. an increase in pressure lowers the melting point of ice B. the volume decreases when a given weight of water freezes C. water has a high vapor pressure 9 D. none of the above is correct 5550013 E 15 32713 52 141414181149 0019 Which of the following statements is (are) part of a molecular explanation of vapor pressure? A. Kinetic energy is best treated as an average value rather than one which is the same for all molecules B. Equilibrium is really a balance of two rates--one related to a "forward" process, the other to its reverse C. Attractive forces exist between molecules D. Molecules are in constant motion 9 E. All of the above 5550014 C 14 32720 32 114904380498 0019 The vapor pressures of liquids A, B, and C are 17.5 mm, 44.5 mm, and 433 mm respectively at 20 degrees C. which has the lowest boiling point? 9 A. A B. B C. C D. insufficient information given 5550015 D 15 32723 52 049814160439 0019 The boiling point of ether is 35 degrees C. What is its approximate heat of vaporization in calories? 9 A. 35 x 21 B. 35/308 c.+35/21 D. 35 x 208 E. 208 x 21 5550016 C 15 32726 31 114901611412 0040 A liquid will boil at a given temperature provided the atmospheric pressure is equal to A. one atmosphere B. zero C. the vapor pressure of the liquid D. 760 mm Hg 9 E. both A and D. 5550017 C 15 32729 31 024501530438 0040 When a liquid is placed in a closed container A. evaporation ceases B. evaporation continues for a time, then stops C. a condition is attained in which condensation of the vapor is occurring at the same rate as evaporation of the liquid D. the vapor pressure above the liquid becomes equal to one atmosphere 9 E. both B and D. 5550018 A 15 32734 32 143707480087 0040 The blood of a deep sea diver with the bends has a lot in common with A. a carbonated beverage B. a glass of milk C. a mixed drink D. ice water 9 E. no correct response is given. 5550019 A 15 32737 32 14370748 0040 Assuming the temperature is constant, a bottle of carbonated drink would show more effervescence (fizz) if it were opened A. at the top of Mount Everest B. in a gold mine two miles deep C. in this room D. immediately after breakfast at your home 9 E. no correct response is given. 5550020 D 14 32741 51 109701130245 0009 A sample of gaseous water at a pressure of 17.5 mm Hg is in equilibrium with liquid water at 20 degrees C. On reducing the volume available to the system, you observe the pressure remains at 17.5 mm Hg. The observation is accounted for by assuming: A. gaseous water does not behave ideally under these conditions B. some vapor escapes from the container C. your pressure measurement was incorrect; it should have been higher 9 D. some vapor condenses to form liquid 5550021 C 14 32748 52 019201610438 0009 A certain substance, X, has a triple point temperature of 20 degrees C at a pressure of 2.0 atmospheres. Which one of the following statements cannot be true? A. X can exist as a liquid above 20 degrees C B. X can exist as a solid above 20 degrees C C. liquid X is stable at 25 degrees C and at 1 atm D. both liquid X and solid X have the same vapor pressure at 9 20 degrees C 5550022 B 14 32754 52 016901700114 0009 A certain solid sublimes at 25 degrees C and 1 atmosphere pressure. This means A. the solid is more dense than the liquid B. the pressure at the triple point is greater than 1 atmosphere C. the solid is less dense than the liquid 9 D. the pressure at the triple point is less than 1 atmosphere 5550023 C 14 32759 52 19460738 0057 5 + 2- For the following equilibrium: CO (g) + H O<==>2H + CO , which 4 2 2 3 4 2- one of the following changes will decrease the CO concentra- 4 3 tion? Assume no change in volume. A. Increasing the partial pressure of CO 4 2 B. Adding NaOH C. Adding HCl D. Adding NH 94 3 5550024 C 15 32767 51 19620168049805 CRHS An azeotropic mixture is one that has a A. lower melting point than either component. B. higher melting point than either component. C. lower boiling point than either component. D. higher boiling point than either component. 9 E. None of the above. 5550025 D 14 32771 51 011404120161 0035 The pressure of a given saturated vapor depends on A. the volume of the space to be filled. B. the amount of liquid to be vaporized. C. the density of the liquid only. 9 D. the temperature only. 5550026 C 15 32774 52 043804120161 0035 A pure liquid and its vapor, maintained at a constant temperature, are contained in a tall cylinder fitted with a piston which exerts a pressure just equal to the vapor pressure of the liquid. If the pressure on the piston is doubled, the piston will A. drop until the volume of the vapor is half its original volume. B. not change its position. C. drop until it touches the surface of the liquid, condensing all the vapor. d. drop until the volume of the vapor and the volume of the liquid are each one-half of their original volumes. 9 E. none of the above. 5550027 D 15 32782 31 05580647800112 ETS2WVW Although the air temperature may be 10-15 degrees below freezing, when many cars pass over a road covered with fresh snow, a layer of ice is usually formed. The best explanation of this phenomenon is A. decreasing the volume of the snow increases the absolute temperature. B. friction between the tires and the road raises the temperature above 32 degrees F. C. snow is a very poor conductor of heat. D. increased pressure lowers the melting temperature of snow. E. the molecular activity of snow is decreased by the weight 9 of the cars. 5550028 B 15 32790 72 011401650111 0035 If pressure is exerted on A. steam it will make the steam cooler. B. ice it will lower the freezing point. C. water it will make the density drop from 1 to approximately .8 g./cc. D. ice it will make the ice expand. 9 E. water it will lower the boiling point. 5550029 D 15 32794 31 01140438800111 ETS2 OS Reducing the pressure in the space over a liquid will A. reduce the rate of escape of molecules from the liquid B. raise the temperature of the liquid C. lower the freezing point of the liquid D. lower the boiling point of the liquid 9 E. increase the kinetic energy of the molecules of the liquid 5550030 B 15 32799 31 06780087 MSU If a solution has been cooled and solid solute crystals have formed and equilibrium has been established, then the solution at this temperature is A. miscible D. supersaturated B. saturated E. unsaturated 9 C. colligative 5550031 D 14 32803 31 0738 MSU Under which conditions could the most He gas be dissolved in water? A. High temperature, low pressure B. High temperature, high pressure C. Low Temperature, low pressure 9 D. Low temperature, high pressure 5550032 CEB 35 32806 52 OS82 MACROITEM STEM Draw straight lines through the points in the diagram below: |. | | . | | . .| | . . | | . . | | . .| | . | |. | 0 |_____________________| MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 This diagram describes phenomena associated with A. the critical point C. the vapor pressure of solutions B. acid-base titrations D. solubility of solids in liquids 1 E. homogeneous equilibria MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 The law illustrated here is named for its discoverer, 2 A. Boyle B. Charles C. Gay-Lussac D. Avogadro E. Raoult MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 The correct labels for the axes of this diagram are: x y A. temperature pressure B. mole fraction pressure C. pressure temperature D. temperature mole fraction 9 E. pressure volume 5550033 E 15 32820 31 06780087 40 MSU When some solid sodium chloride is added to a solution of sodium chloride, an equilibrium is established. If the equilibrium concentration of dissolved sodium chloride is greater than the original concentration, then the original solution was A. saturated C. colligative E. unsaturated 9 B. heterogeneous D. solvated 5550034 A 15 32825 31 06780087 40 MSU Some solid KBr is added to a solution of KBr and the system is allowed to stand until it is certain that equilibrium is established. If the equilibrium concentration of dissolved KBr is unchanged from the original concentration, then the original solution was A. saturated C. unsaturated E. supersaturated 9 B. heterogeneous D. solvated 5550035 D 14 32830 32 01300087 40 MSU The results of simple tests made upon several solutions are listed below. Which result indicates that the solution was initially saturated ? A. The solution was warmed and solute crystallizes out of solution. B. Pure solute was added and its concentration in solution increased. C. A crystal of solute was dropped into the solution and crystallization occurred. D. Solute was added to the solution but the concentration 9 of the solution was unchanged. 5550036 A 14 32837 32 01300087 40 MSU The results of simple tests made upon several solutions are listed below. Which result indicates that the solution was initially supersaturated ? A. A crystal of solute was dropped into the solution and additional solute crystallized. B. A crystal of solute dissolved when added. C. The temperature was lowered and solute began to dissolve. D. Solute was added and the concentration of the solution 9 was not changed. 5550037 C 15 32843 31 06780087 40 MSU When some solid LiNO is added to a solution of LiNO , an 4 3 3 equilibrium is established. If the equilibrium concentration of dissolved LiNO is less than the original 4 3 concentration, then the original solution was A. saturated C. supersaturated E. heterogeneous 9 B. miscible D. unsolvated 5550038 B 14 32849 32 07290087 40 MSU Dissolving potassium nitrate ,KNO , in water is an 4 3 endothermic reaction. The amount of KNO which dissolves 4 3 could be increased by A. cooling the KNO before adding it to the water 4 3 B. heating the water before adding the KNO 4 3 C. not having solid solute in equilibrium with the solution D. adding microcrystalline powder instead of crystalline KNO 94 3 5550039 C 14 32857 32 07290087 40 MSU Heat is released when CaSeO is dissolved in water. The 4 4 amount of this ionic substance which can be dissolved in a given amount of water could be increased by dissolving the CaSeO 4 4 A. warmer water C. colder water 9 B. water under pressure D. distilled water 5550040 C 13 32862 32 07290087 40 MSU Potassium chloride (KCl) is very soluble in water and dissolves according to the equation KCl(s) + H O + heat = KCl(aq). 4 2 What would be the effect of an increase in pressure at constant temperature on the solubility of KCl in water? A. decrease the solubility B. increase the solubility 9 C. have practically no effect 5550041 B 14 32867 31 0748 MSU If other variables are kept the same, the solubility of gases in liquids decreases as A. pressure increases B. temperature increases C. the volume of the system is decreased with NO loss of matter 9 D. temperature decreases 5550042 B 13 32871 31 0087 MSU If you have a fever and your temperature rises from 5 o o o o 37 C to 39 C (98.6 F to 102.2 F), the solubility of oxygen in your blood would 9 A. increase B. decrease C. remain the same 5550043 B 13 32874 31 1437 MSU Mountain climbers must take care when climbing because atmospheric pressure decreases as they go higher. Thus, when a mountain climber climbs higher, the solubility of oxygen in his blood 9 A. increases B. decreases D. remains the same 5550044 A 14 32878 31 1437 MSU If other variables are kept the same, the solubility of gases in liquids A. increases as pressure increases. B. increases as temperature increases. C. does not change as the temperature changes. 9 D. does not change as the pressure changes. 5550045 DDCAD 55 32882 52 OS83 MACROITEM STEM Draw 3 straight lines through the pattern of asterisks below to create a vapor pressure diagram of a mixture of 5 o C H and CCl at 53.00 C. 4 6 6 4 360_ _ | V| 320_| * |_ | I * * | 280_| * * |_ |IV * * | 240_|* * |_ | * * | 200_| * * |_ vapor | * * | pressure 160_| * * |_ (torr) | * | 120_| * * |_ | * * | 80_| II * * III |_ | * * | 40_| * * |_ | * * | 0_|________________________________________________*|_ 0.0 0.1 0.2 0.3 0.4 0.5 0.6 0.7 0.8 0.9 1.0 mole fraction of CCl 04 4 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 Which Roman numeral above is nearest the vapor pressure of pure C H ? 4 6 6 1 A. I B. II C. III D. IV E. V MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 When X = 0.70, the total vapor pressure of the system 4 C H 4 6 6 is _____ torr. 2 A. 80 B. 180 C. 240 D. 280 E. 320 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 When the partial pressure of CCl = 200 torr, the partial pressure 4 4 of C H = ______ torr. 4 6 6 3 A. 200 B. 80 C. 130 D. 280 E. 300 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 The line nearest which Roman numeral represents the total vapor pressure of the system? 4 A. I B. II C. III D. IV E. V MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 The intersection of the lines which pass nearest II and III represent A. the mole fraction at which the boiling point of the mixture reaches a minimum. B. the lowest vapor pressure of the mixture. C. the transition point between the liquid and the gaseous phases. D. the mole fraction at which both partial pressures are equal. E. the maximum negative deviation from Raoult's Law for this 9 mixture. 5550046 BDCE 45 32916 52 OS86 MACROITEM STEM | C | . | | . .B ^ | F . | | . . | | E . | | . . | | . P | D. . G | . A | . O|-------------------------------------------- T ---------> Draw smooth curves through the points shown above. When completed, your diagram ought to show lines OA,AC and AB. Extend the line AB to the left a short distance, terminating it at the point just to 0 the right of D. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 If P and T represent pressure and temperature, then this figure represents A. a titration curve. B. a phase diagram C. the Maxwell-Boltzmann Distribution D. The dependence of heat of reaction on pressure. 1 E. the solubility of a solid in a liquid. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 The boundary which represents the equilibrium between a solid and a gas is 2 A. DA B. DAB C. AB D. OA E. OAB MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 The region in which only liquid exists is A. the region around DA B. region E extending to but not including the lines which bound it. C. region F extending to but not including the lines which bound it. D. region G extending to but not including the lines which bound it. 3 E. the region around point B. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 The line DA represents A. the boundary between two solid phases. B. the environment in which liquid crystals exist. C. the critical point for this substance. D. the dependence of pressure on density. 9 E. the vapor pressure of a super-cooled liquid. 5550047 C 15 44544 31 The temperature of a mixture of ice and water saturated with air at 1 atmosphere pressure is correctly called A. the triple point B. the freezing point C. the ice point D. the critical point 9 E. the saturation point 5550048 A 15 44698 51 OS90 The volume of a given liquid sample decreases on freezing. An increase in pressure at the melting point would therefore A. increase the melting point D. depends on the melting point B. decrease the melting point E. NOT change the density 9 C. depend on the melting point 6000001 D 15 32936 31 025501130224 0020 A species possibly present in an aqueous acid solution is 5 - + + + + A. H O B. H O C. H O D. H O E. H 94 7 4 4 7 4 9 4 6000002 B 15 32939 31 116801741169 0020 Temporary hardness in water can be removed by A. a water softener B. boiling C. the addition of slaked lime D. passing the water over a zeolite resin 9 E. all of these 6000003 B 15 32942 52 114911751436 0019 The vapor pressure of a liquid component of an ideal solution will be given by: A. P = kP(0) 4 a a B. P = X P(0) 4 a a a C. P = X P(0) 4 a a a D. P = km 4 a 9 E. none of these 6000004 B 15 32946 52 0565 40 STOP If carbonic acid (H CO ) donates only one proton in its 4 2 3 reaction with ammonia, what is its equivalent weight in grams/equivalent? 9 A. 128 B. 62 C. 31 D. 50 E. 17 6000005 C 15 32949 52 0565 40 MSU What is the equivalent weight of H SO in grams/equivalent 4 2 4 when it reacts according to the equation H SO + KOH ----> KHSO + H O ? 4 2 4 4 2 9 A. 196 B. 194 C. 98 D. 97 E. 49 6000006 C 15 32953 52 0565 40 MSU What is the equivalent weight of H IO in grams per 4 5 6 equivalent when it reacts according to the equation H IO + 2LiOH ----> Li H IO + 2H O? 4 5 6 2 3 6 2 9 A. 46 B. 91 C. 114 D. 137 E. 228 6000007 C 14 32957 52 0565 40 MSU Hexachloroplatinic acid (H PtCl ) has a molecular weight of 4 4 6 520 g/mole. In which of the following reactions does it have an equivalent weight of 173 g/equivalent? A. H PtCl + Ba(OH) ----> BaH PtCl + 2H O 4 4 6 2 2 6 2 B. H PtCl + LiOH ----> LiH PtCl + H O 4 4 6 3 6 2 C. H PtCl + Al(OH) ----> AlHPtCl + 3H O 4 4 6 3 6 2 D. H PtCl + 2Mg(OH) ----> Mg PtCl + 4H O 94 4 6 2 2 6 2 6000008 B 15 32965 52 0565 40 MSU What is the equivalent weight of H SO in the reaction 4 2 4 5 - - H SO + OH ----> HSO + H O? 4 2 4 4 2 9 A. 49 B. 98 C. 25 D. 88 E. 196 6000009 B 14 32968 52 0565 40 MSU In which of the following reactions does H CO have an 4 2 3 equivalent weight of 31 g/equivalent? 5 + + A. H CO ----> H O + CO C. H CO + H F ----> H CO + HF 4 2 3 2 2 2 3 2 3 3 5 - + 2- - - B. H CO + NH ----> NH + CO D. H CO + OH ----> HCO + H O 94 2 3 2 4 3 2 3 3 2 6000010 B 15 32975 52 0565 40 MSU What is the equivalent weight of ZnO in grams/equivalent when it reacts according to the equation ZnO + 2HCl ----> ZnCl + H O? 4 2 2 9 A. 81 B. 41 C. 68 D. 20 E. 50 6000011 C 14 32979 52 0565 40 MSU In which of the following reactions does H SO have an 4 2 4 equivalent weight of 98 grams/equivalent? A. H SO + 2NaCl ----> Na SO + 2HCl 4 2 4 2 4 B. H SO + MgO ----> MgSO + H O 4 2 4 4 2 C. H SO + LiF ----> LiHSO + HF 4 2 4 4 D. 2H SO + Cu ----> CuSO + SO + 2H O 94 2 4 4 2 2 6000012 A 15 32985 52 0565 40 MSU What is the equivalent weight of CaCrO in grams/equivalent 4 4 if it reacts to form CrCl ? 4 2 9 A. 39 B. 156 C. 52 D. 26 E. 78 6000013 C 15 32988 52 01420087 40 MSU How many grams of Ca(OH) must be dissolved in water to 4 2 make 2.0 liters of 0.1 N Ca(OH) solution? 4 2 9 A. 74 B. 37 C. 7.4 D. 3.7 E. 1.9 6000014 D 15 32991 52 0142 40 MSU What is the normality of a 100 ml sample of hydrogen sulfide which contains 0.68 g of H S if it reacts according to the 4 2 5 - - equation H S + OH = HS + H O? 4 2 2 9 A. 0.02 N B. 0.05 N C. 0.10 N D. 0.20 N E. 0.40 6000015 A 15 32995 52 01420087 40 MSU Trisodium phosphate could react with water according to the equation Na PO + 2H O ---> NaH PO + 2NaOH. How many 4 3 4 2 2 4 grams of Na PO must be dissolved in water to make 1.0 liter 4 3 4 of 0.5 N solution? 9 A. 41 B. 82 C. 55 D. 164 E. 27 6000016 C 15 33000 52 0142 40 MSU What is the normality of an arsenic acid solution made from 1.77 grams of H AsO dissolved in enough water to form 500 ml 4 3 4 of solution if it reacts according to the equation 5 - 2- H AsO + 2OH ----> HAsO + 2H O? 4 3 4 4 2 9 A. 0.125 N B. 0.10 N C. 0.05 N D. 0. N E. 0.01 N 6000017 D 15 33005 52 0142 40 MSU Approximately how much water must be used to dissolve 0.084 g of NaHCO to make a 0.002 N solution which reacts 4 3 according to the equation NaHCO + HCl ---> H CO + NaCl? 4 3 2 3 9 A. 1000 ml B. 200 ml C. 100 ml D. 500 ml E. 2000 ml 6000018 A 15 33009 52 0142 40 MSU Approximately how much water must be used to dissolve 0.112 g of KOH to make a 0.004 N solution? 9 A. 500 ml B. 200 ml C. 1000 ml D. 2000 ml E. 100 ml 6000019 D 15 33012 52 0142 40 MSU How many grams of K SO must be dissolved in water to make 4 2 4 200 ml of 0.05 N solution which reacts according to the equation K SO + HI ----> KHSO + KI? 4 2 4 4 9 A. 0.9 g B. 17.4 g C. 8.7 g D. 1.7 g E. 3.5 g 6000020 A 15 33016 52 0142 40 MSU How many grams of H PO are present in 20 ml of 2.0 N 4 3 4 solution if its reacts according to the equation 2H PO + 3Ca(OH) ----> Ca (PO ) + 6H O? 4 3 4 2 3 4 2 2 9 A. 1.31 B. 2.62 C. 3.93 D. 32.7 E. 98 6000021 B 15 33020 52 0142 40 MSU What is the normality of a solution made by dissolving 1.9 g of SnCl in water to make 100 ml if the tin(II) chloride 4 2 reacts according to the equation SnCl + 2HgCl ----> SnCl + Hg Cl 4 2 2 4 2 2 9 A. 0 B. 0.20 C. 0.10 D. 0.05 E. 0.02 6000022 D 15 33025 52 0142 40 MSU How many grams of HgCl are present in a 50 ml sample of 4 2 0.50 N solution if it reacts according to the equation SnCl + HgCl ----> SnCl + Hg? 4 2 2 4 9 A. 33.7 g B. 1.8 g C. 6.75 g D. 3.4 g E. 68 g 6000023 E 15 33029 52 0142 40 MSU What is the normality of an iodine solution if 500 ml contain 12.7 g of I and the iodine reacts according to the 4 2 5 2+ - 3+ equation I + 2Fe ----> 2I + 2Fe ? 4 2 9 A. 0. B. 0.40 C. 0.05 D. 0.10 E. 0.20 6000024 D 15 33033 52 0142 40 MSU Approximately how much water must be added to 1.96 g of H SO to make a 0.10 N solution which reacts according to 4 2 4 5 + - the equation H SO ----> H + HSO ? 4 2 4 4 A. 2.0 liters C. 400 ml E. 100 ml 9 B. 333 ml D. 200 ml 6000025 E 15 33038 52 0142 40 MSU How many grams of FeCl must be dissolved in water to make 4 2 300 ml of 0.40 N solution which reacts according to the equation FeCl + AgCl ----> FeCl + Ag? 4 2 3 9 A. 1500 B. 95 C. 7.6 D. 189 E. 15.2 6000026 C 15 33042 52 0142 40 MSU What is the normality of a 100 ml sample containing 4.1 g of H PO if two protons are removed from the acid in a 4 3 3 reaction with KOH? 9 A. 0.1 N B. 0.05 N C. 1.0 N D. 0.5 N E. 2.0 N 6000027 A 15 33045 52 0142 40 MSU How many grams of Ba(OH) must be dissolved in water to make 4 2 100 ml of a 0.02 N base? 9 A. 0.17 g B. 0.09 g C. 0.34 g D. 0.9 g E. 1.72 g 6000028 E 15 33048 51 00870099 05 MSU A solution made by dissolving potassium bromide in water will be 5 - A. basic because Br hydrolyzes 5 - B. acidic because Br hydrolyzes 5 + C. acidic because K hydrolyzes 5 + D. basic because K hydrolyzes 9 E. neutral because neither ion hydrolyzes 6000029 A 15 33053 51 00610087 05 MSU A solution made by dissolving NaC H O (sodium acetate) in 4 2 3 2 water will be 5 - A. basic because C H O hydrolyzes 4 2 3 2 5 - B. acidic because C H O hydrolyzes 4 2 3 2 C. neutral because neither ion hydrolyzes 5 + D. basic because Na hydrolyzes 5 + 9 E. acidic because Na hydrolyzes 6000030 B 15 33060 51 00770087 05 MSU Which of the following ions will hydrolyze to give an acidic solution? 5 + + - 2+ 2- A. Na B. NH C. CN D. Ba E. SO 94 4 4 6000031 C 15 33063 51 00610087 05 MSU Which of the following ions will hydrolyze to give a basic solution? 5 - + - - + A. Cl B. NH C. C H O D. HSO E. H O 94 4 2 3 2 4 3 6100001 C 15 33067 52 131801860134 0044 Concentrated H SO is 94.0 percent H SO . Its density is 1.831 4 2 4 2 4 grams per milliliter. What is the mole fraction of H SO ? 4 2 4 9 A. .258 B. .840 C. .742 D. 160 E. 17.6. 6100002 D 14 33071 32 040701420140 0009 When Na CO takes part in an acid-base reaction, the ratio of its 4 2 3 normality to its molarity is 9 A. 0.5 B. 1 C. 2 D. 4 6100003 C 15 33073 32 008711730138 0035 A solution is prepared by dissolving 0.50 moles of solute in 250 grams of water. The concentration of this solution is 9 A. 0.12 M B. 2.0 M C. 2.0 m D. 0.50 M E. 0.50 m 6100004 D 15 33076 32 008700080138 0035 If 300 ml of a 10 molar solution of HCl in water is diluted to 700 ml the resulting concentration will be A. 2.1 molar B. 2.3 molar C. 7.0 molar 9 D. 4.3 molar E. 3.0 molar 6100005 B 14 33079 32 01410087 0003 If 250 ml of 0.250 M NaCl is diluted with water to a volume of 500 ml, the new concentration of the solution is: 9 A. 0.167 M B. 0.125 M C. 0.0833 M D. 0.0167 M 6100006 B 14 33082 32 01410087 0003 If 200 ml of 1.60 M NaOH is diluted with water to a volume of 350 ml, the new concentration of the solution is: 9 A. 0.582 M B. 0.914 M C. 2.29 M D. 2.80 M 6100007 A 14 33085 32 01400138 0003 150 ml of 1.75 M CaCl is added to 200 ml of 2.25 M CaCl . 4 2 2 Assuming that the volumes are additive, the final concentration is: 9 A. 2.04 M B. 1.96 M C. 1.58 M D. 0.680 M 6100008 B 14 33089 52 01400138 0003 250 ml of 0.300 M CaCl is diluted with water until the volume is 4 2 5 - 500 ml. The final concentration of Cl ions is: 9 A. 0.600 M B. 0.300 M C. 0.150 M D. 0.100 M 6100009 C 14 33093 52 01381178 0003 200 ml of 1.40 M Na SO is mixed with 100 ml of 1.80 M NaCl. 4 2 4 Assuming that the volumes are additive, the final concentration 5 + of Na ions is: 9 A. 1.53 M B. 2.13 M C. 2.47 M D. 7.40 M 6100010 D 14 33096 52 0080 0003 50 ml of 1.3 N H SO will neutralize how many milliliters of 4 2 4 1.0 N NaOH? 9 A. 19 B. 38 C. 50 D. 65 E. 130 6100011 C 14 33098 52 0080 0003 75 mL of 0.20 M HCl will neutralize how many mL of 0.10 M Ba(OH) ? 4 2 9 A. 300 B. 150 C. 75 D. 38 E. 18 6100012 B 14 33100 32 00800138 0003 40 ml of 0.15 N HCl just neutralizes 29 ml of an unknown base. The concentration of the base is: 9 A. 0.11 N B. 0.21 N C. 0.31 N D. 0.41 N 6100013 B 14 33102 32 0045 0003 5 2- 2+ 3+ 3+ Cr O will oxidize Fe to form Cr and Fe . How many 4 2 7 milliliters of 0.100 M K Cr O are required to oxidize 35.0 ml of 4 2 2 7 0.500 M FeSO in acidic solution? 4 4 9 A. 7.00 B. 29.2 C. 42.0 D. 175 6100014 C 14 33106 52 194401680137 0055 One hundred kg of a 3.0% salt solution by weight is mixed with 500 kg of a 5.0% salt solution by weight. The percentage by weight of salt in the final mixture is A. 1.3% B. 4.0% C. 4.7% 9 D. 8.0% 6100015 B 14 33109 52 194405530140 0055 5 23 23 One mole is 6.02 x 10 units. One molar is 6.02 x 10 units per 5 3 3 1000 cm of solution. What is the molarity if a 100 cm volume 5 23 contains 3.01 x 10 units? A. 0.50 molar B. 5.0 molar C. 10 molar 9 D. 200 molar 6100016 C 15 33114 52 0739 4005 MSU 5 + - What is the H ion concentration of a solution whose OH ion 5 -11 concentration is 4.0 x 10 mole/liter? 5 -11 -3 -4 A. 4.0x10 B. 4.0x10 C. 2.5x10 9 D. 10.4 E. 3.6 6100017 D 15 33118 52 0739 4005 MSU 5 + - Calculate the H ion concentration of a solution whose OH 5 -8 ion concentration is 3.30 x 10 mole/liter. 5 -8 -7 -6 9 A. 7.48 B. 6.52 C. 3.3x10 M D. 3.0x10 M E. 3.0x10 M 6100018 E 15 33123 52 0739 4005 MSU 5 - -10 A solution has an OH ion concentration of 6.00x10 5 + mole/liter. What is the H ion concentration in moles/liter? 5 -4 -10 -5 9 A. 1.7x10 B. 9.22 C. 4.80 D. 6.0x10 E. 1.7x10 6100019 B 15 33128 52 0739 4005 MSU 5 - What is the OH ion concentration (in moles/liter) of an 5 + -4 aqueous solution whose H ion concentration is 2.00 x 10 mole/liter? 5 -4 -11 -10 9 A. 2.0x10 B. 5.0x10 C. 10.30 D. 3.70 E. 5.0x10 6100020 B 15 33133 52 0739 4005 MSU 5 + What is the H ion concentration (in moles/liter) of a 5 - -6 solution whose OH ion concentration is 4.0 x 10 mole/liter? 5 -6 -9 -8 9 A. 4.0x10 B. 2.5x10 C. 8.60 D. 5.40 E. 2.5x10 6100021 E 15 33138 52 0739 4005 MSU 5 - -4 A solution has an OH ion concentration of 3.0 x 10 5 + mole/liter. What is its H ion concentration in moles/liter? 5 -4 -11 -11 9 A. 3.52 B. 10.48 C. 3.0x10 D. 3.0x10 E. 3.3x10 6100022 B 15 33143 32 0739 4005 MSU 5 - -8 A solution has an OH ion concentration of 6.00 x 10 5 + moles/liter. What is its H ion concentration in moles/liter? 5 -8 -7 -6 9 A. 6.00x10 B. 1.67x10 C. 1.67x10 D. 7.22 E. 6.78 6100023 D 15 33148 52 0739 4005 MSU 5 - What is the OH ion concentration (in moles/liter) of a 5 + -7 solution whose H ion concentration is 5.0 x 10 mole/liter? 5 -7 -7 -8 9 A. 5.0x10 B. 6.70 C. 2.0x10 D. 2.0x10 E. 6.30 6100024 D 15 33152 52 0739 4005 MSU 5 - What is the OH ion concentration (in moles/liter) of a 5 + -9 solution whose H ion concentration is 2.5 x 10 mole/liter? 5 -5 -5 -6 9 A. 4.0x10 B. 1.0x10 C. 8.69 D. 4.0x10 E. 5.40 6100025 C 15 33156 52 0739 4005 MSU 5 - What is the OH ion concentration (in moles/liter) of a 5 + -2 solution whose H ion concentration is 3.0 x 10 mole/liter? 5 -13 -2 -12 9 A. 1.52 B. 12.48 C. 3.3x10 D. 3.0x10 E. 1.0x10 6100026 D 15 33161 52 0091 4005 MSU What is the pH of a solution which has a hydrogen ion 5 -3 concentration of 6.6 x 10 mole/liter? 9 A. 3.0 B. 3.82 C. 1.18 D. 2.18 E. 8.2 6100027 C 15 33164 52 0091 4005 MSU 5 + What is the pH of an aqueous solution whose H ion 5 -5 concentration is 4.68 x 10 mole/liter? 9 A. 5.00 B. 5.67 C. 4.33 D. 6.70 E. 9.67 6100028 A 15 33168 32 1182 40 MSU 5 - Calculate the pOH of a solution which has an OH ion 5 -3 concentration of 7.08 x 10 mole/liter. 9 A. 2.15 B. 3.85 C. 11.85 D. 8.50 E. 3.00 6100029 D 15 33172 32 0091 40 MSU 5 + Calculate the pH of a solution whose H ion concentration is 5 -12 2.63 x 10 mole/liter. 9 A. 12.42 B. 2.42 C. 12.00 D. 11.58 E. 4.20 6100030 B 15 33175 32 0091 4005 MSU 5 + What is the pH of a solution whose H ion concentration is 5 -2 3.46 x 10 mole/liter? 9 A. 2.00 B. 1.46 C. 5.39 D. -2.54 E. 2.54 6100031 C 15 33178 52 1182 4005 MSU 5 - Calculate the pOH of a solution whose OH ion concentration 5 -9 is 4.57 x 10 mole/liter. 9 A. 9.66 B. 9.00 C. 8.34 D. 6.60 E. -9.66 6100032 C 15 33181 52 0091 4005 MSU 5 + Calculate the pH of a solution whose H ion concentration is 5 -12 7.08 x 10 mole/liter. 9 A. 12.85 B. 12.00 C. 11.15 D. -12.85 E. 8.50 6100033 A 15 33184 52 1182 4005 MSU 5 - What is the pOH of a solution whose OH ion concentration is 5 -4 6.6 x 10 mole/liter? 9 A. 3.18 B. 4.82 C. -4.82 D. 4.00 E. 10.82 6100034 E 15 33187 32 1182 4005 MSU 5 - What is the pOH of a solution whose OH ion concentration is 5 -6 5.0 x 10 mole/liter? 9 A. 6.70 B. 7.30 C. -6.70 D. 6.00 E. 5.30 6100035 E 15 33190 52 0091 4005 MSU 5 - -11 A solution has an OH ion concentration of 3.3 x 10 mole/liter. What is its pH? 9 A. 10.48 B. 2.52 C. 11.52 D. 4.48 E. 3.52 6100036 C 15 33193 32 0091 4005 MSU 5 - What is the pH of a solution whose OH ion concentration is 5 -3 2.00 x 10 mole/liter? 9 A. 2.70 B. 3.30 C. 11.30 D. 12.70 E. 11.00 6100037 A 15 33196 52 0091 4005 MSU 5 - -12 If the OH ion concentration of a solution is 1.25 x 10 mole/liter, what is its pH? 9 A. 2.10 B. 9.03 C. 11.90 D. 3.90 E. 3.00 6100038 E 15 33199 32 0091 4005 MSU 5 - -6 A solution has an OH ion concentration of 4.0 x 10 mole/liter. Calculate the pH. 9 A. 6.00 B. 9.40 C. 5.40 D. 6.60 E. 8.60 6100039 D 15 33202 32 0091 4005 MSU 5 - What is the pH of a solution whose OH ion concentration is 5 -8 3.0 x 10 mole/liter? 9 A. 8.52 B. 6.00 C. 7.52 D. 6.48 E. 8.00 6100040 A 15 33205 52 1182 4005 MSU 5 + What is the pOH of a solution whose H ion concentration is 5 -4 1.67 x 10 mole/liter? 9 A. 10.22 B. 3.78 C. 11.78 D. 4.22 E. 4.00 6100041 B 15 33208 32 1182 4005 MSU 5 + What is the pOH of a solution whose H ion concentration is 5 -5 2.0 x 10 mole/liter? 9 A. 10.70 B. 9.30 C. 5.30 D. 4.70 E. 5.00 6100042 C 15 33211 52 1182 40 MSU 5 + What is the pOH of a solution whose H ion concentration is 5 -4 3.33 x 10 mole/liter? 9 A. 3.48 B. 4.52 C. 10.52 D. 11.00 E. 11.48 6100043 B 15 33214 52 0091 40 MSU 5 - What is the pH of a solution whose OH ion concentration is 5 -9 1.67 x 10 mole/liter? 9 A. 9.22 B. 5.22 C. 5.00 D. 6.78 E. 8.78 6100044 E 15 33217 52 1182 40 MSU 5 + What is the pOH of a solution whose H ion concentration is 5 -7 8.00 x 10 mole/liter? 9 A. 7.02 B. 6.10 C. 7.00 D. 8.10 E. 7.90 6100045 B 15 33220 52 00910739 40 MSU What is the hydrogen ion concentration of a solution whose pH is 6.40? 5 -7 -7 -7 9 A. 7.60 B. 4.00x10 C. 6.40x10 D. 7.78x10 E. 4.00x10 6100046 C 15 33223 52 00910739 40 MSU 5 + What is the H ion concentration (in moles/liter) of a solution of pH 6.60? 5 -7 -6 -7 -7 -6 9 A. 4.00x10 B. 3.98x10 C. 2.51x10 D. 3.98x10 E. 4.57x10 6100047 A 15 33227 52 00910739 40 MSU 5 + What is the H ion concentration (in moles/liter) of a solution of pH 9.58? 5 -10 -9 -10 A. 2.63x10 B. 3.80x10 C. 4.20x10 5 -7 -6 9 D. 3.98x10 E. 4.57x10 6100048 E 15 33231 52 0739 40 MSU 5 + What is the H ion concentration (in moles/liter) of a solution of pH 5.23? 5 -5 -5 -6 A. 3.34x10 B. 4.33x10 C. 1.70x10 5 -5 -6 9 D. 7.19x10 E. 5.89x10 6100049 E 15 33235 52 0739 40 MSU Exactly 0.08 gram of NaOH are dissolved in enough water to 5 + make 1.0 liter of solution. What is the H ion concentration of this solution? 5 -2 -2 -13 A. 2.0x10 M B. 8.0x10 M C. 1.25x10 M 5 -11 -12 9 D. 5.0x10 M E. 5.0x10 M 6100050 B 15 33240 52 0739 40 MSU 5 + What is the H ion concentration in a 0.20 M solution of Ba(OH) ? 4 2 5 -14 A. 0.40 M B. 2.5x10 M C. 13.6 M 5 -15 -14 9 D. 2.5x10 M E. 5.0x10 M 6100051 A 15 33244 52 0739 40 MSU A solution is made by dissolving HCl in water until the 5 -2 solution has 7.3 x 10 grams of HCl dissolved in 1.0 liter 5 + of solution. What is the H ion concentration of this solution in moles/liter? 5 -3 -2 -4 -4 9 A. 2.0x10 B. 7.3x10 C. 1.0x10 D. 2.0x10 E. 1.13 6100052 A 15 33249 52 0739 40 MSU 5 + What is the H ion concentration (in moles/liter) of a 0.004 M solution of HNO ? 4 3 5 -3 -3 -12 -2 9 A. 4.0x10 B. 8.0x10 C. 2.5x10 D. 4.0 E. 4.0x10 6100053 E 15 33253 52 00880520 40 MSU 5 - What is the molar OH ion concentration in a solution made by dissolving 0.02 gram of NaOH in enough water to make 100 ml of solution? 5 -2 -2 -2 -1 -3 9 A. 5.0x10 B. 2.0x10 C. 4.0x10 D. 2.0x10 E. 5.0x10 6100054 C 15 33257 52 11780520 40 MSU A solution is made by dissolving 1.96 grams of H SO in 4 2 4 enough water to bring the total solution volume to 1.00 5 - liter. What is the HSO ion concentration in this solution 4 4 in moles/liter? (Neglect the second ionization of sulfuric acid.) 5 -2 -3 -2 -3 -2 9 A. 1.00x10 B. 1.00x10 C. 2.00x10 D. 2.00x10 E. 1.96x10 6100055 E 15 33264 52 00880520 40 MSU 5 - What is the OH ion concentration of a 0.04 M solution of Ca(OH) ? 4 2 5 -2 -1 -2 -3 -2 9 A. 2x10 B. 2x10 C. 4x10 D. 4x10 E. 8x10 6100056 C 15 33267 52 0739 40 MSU 5 + What is the molar concentration of H ion in a solution which is made by dissolving 0.063 gram of HNO in enough 4 3 water to make 2000 ml of solution? 5 -2 -2 -4 -2 -3 9 A. 1.0x10 B. 2.0x10 C. 5.0x10 D. 6.3x10 1.0x10 6100057 D 15 33272 52 00880520 40 MSU How many grams of NaOH must be present in a liter of 5 - -3 solution whose OH ion concentration is 2.0 x 10 M? 9 A. 8.0 B. 4.0 C. 0.002 D. 0.08 E. 0.04 6100058 A 15 33275 52 00880520 40 MSU 5 - One liter of a Ba(OH) solution has a OH ion concentration 4 2 5 -5 of 4.0 x 10 mole/liter. How many grams of Ba(OH) are in 4 2 this solution? 5 -3 -2 -2 9 A. 3.42x10 B. 1.71x10 C. 6.84x10 D. 6.84 E. 3.42 6100059 E 15 33280 52 0739 40 MSU A solution of nitric acid was tested and the concentration of hydrogen ion was discovered to be 0.02 M. How many grams of HNO would be present in two liters of this solution? 4 3 5 -1 9 A. 2500 B. 6.3 C. 1.26 D. 6.3x10 E. 2.52 6100060 A 15 33284 52 00880520 40 MSU The concentration of hydroxide ions in a hydrochloric acid 5 -12 solution is known to be 2.0 x 10 M. How many grams of HCl were needed to prepare one liter of this solution? 5 -3 -14 -11 9 A. 0.183 B. 2 C. 5.0x10 D. 5.5x10 E. 7.3x10 6100061 B 15 33289 52 00880520 40 MSU How many grams of the strong acid HClO would be necessary 4 4 to prepare one liter of a solution which would have a concentration of hydroxide ion of 5 x 10-11 m? 5 -1 -2 -9 12 -4 9 A. 5.03x10 B. 2x10 C. 5x10 D. 2x10 E. 1.99x10 6100062 C 15 33294 52 00880520 40 MSU 5 -4 A solution is prepared by dissolving 7.3 x 10 gram of HCl in enough water to make one liter of solution. What is the hydroxide ion concentration of this solution (molarity)? 5 -13 -11 -10 -18 -5 9 A. 3.75x10 B. 1.37x10 C. 5.0x10 D. 2.0x10 E. 4.93x10 6100063 A 15 33299 52 00880520 40 MSU Exactly 1.12 grams of KOH are dissolved in enough water to make 100 ml of solution. What is the hydroxide ion concentration of this solution? 5 2 -2 -4 9 A. 0.20 M B. 5.0x10 M C. 6.27x10 M D. 0.02 M E. 1.95x10 M 6100064 B 15 33303 52 00880520 40 MSU What is the hydroxide ion concentration in a solution of lithium hydroxide made by dissolving 8.0 grams of LiOH in enough water to make 2.0 liters? 9 A. 3.0 M B. 0.167 M C. 0.67 M D. 1.50 M E. 0.33 M 6100065 C 15 33306 52 00880520 40 MSU What is the hydroxide ion concentration of a solution made by dissolving 6.3 grams of HNO in enough water to make 1.0 4 3 liter? 5 -15 -13 13 9 A. 0.10 M B. 1x10 M C. 1x10 M D. 0.01 M E. 1.0x10 M 6100066 D 15 33310 52 14430520 05 MSU What is the hydronium ion concentration of a solution made by dissolving 0.126 gram of HNO in enough water to make 500 ml 4 3 of solution? 5 -3 -3 9 A. 1.0x10 M B. 1.0 M C. 3.97 M D. 4.0x10 M E. 15.9 M 6100067 A 15 33314 31 00910077 05 MSU Stomach fluids are very acidic therefore, what is a possible value for the pH of liquid in your stomach? 9 A. 1.2 B. 7 C. 5.4 D. 9.5 E. 14 6100068 D 15 33317 31 00910077 05 MSU Italian salad dressing has a pH of approximately 5 and may therefore be characterized as A. weakly basic C. neutral E. strongly acidic 9 B. strongly basic D. weakly acidic 6100069 E 15 33320 31 00910061 05 MSU Soap is a weakly basic product therefore what is a possible value for the pH of a bar of soap? 9 A. 13 B. 1 C. 7 D. 5 E. 8 6100070 D 15 33323 31 0091 05 MSU A certain reaction will not take place in a solution which is the slightest degree basic. What is the highest pH at which the reaction will take place? 9 A. 0.0 B. 14.0 C. 8.0 D. 7.0 E. 6.0 6100071 C 15 33326 31 00910061 05 MSU Household bleach is moderately basic therefore, what is a possible value for the pH of bleach? 9 A. 6.5 B. 3.5 C. 9.5 D. 12.5 E. 2.5 6100072 B 15 33329 31 00910061 05 MSU Drano dissolves material in a clogged drain because it is strongly basic. Therefore, what is a possible pH for Drano while it is working? 9 A. 7.9 B. 13.8 C. 8.8 D. 1.5 E. 0.3 6100073 C 15 33332 31 00910077 05 MSU A steak is marinated in a vinegar and wine solution which is slightly acidic. What is a possible pH for this solution? 9 A. 11.6 B. 8.8 C. 5.7 D. 7.4 E. 1.9 6100074 D 15 33335 31 00910061 05 MSU Most kitchen cleansers are slighlty basic. A possible pH of such a solution is 9 A. 6.9 B. 0.4 C. 12.1 D. 8.2 E. 4.3 6100075 B 15 33337 31 00910077 05 MSU A cup of coffee is weakly acidic. What is a possible value for its pH? 9 A. 10 B. 5.8 C. 7.0 D. 8.5 E. 1.4 6100076 D 15 33339 51 00910077 05 MSU A solution whose composition is unknown has a pH of 0.10. Based upon this value for the pH, it can be said that the solution is A. a solution of some weak acid B. a solution of a weak base C. a solution of a very weak acid D. a solution of a very strong acid 9 E. none of the above conclusions can be drawn 6100077 D 15 33344 51 00910077 05 MSU Canned tomatoes are slightly more acidic than fresh tomatoes. If the pH of canned tomatoes is 4.2, what is a probable pH for fresh tomatoes? 9 A. 3.8 B. 7.5 C. 2.1 D. 4.9 E. 8.1 6100078 A 15 33347 51 00910077 05 MSU The lime is the most acidic citrus fruit, although all citrus fruits are very acidic. If the pH of the juice of a lime is 1.9, what is a probable pH for lemon juice? 9 A. 2.3 B. 1.5 C. 6.1 D. 7.3 E. 8.8 6100079 C 15 33351 51 00910061 05 MSU Although both fruits are considered acidic, pears are less acidic than apples. If delicious apple juice has a pH of 3.3, what pH would be most likely for bartlett pear juice? 9 A. 2.1 B. 7.4 C. 4.0 D. 8.6 E. 11.2 6100080 C 15 33355 51 0091 05 MSU Ivory soap is 99 44/100 % pure and 56/100 % sodium hydroxide, and has a pH of between 7.5 and 9.0. It may be characterized as A. strongly basic B. weakly acidic C. slightly basic D. neutral 9 E. strongly acidic 6100081 D 15 33359 51 0091 05 MSU The pH of maple syrup varies over a range from 6.0 to 7.0. How would you describe this range of pH values for maple syrup? A. strongly acidic to slightly acidic B. weakly basic to weakly acidic C. neutral to slightly basic D. weakly acidic to neutral 9 E. slightly basic to strongly basic 6100082 E 15 33364 51 0091 05 MSU Drinking water varies in pH from 6.5 to 8.0. This range of pH values may be described as A. neutral to somewhat basic B. very acidic to very basic C. slightly acidic to strongly acidic D. very basic to weakly basic 9 E. slightly acidic to slightly basic 6100083 A 15 33368 51 0091 05 MSU Solutions of hydrochloric acid range from a pH of 0.1 for a 5 -7 1.0 M solution to a pH of 6.5 for a 3 x 10 M solution. These solutions may be described as A. strongly acidic to almost neutral B. weakly acidic to almost neutral C. strongly acidic to slightly basic D. weakly basic to very basic 9 E. slightly basic to moderately acidic 6100084 B 15 33374 51 0091 05 MSU The pH of hominy grits may have values from 6.8 to 8.0. this range of pH may be described as B. slightly acidic to weakly basic C. quite acidic to mildly acidic D. very acidic to neutral 9 E. strongly basic to almost neutral 6100085 E 15 33378 51 00910227 05 MSU The equilibrium constant for the first ionization of 5 -5 ascorbic acid (vitamin C) is 8.0 x 10 . What is the pH of a 0.1 M solution of ascorbic acid? 9 A. 0.40 B. 1.6 C. 2.3 D. 1.7 E. 2.7 6100086 D 15 33382 52 00910070052805 MSU What is the pH of a 1.00 M solution of ammonia? The 5 -5 ionization constant for ammonia is 1.80 x 10 . 9 A. 4.93 B. 8.93 C. 2.37 D. 11.64 E. 9.07 6100087 B 15 33385 52 00910070052805 MSU What will be the pH of a 0.02 M solution of acetic acid if 5 -5 its ionization constant is 1.8 x 10 ? 9 A. 2.5 B. 3.2 C. 4.7 D. 5.1 E. 7.2 6100088 B 15 33388 52 00700528 05 MSU 5 -5 The ionization constant for ammonia is 1.8 x 10 . What is the concentration of hydroxide ion in a 2.72 M solution of ammonia (molarity)? 5 -5 -3 -6 -12 9 A. 4.5x10 B. 7.0x10 C. 7.0x10 D. 1.5x10 E. 2.2 6100089 D 15 33393 52 00910070052805 MSU What is the pH of a 1.39 M solution of ammonia if the 5 -5 ionization constant for ammonia is 1.8 x 10 ? 9 A. 9.4 B. 2.5 C. 10.7 D. 11.7 E. 8.4 6100090 D 15 33396 52 00880520007005 MSU 5 - What is the concentration of OH in a 0.89 M solution of acetic acid if the ionization constant for acetic acid is 5 -5 1.8 x 10 (molarity)? 5 -10 -5 -3 -12 -10 9 A. 5.0x10 B. 1.6x10 C. 4.0x10 D. 2.5x10 E. 6.3x10 6100091 B 15 33401 52 00910070052805 MSU What is the pH of a 1.48 M solution of carbonic acid if the 5 -7 first ionization has an equilibrium constant of 4.32 x 10 ? 9 A. 2.1 B. 3.1 C. 7.8 D. 3.9 E. 6.4 6100092 A 15 33405 52 00910520 05 MSU 5 -10 Boric acid has an ionization constant of 6.3 x 10 . If the pH of a solution of boric acid is 5.2, what is the concentration of the boric acid (molarity)? 5 -6 -2 -3 9 A. 0.063 B. 0.008 C. 6.3x10 D. 1.8x10 E. 8.6x10 6100093 B 15 33410 52 00700544 05 MSU The ionization constant for acetic acid at a specific 5 -5 temperature is 1.9 x 10 . The degree of ionization of a 0.1 M solution of the acid is -6 -3 9 A. 1.9x10 B. 0.014 C. 1.4x10 D. 1.4 E. 0.14 6100094 E 15 33414 52 00700544 05 MSU The ionization constant for acetic acid at a specific 5 -5 temperature is 1.8 x 10 . The degree of ionization of a 0.02 M solution of this acid is 5 -2 -4 -1 9 A. 6.0x10 B. 6.0x10 C. 3.0 D. 4.2x10 E. 0.03 6100095 B 15 33418 52 00700544 05 MSU What is the degree of ionization of a 0.5 M solution of 5 -5 ammonia? The ionization constant of ammonia is 1.8 x 10 . 5 -1 -3 -4 -3 -1 9 A. 3.x10 B. 6x10 C. 9x10 D. 1.8x10 E. 6x10 6100096 C 15 33422 52 00700544 05 MSU A base called pyridine, C H N, reacts with water in the same 4 5 5 manner as does ammonia. The equation is 5 + - C H N + H O ----> C H NH + OH 4 5 5 2 5 5 5 -6 For this reaction the ionization constant is 6.5x10 . 6.5 x 10-6. what is the degree of ionization of 0.10 M What is the degree of ionization of 0.10 M pyridine in water solution? 9 A. 0.5 B. 0.004 C. 0.008 D. 0.04 E. 0.1 6100097 E 15 33429 52 00700544 05 MSU Propionic acid, HC H O , has an ionization constant of 4 3 5 2 5 -5 1.3x10 . What is the degree of ionization of a 0.038 M solution of propionic acid? 5 -10 -5 -4 -7 -2 9 A. 4.0x10 B. 2.0x10 C. 2.0x10 D. 4.9x10 E. 1.8x10 6100098 A 15 33434 52 00700544 05 MSU 5 -10 The weak acid HCN has an ionization constant of 4.0 x 10 . calculate the degree of ionization of a 0.04 M solution of HCN. 5 -4 -2 -4 -6 -11 9 A. 1.0x10 B. 1.0x10 C. 4.0x10 D. 4.0x10 E. 1.6x10 6100099 D 15 33439 52 00700544 05 MSU What is the degree of ionization of a 0.002 M solution of 5 -8 hypochlorous acid, HClO, whose ionization constant is 3.2x10 ? 5 -11 -6 -4 -3 -1 9 A. 6.4x10 B. 8.0x10 C. 8.0x10 D. 4.0x10 E. 4.0x10 6100101 B 15 33444 52 1966 STOR When 200 ml of 2.50 M aluminum nitrate, Al(NO ) , are mixed with 4 3 3 5.00 liters of 6.84 M potassium nitrate, KNO , and an additional 4 3 50 ml of water, the nitrate ion concentration becomes 9 A. 6.61 M B. 6.80 M C. 14.34 M D. 14.59 M E. 6.02 M 6100102 E 15 33449 52 0140 40 MSU When 7.2 g of CaS is dissolved in water to make 500 ml of solution, what is the resulting molarity? 9 A. 1.0 M B. 0.5 M C. 20 M D. 0.1 M E. 0.2 M 6100103 D 15 33452 52 0795 40 MSU How many grams of H AsO are required to make 500 ml 4 3 4 of 0.05 M solution? 9 A. 7.1 g B. 2.5 g C. 14.2 g D. 3.6 g E. 1.42 g 6100104 B 15 33455 52 0137 40 MSU A solution composed of 0.5 mole of CaBr and 100 grams of 4 2 water is what percent by weight in calcium bromide ? 9 A. 1.00 B. 5.00 C. 3.80 D. 0.500 E. 9.50 6100105 D 15 33458 52 0137 40 MSU Commercial hydrochloric acid is 35 per cent HCl by weight. How many moles of HCl are there in 1.0 kilogram of the acid ? 9 A. 0.01 B. 0.36 C. 1.0 D. 10 E. 27 6100106 B 15 33461 52 0140 40 MSU A solution made by dissolving 3.4 grams of NH in sufficient 4 3 water to make 2.0 liters will have what molarity ? 9 A. 0.2 B. 0.1 C. 2.0 D. 2.5 E. 0.4 6100107 E 15 33464 52 0140 40 MSU What is the molarity of a solution which is made by dissolving 10.3 grams of NaBr in enough water to make 4.0 liters of solution ? 9 A. 2.5 B. 1.0 C. 0.40 D. 0.10 E. 0.025 6100108 D 15 33467 52 0140 40 MSU Enough water is added to 0.174 gram of K SO to make 1.0 liter 4 2 4 of solution. What is the molarity of the solution? 9 A. 1.0 B. 17.4 C. 0.348 D. 0.001 E. 0.002 6100109 B 15 33470 52 0140 40 MSU If 148 grams of Ca(OH) are placed in a 1.0 liter flask and 4 2 water added until the volume of solution is exactly 1.0 liter what is the molarity of the resulting solution? 9 A. 4.0 B. 2.0 C. 1.0 D. 2.6 E. 5.2 6100110 B 15 33474 52 0140 40 MSU A water solution of bromine contains 8 g of Br per liter. 4 2 What is the molarity? 9 A. 20 B. 0.05 C. 0.1 D. 2.0 E. 0.5 6100111 A 15 33477 52 0140 40 MSU Addition of enough water to dissolve 0.83 g of AgC H O 4 2 3 2 gives a solution with a volume of 250 ml. What is the molarity of silver acetate ? 9 A. 0.02 B. 0.005 C. 0.5 D. 50 E. 2.0 6100112 D 15 33481 52 0140 40 MSU A potassium formate, KCHO , solution contains 840 g of KCHO 4 2 2 in 500 ml of solution. What is the molarity of the solution ? 9 A. 84 B. 50 C. 2 D. 20 E. 40 6100113 E 15 33485 52 0140 40 MSU How many moles of HCl are present in 100 ml of 0.50 M HCl solution? 9 A. 50 B. 0.50 C. 1.83 D. 3.65 E. 0.050 6100114 C 15 33487 52 0553 40 MSU In 1.0 liter of 0.5 M nitric acid there are how many grams of HNO ? 4 3 9 A. 16 B. 26 C. 32 D. 63 E. 126 6100115 D 15 33490 52 0795 40 MSU How many grams of H SO are contained in 0.050 liter of 0.50 M 4 2 4 solution ? 9 A. 98 B. 49 C. 4.9 D. 2.45 E. 0.025 6100116 E 15 33493 52 0795 40 MSU How many grams of KCl are present in 200 ml of 0.10 M solution? 9 A. 74.5 B. 7.45 C. 14.9 D. 20 E. 1.49 6100117 C 15 33495 52 0553 40 MSU How many moles of HCl are contained in 2.0 ml of 0.03 M solution? 5 -5 -3 -2 9 A. 35.5 B. 1.07 C. 6.0 x 10 D. 2.13 x 10 E. 6.0 x 10 6100118 E 15 33498 52 0795 40 MSU In 500 ml of 3 molar H SO there are how many grams of 2 4 sulfuric acid? 9 A. 1176 g B. 294 g C. 73 g D. 588 g E. 147 g 6100119 B 15 33501 52 0140 40 MSU A concentrated water solution of ammonia is 15 molar. How many moles of NH are there in 15 ml ? 4 3 9 A. 0.1 B. 0.23 C. 0.85 D. 22.5 E. 0.01 6100120 E 15 33504 52 0140 40 MSU How many moles of NaOH are contained in 45 ml of a 0.1 molar solution ? 9 A. 45 B. 4.5 C. 0.45 D. 0.045 E. 0.0045 6100121 C 15 33506 32 0140 40 MSU How many moles of KOH are required to make 27 mL of a 0.09 M solution ? 9 A. 0.24 B. 0.03 C. 0.0024 D. 2.4 E. 3.0 6100122 A 15 33508 52 0140 40 MSU In 250 ml of 0.5 molar HCl there are how many moles of the acid? 9 A. 0.125 B. 0.04 C. 4.0 D. 0.50 E. 0.25 6100123 A 15 33510 52 0553 40 MSU What is the equivalent weight of H2 eO in grams/equivalent ? 4 2 4 9 A. 72 B. 48 C. 96 D. 290 E. 145 6100124 A 15 33512 52 0553 40 MSU What is the equivalent weight of Ga(OH) in grams/equivalent? 4 3 9 A. 40 B. 360 C. 60 D. 30 E. 120 6100125 D 15 33514 72 0565 40 MSU What is the equivalent weight of B(OH) in an acid-base titration? 4 3 9 A. 30.9 B. 245 C. 21 D. 61.8 E. 123 6100126 A 15 33517 52 0565 40 MSU What is the equivalent weight of HBr in grams/equivalent ? 9 A. 81 B. 40.5 C. 162 D. 1.0 E. 8.09 6100127 D 15 33519 52 0565 40 MSU What is the equivalent weight of H PO in grams/equivalent ? 4 3 3 9 A. 246 B. 9.0 C. 41 D. 27 E. 82 6100128 E 15 33521 52 0565 40 MSU What is the equivalent weight of LiOH in grams/equivalent ? 9 A. 20 B. 7 C. 48 D. 12 E. 24 6100129 D 15 33523 52 0565 40 MSU What is the equivalent weight of NH OH in grams/equivalent ? 4 4 9 A. 7 B. 9 C. 17 d. 35 E. 140 6100130 C 15 33525 52 0565 40 MSU What is the equivalent weight of HClO in grams/equivalent ? 4 4 9 A. 50 B. 84 C. 100 D. 25 E. 68 6100131 A 15 33527 52 0565 40 MSU What is the equivalent weight of H SeO in grams/equivalent ? 4 2 3 9 A. 64 B. 129 C. 49 D. 72 E. 41 6100132 B 15 33529 52 0565 40 MSU When Sc(OH) is neutralized by an acid, what is its 4 3 equivalent weight in grams/equivalent ? 9 A. 54 B. 32 C. 18 D. 96 E. 43 6100133 C 15 33532 52 0565 40 MSU What is the equivalent weight of H CrO in grams/equivalent ? 4 2 4 9 A. 118 B. 29 C. 59 D. 100 E. 51 6100134 D 15 33535 52 0142 40 MSU If 98 grams of H SO are dissolved in water to make 2000 ml of 4 2 4 solution, what will be the normality of sulfuric acid which results? 9 A. 4.9 N B. 0.5 N C. 9.8 N D. 1.0 N E. 2.0 N 6100135 A 15 33538 52 05530142 40 MSU How many moles of Ba(OH)2 are in 1.0 liter of 0.04 N solution? 4 2 9 A. 0.02 B. 0.04 C. 0.08 D. 0.29 E. 1.48 6100136 C 15 33540 52 0142 40 MSU If 3.0 moles of H PO are dissolved in enough water to make 4 3 4 2.0 liters of acid solution, what is the normality of the resulting solution if it is used to neutralize a base and forms Na PO ? 4 3 4 9 A. 9.0 N B. 6.0 N C. 4.5 N D. 3.0 N E. 1.5 N 6100137 C 15 33545 52 05530142 40 MSU How many moles of Ba(OH) are present in 2.0 L 0.50 N solution? 4 2 9 A. 2.0 B. 1.0 C. 0.5 D. 0.25 E. 0.13 6100138 D 15 33548 32 0142 40 MSU What is the molarity of a 500 ml solution of hydrogen sulfide which contains 0.2 mole of H S? 4 2 9 A. 0.08 M B. 0.1 M C. 0.2 M D. 0.4 M E. 0.8 M 6100139 B 15 33551 32 05530142 40 MSU How many moles of NaOH are present in 45 mL of a 0.09 N solution? 9 A. 4.0 B. 0.004 C. 0.8 D. 2.0 E. 0.002 6100140 C 15 33553 52 05530142 40 MSU How many moles of KOH are present in 20 ml of 4.0 N solution? 9 A. 200 B. 224 C. 0.80 D. 4.0 E. 80 6100141 E 15 33555 52 05530142 40 MSU How many moles of HCl are present in 50 ml of 2.0 N solution? 9 A. 73 B. 0.025 C. 40 D. 2.0 E. 0.10 6100142 A 15 33557 52 05530142 40 MSU How many moles H PO are present in 500 ml of 6.0 N solution? 4 3 4 9 A. 1.0 B. 3.0 C. 4.0 D. 250 E. 588 6100143 A 15 33559 52 0142 40 MSU What is the normality of a 250 ml solution which contains 0.3 moles of HCl ? 9 A. 1.2 B. 0.3 C. 0.075 D. 2.4 E. 0.6 6100144 D 15 33561 52 0142 40 MSU What is the normality of a 333 ml solution which contains 0.3 moles of Ba(OH) ? 4 2 9 A. 0.3 B. 0.45 C. 0.9 d. 1.8 E. 51.3 6100145 E 15 33564 52 0142 40 MSU What is the normality of a 500 ml solution which contains 0.4 moles of H SO ? 4 2 4 9 A. 39.2 B. 19.6 C. 0.4 D. 0.8 E. 1.6 6100146 A 15 44803 52 01400111 40 MSU 5 o Pure nitrobenzene freezes at 14 C. What must be the molality of a solution of some substance in nitrobenzene if the solution 5 o -1 freezes at 7.0 C? (k for nitrobenzene is 7.00 K m ) 4 f 9 A. 1.0 B. 2.0 C. 3.0 D. 0.5 E. 7.0 6100147 C 15 33571 52 04980553 40 MSU How many moles of ICl must be added to 500 grams of benzene 5 o o to raise the boiling point of benzene from 80 C to 90 C? (K for benzene is 2.5.) 4 b 9 A. 4.0 B. 2.5 C. 2.0 D. 8.0 E. 5.0 6100148 B 15 33575 52 0140 40 MSU What is the molality of a solution containing a nonvolatile, nonionic solute dissolved in 1000 grams of water and whose 5 o freezing point is -4.65 C? (Kf for water is 1.86) A. 4.65 molal C. 1.86 molal E. 0.00 molal 9 B. 2.50 molal D. 1.00 molal 6100149 C 15 33579 52 0553 40 MSU A solution of nonvolatile, nonionic Cl dissolved in benzene 4 4 increases the boiling point of benzene 10.0 degrees. How many moles are present in a sample containing 500 grams of benzene as solvent ? (K for benzene is 5.0). 4 f 9 A. 10 B. 2.0 C. 1.0 D. 5.0 E. 50 6100150 A 15 33584 52 0553 40 MSU How many moles of nonvolatile, nonionic solvent must be 5 o added to 2000 grams of acetic acid (b.p. 118 C) to raise its 5 o boiling point to 127 C? (K for acid is 3.0) 4 b 9 A. 6.0 B. 3.0 C. 1.0 D. 12 E. 0.10 6100151 C 15 33589 52 0139 40 MSU Glycerine is nonvolatile, nonionic, and water soluble. What 5 o is the molality of a glycerine solution which freezes at 3.9 C? (K. for water is 1.86.) 4 f 9 A. 39 B. 1.86 C. 2.1 D. 4.2 E. 0.0 6100152 B 15 33593 52 07950111 40 MSU How many grams of benzoic acid (M.W.=122) must be added to 5 o 1000 g of benzene to decrease its freezing point 7.5 C? (K for benzene is 5.0) 4 f 9 A. 122 B. 183 C. 244 D. 5.0 E. 7.5 6100153 D 15 33597 52 01390498 40 MSU What is the molality of a sugar-water solution whose boiling 5 o point is 102.5 C? (K for water is 0.5) 4 b 9 A. 0.5 B. 102.5 C. 2.5 D. 5.0 E. 1.0 6100154 C 15 44411 52 0995 40 MSU Exactly 3.0 moles of sugar are added to a sample of pure water, resulting in an increase in the boiling point of 5 o 3.0 C. About how many grams of water were present in the pure 5 o sample? (k for water is 0.51 C/molal) 4 b 9 A. 2000 B. 1000 C. 500 D. 250 E. 100 6100155 C 15 33604 52 0736 40 MSU Which of the following amounts of solute dissolved in 1000 g water will exhibit the greatest osmotic pressure? A. 0.1 mole MgF (100% ionized) D. 0.1 mole sucrose 4 2 B. 0.1 mole NaF (100% ionized) E. 0.1 mole HCN (slightly C. 0.1 mole AlF (100% ionized) ionized) 94 3 6100156 E 15 45312 71 Calculate the molarity of a solution that contains 50.0 g of NaOH in 750.0 mL of solution. 9 A. 0.60 M B. 0.80 M C. 1.07 M D. 1.25 M E. 1.67 M 6100157 D 15 45532 51 What is the molality of a solution that contains 73.5 g of 1,4-dichlorobenzene, C H Cl , in 500 mL of carbon tetrachloride? 4 6 4 2 (The density of CCl is 1.60 g/mL.) 4 4 9 A. 0.088 m B. 0.250 m C. 0.500 m D. 0.625 m E. 1.00 m 6100158 C 15 45536 71 For a two-component system, one can calculate the mole fraction of the solvent directly, given only: A. the density of the solution. B. the molarity of the solution. C. the mole fraction of the solute. D. the molecular weight of the solvent. 9 E. the molecular weight of the solute. 6100159 CE 25 45545 71 MACROITEM STEM Use these data to answer the following two questions: 5 o Benzene, C H , and toluene, C H CH , form ideal solutions. At 35 C 4 6 6 6 5 3 the vapor pressure of benzene is 160 torr, and that of toluene is 50 torr. 3.20 moles of benzene and 4.80 moles of toluene are placed 5 o 0 in a closed container at 35 C and allowed to come to equilibrium. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 What is the mole fraction of benzene in the liquid phase? 1 A. 0.25 B. 0.32 C. 0.40 D. 0.48 E. 0.60 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 What is the mole fraction of benzene in the vapor phase? 9 A. 0.28 B. 0.32 C. 0.52 D. 0.60 E. 0.68 6100160 C 15 45718 51 5 + + A solution contains 23.5 ppm Na ion. The concentration of Na ion could be alternately expressed as 23.5 9 A. g/L B. mg/mL C. mg/L D. kg/mL E. kg/L 6100161 B 15 45721 51 A volume of acetone amounting to 38.0 mL (density = 0.790 g/mL) is added to enough water (density = 1.00 g/mL) to produce 100.0 mL solution. This describes the preparation of a _______ solution of acetone. A. 38.0% (w/w) C. 48.1% (w/w) E. 30.0% (v/v) 9 B. 30.0% (w/v) D. 38.0% (w/v) 6110001 B 15 33609 52 01400141 13 ETS2 OS If 300 ml of a 10 molar solution of HCl in water is diluted to 700 ml, the resulting concentration will be A. 2.1 molar B. 4.3 molar C. 2.3 molar D. 3.0 molar 9 E. 7.0 molar 6110002 A 15 33612 52 01420141 13 ETS2 OS How many ml of 6 M sulfuric acid would be required to make 1 liter of 2.5 M solution? 9 A. 417 B. 240 C. 218 D. 150 E. 123 6110003 D 15 33614 52 01370138013913 ETS2 OS The atomic weight of Na is 23.0 and of Cl is 35.5. What is the concentration of NaCl in terms of weight percent in a 10 molal solution of NaCl in water? A. 58.0 weight percent NaCl B. 27.3 weight percent NaCl C. 63.3 weight percent NaCl D. 36.9 weight percent NaCl 9 E. cannot calculate unless the density is known 6110004 D 14 33619 31 0139 0003 The molality of a solution is defined as the number of: A. grams of solute per liter of solution B. moles of solute per liter of solution C. moles of solute per kilogram of solution 9 D. moles of solute per kilogram of solvent 6110005 B 14 33623 52 019401680553 2WVW If an alloy consists of a mixture of 26 g chromium and 14 g iron, the mole fraction of chromium equals 9 A. 0.65 B. 0.67 C. 0.35 D. 0.48 E. 0.52 6110006 A 15 33626 52 2WVW What is the molality of a solution of 10 grams of ethanol, C H OH, 4 2 5 in 742 ml of solution? 9 A. 0.29 B. 0.15 C. 0.22 D. 0.074 E. 0.59 6110007 B 14 33631 31 031805650142 2 OS The concentration of a solution expressed as the number of equivalent weights of solute per liter of solution is known as A. molarity B. normality C. molality 9 D. weight percentage 6110008 C 15 33634 52 01371966 TAFT A water solution contains 8.00 % sugar by weight and has a density of 1.03 g/ml. How many grams of sugar are there in 400 ml of the solution. 9 A. 29.0 B. 31.0 C. 33.0 D. 412.0 E. 388.0 6110009 A 15 33637 52 072007040139 2WVW When a 50-ml sample of nitric acid (HNO ) is titrated with 4 3 0.20-normal sodium hydroxide (NaOH) solution, 30 ml of the base are required to reach the end point. What is the molality of the nitric acid sample? (At Wt H=1.0, N=14, O=16, Na=23) A. 0.12 B. 0.20 C. 0.32 D. 2.5 9 E. none of the above 6110010 B 15 33642 32 180201690809 0042 Colorado River water contains 700 ppm of dissolved solids. If half of this is chloride ion, one liter of Colorado River water 5 - contains ______ grams of Cl . 5 -6 -3 -4 9 A. 0.7g B. 0.35g C. 3.5 x 10 g C. 1.x 10 g E. 7 x 10 g 6110011 A 15 33647 32 079800870186 0042 What is the molality of a solution of 10 grams of ethanol, C H OH, 4 2 5 in 742 ml of water? Density of water = 1.0 g/ml mol wt C H OH = 46 4 2 5 9 A. 0.29 B. 0.15 C. 0.22 D. 0.074 E. 0.59 6110012 D 15 33651 32 055401140110 0042 145 mg of N dissolves in 1 liter of water at 0 degrees C and 4 2 atmospheric pressure. What is the solubility in grams per liter of water at STP? 9 A. 0.0001 B. 0.29 C. 0.029 D. 0.145 E. 0.725 6110013 D 15 33654 32 008701860138 0042 A 1.59M FeCl solution has a density of 1.175 g/ml. The 4 3 concentration of this solution in percentage by weight of FeCl 4 3 is: 9 A. 3.15% B. 11.2% C. 17.6% D. 22.0% E. 29.7% 6110014 C 15 33658 32 0445 0215 0042 What weight of NaOH is required to make 100 ml of 6M NaOH? 9 A. 2.4g B. 4.0g C. 24g D. 40g E. 240g 6110015 B 15 33660 32 001800870186 0042 A 3.00 M salt solution has a density of 1.50 g/ml at 25 degrees C. if 6.00 g of this solution was evaporated to dryness, how many moles of solid would be obtained? 9 A. .003 B. .012 C. .027 D. 12.0 E. 27.0 6110016 A 15 33663 32 019500560522 0042 To what volume in milliliters should 100 ml of 7.0 M sulfuric acid be diluted to make it 3 M? 9 A. 233 B. 283 C. 333 D. 400 E. 429. 6110017 D 15 33665 32 018600870142 0042 If the density of 30% HNO solution is 1.18 g./ml. What is the 4 3 normality of this solution? 9 A. 3.5 B. 7.0 C. 3.7 D. 5.6 E. none of these. 6110018 D 15 33668 52 0137 40 MSU How many grams of NaCl must be added to 200 g of water to make a solution which is 20% NaCl by weight? 9 A. 2.32 B. 40 C. 59 D. 50 E. 11.6 6110019 C 15 33671 52 01370798 40 MSU What is the weight % of perchloric acid (HClO ) in a 4 4 1.0 molal solution? 9 A. 990 B. 1.00 C. 9.10 D. 11.50 E. 900 6110020 E 15 33674 52 01370139 40 MSU What is the percent by weight of InI (molecular weight = 496) 4 3 in a 1.0 molal solution ? 9 A. 0.010 B. 0.496 C. 5.00 D. 6.70 E. 33.2 6110021 B 14 33677 52 052201950138 0043 250 ml of 0.300 M CaCl is diluted with water until the volume is 4 2 5 - 500 ml. The final concentration of Cl ions is: 9 A. 0.600 M B. 0.300 M C. 0.150 M D. 0.100 M 6110022 C 15 33681 52 01370186 40 MSU The density of 30 percent hydrogen peroxide solution is 1.0. How many grams of H O are there in one liter ? 4 2 2 9 A. 20 B. 15 C. 300 D. 34 E. 9 6110023 B 14 33684 52 117304450056 0043 In order to prepare 1.4 liters of 0.75 N H SO , the weight of 4 2 4 H SO needed is: 4 2 4 9 A. 0.46 g B. 52 g C. 46 g D. 88 g. 6110024 B 14 33687 32 0140 0003 The molarity of a solution prepared by adding 7.1 g of Na SO 4 2 4 (formula weight = 142 amu) to enough water to make 100 ml of solution is: 9 A. 2.0 M B. 0.50 M C. 0.050 M D. 0.020 M 6110025 A 15 33691 52 01400087 0044 What is the molarity of a solution containing 31.9 grams of HCl in 5.05 liters of solution? (MW of HCl = 36.5) 31.9 (1000)(31.9) (31.9)(36.5) 31.9 A. ------------ B. ------------ C. ------------ D. ---- (36.5)(5.05) (36.5)(5.05) 5.05 5.05 9 E. none of the above. 6110026 D 15 33696 72 001500870077 0044 Suppose 0.400 moles of Zn metal is added to 400 mL of a solution 5 +2 which is 0.10 M in Cu . The following reactions occur: 5 +2 +2 Zn(s) + Cu (aq) -----> Zn (aq) + Cu(s) 5 + +2 Zn(s) + 2H (aq) -----> Zn (aq) + H (g) 4 2 After the zinc reacts, A. 0.40 mole of Cu metal is produced. B. 6.35 g of Cu metal is produced. C. 2.02 l of H is produced (at STP). 4 2 5 +2 D. the solution contains 26.2 g of Zn . 5 +2 9 E. the concentration of Zn is 0.100 M. 6110027 B 15 33708 52 01400087 0044 What is the molarity of a solution containing 49.6 grams of HI in 1.66 liters of solution? (MW of HI = 128) 49.6 49.6 (1000 x 49.6) 49.6 x 128 A. ---- B. ------------ C. ------------ D. ---------- 1.66 (128 x 1.66) (128 x 1.66 1.66 9 E. none of the above. 6110028 C 15 33713 52 01390087 0044 What is the molality of a solution of 56.9 grams of butanol, C H OH, in 119 ml of water. (Density of water = 1 gram per 4 4 9 cubic centimeter; MW of C H OH = 74 grams per mole). 4 4 9 5 -2 5 9 A. .155 B. 479 C. 6.47 D. .647 x 10 E. .354 x 10 . 6110029 D 15 33718 52 01400087 0044 2How many grams of HF are contained in 741 milliliters of a 2.355 molar aqueous solution of HF? (MW of HF = 20.0) 2 2 (.355)(741) 2 A. (.355)(741) B. ----------- C. (20.0)(.355)(741) 2 1000 2 2 (20.0)(.355)(741) 2 D. ----------------- E. none of the above. 92 1000 6110030 D 15 33723 52 01400087 0044 Determine the molarity of a solution made by diluting 2.41 liters of .543 molar solution to 6.19 liters. 9 A. 27.5 B. .391 C. 1.40 D. .212 E. 4.73 6110031 E 15 33726 52 131801860140 0044 Concentrated NaOH is 50 percent NaOH. Its density is 1.525 grams per milliliter. What is the molarity of concentrated NaOH? 5 -1 -1 9 A. .525 x 10 B. 25.0 C. .250 x 10 D. .310 E. 19.0. 6110032 C 15 33730 52 018601391318 0044 Concentrated HF is 45.0 percent HF. Its density is 1.143 grams per milliliter. What is the molality of HF? 9 A. 22.5 B. 46.8 C. 40.9 D. 25.7 E. .424. 6110033 C 15 33733 52 001500870077 0044 Suppose 0.40 mole of Zn metal is added to 400 mL of a solution which 5 2+ is 0.10 M in Cu and 6.0 M in acid. The first reaction is: 5 2+ 2+ Zn + Cu -----> Zn + Cu 4 (s) (aq) (aq) (s) Then the excess Zn reacts with the acid: 5 + 2+ Zn + 2 H -----> Zn + H 4 (s) (aq) (aq) 2(g) After the zinc has reacted with the acid, which of the statements below is incorrect, assuming that both reactions go to completion? 3 _________ A. 0.36 moles of H gas is produced. 4 2 5 +2 B. The concentration of Zn is 1.00 M. C. The final concentration of acid is 5 molar. D. 0.04 Moles of Cu metal is produced. 5 +2 9 E. The solution contains 26.2 g of Zn . 6110034 C 14 33746 31 01380008055351 9000 The concentration of pure water (in moles per liter) is 9 A. 1.00 B. 18.0 C. 55.6 D. 1000 6110035 C 14 33748 32 05531173008751 9000 How many moles of NaOH must be used to prepare 100 liters of a solution having a pH of 12? 9 A. 0.01 B. 0.1 C. 1.0 D. 10 6110036 B 14 33750 32 05531173008751 9000 How many moles of HCl must be used to prepare 100 liters of a solution having a pH of 3.0? 9 A. .01 B. 0.1 C. 1 D. 3 6110037 A 14 33752 32 00870138010051 9000 A one-liter solution containing 31.5 g nitric acid has a concentration of 9 A. 0.5 M B. 3.15 M C. 3.15% by weight D. 1.0 M 6110038 C 14 33754 32 07980087085351 9000 What is the molality of a solution containing 0.64 g naphthalene (M.W. = 128) In 100 g benzene? 5 -3 -3 -2 -1 9 A. 4 x 10 B. 5 x 10 C. 5 x 10 D. 4 x 10 . 6110039 D 14 33757 32 11730445008751 9000 5 3 A student wishes to prepare 250 cm of 0.4 M CuSO . What weight 4 4 of CuSO .5H O would be required for this solution? 4 4 2 9 A. 7.8 g B. 10.9 g C. 21.9 g D. 25 g. 6110040 C 15 33761 32 013801400288 0028 What is the molarity of a solution containing 981 g of sulfuric acid in sufficient water to make 2000 ml of solution? 9 A. 10.0 M B. 1.00 M C. 5.00 M D. 20.0 M E. 2.50 M 6110041 D 15 33764 32 013801400288 0028 Calculate the number of grams of sodium chloride necessary to prepare 200 ml of 2.00 molar sodium chloride solution. 9 A. 2.34 g B. 5.85 g C. 58.5 g D. 23.49 g E. 11.7 g 6110042 A 15 33767 31 055301070140 0020 The number of moles of a solute in a given volume of solution equals the A. volume times the molarity B. mass of the solute in g divided by the molecular mass of the solvent C. volume of the solvent times the number of moles of solvent D. number of moles of solute in 100 ml of solution 9 E. none of these 6110043 D 15 33772 52 039805530546 0020 What mass of CuSO is needed to prepare 5.00 liters of a 0.600 M 4 4 solution? A. 1.5 moles B. 2 moles C. 160 g D. 479 g 9 E. none of these 6110044 A 15 33775 32 055305460087 0020 How many moles of KOH are contained in 4.00 liters of a 0.200 M solution? 9 A. 0.800 B. 0.400 C. 0.600 D. 2.00 E. 1.60 6110045 B 15 33777 52 021500871173 0020 How many grams of sodium hydroxide are needed to prepare 500 cc of a 0.500 M solution? 9 A. 1.00 B. 10.0 C. 5.00 D. 2.50 E. none of these 6110046 E 15 33779 52 019500870209 0020 What volume of 0.100 M solution can be prepared from 40.0 ml of 0.800 M HCl? 9 A. 50 ml B. 100 ml C. 150 ml D. 40 ml E. 320 ml 6110047 B 15 33781 52 014000870103 0020 What is the molarity of 500 mL of solution containing 30.0 g of acetic acid? 9 A. 0.500 M B. 1.00 M C. 1.50 M D. 2.00 M E. 60.0 M 6110048 A 15 33783 52 019500871174 0020 What volume of 0.500 molar solution can be prepared from 100 g of Na CO .10H O 4 2 3 2 A. 700 ml B. 350 ml C. 1.40 liters D. 500 ml 9 E. none of these 6110049 D 15 33786 52 054600080087 0020 One liter of water is added to 200 cc of 0.600 M HCl solution. What is the concentration of the final solution? 9 A. 1.00 M B. 1.20 M C. 0.300 M D. 0.100 M E. 3.6 M 6110050 D 15 33789 52 0137 40 MSU The density of a salt solution is 1.5 grams per milliliter. If 100 ml of solution contain 50 g of salt, what is the percent by weight of salt in the solution ? 9 A. 500 B. 670 C. 330 D. 30 E. 150 6110051 E 15 33792 31 006100870255 0020 5 - A base solution has an OH ion concentration of 0.0001 mole/liter. What is the concentration of hydronium ions? 5 -4 10 4 -10 9 A. 0.0001 M B. 10 M C. 10 M D. 10 M E. 10 M 6110052 C 14 33796 32 055305540138 0009 When one mole of KCl is dissolved in a kilogram of water, the 5 - concentration of Cl is: 9 A. 0.5 molal B. 0.5 molar C. 1.0 molal D. 1.0 molar 6110053 C 15 33799 32 117300870795 0019 How many grams of KOH are required to prepare 300 ml of a 0.50 M solution? 9 A. 0.34 B. 3.7 C. 8.4 D. 9.5 E. none is correct 6110054 D 15 33801 32 008701951291 0019 In order to make a 2.5 molar solution of sulfuric acid from 50 ml of a 6.0 molar solution, it is necessary to add a volume of H O equal to: 4 2 9 A. 120 ml B. 60 ml C. 240 ml D. 70 ml E. 300 ml 6110055 D 15 33804 32 055400870140 0019 12 grams of NaOH are dissolved in enough water to give 500 ml of solution. What is the molarity of the solution? 9 A. 1.2 M B. 0.3 M C. 1.0 M D. 0.6 M E. none of these 6110056 B 15 33807 32 05540134 0019 5.85 grams of NaCl is dissolved in 16.2 grams of H O. The X 4 2 NaCl is: 9 A. 0.11 B. 0.10 C. 0.36 D. 3.0 E. none of these 6110057 E 15 33810 32 013900870795 0019 What is the molality of a solution of 5.85 grams NaCl in 180 grams of H O? 4 2 9 A. 10.0 B. 0.322 C. 1.00 D. 0.556 E. none of these 6110058 A 15 33813 32 014000870795 0019 What is the molarity of a solution of 5.85 grams of NaCl in 200 ml of solution? 9 A. 0.50 B. 2.92 C. 0.029 D. 5.0 E. none of these 6110059 A 15 33815 31 010700870112 0040 A solution, by definition, may contain A. only one solvent but many solutes B. many solvents but only one solute C. only one solvent and only one solute D. more than one response is correct 9 E. no correct response is given. 6110060 A 15 33819 51 010700870112 0040 Which of the following attractions that occur in solution formation would act in favor of a solution forming? A. solvent-solute C. solvent-solvent E. van der Waals 9 B. solute-solute D. electrostatic 6110061 A 15 33823 31 010700870112 0040 In which of the following solutions could the substance X not be 3 ___ classified as the solvent? 3 _______ A. Solution of 10 g A and 5 g X B. Solution of 10 g A and 10 g X C. Solution of 20 g A and 20 g X D. Solution of 10 g A and 30 g X 9 E. no correct response is given. 6110062 E 15 33828 32 011001070112 0040 Consider a solution made up of 10 g of sugar and 100 g of H O 4 2 A. Water is the solute B. Sugar is the solvent C. Both sugar and water are solvents D. Both sugar and water are solutes 9 E. no correct response is given. 6110063 B 15 33832 32 0732 0040 An isotonic salt solution is 0.9% NaCl in water. What weight of salt is contained in 1 kg of such a solution? A. 90 g B. 9.0 g C. 0.9 g D. .09 g 9 E. no correct response is given. 6110064 B 15 33835 52 073201100130 0040 The solubility of sodium chloride (NaCl) in water is 36 g per 100 g of water. A saturated solution of sodium chloride in water is what percentage water by weight? 3 _____ A. 26.4 B. 73.6 C. 30.0 D. 64.0 9 E. no correct response is given. 6110065 D 14 33839 52 1173 0087 0009 The number of grams of Na SO required to prepare 2.00 L of a 1.5 M 4 2 4 solution is: 9 A. 3 B. 213 C. 142 D. 426 6110066 D 14 33842 52 133400870137 0009 To obtain 12.0 g of K CrO from a solution labeled "5.0% K CrO 4 2 4 2 4 by weight", how many grams of solution should you weigh out? 9 A. 2.4 B. 5.0 C. 12 D. 240 6110067 C 14 33845 32 0142 0003 A 0.010 M solution of Ca(OH) is: 4 2 A. 0.0050 N Ca(OH) B. 0.010 N Ca(OH) 4 2 2 C. 0.020 N Ca(OH) D. 0.050 N Ca(OH) 94 2 2 6110068 B 14 33849 52 0142 0003 In order to prepare 1.4 liters of 0.75 N H SO , the weight of 4 2 4 H SO needed is: 4 2 4 9 A. 0.46 g B. 52 g C. 46 g D. 88 g 6110069 D 15 33852 32 013400920186 0047 What is the mole fraction of HCl in an aqueous solution of density 1.19 g/ml and having 37% by weight. 9 A. 1.0 B. 0.0 C. 0.5 D. 0.225 E. 0.370 6110070 B 14 33855 72 1955 0062 A 50% alcohol solution in water by volume is made by adding A. 50 ml of alcohol to 50 ml of water B. 50 ml of alcohol to water and diluting the mixture to a final volume of 100 ml with water C. 50 ml of alcohol to 100 ml of water D. 50 ml of water to alcohol and diluting the mixture to a 9 final volume of 100 ml with alcohol 6110071 D 14 33860 32 055400080087 OS90 1.00 g of AlCl is dissolved in enough water to make 0.300 liter 4 3 5 - of solution. The molarity of Cl in the solution is 5 -3 -2 A. 6.50 x 10 M B. 2.50 x 10 M 5 -2 -2 9 C. 1.00 x 10 M D. 7.50 x 10 M. 6110072 C 14 33867 72 19550142 0062 Assume that a solution contains 42.0 g of H XO per liter and that 4 2 4 the molecular weight of H XO is 420. Calculate the normality of 4 2 4 this solution when used in the following reaction: H XO + 8 HI ---> 4 I + H X + 4 H O 4 2 4 2 2 2 9 A. 0.10 B. 0.50 C. 0.80 D. 1.00 6110073 A 15 33873 32 0137 40 MSU Commercial sulfuric acid is 98 percent H SO and 2 percent H O. 4 2 4 2 The weight of 1.0 liter of the acid is 1841 g and contains how many grams of water ? 9 A. 37 g B. 3.68 g C. 2.0 g D. 17 g E. 66 g 6110074 A 15 33877 52 0137 40 MSU How many grams of water must be used to dissolve 0.05 mole CaBr 4 2 to make a solution which is 10 percent by weight CaBr ? 4 2 9 A. 90 B. 100 C. 16.2 D. 18 E. 99.5 6110075 B 15 33881 52 0137 40 MSU When 5.0 moles of HF are dissolved in 200 g of water, what is the percent by weight of HF in the solution ? 9 A. 90 B. 330 C. 500 D. 200 E. 670 6110076 A 15 33884 52 0139 40 MSU What is the molality of a solution composed of 16 grams of oxygen gas dissolved in 2000 grams of ether? 9 A. 0.25 m B. 0.5 m C. 1.0 m D. 1.6 m E. 3.2 m 6110077 B 15 33887 52 0139 40 MSU How many grams of HF must be dissolved in 1000 grams of water to make a 2.0 molal solution ? 9 A. 2000 g B. 40 g C. 10 g D. 80 g E. 20 g 6110078 E 15 33889 52 0139 40 MSU How many grams of ZnBr must be dissolved in 100 g of water 4 2 to make a 0.1 molal solution ? 9 A. 22.5 g B. 1.45 g C. 11.3 g D. 1.25 g E. 2.25 g 6110079 B 15 33892 52 0139 40 MSU What is the molality of a solution composed of 1.0 gram of KNO dissolved in 250 g ethanol ? 4 3 9 A. 0.025 B. 0.04 C. 0.01 D. 2.5 E. 0.004 6110080 B 15 33895 52 0139 40 MSU What is the molality of a solution composed of 168 grams of CsCl dissolved in 500 grams of water ? 9 A. 1.7 B. 2.0 C. 1.0 D. 0.5 E. 5.0 6110081 B 15 33898 52 0139 40 MSU How many grams of SO must be dissolved in 1000 grams of 4 2 liquid carbon tetrachloride to make a solution whose 5 -2 concentration is 1.0 x 10 molal ? 9 A. 1.28 B. 0.64 C. 0.32 D. 6.4 E. 3.2 6110082 C 15 33902 52 0139 40 MSU What is the molality of a solution composed of 13.2 grams of CO dissolved in 500 grams of ethanol? 4 2 9 A. 13.2 B. 3.0 C. 0.6 D. 0.3 E. 0.1 6110083 E 15 33905 52 0139 40 MSU How many grams of LiF must be dissolved in 1000 grams of water to make a solution whose concentration is 7.0 molal ? 9 A. 7.0 B. 14 C. 26 D. 91 E. 182 6110084 B 15 33908 52 OS83 10 g each of p-dichlorobenzene, C H Cl and p-nitrotoluene, C H CH NO 4 6 4 2 6 4 3 2 5 o are mixed at 100 C. The mole fraction of p-dichlorobenzene is 9 A. 0.45 B. 0.48 C. 0.50 D. 0.52 E. 0.55 6120001 D 15 33912 71 008701950140 0044 5 2+ If 26.0 ml of 0.100 M Sn solution is added to 16.0 ml of 5 3+ 0.200 M Fe solution, the solution will contain (after reaction) which one of the choices below? Assume no shrinkage in volume upon mixing. The reaction is: 5 2+ 3+ 4+ 2+ Sn + 2 Fe -----> Sn + 2 Fe 5 2+ A. 0.0143 M Sn 5 3+ B. 0.0238 M Fe 5 4+ C. 0.0615 M Sn 5 3+ D. 0.0000 M Fe 5 2+ 9 E. 0.0476 M Sn 6120002 C 15 33920 52 02150209 13 ETS2 OS In neutralizing 50 ml of a solution of NaOH containing 0.5 mole per liter the volume of 2.0 molar HCl required will be 9 A. 25 mL B. 100 mL C. 12.5 mL D. 20 mL E. none is correct 6120003 B 15 33923 52 02090215 13 ETS2 OS How many mL of 3.00 M HCl are required to neutralize 500 mL of 2.00 M NaOH? 9 A. 300 B. 333 C. 660 D. 375 E. 750 6120004 A 15 33926 52 109711840140 0042 When a 50 ml sample of nitric acid is titrated with 0.20 N sodium hydroxide solution, 30 ml of the base are required to reach the end point. What is the molarity of the nitric acid sample? 9 A. 0.12 B. 0.20 C. 0.32 D. 2.5 E. 0.68 6120005 D 15 33930 32 059900870274 0042 An unknown solution is to be analyzed to determine the percent by weight of KHSO in the solution. A 25.0 ml sample of the unknown 4 4 solution requires 32.80 ml of 1.10 N NaOH solution for neutralization. The density of the solution is found to be 1.460 g/ml. Assuming that the KHSO present is the only material in the 4 4 sample that would react with the NaOH solution, what is the percent KHSO in the solution? 4 4 (Formula weight of KHSO : 136.2.) 4 4 9 A. 0.448% B. 19.7% C. 4.48% D. 13.5% E. some other value. 6120006 A 15 33938 52 14470056 0042 40 ml of 2M H SO are equivalent to: 4 2 4 A. 160 ml of 1N KOH B. 40 ml of 2N KOH C. 80 ml of 1M KOH D. 20 ml of 4M KOH 9 E. 40 ml of 1N KOH 6120007 B 15 33941 32 008700560142 0042 One hundred milliliters of a solution of sulfuric acid is titrated with 0.50N KOH solution. The solution is neutralized after 75 ml of the KOH is added. The normality of the sulfuric acid solution is? 9 A. 0.188 N B. 0.375 N C. 0.665 N D. 0.750 N E. 1.50 N 6120008 B 15 33945 52 0044 In the determination of chromium in an ore, all the chromium is 5 2- converted to Cr O , dichromate ion. This is titrated with a 4 2 7 5 2+ standard Fe solution. 5 2+ 2- + 3+ 3+ 6 Fe + Cr O + 14 H -----> 6 Fe + 2 Cr + 7 H O 4 2 7 2 How many grams of chromium are present in an ore sample which 5 -2 2+ required 39.5 ml of 6.89 x 10 M Fe solution to titrate it (AW of Cr = 52, AW of Fe = 55.8 grams/mole). 5 -1 -2 A. 1.42 x 10 grams B. 4.73 x 10 grams 5 -1 -2 -2 9 C. 1.52 x 10 grams D. 2.36 x 10 grams E. 9.81 x10 grams 6120009 D 15 33956 52 11840007 0044 In the determination of iron in ore, all the iron is brought into 5 2+ the Fe state, whereupon it can be titrated with a standard 5 3+ oxidizing agent to the Fe state. How many milligrams of iron are present in an ore sample which required 23.5 ml of 0.115 N oxidizing agent to titrate it? (AW of Fe is 55.8) 5 4 A. 2.70 milligrams B. 2.07 x 10 milligrams C. 0.0484 milligrams D. 151 milligrams 9 E. cannot be determined from the information supplied. 6120010 D 15 33963 52 109717871184 0044 A 2.09 gram sample of iron ore is dissolved in acid and the iron quantitatively converted to the Fe(II) state. The solution is 5 4+ then titrated against standard Ce in an acidic medium. The 5 4+ titration requires 39 milliliters of .280 molar Ce . 5 2+ 4+ 3+ 3+ The titration reaction is: Fe + Ce -----> Fe + Ce What is the percentage iron in the ore? 9 A. 87.9 B. 43.9 C. 38.1 D. 29.3 E. 35.1 6120011 B 15 33971 52 055402361184 0044 A 0.629 gram sample of limestone is dissolved in an acidic solution, and then the calcium is precipitated as calcium oxalate, CaC O . After filtering and washing the precipitate, 4 2 4 5 2- 30.4 ml of 0.108 molar S O in acid is required to titrate it. 4 2 8 What is the percentage Ca in the sample? The (unbalanced) titration reaction is: 5 2- 2- 2- C O + S O -----> CO + SO 4 2 4 2 8 2 4 9 A. 77.0 B. 20.9 C. 23.0 D. 79.1 E. 25.0 6120012 C 15 33979 52 019500870522 0044 What volume of a concentrated HCl solution must be diluted to prepare 3.50 liters of a solution that is 0.900 molar in HCl? The concentrated HCl solution is 38.0 percent by weight and has density 1.188 grams per milliliter. 9 A. 2650 ml B. 0.255 ml C. 255 ml D. 93.0 ml E. 82.9 ml 6120013 B 15 44973 51 A 10.0 mL aliquot of 0.1 M H PO was titrated with 0.1 M NaOH. 4 3 4 The diagram below shows the pH response to the addition of various amounts of NaOH | x. | . E | . 10| . | . | x D | .. 8| .. | x | .. C | . 6| . | . pH | . | . 4| x | . B | .. | ..x 2| .. A |. | | 4 0------------------------------------------------ 3 . . . . . 0 10 20 30 40 mL of NaOH At point B the principal phosphate species present is 5 - 2- 3- + A. H PO B. H PO C. HPO D. PO E. H PO 94 3 4 2 4 4 4 4 4 6120014 B 14 33983 32 01050080013851 9000 If 25 ml 4.0 M HCl neutralizes 75 ml NaOH solution, what is the concentration of NaOH? 9 A. 1.00 M B. 1.33 M C. 3.0 M D. 6.0 M 6120015 BBD 34 33985 32 1183009110555190 9000 MACROITEM STEM 2A 10.0 ml aliquot of 0.1 M H P O (pyrophosphoric acid) was 4 4 2 7 2titrated with 0.1 M NaOH. The diagram below shows the pH 2response to the addition of various amounts of NaOH. 2 2 2 | ..x.. 2 | . E 2 | . 2 5| . 2 | . 2 | . 2 | . 2 4| . 2 | x D 2 | . 2 | . 2 3| . 2 | . 2 pH | . 2 | . 2 2| . 2 | ....x... 2 | . C 2 | x B 2 1| . 2 | ...x... 2 |. A 2 | 4 0---------------------------------------------- 3 . . . . . 2 0 10 20 30 40 2 2 ml of NaOH 2 2 02 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 At point B the principal pyrophosphate species present is 5 - 2- 3- A. H P O B. H P O C. H P O D. HP O 14 4 2 7 3 2 7 2 2 7 2 7 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 5 - 2- At point C the ratio of [H P O ]/[H P O ] is 4 3 2 7 2 2 7 A. 0.5 B. 1 C. 2 2 D. indeterminate unless the dissociation constants are known. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 The end-point for the reaction 5 - - H P O + NaOH <=====> NaH P O + H O 4 3 2 7 2 2 7 2 is the point labelled 9 A. A B. B C. C D. D 6120016 E 15 34008 52 008007200288 0028 If pure sodium hydroxide (2.00 g) is titrated with 20.0 ml of hydrochloric acid solution to a phenolphthalein end-point, calculate the molarity of the hydrochloric acid solution. 9 A. 20.0 M B. 0.0250 M C. 0.0500 M D. 5.00 M E. 2.50 M 6120017 B 15 34012 52 019500870236 0020 What volume of 0.400 M sodium chloride solution must be added to 200 ml of a 0.800 M silver nitrate solution to precipitate all the silver ions as silver chloride? 9 A. 180 ml B. 400 ml C. 800 cc D. 200 ml E. none of these 6120018 D 14 34016 51 009011830236 0009 5 2- - + CrO is used as an indicator in the titration of Cl with Ag 4 4 because 5 - A. it is yellow, whereas Cl is colorless B. Ag CrO , unlike AgCl, is soluble in water 4 2 4 C. Ag CrO precipitates before AgCl 4 2 4 5 - D. Ag CrO precipitates only when virtually all the Cl has 4 2 4 9 reacted 6120019 C 14 34023 32 11670138 0009 When 500 ml of 0.10 M NaOH is reacted with 500 ml of 0.20 M HCl, 5 + the final concentration of H is: 5 -7 9 A. 0.10 M B. 0.20 M C. 0.050 M D. 10 M 6120020 A 14 34026 51 162611730195 0009 A student wishes to prepare 100 cc of 0.50 M NaCl from 2.00 M NaCl. What volume of the more concentrated solution should he start with? 9 A. 25 cc B. 50 cc C. 100 cc D. 400 cc 6130001 C 15 34029 32 00910077 11 ETS2 OS Which of the following is not true? 3 ___ A. The pH is a measure of hydronium ion concentration. B. A solution of pH 10 is basic. C. A solution of pH 8 is acidic. D. The hydroxide ion concentration multiplied by the hydronium ion concentration is equal to a constant number. E. The hydronium ion concentration is equal to the hydroxide 9 ion in pure water. 6130002 A 14 34035 31 2WVW A solution with more hydrogen ions than hydroxide ions is A. acid B. alkaline C. neutral 9 D. salty 6130003 C 15 34037 32 009100870138 0042 5 + The pH of a solution is 9.30. What is the H concentration? 5 -9 -9 -10 A. 2.0 x 10 M B. 3.0 x 10 M C. 5.0 x 10 M 5 -9 -9 9 D. 8.8 x 10 M E. 9.2 x 10 M. 6130004 D 15 34041 31 009900920087 0042 In a neutral aqueous solution the pH is: 9 A. fourteen B. zero C. eight D. seven E. six. 6130005 B 15 34043 32 009100870215 0042 5 -4 What is the pH of a 4 x 10 M NaOH solution? 9 A. 11.6 B. 10.6 C. 10.0 D. 3.4 E. 5.8. 6130006 A 14 34045 52 009100871443 0043 The pH of a solution whose hydronium-ion concentration is 0.0010 m is: 9 A. 3.0 B. 5.0 C. 9.0 D. 11.0 6130007 A 14 34047 32 10970100009151 9000 A one -liter sample of nitric acid solution has a pH of 2. How many grams of HNO does this sample contain? 4 3 9 A. .01 x 1 x 63 B. 2 x 1 x 63 C. 1 x 1 x 63 D. 10 x 2 x 63. 6130008 C 15 34050 51 106000910077 0018 A solution of an antacid tablet with a pH of 6 would be: A. basic B. very acidic C. slightly acidic D. neutral 9 E. none of these 6130009 A 15 34052 32 009107320288 0028 The pH of a solution whose hydrogen ion concentration is 5 -3 4.0 x 10 moles/liter is 9 A. 2.4 B. 2.7 C. 3.0 D. 11.6 E. 11.0 6130010 D 14 34054 32 009100770732 0026 What is the pH of a solution .01 M in HCl? 9 A. 1 B. .01 C. 5 D. 2. 6130011 C 15 34056 31 009201380099 0020 5 - -7 An aqueous solution has an OH ion concentration of 10 mole/liter. This solution A. is basic B. is acidic C. is neutral D. is a strong electrolyte 9 E. readily conducts an electric current 6130012 C 15 34060 52 009102091174 0020 What is the pH of a 0.000 001 M solution of HCl? 9 A. 4 B. 5 C. 6 D. 7 E. none of these 6130013 A 15 34062 52 009100870138 0020 What is the pH of a solution whose hydronium ion concentration is 0.002 M? A. 2.70 B. -2.70 C. 2.30 D. 3.20 9 E. 2.40 6130014 A 15 34064 31 00911182 0020 pH + pOH 5 -14 -14 9 A. +14 B. -14 C. 10 + 14 D. +log 10 E. -log 10 6130015 B 15 34066 52 118211740087 0020 What is the pOH of a 0.0002 M solution of nitric acid? 9 A. 3.7 B. 10.3 C. 4.2 D. 9.8 E. none of these 6130016 B 15 34068 32 00910739 0040 The pH of a solution is 8. The pOH of the same solution would be 5 -8 A. 8 B. 6 C. 10 D. cannot be determined from the information given 9 E. no correct response is given. 6130017 D 15 44464 32 009114430072 0040 The pH of household ammonia is 11, therefore 5 + - - -11 A. [H ] = 11 M B. [OH ] = 11 M C. [OH ] = 10 M 5 + -11 + -3 9 D. [H ] = 10 M E. [H ] = 10 M 6130018 D 15 34074 32 009114431182 0040 5 - -4 The concentration of OH in a solution is 10 . Therefore A. the pH = 4 B. the pH = 10 C. the pOH = 4 D. more than one response is correct 9 E. no correct response is given. 6130019 D 15 34078 32 00911143 0040 The pH of a solution is 8. This means the hydrogen ion concentration is 5 8 A. 8 molar B. 1 x 10 molar C. 0.00000008 molar D. 0.00000001 molar 9 E. no correct response is given. 6130020 E 15 34081 32 009111431182 0040 Some laundry detergents were recently declared unsafe because they produced wash water with a pH near 11. This alkaline pH 5 - corresponds to an OH concentration of 5 -3 A. 11 B. 3 C. 14 D. 14/11 9 E. no correct response is given. 6130021 B 15 34085 32 009111430061 0040 The common cleaning agent trisodium phosphate reacts when placed in water to give a pH of about 12. this cleaning solution would be classified as A. very acidic B. very basic C. near neutral D. slightly basic 9 E. no correct response is given. 6130022 D 14 34089 52 009100870138 0009 5 + The pH of a solution is 5.5. The concentration of H is about 5 -6 -5 -5 -6 9 A. 1 x 10 M B. 1 x 10 M C. 3 x 10 M D. 3 x 10 M 6130023 B 14 34093 32 008702090091 0009 A 0.10 M solution of HCl would have a pH of 9 A. 0 B. 1.0 C. 7.0 D. 13.0 6130024 D 15 34095 52 1966 WEBB The pH of 0.1 M NaOH aqueous solution is 9 A. 14 B. 1 C. 7 D. 13 E. 0 6200001 D 15 34097 52 05230276008713 ETS2 OS Arrhenius refers to "objections" to his theory "which may probably be urged from the chemical side." Which of the following could be an objection of this sort? A. There is no reason to believe that the osmotic pressures of solutions at the same temperature and with the same number of particles are necessarily equal. B. Arrhenius' theory carries the implication that an electric current can cause chemical changes. C. Solutions of electrolytes do not possess an electric charge. D. The chemical properties of a solution of an electrolyte are not the properties of its constituents; e.g., a solution of sodium chloride does not have the properties of sodium or of chlorine. E. When substances dissociate or decompose chemically (as in the reaction NH Cl---> NH + HCl) the result is an increase 4 4 3 9 in pressure. 6200002 D 15 34109 51 00180077008705 MSU Which of the following salts will hydrolyze to give a basic solution: NH NO , NaCN, KCl, K CO ? 4 4 3 2 3 A. NH NO only C. KCl and NaCN E. all of these 4 4 3 B. NaCN only D. NaCN and K CO 94 2 3 6200003 B 15 34113 51 00610087 05 MSU Which of the following 0.10 M solutions will be acidic NaHS, KBr, K CO , NH I? 4 2 3 4 A. NH I and NaHS C. NaHS and K CO E. K CO only 4 4 2 3 2 3 B. NH I only D. KBr 94 4 6210001 C 14 34117 32 040700080255 2 OS The reaction between polar water molecules and acids always results in the formation of A. chloride ions B. hydroxide ions C. hydronium ions 9 D. sulfate ions 6210002 C 15 34120 51 00610106 11 ETS2 OS All of the following are characteristic of a base except 3 ______ A. it contains hydroxyl ions B. it tastes sour C. it turns phenolphthalein blue D. it can be prepared by dissolving oxides of metals in water 9 E. it furnishes negative ions 6210003 ACDEBCCAB95 34124 52 0077006100181190 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2After each item number on the answer sheet, blacken space 2 A. if the item is generally true of acids 2 B. if the item is generally true of bases 2 C. if the item is generally true of salts 2 D. if the item is generally true of all of the above 0 E. if the item is generally true of none of the above MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 5 + 1 Furnish an excess of H ions in water solution MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 Are not usually classified as weak or strong MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 3 Will conduct an electrical current when dissolved in water MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 4 Are always covalent compounds when dissolved in water MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 5 A water solution will turn litmus blue. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 6 6 May be formed during the process of neutralization MACRO SUB-ITEM # 7 7 AgCl is an example. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 8 8 Vinegar is used because it contains this type of compound MACRO SUB-ITEM # 9 9 Ordinary lye would be classified under this heading 6210004 B 14 34134 52 055300020056 2WVW The number of moles of sodium hydroxide needed to completely neutralize one mole of sulfuric acid is A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 9 D. 4 6210005 CABABED 75 34136 31 0077006100181190 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2The following items are concerned with statements and equations 2in chemistry. Select from the key the most appropriate response 2for each item. 2 A. Bases 2 B. Acids 2 C. Salts 2 D. Acid salts 0 E. Basic salts MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 The positive part of the base (metallic) and the negative part of 1 The acid (usually non-metallic) form a new compound MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 Soapy taste MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 Ability to release hydrogen gas when in contact with certain 3 metals MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 4 The solution contains many hydroxyl ions MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 HC H O 54 2 3 2 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 6 Cu (OH) CO (malachite) 64 2 2 3 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 7 9 Excess of acid present during the formation of a new compound. 6210006 C 15 34144 52 2WVW Which of the following materials would you expect to be a weak electrolyte? A. NaOH B. Sodium acetate C. Acetic acid D. NaCl 9 E. Both B and C 6210007 A 14 34147 52 19490845 0060 In which pair is neither oxide amphoteric? A. N O , P O B. P O , As O C. As O , Sb O D. Sb O , Bi O 94 2 3 4 6 4 6 4 6 4 6 2 3 2 3 2 3 6210008 C 14 34150 31 2WVW Hydroxyl ions are associated with A. vitamins B. acids C. bases 9 D. elements 6210009 D 14 34152 31 2WVW The fact that dilute hydrochloric acid is a typical acid is indicated by its A. color B. odor C. solubility 9 D. taste 6210010 BDA 34 34154 31 008200660015 90 2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2For each of the numbered items which follow, choose the option 2which best matches. 2 A. Basic anhydride 2 B. Acid anhydride 2 C. Resonance 0 D. Analysis MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 An oxide of a nonmetal which unites with water to form a solution 1 which contains an acid MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 A breaking apart to determine the compositon, as of a chemical 2 compound MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 An oxide of a metal which united with water to form a solution 9 which contains a base 6210011 D 14 34160 31 082800700061 2 OS According to the Bronsted theory of ionization A. the same substance cannot function both as acid and base B. any acid can yield a base by gaining a proton C. a base cannot be a cation 9 D. a base may be an electrically neutral substance 6210012 D 14 34164 31 000800770255 2 OS All water-soluble acids A. produce hydrogen with zinc B. are equally strong C. produce salts that are very soluble in water 9 D. react with water to produce hydronium ions 6210013 A 14 34167 31 007701961296 0041 Acids invariably contain 9 A. hydrogen B. oxygen C. chlorine D. water 6210014 D 14 34169 31 144500610075 0041 A characteristic of bases is that A. they taste sour B. they taste sweet C. they contain hydrogen with or without oxygen 5 - 9 D. they contain one or more hydroxide OH groups per molecule 6210015 C 15 34173 31 08280249 0028 Which one of the following is said to be amphiprotic? 5 1- 2- 2- A. HCl B. NaOH C. HCO D. CO E. SO 9 3 3 4 6210016 A 15 44904 52 117700870089 0020 The Arrhenius theory says A. solutions of electrolytes contain ions B. electrons are responsible for the conductance of an electric current through electrolytic solutions C. conductivity is independent of the degree of dissociation D. positive ions migrate toward a positive electrode 9 E. molecules are responsible for the conductance of a solution 6210017 D 14 34180 52 0804 0019 The anhydride of HClO is _______. 4 4 5 - A. ClO B. ClO C. ClO D. Cl O 94 3 4 2 2 7 6210018 D 15 34183 31 051413730523 0034 The electrolytic theory was proposed by 9 A. Faraday B. Davy C. Volta D. Arrhenius E. Bronsted 6210019 D 14 34185 52 194903480215 0060 The least soluble in NaOH or least reactive with NaOH is: A. As O B. As O C. Sb O D. Bi O 94 2 3 2 5 2 3 2 3 6211001 B 15 34187 31 00180087001911 ETS2 OS When salts ionize in solution, they split into positive and negative ions. Which one of the following forms a negative ion? A. hydrogen B. hydroxide C. ammonium D. calcium 9 E. sodium 6211002 A 15 34190 31 00770019 11 ETS2 OS An acid A. is a substance which, when dissolved in the proper solvent, ionizes to produce hydrogen ions B. is a substance which, under proper conditions, gives up protons C. is an electrovalent hydrogen compound D. produces an aqueous solution with a pH larger than 7 9 E. is any compound containing hydrogen 6211003 E 15 34195 31 00770061009711 ETS2 OS An acid A. is an electrovalent hydrogen compound B. is a covalent compound which gives hydrogen ions when dissolved in non-polar solvents C. produces aqueous solutions whose pH is greater than 7 D. is always a neutral molecule 9 E. has a tendency to give up protons to bases 6211004 B 15 34199 31 00770081007911 ETS2 OS A substance is an acid if it A. turns phenolphthalein red B. dissociates to give the hydrogen ion C. turns litmus blue D. will yield the OH ion 9 E. always forms an acid salt 6211005 E 15 34202 31 00610088 11 ETS2 OS A solution is said to be basic if it 5 + A. contains H ions B. tastes sour C. turns litmus red D. contains free protons 9 E. contains hydroxyl ions 6211006 A 15 34205 31 01090087 11 ETS2 OS Air can be classed as a (an) A. solution B. mixture of dissociated gases C. element D. electrolyte 9 E. compound 6211007 DABECBCD 85 34207 31 0089001900181190 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2The following items involve chemical substances. Select from the 2key the most closely related term for each item. 2 A. Non-electrolyte 2 B. Electrolyte 2 C. Hydrate 2 D. Ion 0 E. None of these MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 An atom carrying an electric charge MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 A solution of sugar in water MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 Compounds made by borrowing or lending electrons which in 3 solution form conductors MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 An unstable solution in which the solvent contains more solute 4 than it can hold under normal conditions MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 CaSO .2H O 54 4 2 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 6 6 NaCl MACRO SUB-ITEM # 7 A salt combining with a definite amount of water during 7 crystallization MACRO SUB-ITEM # 8 5 + 9 H 6211008 A 14 34215 31 008711781296 0041 5 + While it is convenient to regard acid solutions as containing H ions, it is more correct to describe them as containing A. hydronium ions B. hydroxide ions 9 C. polar molecules D. hydrogen atoms 6211009 D 14 34219 31 00610554 0041 A base dissolved in water liberates 5 + - 9 A. H B. H C. OH D. OH 6211010 C 14 34221 31 08121443 0041 The symbol of the hydronium ion is 5 + + + - A. H B. H O C. H O D. OH 94 2 3 6211011 C 15 34223 31 14990089 0042 Which of the following materials would you expect to be a weak electrolyte? A. NaOH B. sodium acetate C. acetic acid 9 D. NaCl E. both B and C 6211012 A 14 34226 51 003717770248 0043 Choose a compound which is not an acid anhydride: A. H S B. SO C. SeO D. TeO 94 2 2 2 2 6211013 B 14 34228 52 0804 0043 The anhydride of HClO is: 4 4 5 - A. ClO B. Cl O C. ClO D. ClO 94 4 2 7 2 3 6211014 D 15 34230 51 178105190087 0047 An isotonic solution is A. thirst quenching B. salty tasting C. has the same taste as a standard solution D. has the same osmotic pressure as another solution 9 E. has the same color as another solution 6211015 B 15 34233 31 02090224 0020 Hydrochloric acid has the formula A. HCl(g) B. HCl(aq) C. HCl(l) D. HClO 9 E. none of these 6211016 C 15 34235 31 007700610018 0040 The compounds H SO , Na SO , and NaOH when dissolved in water 4 2 4 2 4 function respectively as a(n) A. acid, base, salt B. salt, base, acid C. acid, salt, base D. base, salt, acid 9 E. will not dissolve. 6211017 D 15 34239 31 007701921178 0034 Acids may not be defined as substances that 3 ___ A. bear a complementary relationship to bases B. turn litmus paper red C. have a sour taste 5 - D. produce OH ions when dissolved in water 9 E. neutralize the chemical properties of bases 6211018 A 15 34243 31 138900770192 0034 Acid "strength" is best expressed as A. the tendency of a substance to dissociate to produce hydrogen ions when dissolved in water B. the tendency of a substance to produce hydrogen gas when dissolved in water C. the concentration of the acid in water D. the tendency of an acid such as ha to remain undissociated in water solution E. the number of hydrogen atoms in the undissociated acid molecule; e.g., 2 in H SO , 3 in H PO , etc. 94 2 4 3 4 6212001 C 14 44695 72 040700771331 0043 Reaction of Mg B with acids produces: 4 3 2 A. B O B. MgB O C. B H D. MgB O E. elemental boron 94 2 3 2 4 4 10 4 7 6212002 B 14 34252 51 116900871331 0043 5 + 2- The addition of H O to a solution containing SnS produces: 4 3 3 5 2- 2- A. SnS B. SnS C. SnO D. S 94 2 3 2 6212003 C 15 34256 31 007711670015 0020 Acids A. react with metals to give oxygen B. react with salts to form bases C. have a sour taste D. turn phenolphthalein red 9 E. turn litmus blue 6212004 D 14 34259 32 117302090553 0009 CuCl is prepared from Cu(OH) by adding 0.10 M HCl to 0.20 mole 4 2 2 of solid Cu(OH) . How much HCl should be added? 4 2 9 A. 500 ml B. 1000 ml C. 2000 ml D. some other volume 6212005 B 14 34262 52 1947 0058 The empirical formula of the acid anhydride of Na S O is: 4 2 2 7 A. S O B. SO C. S O D. SO 94 2 7 3 2 6 2 6212006 E 15 34265 52 005608260236 If an unknown solution is known to be either dilute nitric, hydrochloric or sulfuric acid, it can be positively identified as sulfuric acid by adding which of the following? 5 + A. NH (aq) to obtain NH (aq) 4 3 4 5 + B. An indicator to determine the [H ] C. A drop of AgNO solution to see if a precipitate forms. 4 3 D. CH COONa solution to form CH COOH(aq) 4 3 3 E. Ba(NO ) solution to see if a precipitate forms 94 3 2 6212101 B 15 34273 31 00760028 11 ETS2 OS Selenium (Se) is a non-metallic element. If it is caused to combine with oxygen and then water, the result should be A. a salt B. an acid C. an hydroxide 9 E. a chloride 6212102 A 15 34276 31 00780077005711 ETS2 OS When non-metallic oxides like SO are dissolved in water 4 2 A. the solution is acidic B. the solution is basic C. the solution may either be acidic or basic depending upon which non-metallic oxide is broken 9 E. no chemical change occurs 6212103 E 15 34280 51 00780061 11 ETS2 OS Which of the following is not true? 3 ___ A. Some metals react with water to give bases. B. Some metal oxides react with water to give bases. C. Some metal oxides react with water to give acids. D. Some non-metal oxides react with water to give acids. 9 E. Most non-metal oxides react with water to give bases. 6213001 D 14 34285 31 2WVW Because aluminum hydroxide can react with acids as well as with bases, it is called A. allotropic B. isotropic C. isomeric 9 D. amphoteric 6213002 A 15 44669 72 008714430138 0043 One mole of NaOH and one mole of NH Cl are added to enough water 4 4 to make one liter of solution. The hydronium-ion concentration is: 5 -5 (K for ammonia = 1.8 x 10 ) 4 b 5 -12 -10 -3 A. 2.4 x 10 M B. 5.6 x 10 M E. 4.2 x 10 M 5 -14 -5 9 C. 1.0 x 10 M D. 1.8 x 10 M. 6213101 A 15 34293 31 00740061 11 ETS2 OS When oxides of metals are dissolved in water, the resulting solution A. is basic + B. is capable of furnishing H ions C. turns blue litmus red D. is strongly acidic 9 E. is neutral 6213102 A 15 34296 31 00740075 11 ETS2 OS A metallic oxide in water produces a solution that A. is capable of furnishing OH ions B. is capable of furnishing H ions C. fails to conduct an electric current D. exhibits the properties of a non-polar compound 9 E. is neutral 6213103 E 15 34300 51 00150082006111 ETS2 OS A good chemical test for metals is that A. they always displace hydrogen from acids B. a pure metal turns litmus paper blue C. they are all heavier than water D. they are never malleable and ductile 9 E. their oxides tend to form bases when combined with water 6213104 C 15 34304 32 00740262 13 ETS2 OS From consideration of the molecular compositions concerned, deduce the number of molecules of the compound KOH which could be formed by combining 4 molecules of the compound K O with the required amount of water 2 A. 1 B. 2 C. 8 D. 4 9 E. 16 6213105 B 14 34308 32 001500660061 2 OS When an active metal reacts with water, the resulting compound is A. an acid B. a base C. a gas 9 D. a salt 6214002 C 14 34313 31 006100750455 2 OS The most common base is the A. hydrogen ion B. hydronium ion C. hydroxide ion 9 D. ammonium ion 6214003 B 15 34315 32 00870077 0042 Arrange these solutions in order of decreasing acidities: (a) 1 M H SO (b) 1 M HOAc (c) 1 M NH OAc (d) 1 M NH OH 4 2 4 4 4 (e) 1 M NH Cl 4 4 A. a, e, b, d, c B. a, b, e, c, d C. a, c, e, b, d 9 D. a, e, b, c, d E. none of these. 6214004 D 14 44760 32 080604070087 0043 The product(s) of the reaction of NH with HC H O , both in 4 3 2 3 2 solution, is: 5 + - A. H O D. NH + C H O 4 2 4 2 3 2 B. H O + NH C H O E. no reaction 4 2 4 2 3 2 5 + - C. H O + NH + C H O 94 2 4 2 3 2 6214005 B 15 44647 32 0897 51 9000 5 2- The Bronsted-Lowry conjugate acid of HPO is 4 4 5 - 3- - + A. H PO B. H PO C. PO D. H PO E. H 94 3 4 2 4 4 2 3 6214006 D 14 34327 32 10550061008751 9000 The P(V) species most likely to be found in a strongly basic aqueous solution is 5 5+ - 3- A. P B. H PO C. H PO D. PO 94 3 4 2 4 4 6214007 D 14 34330 32 00771424 51 9000 Which of the following is the weakest acid? A. HClO B. HClO C. HClO D. HClO E. HCl 94 4 3 2 6214008 E 15 34332 52 02270077 0028 Acid K at 25 degrees C (mole/l) 4 a 3 ____ ___________________________ 5 -5 acetic acid 1.76 x 10 5 -5 benzoic acid 6.46 x 10 5 -3 chloroacetic acid 1.40 x 10 5 -15 glycerol 7.00 x 10 5 -10 glycine 1.67 x 10 5 -1 naphthalenesulfonic acid 2.70 x 10 5 -4 alpha - naphthoic acid 2.00 x 10 The strongest acid of the above acids is: A. chloroacetic acid B. glycerol C. benzoic acid 9 D. alpha-naphthoic acid E. naphthalenesulfonic acid 6214009 C 15 34346 52 0111 05 STOP If the concentration of a strong electrolyte in water is doubled the depression of the freezing point of the solution (/\T ) is 4 -- f A. doubled B. halved C. almost doubled D. slightly more than doubled 9 E. unaffected 6214010 D 15 34350 71 0107 05 STOP An aqueous 1.0 molal solution has a freezing point of 5 o -0.37 C. A 2.0 molal solution of the same substance has a 5 o freezing point of -0.70 C. Which of the following could be the solute in the above solution? A. Cl B. C H OH C. C H D. LiF E. CaCl 94 2 2 5 6 6 2 6214011 A 14 34355 51 0828 05 STOP In which of the following aqueous reactions is water acting as a Bronsted-Lowry base? 5 + - + - A. HNO + H O = H O + NO C. NH + H O = NH + OH 4 3 2 3 3 3 2 4 5 - B. NaOH + HCl = NaCl + H O D. H + H O = H + OH 94 2 2 2 6214012 A 14 34361 51 0828 05 STOP 5 + - + - In the aqueous reaction NH + H + Br = NH + Br , which 4 3 4 of the following statements is true? A. In the forward reaction, NH is acting as a 4 3 Bronsted-Lowry base. 5 - B. In the forward reaction, Br is acting as an Arrhenius base. 5 + C. In the reverse reaction, NH is acting as an 4 4 Arrhenius base. D. In the forward reaction, NH is acting as an Arrhenius acid. 94 3 6214013 C 15 34370 51 0061 05 STOP In the aqueous reaction H SO + 2NaOH = Na SO + 2H O, NaOH 4 2 4 2 4 2 acts as A. only an Arrhenius base B. only a Bronsted-Lowry base C. a base in both the Arrhenius and Bronsted-Lowry sense D. only an Arrhenius acid 9 E. only a Bronsted-Lowry acid 6214014 D 15 34375 51 0828 05 STOP Propionic acid (HC H O ) and ammonia dissolved in CCl react 4 3 5 2 4 5 + - according to the equation HC H O + NH ---> NH + C H O . 4 3 5 2 3 4 3 5 2 in this reaction NH acts 4 3 A. only as an Arrhenius acid B. only as an Arrhenius base C. only as a Bronsted-Lowry acid D. only as a Bronsted-Lowry base 9 E. a base in both the Arrhenius and Bronsted-Lowry sense 6214015 A 14 34383 51 0061 05 STOP In which of the following reactions is H O acting as a base 4 2 according to both the Lewis theory and the Bronsted-Lowry theory? Water is solvent in each case. 5 + - A. H O + HCl ---> H O + Cl 4 2 3 5 2- - B. O + H O ---> 2OH 4 2 5 - - C. H + H O ---> H + OH 4 2 2 D. H O + CO ---> H CO 94 2 2 2 3 6214016 D 15 34390 31 0828 05 STOP 5 + - - In the reaction NH + Cl ---> NH + HCl, Cl can be 4 4 3 classified as A. an Arrhenius acid D. a Bronsted-Lowry base B. an Arrhenius base E. a Lewis acid 9 C. a Bronsted-Lowry acid 6214017 C 14 34394 31 0828 05 STOP 5 - + In the reaction C H O + NH ---> C H O + NH (in CCl 4 2 4 2 3 2 3 2 4 4 5 + solution), NH is an 4 4 A. Arrhenius acid C. Bronsted-Lowry acid 9 B. Arrhenius base D. neither an acid nor a base 6214018 D 14 34399 31 0828 05 STOP 5 + - - In the reaction H O + NO ---> HNO + H O, NO may be 4 3 3 3 2 3 classified as A. an Arrhenius acid C. a Bronsted-Lowry acid E. amphoteric 9 B. an Arrhenius base D. a Bronsted-Lowry base 6214019 B 15 34403 51 0828 05 STOP In which of the following reactions is the solvent, NH , 4 3 acting as a Bronsted-Lowry acid? 5 + - + + A. NH + HCl ---> NH + Cl D. NH + H ---> NH 4 3 4 3 4 5 + - B. NH + Na ---> NaH + NH E. NH + BF ---> NH BF 4 3 2 3 3 3 3 5 + - C. NH + H O ---> NH + OH 94 3 2 4 6214020 E 15 34411 51 00770061 05 STOP Consider the following reactions: 5 + - H O + C H NH ---> C H NH + OH , and 4 2 6 5 2 6 5 3 5 - + H O + B(OH) ---> OB(OH) + H O 4 2 3 2 3 A. In both reactions H O is acting as a Bronsted-Lowry acid. 4 2 B. In both reactions H O is acting as a Bronsted-Lowry base. 4 2 C. Only in the first reaction is H O acting as a 4 2 Bronsted-Lowry base. D. Only in the second reaction is H O acting as a 4 2 Bronsted-Lowry acid. 9 E. None of the above statements is correct. 6214021 C 15 34421 51 0931 05 STOP 5 - - In the reaction BH + H ---> BH , BH is acting as a 4 3 4 3 A. Bronsted-Lowry acid D. Lewis base B. Bronsted-Lowry base E. conjugate base 9 C. Lewis acid 6214022 C 15 34425 51 0931 05 STOP In the reaction 5 - 2- SiCl + 2Cl ---> SiCl , 4 4 6 SiCl is acting as a 4 4 A. Bronsted-Lowry acid D. Lewis base B. Bronsted-Lowry base E. an Arrhenius base 9 C. Lewis acid 6214023 D 14 34429 51 0932 05 STOP In which of the following reactions is NH acting as a base 4 3 according to the Lewis theory but not according to the Bronsted-Lowry theory? 5 + + - + A. NH + N H ---> NH + N H C. NH + KHF ---> KF + NH 4 3 2 5 4 2 4 3 2 2 4 5 - - B. NH + CH ---> CH + NH D. NH + AlCl ---> Cl AlNH 94 3 3 4 2 3 3 3 3 6214024 A 14 34437 51 0828 05 STOP 5 - - In the reaction NH + CH ---> CH + NH , NH is acting as a 4 3 3 4 2 3 A. Bronsted-Lowry acid C. Lewis acid 9 B. Bronsted-Lowry base D. Lewis base 6214025 B 14 34441 51 0932 05 STOP Which of the following statements is true for the reaction 5 + - LiH + BH ---> Li + BH ? 4 3 4 5 + A. Li is acting as a Lewis base B. LiH is acting as a Lewis base 5 - C. BH is acting as a Bronsted-Lowry acid 4 4 9 D. LiH is acting as an Arrhenius acid 6214026 C 14 34446 51 0932 05 STOP Two molecules A and B form a coordinate covalent bond. If in this bond both electrons originally were a nonbonding pair on molecule A, then A is A. an Arrhenius base B. nonpolar molecule C. a Lewis base 9 D. a Bronsted-Lowry acid 6214027 A 14 34450 51 0931 05 STOP Molecule Z forms a coordinate covalent bond with molecule X by bonding with a lone pair of electrons on X. Therefore, molecule Z is A. a Lewis acid C. an unsymmetrical molecule 9 B. an Arrhenius acid D. a Bronsted-Lowry base 6214028 A 14 34454 51 0061 05 STOP In which of the following reactions is H O acting as a base 4 2 according to both the Lewis theory and the Bronsted-Lowry theory? Water is solvent in each. 5 + - A. H O + HCl = H O + Cl 4 2 3 5 - - B. O + H O = 2OH 4 2 2 5 - - C. H + H O = H + OH 4 2 2 D. H O + CO = H CO 94 2 2 2 3 6214029 A 15 34461 51 0932 05 STOP Consider the following reactions: 5 - - - - F + BF ---> BF and F + H O ---> HF + OH 4 3 4 2 5 - A. In both reactions F is acting as a Lewis base. 5 - B. In both reactions F is acting as a Lewis acid. 5 - C. Only in the first reaction is F acting as a Lewis base. 5 - D. Only in the second reaction is F acting as a Lewis acid. 9 E. None of the above statements is correct. 6214030 D 15 34469 51 0932 05 STOP Which of the following species would be the least likely to act as a Lewis base? 5 - - A. PCl B. CN C. I D. BF E. SCl 94 5 3 2 6214031 D 14 34472 51 0898 05 STOP Which of the following is true for the reaction 5 + + HNO + H O ---> H O + NO ? 4 3 2 3 3 5 + A. HNO is the conjugate acid of H O 4 3 3 5 + B. H O is the conjugate acid of H O 4 2 3 5 + C. H O is the conjugate base of H O 4 3 2 5 - D. NO is the conjugate base of HNO 94 3 3 6214032 C 14 34480 31 0897 05 STOP 5 - - 2- - In the reaction HSO + OH ----> H O + SO , HSO is the 4 4 2 4 4 5 2- 4 2 4 5 2- B. conjugate base of H O D. conjugate base of SO 94 2 4 6214033 C 14 34486 31 0897 05 STOP Consider the reaction 5 - - H O + HF ---> 2HF + OH 4 2 2 Which of the following statements is correct? 5 - A. HF is the conjugate base of HF 4 2 5 - B. OH is the conjugate base of HF 5 - C. H O is the conjugate acid of OH 4 2 5 - - D. HF is the conjugate acid of OH 94 2 6214034 A 14 34493 31 0897 05 STOP 5 - - Consider the reaction H S + NH -----> NH + HS . NH is the 4 2 2 3 3 5 - A. conjugate acid of NH 4 2 5 - B. conjugate base of HS C. conjugate acid of H S 4 2 5 - D. conjugate base of NH 94 2 6214035 B 14 34500 51 0897 05 STOP Which of the following is true for the reaction 5 - - OH + HF ---> H O + F ? 4 2 5 - A. F is the conjugate acid of HF B. H O and HF are both conjugate acids 4 2 5 - - C. OH is the conjugate base of F 5 - 9 D. HF is the conjugate acid of OH 6214036 D 14 34505 51 0898 05 STOP 5 + - Consider the reaction NH OH + HCl ---> NH OH + Cl . Which 4 2 3 of the following statements is correct? 5 + A. NH OH is the conjugate acid of NH OH 4 2 3 B. HCl is the conjugate acid of NH OH 4 2 5 - C. Cl is the conjugate acid of HCl 5 - D. Cl and NH OH are both conjugate bases 94 2 6214037 A 14 34513 51 0898 05 STOP Which of the following is true for the reaction 5 + - H SO + HClO ---> H SO + ClO ? 4 2 4 4 3 4 4 5 + A. H SO is the conjugate base of H SO 4 2 4 3 4 5 - B. ClO is the conjugate acid of HClO 4 4 4 C. H SO and HClO are both conjugate acids 4 2 4 4 5 + D. H SO is the conjugate acid of HClO 94 3 4 4 6214038 C 15 34521 51 0897 05 STOP 5 + 2+ - Consider the reaction N H + H SO ---> N H + HSO . 4 2 5 2 4 2 6 4 Which of the following statements is correct? 5 - A. H SO is the conjugate base of HSO 4 2 4 4 5 2+ - B. N H and HSO are both conjugate bases 4 2 6 4 5 2+ + C. N H is the conjugate acid of N H 4 2 6 2 5 5 + D. H SO is the conjugate acid of N H 4 2 4 2 5 5 + E. N H and H SO are both conjugate acids 94 2 5 2 4 6214039 C 15 34532 51 0898 05 MSU 5 - - Consider the reaction HCl + HSO ---> H SO + Cl . 4 3 2 3 Which of the following statements is correct? 5 - A. HSO and HCl are both conjugate acids 4 3 5 - B. Cl is the conjugate acid of HCl - C. HSO is the conjugate base of H SO 4 3 2 3 5 - D. HSO is the conjugate base of HCl 4 3 E. HCl is the conjugate acid of H SO 94 2 3 6214040 C 15 34540 51 0898 05 MSU Which of the following is true for the reaction 5 - - 2- HCO + HSO ---> H CO + SO ? 4 3 4 2 3 4 5 - - A. HSO is the conjugate acid of HCO 4 4 3 5 2- B. H CO is the conjugate acid of SO 4 2 3 4 5 - C. HCO is the conjugate base of H CO 4 3 2 3 5 - 2- D. HCO is the conjugate acid of SO 4 3 4 5 - 2- E. HSO is the conjugate base of SO 94 4 4 6214041 B 14 34550 51 0898 05 STOP 5 + + - Consider the reaction N H + H SO ---> N H + HSO . 4 2 5 2 4 2 6 4 Which of the following statements is correct? 5 - A. H SO is the conjugate base of HSO . 4 2 4 4 5 + - B. N H and HSO are both conjugate bases. 4 2 5 4 5 2- + C. N H is the conjugate base of N H . 4 2 6 2 5 5 + D. H SO is the conjugate acid of N H . 94 2 4 2 5 6214042 C 15 34560 51 0897 05 STOP 5 + - In the reaction HCN + NH ---> NH + CN , according to the 4 3 4 Bronsted-Lowry theory 5 - A. NH and CN are both acting as acids. 4 3 5 + B. NH and NH are conjugate acids. 4 3 4 5 + C. NH is the conjugate acid of NH 4 4 3 D. HCN is the conjugate acid of NH . 4 3 9 E. none of these is correct. 6214043 B 15 34567 51 08970828 05 STOP 5 2- + - Consider the reaction CO + NH ---> NH + HCO . 4 3 4 3 3 According to the Bronsted-Lowry theory 5 2- A. CO is acting as an acid. 4 3 5 - + B. HCO and NH are both conjugate acids. 4 3 4 5 + - C. NH is the conjugate acid of HCO 4 4 3 5 - D. NH is the conjugate base of HCO . 4 3 3 5 - E. HCO is acting as a base. 94 3 6214044 C 15 34576 51 0898 05 STOP 5 - - Consider the following reaction: HCO + HBr ---> H CO + Br . 4 3 2 3 Which of the following statements is correct? 5 - A. HCO is the conjugate acid of H CO . 4 3 2 3 5 - - B. HCO is the conjugate acid of Br . 4 3 5 - C. HCO is the conjugate base of H CO . 4 3 2 3 5 - D. HCO is the conjugate base of HBr. 4 3 5 - 9 E. HBr is the conjugate base of Br . 6214045 D 15 34585 51 08280897 05 STOP 5 + - Consider the reaction H S + HNO ---> H S + NO . 4 2 3 3 3 According to the Bronsted-Lowry theory 5 + A. H S and H S are conjugate acids. 4 2 3 5 + B. H S and H S are conjugate bases. 4 2 3 5 + C. H S is the conjugate acid of H S . 4 2 3 5 - D. HNO is the conjugate acid of NO . 4 3 3 E. HNO and H S are conjugate acids. 94 3 2 6214046 E 15 34594 51 08280898 05 STOP 5 + - In the reaction PH + HCl ---> PH + Cl , according to the 4 3 4 Bronsted-Lowry theory 5 + A. PH and PH are conjugate bases. 4 3 4 5 - B. Cl is the conjugate acid of HCl. 5 + C. PH is the conjugate acid of PH . 4 3 4 5 + D. HCl is the conjugate acid of PH . 4 4 5 + E. PH is the conjugate base of PH . 94 3 4 6214101 D 15 34603 31 00800077006111 ETS2 OS An acid or base is said to be active or strong if it A. is highly concentrated B. is in a state of equiliubrium C. attacks steel rapidly D. is highly dissociated 9 E. is highly hydrated 6214102 CE 25 34606 52 02090016 1390 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2Aluminum reacts with HCl according to the equation 2Al + HCl = AlCl + H (not balanced) 04 3 2 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 one gram atom of aluminum will liberate how many grams of hydrogen if an excess of HCl is present? A. 1 gram B. 2 grams C. 3 grams D. 4 grams 1 E. 6 grams MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 The atomic weight of chlorine is 35. If as in the question above, one gram atom of aluminum reacts with an excess of HCl how many grams of HCl will be used up? A. 12 grams B. 18 grams C. 36 grams D. 62 grams 9 E. 108 grams 6214103 A 14 34613 31 2WVW Hot, concentrated sulfuric acid will react with copper because the sulfuric acid A. is an oxidizing agent B. is a reducing agent C. is a dehydrating agent D. readily loses hydrogen 9 E. is a hydrating agent 6214104 A 14 34616 31 144600870070 0041 A strong acid or base in solution is completely 9 A. ionized B. neutralized C. hydrolyzed D. precipitated 6214105 D 14 34618 52 1446 0043 Which of the following is the strongest acid? A. HF B. HOCl C. HClO D. HClO 94 2 3 6214106 B 14 34620 52 037014550077 0043 Using only the periodic table choose the strongest acid: A. H PO B. H PO C. H AsO D. H AsO 94 3 3 3 4 3 3 3 4 6214107 D 14 34622 31 08280077 0026 Which of the following is the strongest acid in water? A. H O B. CH COOH C. HCl D. H N E. NaOH 94 2 3 3 6214108 E 15 34624 31 00771445 0019 Which of the following is not characteristic of acids? A. sour taste B. turn litmus red C. neutralize bases to give salts and water D. give hydronium ions in water 9 E. none of these 6214109 C 15 34627 31 144600871447 0019 Strong acids in solution: A. are considered to be partially ionized B. have an equilibrium constant which is greater than 10 C. react with equivalent amounts of strong base to give neutral (pH = 7) solutions D. have pH's ranging from 7-10 depending on the acid 9 E. are HF, HCl, HBr, and HI 6214110 D 14 34632 51 01921446 0019 Which of the following substances is the strongest acid? A. HNO B. HNO C. H SO D. H SO 94 3 2 2 3 2 4 6214111 C 15 34634 31 144600700067 0040 A strong acid, only A. injures your hand if placed on it B. tastes sour B. ionizes completely in solution D. reacts with bases 9 E. turns litmus red. 6214112 C 14 34637 31 001808081446 0009 Which one of the following salts will not be soluble in strong acid? A. PbCO B. CaF C. PbSO D. KCl 94 3 2 4 6214113 B 14 34639 52 19480100 0059 5 0 2+ Choose the first reagent that will convert Cu ---->Cu . A. HCl B. HNO C. HCl + HNO D. saturated chlorine water 94 3 3 6214114 D 14 34642 52 1947 0058 Of the following, the strongest acid is: A. H BO B. H SiO C. H CO D. HNO 94 3 3 4 4 2 3 3 6214201 E 15 34644 31 0077 0042 Which acid is "weak"? A. HCl B. H SO C. H PO D. HNO E. HC H O 94 2 4 3 4 3 2 3 2 6214202 D 14 34646 51 00371405 0043 Pure H SO is a compound which: 4 2 3 A. is always colloidal B. slowly decomposes to form SO 4 2 C. serves as a useful source for H S 4 2 9 D. has never been observed. 6214203 B 14 34650 51 0239 0043 Hydrofluoric acid is: A. a powerful oxidizing agent B. a weak acid 9 C. a strong acid D. a good reducing agent. 6214204 D 14 34652 52 02390077 0043 Which of the following is the weakest acid? A. HClO B. HClO C. HClO D. HOCl. 94 4 3 2 6214205 D 14 34654 52 01381443 0043 5 + Which of the following has the lowest concentration of H O ? 4 3 A. 0.2 M HNO B. 0.2 M HCl 4 3 C. 0.2 M HC H O D. 0.2 M NaC H O 94 2 3 2 2 3 2 6214206 C 15 34659 52 023900810245 0018 Carbonic acid, H CO , a weak acid, dissociates in water according 4 2 3 to the following equilibrium: 5 + - H CO +H O <=====> H O +HCO 4 2 3 2 3 3 Which one of the following statements is true? A. The equilibrium is 90% to 100% to the right. B. Water acts as an acid also in the equilibrium. C. The percent of dissociation (breakdown) of the carbonic acid molecules determines the relative strength of the acid. D. Since carbonic acid is weak, there are a large number of 9 hydronium ions formed. 6214207 A 15 34667 51 040700080077 0018 5 + - In the reaction NH +H O<=====>NH +OH , water acts as 4 3 2 4 A. an acid B. a base C. a salt 5 + D. a H acceptor 9 E. none of these 6214208 A 15 34670 51 010301780070 0020 A solution of acetic acid does not conduct an electric current as readily as a solution of hydrochloric acid because A. the acid is not completely ionized B. acetic acid is less soluble in water C. acetic acid reacts with water D. acetic acid is an organic molecule 9 E. none of these 6214209 A 15 34674 51 007700771181 0020 Which of the following is the strongest acid? 5 - - - - A. HSO B. NH C. Cl D. HCO E. OH 94 4 3 3 6214210 B 15 45315 51 All of the following statements concerning acetic acid are true EXCEPT: A. Glacial acetic is pure acetic acid. B. Pure acetic acid is a conductor of electricity. C. Acetic acid is a weak acid. D. Acetic acid can be produced from carbon monoxide and hydrogen using a catalyst. E. Acetic acid can be produced from the reaction of ethanol with 9 oxygen. 6214211 C 14 34677 32 009100870239 0009 The pH of a 0.10 M solution of a weak acid would be 9 A. less than 1 B. 1 C. greater than 1 D. cannot say 6214212 B 14 34679 52 1446 0009 Which one of the following is not a strong acid? 3 ___ A. HCl B. HF C. HNO D. HClO 94 3 4 6214213 C 15 34682 32 009201031443 0035 As compared with a one molar aqueous solution of acetic acid, an equal volume of one molar hydrochloric acid A. would have a higher pH value. B. would require a larger volume of 0.1 M sodium hydroxide for neutralization. C. would have a higher hydronium ion molar concentration. D. would produce a solution with a higher pH value if just neutralized with sodium hydroxide. E. would produce a larger volume of hydrogen (STP) if reacted 9 with an active metal such as zinc. 6214214 C 14 34689 52 1949 0060 An aqueous solution of SO has the following properties except 4 2 that it is not: A. a reducing agent B. an oxidizing agent 9 C. a strong acid D. a diprotic acid 6214215 D 15 45324 71 Ammonia can be prepared by the following reactions: 1. N (g) + 3H (g) ---> 2NH (g) 4 2 2 3 2. NH Cl(s) + NaOH(aq) ---> NH (g) + NaCl(aq) + H O 4 4 3 2 3. N (g) + 6HCl(g) ---> 2NH (g) + 3Cl (g) 4 2 3 2 9 A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 3 only D. 1 and 2 only E. 1,2 and 3 6214301 C 14 34692 31 2WVW A solution which leaves no residue upon evaporation is one in which the solute is A. sodium carbonate B. calcium hydroxide C. ammonium hydroxide 9 D. potassium sulfate 6214302 A 14 34695 52 140300910215 0043 Which of the following has the highest pH? A. 0.1 M NaOH B. 0.1 M NaC H O C. 0.1 M NH D. 0.1 M C H OH 94 2 3 2 3 2 5 6214303 A 14 34698 52 040800870075 0043 One mole of NaCl and one mole of NaOH are added to enough water to make one liter of solution. The hydroxide-ion concentration is: 9 A. 1 M B. 2 M C. 0.5 M D. 0.2 M 6214304 D 14 34701 52 1601 0009 Which one of the following is a strong base? A. Al(OH) B. NH C. C H OH D. NaOH 94 3 3 2 5 6214305 A 14 34703 52 1947 0058 Of the following, the strongest base is: 5 - - - - A. HCO B. ClO C. Cl D. NO 94 3 4 3 6214401 B 15 34706 52 00270075007711 ETS2 OS Which is true concerning zinc? A. The metal is usually protected from the action of atmospheric oxygen by being galvanized B. The hydroxide may be made to react as an acid C. The hydroxide does not neutralize hydrochloric acid D. The oxide is an excellent abrasive 9 E. The element never enters into the formation of complex ions 6214402 A 14 34711 32 006100870008 2 OS Among these basic solutions, the weakest is a water solution of A. calcium hydroxide B. potassium hydroxide C. ammonia water 9 D. lye 6214403 B 14 34713 52 040700080061 0018 5 + - In the reaction HCl+H O <=====> H O +Cl , water acts as 4 2 3 9 A. an acid B. a base C. a salt D. none of these 6214404 C 15 34716 51 003700190061 0018 Which of the following compounds or ions would be classified as a base? 5 + A. H SO B. NaNO C. NH D. H PO E. NH 94 2 4 3 3 3 4 4 6214405 E 15 45320 71 All of the following statements concerning ammonia are true EXCEPT: A. It has a penetrating odor. B. It is available in grocery stores. C. It is available from the decomposition of animal wastes. D. It is an important fertilizer. 9 E. It is commercially available from the atmosphere. 6214501 A 15 34719 32 0095 11 ETS2 OS Orthophosphoric acid A. forms three different sodium salts B. has the formula HPO 4 3 C. is diprotic D. gives off three protons in succession with about equal ease 9 E. forms a buffer with sulfuric acid 6214502 E 15 34723 52 00180080007711 ETS2 OS The salt NaHSO is formed rather than Na SO in a neutralization 4 4 2 4 reaction because A. an excess of acid is present during the reaction B. the reaction is not allowed to go to completion C. the base is a strong base D. an excess of the base is present during the reaction 9 E. the acid is only partially ionized 6215001 A 15 34728 51 0018 11 ETS2 OS Which of the following is a salt? A. KNO 4 3 B. HC H O 4 2 3 2 C. Ca(OH) 4 2 D. H C O 4 2 2 4 E. NH OH 94 4 6215002 D 14 34731 31 001804070028 2 OS Salts may be produced by all of the following types of reactions except A. direct union of the elements B. reaction of a carbonate with an acid C. reaction of a non-metallic oxide with a soluble hydroxide 9 D. reaction of a metallic oxide with water 6215003 C 14 34735 31 001800610804 2 OS Salts, like basic anhydrides, are A. polar covalent compounds B. non-polar covalent compounds C. ionic compounds 9 D. covalent asymmetric compounds 6215004 B 15 34738 51 001806161064 0018 A salt that is essentially opaque to x rays and finds use in certain medical diagnostic procedures is A. NaHCO B. BaSO C. NH NO D. Al (SO ) E. CaSO 94 3 4 4 3 2 4 3 4 6215005 D 15 34741 51 00610018 05 MSU Consider 0.1 M solutions of the following three sodium salts NaHCO , NaCl, NaHSO . 4 3 4 A. all three solutions are basic. B. All three solutions are neutral. C. Only the NaHCO and NaHSO solutions are basic. 4 3 4 D. Only the NaHCO solution is basic. 4 3 9 E. Only the NaCl solution is acidic. 6215006 B 15 34746 51 00180061 05 MSU The following five salts are added to pure water (1) NaOH (2) KCl (3) K PO (4) Na CO (5) NH Cl 4 3 4 2 3 4 A. Salts 3, 4, and 5 will hydrolyze and yield acidic solutions. B. Salts 1, 3, and 4 will yield basic solutions. C. Salt 4 will yield an acidic solution. D. Salts 2, 4, and 5 will yield a neutral solution. 9 E. Only salts 3 and 4 will yield basic solutions. 6215007 B 15 34752 51 00180077 05 MSU Separate solutions of each of the following five salts are prepared in pure water. (1) NH Cl (2) KCN (3) K HPO 4 4 2 4 (4) KHSO (5) NaCl 4 4 A. Only solutions of salts 1, 4, and 5 will be acidic. B. Only solutions of salts 1 and 4 will be acidic. C. Only solutions of salts 2, 3, and 4 will be basic. D. Only solutions of salts 2 and 5 will be neutral. 9 E. Only solutions of salts 1, 2, and 5 will be neutral. 6215008 B 15 34759 51 00870077 05 MSU A solution made by dissolving ammonium bromide, NH Br, in 4 4 water will be 5 - A. acidic because Br hydrolyzes 5 + B. acidic because NH hydrolyzes 4 4 C. neutral because neither ion hydrolyzes, 5 - D. basic because Br hydrolyzes 5 + E. basic because NH hydrolyzes 94 4 6215009 D 15 34766 51 00870077 05 MSU Consider solutions of each of the following three compounds K CO , KHCO , H CO . 4 2 3 3 2 3 A. All three solutions will be basic. B. Only the KHCO solution will be basic. 4 3 C. The H CO and KHCO solutions will be acidic. 4 2 3 3 D. Only the H CO aolution will be acidic. 4 2 3 E. The KHCO solution will be neutral. 94 3 6215010 C 15 34772 51 00180077008705 MSU Which list contains only salts which hydrolyze to yield basic solutions? A. K HPO , KHSO , K CO D. NaBr, NaHCO , NaCN 4 2 4 4 2 3 3 B. KHCO , KCl, NaH PO E. NH Br, KC H O , KCN 4 3 2 4 4 2 3 2 C. NaH PO , NaCN, Na S 94 2 4 2 6215011 E 15 34777 51 00610087 05 MSU Which of the following solutions will be acidic: KHSO , NH Cl, BaCO , KHS 4 4 4 3 A. BaCO and KHS C. NH Cl only E. KHSO and NH Cl 4 3 4 4 B. BaCO , KHS, KHSO D. NH Cl, KHSO , and KHS 94 3 4 4 4 6215012 C 15 34781 51 00180077008705 MSU Which of the following salts will hydrolyze to give a basic solution: KHCO , KHSO , K HPO , KNO 4 3 4 2 4 3 A. KHCO only C. KHCO and K HPO E. KHSO and KNO 4 3 3 2 4 4 3 B. K HPO D. K HPO , KHCO and KHSO 94 2 4 2 4 3 4 6215013 B 15 34786 51 00770087 05 MSU Which of the following 0.05 M solutions will be basic K HPO , K PO , H PO ? 4 2 4 3 4 3 4 A. K PO only C. H PO only E. all of the solutions 4 3 4 3 4 B. K PO and K HPO D. K HPO and H PO 94 3 4 2 4 2 4 3 4 6215014 C 15 34790 51 00180061008705 MSU Which of the following salts will give an acidic solution NaHSO , NH NO , NaNO , NaHCO ? 4 4 4 3 3 3 A. NaHSO and NaHCO D. NaNO , NH NO , and NaHSO 4 4 3 3 4 3 4 B. NH NO only E. NH NO and NaNO 4 4 3 4 3 3 C. NH NO and NaHSO 94 4 3 4 6215015 B 15 34795 51 00610087 05 MSU A solution made by dissolving NaCN in water will be 5 + A. basic because Na hydrolyzes. 5 - B. Basic because CN hydrolyzes. C. Neutral because neither ion hydrolyzes. 5 + D. Acidic because Na hydrolyzes. 5 - 9 E. Acidic because CN hydrolyzes. 6215016 A 15 34800 51 00770087 05 MSU Which of the following ions will hydrolyze to give an acidic solution? 5 + - + - - A. NH B. HCO C. Na D. F E. HS 94 4 3 6215017 D 15 34803 51 00610087 05 MSU Which of the following ions will hydrolyze to give a basic solution? 5 + - - - - A. Na B. Cl C. NO D. CN E. Br 94 3 6215018 B 15 34806 51 06820087 05 MSU Which of the following ions will not hydrolyze in aqueous solutions? 5 + - - - - A. NH B. ClO C. H PO D. CN E. F 94 4 4 2 4 6215019 D 15 34809 51 00180099 05 MSU Consider 0.2 N solutions of the following three potassium salts KBr, KHS, KCN. A. All three solutions are basic. B. All three solutions are neutral. C. Only the KCN solution is basic. D. Only the KBr solution is neutral. 9 E. None of the above statements is correct. 6215020 B 15 34813 51 00180061008705 MSU Which list contains only salts which hydrolyze to yield basic solutions? A. KCl, KH PO , KC H O D. NaNO , Na CO , NaC H O 4 2 4 2 3 2 3 2 3 2 3 2 B. NaHCO , NaCN, Na CO E. KBr, KHS, KClO 4 3 2 3 4 C. K PO , KCN, KClO 94 3 4 4 6215021 C 15 34818 51 00870061 05 MSU Consider 0.1 N solutions of the following compounds NaCO , 4 3 H CO , (NH ) CO . 4 2 3 4 2 3 A. All three solutions are acidic. B. All three solutions are basic. C. Only the NaCO solution is basic. 4 3 D. Only the H CO solution is acidic. 4 2 3 9 E. None of the above statements is correct. 6215022 D 15 34824 51 00180077008705 MSU The following five salts are added to separate flasks of pure water: (1) NH Br (2) KBr (3) KOH (4) KC H O (5) KHS 4 4 2 3 2 A. Salts (2), (4) and (5) will hydrolyze and yield basic solutions. B. Salts (2), (3), (4), and (5) will yield basic solutions. C. Salts (1) and (2) will yield acidic solutions. D. Only salt (1) will yield an acidic solution. 9 E. None of the above statements is correct. 6215023 C 15 34831 51 0191 05 MSU Which of the following represents the reaction which results when washing soda, Na CO , is added to water? 4 2 3 5 + 2- A. Na CO + H O ---> 2Na + 2CO + H O 4 2 3 2 3 2 5 + - B. Na CO + H O ---> Na + NaCO + H O 4 2 3 2 3 2 5 + 2- + - - C. 2Na + CO + H O ---> 2Na + HCO + OH 4 3 2 3 5 + 2- + - D. 2Na + CO + H O ---> Na + HCO + NaOH 4 3 2 3 E. Na CO does not dissolve in H O. 94 2 3 2 6215024 D 15 34841 51 01910018 05 MSU Consider the hypothetical hydrolysis reaction 5 + - + - M + A + H O ---> M + HA + OH 4 2 Which of the following salts will not undergo this reaction? A. Na CO B. LiC H O C. KCN D. NH Cl E. K SO 94 2 3 2 3 2 4 2 4 6215025 A 15 44675 51 OS90 One would expect a solution of NaHSO to be 4 4 9 A. acidic B. basic C. neutral D. colored E. heterogeneous 6215101 A 14 34846 52 00870077 0043 A 0.1 M solution of NaHSO is: 4 4 9 A. acidic B. basic C. neutral D. purple. 6215102 D 14 34848 52 00910087 0043 The pH of a 0.40 M NH NO solution is: 4 4 3 9 A. 12.1 B. 2.7 C. 9.2 D. 4.8 6215201 C 15 34850 52 00920093 11 ETS2 OS In an aqueous solution of Na CO 4 2 3 A. the pH is less than the 7 B. the reaction is neutral 5 -2 C. the reaction is alkaline because the CO ion is a 4 3 strong base D. the reaction is alkaline because of the common ion effect E. the Na CO is completely decomposed at the time the solution 4 2 3 9 is made 6215202 C 15 34857 32 00930092009611 ETS2 OS Cupric ions A. are hydrated in aqueous solution B. in anhydrous copper sulfate are blue C. produce an alkaline reaction in aqueous solution D. take on electrons from metallic silver to form metallic copper E. are formed by the action of acids on metallic copper, with 9 the release of hydrogen 6215203 E 15 34862 51 00980061009711 ETS2 OS The acetate ion A. is a triprotic acid because it contains three hydrogen atoms B. is an exceptionally weak base because it shows very little tendency to pick up protons C. is a strong acid because it takes up protons from hydronium ions readily D. is neither an acid nor a base E. is a moderately strong base because it readily picks up 9 protons from hydronium ions to form acetic acid 6215204 E 15 34868 52 02400239024111 ETS2 OS If solid sodium acetate is dissolved in a solution of acetic acid, A. no change of pH takes place B. the concentration of un-ionized acetic acid is decreased C. the hydronium ion concentration becomes the same as that of water D. more of the acetic acid is ionized 9 E. the hydronium ion concentration is decreased 6215205 B 15 34873 32 003700610554 0042 Which of the following compounds would give a basic solution when dissolved in water? A. sulfur dioxide B. sodium acetate 9 C. sodium chloride D. ammonium chloride E. ammonium acetate. 6215206 A 14 34876 51 17650804 0043 Ferric oxide is: A. a basic anhydride B. an acid anhydride 9 C. an amphoteric anhydride D. green. 6215207 D 14 34878 52 009201920061 0043 An aqueous solution of which of the following substances is basic? A. SnCl B. PbCl C. CO D. Na CO 94 2 2 2 2 3 6215208 C 14 34881 52 019205540061 0043 Which of the following substances dissolves in water to form a basic solution? A. H PO B. NaH PO C. Na HPO D. NaNO 94 3 3 2 4 2 4 3 6215209 B 14 34884 52 115900610087 0043 Which of the following forms the most basic 0.1 M solution? A. NaCl B. NaOCl C. NaClO D. NaClO 94 2 3 6215210 A 14 34886 51 00731454 0019 Bathtub ring is composed of A. calcium stearate B. calcium carbonate C. sodium stearate 9 D. sodium bicarbonate 6215211 B 14 34888 52 1946 0057 A mole of sodium acetate is dissolved in a liter of aqueous solu- tion. Which one of the following species is in the highest con- centration of those listed? 5 + - - A. NaC H O B. Na C. C H O D. OH 94 2 3 2 2 3 2 6215301 C 14 34892 31 00830084 11 ETS2 OS NaHCO is 4 3 A. an acid salt B. a basic salt C. a neutral salt 9 D. classified in some other way 6215302 D 15 34894 52 001800770061 0044 Which one of the following salts when dissolved in pure water, would give a solution neither acidic nor basic? A. NaCN B. Li S C. (NH ) SO D. Ba(NO ) E. Mg(HSO ) 94 2 4 2 4 3 2 4 2 6215401 D 15 34898 72 141404070061 0044 Which one of the following statements is not correct? 3 ___ A. Metals characteristically have low electronegativities and low ionization potentials. B. The following is an example of amphoteric behavior: 5 + 2+ BeO + 2H -----> H O + Be 4 (s) 2 5 - 2- BeO + H O + 2OH -----> Be(OH) 4 (s) 2 4 C. The following reaction occurs when calcium hydride is added 5 2+ - to water: CaH + 2H O -----> Ca + 2H + 2OH 4 2(g) 2 2(g) D. The following reaction occurs when barium oxide is added to 5 - 2- basic solution: BaO + H O + 2 OH -----> Ba(OH) 4 2 4 E. The following is an example of a Lewis acid-base reaction: 5 - - AlCl + Cl -----> AlCl 94 3 4 6220001 E 15 34913 31 00780014007911 ETS2 OS The neutralization of an acid by a base always produces A. soluble products B. a precipitate C. a gas D. sodium chloride 9 E. water 6220002 A 15 34916 31 00770061000811 ETS2 OS In all cases where solutions of acids and bases react 3 ___ A. water is formed B. a neutral salt is formed C. one product escapes as a gas D. a basic salt is formed 9 E. an acid salt is formed 6220003 A 15 34919 31 00770061 11 ETS2 OS Reaction between an acid and a base may produce any one of the following except 3 ______ A. a hydrocarbon B. a salt C. an acid salt D. a carbonate 9 E. a basic salt 6220004 C 15 34922 31 00790018008011 ETS2 OS The process in which hydrogen and hydroxyl ions in a solution unite to form water, and the other ions unite to form a salt is termed A. hydrogenation B. ionization C. neutralization D. oxidation 9 E. hydrolysis 6220005 E 15 34926 31 00790088008011 ETS2 OS The process of removing the hydronium ions from a solution by adding an equal number of hydroxide ions is called A. ionization B. hydrolysis C. electrolysis D. precipitation 9 E. neutralization 6220006 C 15 34929 31 00610077008011 ETS2 OS The combination of the hydroxyl ion of a base and the hydrogen ion of an acid is called A. hydrolysis B. hydration C. neutralization D. titration 9 E. hydrogenation 6220007 E 15 34932 52 00770061008011 ETS2 OS In a solution of acid and base SO mixed as to produce neutralization, all of the following conditions exist except 3 ______ A. the solution will conduct an electrical current B. ions will be present C. the acid and base have given up their properties D. the necessity that a salt be present and composed of a part of the acid and a part of the base 9 E. none of the above; all four conditions exist 6220008 B 14 34939 31 0080 0003 The products of the reaction of acetic acid with sodium hydroxide in aqueous solution are: A. H O B. NaC H O and H O 4 2 2 3 2 2 5 + - C. Na and H O D. C H O and H O 94 2 2 3 2 2 6220009 A 15 34943 52 2WVW When a 50 ml sample of nitric acid is titrated with 0.20 N sodium hydroxide solution, 30 ml of the base are required to reach the end point. What is the molarity of the nitric acid sample? A. 0.12 B. 0.20 C. 0.32 D. 2.5 9 E. 0.68 6220010 C 14 34947 31 020900730113 2 OS When hydrochloric acid reacts with calcium carbonate, the gas liberated is A. hydrogen B. chlorine C. carbon dioxide 9 D. carbon tetrachloride 6220011 C 14 34950 31 008000180008 2 OS Neutralization produces a salt and A. an acid B. an anhydride C. water 9 D. a base 6220012 AB 25 34952 52 0018007700801390 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2An aqueous solution contains 1 gram-molecular weight of nitric 2acid (HNO ) in a liter of solution, and a second solution contains 4 3 21 gram-molecular weight of sodium hydroxide (NaOH) in 1 liter 2of solution. Using this information, answer the following 0 questions. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 How much of the base solution will be needed exactly to neutralize 10 cubic centimeters of the acid solution? (answer in cubic centimeters.) A. 10 B. 20 C. 15 D. 40 1 E. 5 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 If the water is evaporated from the neutralized mixture, what substance will crystallize out? A. H O 4 2 B. NaNO 4 3 C. NaNH D. Na NO 4 2 3 E. Na(NO ) 94 3 2 6220013 B 14 34961 31 029300020056 2 OS The number of molecules of sodium hydroxide required for the complete netralization of one molecule of sulfuric acid is A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 9 D. 4 6220014 A 14 34964 31 083001910080 2 OS Decomposition is to synthesis as hydrolysis is to A. neutralization B. sublimation C. distillation 9 D. analyzation 6220015 C 14 34966 32 001500280018 2 OS Non-metallic oxides combine with metallic oxides to form A. acids B. bases C. salts 9 D. esters 6220016 D 14 34968 32 040700800056 2 OS Which reaction involves neither oxidation nor reduction A. Burning tin in chlorine gas B. Chemical union of iron and sulfur C. Decomposition of potassium chlorate 9 D. Neutralization of sodium hydroxide with sulfuric acid 6220017 D 14 34972 32 01910080 2 OS The reverse of hydrolysis is A. electrolysis B. hydrogenation C. ionization 9 D. neutralization 6220018 C 14 34974 31 000811590080 0041 Water is formed during A. hydrolysis B. electrolysis 9 C. neutralization D. crystallization 6220019 C 14 34976 32 080604070087 0043 The product(s) of the reaction of NaOH with HCl, both in solution, is (are): 5 + - A. H O B. NaCl + H O C. Na + Cl + H O D. NaCl 94 2 2 2 6220020 A 14 34979 51 102600870209 0043 Addition of an excess of a solution of hydrochloric acid to ZnO(s) produces: 5 2+ A. Zn and H O B. ZnCl (s) and H O 4 2 2 2 5 2- C. Zn(OH) (s) and HCl(g) D. Zn(OH) 94 2 4 6220021 A 15 34983 52 008007950407 0044 How many grams of Na CO (MW = 106 grams per mole) are required 4 2 3 to neutralize 2.15 liters of .404 molar HCl? 5 2- + (assume the reaction CO + 2 H -----> H O + CO is complete). 4 3 2 2 (2.15)(.404)(106) (2.15 x 106) A. ---------------- B. (2.15)(.404)(106) C. ------------- 2 (2 x .404) 9 D. (2)(2.15)(.404)(106) E. none of the above. 6220022 B 15 34990 52 063411121122 0044 One method for neutralizing rivers and streams polluted by acid mine drainage is to add limestone, CaCO . 4 3 5 + 2- 2 H + CO -----> CO + H O 4 3 2 2 If the average hydrogen ion concentration in a polluted stream is 5 -4 9.36 x 10 moles per liter, how many liters can be purified per ton of limestone? (1 ton = 917 kg; MW of CaCO is 4 3 100 grams/mole; assume the limestone is pure CaCO and the 4 3 reaction goes to completion) 5 4 7 A. 1.96 x 10 liters B. 1.96 x 10 liters 5 6 2 C. 9.80 x 10 liters D. 1.00 x 10 liters 5 1 9 E. 1.72 x 10 liters. 6220023 D 15 35001 51 005600800407 0018 Sulfuric acid and calcium hydroxide would combine in a neutralization reaction to form the salt, _________ and water. A. Ca (SO ) B. Ca(SO ) C. Ca SO D. CaSO 4 2 4 3 4 2 2 4 4 9 E. none of these 6220024 A 14 35005 31 04070080 0026 5 - + A reaction between .05 mole of OH ions and .05 mole of H O ions 4 3 in water can best be described as: A. a neutralization B. an acid-base reaction 9 C. an oxidation D. a reduction reaction. 6220025 C 15 35010 32 040714460087 0019 Consider the reaction of a 1 M solution of a strong acid with a 1 M solution of a strong base HX + MOH ---> MX + H O 4 2 If the base is changed from NaOH to KOH to RbOH, A. the heat of neutralization increases in going from NaOH to KOH to RbOH B. the heat of neutralization decreases in going from NaOH to KOH to RbOH C. the heat of neutralization is nearly independent of which base is used D. no prediction can be made on how the heat of neutralization changes E. the acid character of NaOH, KOH, and RbOH depends upon the 9 oxidation state of the metal 6220026 A 15 35019 31 008000840224 0040 The formula for the salt produced when sulfuric acid, H SO , is 4 2 4 neutralized by magnesium hydroxide, Mg(OH) , is 4 2 A. MgSO B. Mg SO C. Mg(SO ) D. MgHSO E. MgSO .2H O 94 4 2 4 4 2 4 4 2 6220027 A 15 35024 31 022400800018 0040 A salt with the formula Ca(ClO ) is formed by the reaction of 4 3 2 an acid and base. The formula of the acid is A. HClO B. H ClO C. H(ClO ) D. H (ClO ) E. H ClO 94 3 2 3 3 2 2 3 2 4 3 6220028 E 15 35028 32 024511780138 0035 In the equilibrium below the addition of which ion would 5 = effectively increase the S concentration? 5 - + = HS + H O = H O + S 4 2 3 5 + - + - - A. H O B. Cl C. Na D. Br E. OH 94 3 6220029 C 15 35033 52 0080 40 MSU How many liters of 0.25 M HClO will be neutralized by 5.8 g 4 2 of Mg(OH) ? 4 2 9 A. 0.05 B. 0.20 C. 0.80 D. 0.40 E. 0.10 6220030 D 15 35036 52 0080 40 MSU It required 50 ml of 0.100 N NaOH to neutralize a sample of NaHCO which had been dissolved in water. How many grams of 4 3 NaHCO were neutralized? 4 3 9 A. 0.18 B. 378 C. 0.018 D. 0.38 E. 0.038 6220031 A 15 35039 52 0565 40 MSU An unknown acid was titrated with 50 ml of 0.02 N KOH. If the weight of the unknown acid was 1.000 g, what is the equivalent weight of the acid in grams/equivalent? 9 A. 1000 B. 100 C. 2500 D. 25 E. 10,000 6220032 C 14 35043 52 0565 40 MSU A buret is used to measure milliliters of acid into a solution which is being titrated, and has a maximum capacity of 50 ml. Approximately how many grams of LiOH should be weighed for titration with 2.0 N H SO so that only one 4 2 4 buretful of titrant will be used? 9 A. 11.9 g B. 2.4 g C. 2.0 g D. 3.0 g 6220033 A 15 35048 52 0142 40 MSU A 0.89 g sample of manganese hydroxide, Mn(OH) , was 4 2 neutralized with 40 ml of hydrochloric acid. What is the normality of the acid? 9 A. 0.5 N B. 0.25 N C. 1.0 N D. 5.0 N E. 10 N 6220034 B 15 35052 52 1183 40 MSU A solution is made by dissolving 98 g of pure H SO in 4 2 4 enough water to make 2.0 liters of solution. This solution is used to titrate 32 g of scandium hydroxide, Sc(OH) 4 3 according to the equation 3H SO + 2Sc(OH) ---> Sc (SO ) + 6H O 4 2 4 3 2 4 3 2 What volume of sulfuric acid solution was used? 9 A. 2000 ml B. 1000 ml C. 500 ml D. 250 ml E. 100 ml 6221001 E 15 35059 31 00900091 11 ETS2 OS An indicator is a substance A. which always changes color when the solution passes through that hydronium ion concentration at which the pH is 7 B. in which the positive and negative ions have a different color C. which, under no conditions, is ever colorless D. which is used to detect whether the solution contains an excess of positive or of negative ions E. which changes color when passing through a definite pH range, 9 characteristic of that indicator 6221002 C 14 35066 31 00770106 2 OS In an acid solution, phenolphthalein is A. pink B. orange C. colorless 9 D. blue 6221003 A 14 35068 31 008700770821 2 OS In the solution of an acid, litmus paper will be A. red B. blue C. orange 9 D. colorless 6221004 D 14 35070 31 00610070 2 OS A base is strong if it A. turns red litmus blue B. turns blue litmus red C. is dilute 9 D. is completely ionized 6221005 B 15 35072 31 00610101 0020 Bases A. turn phenolphthalein red B. turn litmus blue C. react with acids to form water and a salt D. all of these 9 E. none of these 6221006 C 15 35075 51 00910061 05 MSU A beaker containing a clear liquid is tested with Clayton yellow indicator and a change from yellow to orange is observed. If this indicator changes color only above pH of 11.0, what can be said about the liquid in the beaker? A. It is strongly acidic B. It is weakly acidic C. It is slightly basic 9 D. It may be a solution of a strong acid. 6221007 CED 35 35080 52 OS82 MACROITEM STEM Match the acid-base indicators: pH :-------:-------:-------:-------:-------:-------:-------: 0 2 4 6 8 10 12 14 A. yellow blue blue blue blue blue blue blue blue B. red red red red red red red colorless colorless colorless C. colorless colorless colorless colorlesspinkpinkpinkpink D. yellow yellow yellow yellow yellow red red red purple purple 0 E. red red red red red yellow yellow yellow yellow yellow yellow MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 Phenolphthalein MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 Methyl orange MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 9 Alizarin yellow 6223001 A 15 35088 32 117400800195 0042 30 ml of 0.02 molar HCl is to be neutralized with 0.02 molar Ba(OH) . What volume of Ba(OH) solution must be used? 4 2 2 9 A. 15 ml B. 30 ml C. 60 ml D. 120 ml E. none of these 6223002 A 14 35091 32 008704070142 0043 A 0.10 M solution of H SO is used in the reaction 4 2 3 5 - - H SO + OH ----> HSO + H o. The normality of the 4 2 3 3 2 solution is: 9 A. 0.10 N B. 0.20 N C. 0.40 N D. 0.80 N 6223003 B 14 35095 32 008704070142 0043 A 0.10 M solution of H SO is used in the reaction 4 2 3 5 - + 2+ - 5H SO + 2MnO + H ----> 2Mn + 5HSO + 3H O. 4 2 3 4 4 2 The normality of the solution is: 9 A. 0.10 N B. 0.20 N C. 0.40 N D. 0.80 N 6223004 C 14 35100 32 008704070142 0043 A 0.10 M solution of H SO is used in the reaction 4 2 3 5 3+ 2+ + H SO + 4V + 9H O ----> S(s) + 4V(OH) + 4H O . 4 2 3 2 2 3 The normality of the solution is: 9 A. 0.025 N B. 0.10 N C. 0.40 N D. 0.80 N 6223005 B 14 35105 32 008704070142 0043 A 0.10M solution of H SO is used in the reaction 4 2 3 5 - 2- H SO + 2OH ----> SO + 2H O. 4 2 3 3 2 The normality of the solution is: 9 A. 0.10 N B. 0.20 N C. 0.40 N D. 0.80 N 6223006 C 14 44811 52 008002150056 0043 50 mL of 1.3 N H SO will neutralize how many mL of 1.0 N NaOH? 4 2 4 9 A. 32 mL B. 38 mL C. 65 mL D. 130 mL E. 77 mL 6223007 C 14 35111 52 008000870209 0043 75 ml of 0.20 M HCl will neutralize how many milliliters of 0.10 M Ba(OH) ? 4 2 9 A. 300 ml B. 150 ml C. 75 ml D. 38 ml. 6223008 B 14 35113 52 020900800138 0043 40 ml of 0.15 N HCl just neutralizes 29 ml of an unknown base. The concentration of the base is: 9 A. 0.11 N B. 0.21 N C. 0.31 N D. 0.41 N. 6223009 A 14 35115 52 008001950056 0043 The number of milliliters of 0.100 N H SO required to neutralize 4 2 4 completely 35.0 mL of 0.140 N KOH is: 9 A. 49.0 mL B. 98.0 mL C. 24.5 mL D. 12.2 mL. 6223010 C 14 35118 52 008015910195 0043 How many mL 0.200 N Ba(OH) are necessary for complete 4 2 neutralization of 125 mL of 0.150 M H PO ? 4 3 4 9 A. 56.2 B. 93.7 C. 281 D. 562 E. 937 6223011 B 14 35122 52 008714430138 0043 One mole of NaOH and one mole of HCl are added to enough water to make one liter of solution. The hydronium-ion concentration is: 5 -7 -14 9 A. 1 M B. 1 x 10 M C. 1 x 10 M D. 0.5 M. 6223012 E 15 35125 52 11740087 0044 If 37.0 ml of 1.64 molar NaOH is mixed with 42.9 ml of .588 molar HNO the final solution will be: 4 3 5 - + + A. 1.08 molar in OH B. 0.445 molar in H C. 1.08 molar in H 5 + - 9 D. 0.860 molar in H E. 0.445 molar in OH 6223013 C 15 35130 52 030601380087 0044 A standard solution of 0.198 molar HCl is being used to determine the concentration of an unknown NaOH solution. If 35.0 milliliters of the acid are required to neutralize 35.7 milliliters of the base, what is the molarity of the base? (35.7 + 35.0) 0.198 (0.198)(35.0) A. ------------- B. ------------- C. ------------- 0.198 (35.7 + 35.0) 35.7 35.0 D. ------------- E. none of the above. (0.198 X 35.7) 9 6223014 C 15 35137 52 030601380087 0044 A standard solution of .1861 molar HCl is being used to determine the concentration of an unknown NaOH solution. If 37.89 milliters of the acid is required to neutralize 10.00 milliters of the base, what is the molarity of the NaOH? .1861 10 (.1861)(37.89) A. ------------ B. ---------------- C. -------------- (37.89 x 10 (.1861 x 37.89) 10 (.1861)(10) D. ----------- E. none of the above. 37.89 9 6223015 E 15 35144 52 11740087 0044 If 43.6 ml of 1.50 molar NaOH is mixed with 38.5 ml of 1.14 molar HNO the final solution will be: 4 3 5 - + + A. 1.33 molar in OH B. 1.10 molar in H C. .260 molar in H 5 + - 9 D. 1.33 molar in H E. .260 molar in OH . 6223016 A 15 35149 52 01400087 0044 If 40.2 ml of .771 M LiOH is mixed with 49.2 ml of 1.07 M CsOH the final solution will be: 5 - + + A. .938 M in OH B. 2.44 M in H C. .245 M in H 5 + - 9 D. .938 M in H E. .245 M in OH 6223017 E 15 35153 52 118302330140 0020 The titration of a 100 ml sample of vinegar required 38.6 ml of 0.500 M NaOH. What is the molarity of the vinegar? A. 0.368 M B. 0.736 M C. 0.631 M D. 0.184 M 9 E. none of these 6223018 B 15 35156 52 019500871184 0020 What volume of 0.600 M hydrochloric acid solution is needed to titrate 300 ml of a solution containing 10.0 g of sodium hydroxide? A. 2.40 liters B. 0.417 liters C. 41.7 ml D. 240 cc 9 E. none of these 6223019 D 15 35159 52 01421183 40 MSU What is the normality of a 200 ml sample of acetic acid which requires 350 ml of 0.100 N KOH to titrate it to its endpoint? 9 A. 2.00 B. 3.50 C. 0.350 D. 0.175 E. 0.0875 6223020 B 15 35162 52 01421183 40 MSU What is the normality of a 100 ml sample of hydrochloric acid which requires 250 ml of 0.200 N NaOH to titrate to its endpoint? 9 A. 1.25 B. 0.50 C. 0.625 D. 0.05 E. 0.125 6223021 C 15 35165 52 01421183 40 MSU How many milliliters of 0.10 N Sr(OH) are required to 4 2 titrate 300 ml of 0.05 N HCl to its endpoint? 9 A. 2.0 ml B. 75 ml C. 150 ml D. 600 ml E. 300 ml 6223022 E 15 35168 52 01421183 40 MSU How many milliliters of 0.05 N LiOH are required to titrate 50 ml of 0.50 N HCN to its endpoint? 9 A. 5 ml B. 10 ml C. 25 ml D. 50 ml E. 500 ml 6223023 A 15 35171 52 01421183 40 MSU It requires 400 ml of HClO of unknown normality to titrate 4 4 100 ml of 0.40 N NaOH to its endpoint. What is the normality of the HClO ? 4 4 9 A. 0.10 B. 1.60 C. 0.01 D. 1.00 E. 0.16 6223024 D 15 35175 52 01421183 40 MSU Gastric juice is about 0.10 N in hydrochloric acid. A 10 ml sample of gastric juice is titrated to its endpoint with 0.01 N KOH. How many milliliters of KOH are required? 9 A. 0.10 ml B. 1.0 ml C. 10 ml D. 100 ml E. 1000 ml 6223025 E 15 35179 52 01421183 40 MSU When a 200 ml sample of a base of unknown normality was titrated to its endpoint with 0.30 N standard acid, 20 ml of acid were required. What is the normality of the unknown base? 9 A. 0.30 B. 0.40 C. 0. D. 0.06 E. 0.03 6223026 B 15 35183 52 1183 40 MSU How many milliliters of 0.15 N H SO are required to titrate 4 2 4 30 ml of 0.45 N NaOH to its endpoint? 9 A. 100 ml B. 90 ml C. 225 ml D. 10 ml E. 7.75 ml 6223027 C 15 35186 52 1183 40 MSU What volume of 1.00 N KOH will titrate 100 ml of 0.50 N HBr to its endpoint? 9 A. 0.20 ml B. 5.0 ml C. 50 ml D. 20 ml E. 2.0 ml 6223028 A 15 35188 52 1183 40 MSU What volume of 0.30 N HCl will titrate 150 ml of 0.05 N NaOH to its endpoint? 9 A. 25 ml B. 6.0 ml C. 10 ml D. 75 ml E. 15 ml 6223029 C 15 35190 52 11830142 40 MSU What is the normality of an acid solution if 100 ml of 0.40 N KOH are required to titrate a 250 ml sample of the unknown acid to its endpoint? 9 A. 0.20 B. 0.08 C. 0.16 D. 1.00 E. 0.02 6223030 D 15 35193 52 0142 40 MSU A 50 mL sample of a base of unknown normality requires 40 mL of 0.10 M HCl to titrate it to its endpoint. What is the normality of the base? 9 A. 0.67 B. 0.01 C. 0.8 D. 0.08 E. 0.067 6223031 D 15 35196 52 1183 40 MSU A sample of Ba(OH) requires 75 ml of 0.4 N HCl to titrate 4 2 it to its endpoint. How many grams of Ba(OH) are in the 4 2 sample? 9 A. 171 B. 85.5 C. 5.13 D. 2.57 E. 1.28 6223032 A 15 35200 52 0080 40 MSU How many milliliters of 0.10 N HCl are required to neutralize a solution made by dissolving 1.22 g of Sr(OH) 4 2 in water? 9 A. 200 ml B. 167 ml C. 50 ml D. 100 ml E. 500 ml 6223033 A 15 35204 52 0080 40 MSU If it takes 100 ml of 0.05 N HCl to titrate a sample of Ba(OH) , how many moles of Ba(OH) are in the sample? 4 2 2 9 A. 0.0025 B. 0.850 C. 0.025 D. 0.430 E. 0.250 6223034 B 15 35207 52 0080 40 MSU If it takes 100 ml of 0.40 N HCl to titrate a sample of Ba(OH) , how many grams of Ba(OH) are in the sample? 4 2 2 9 A. 13.7 B. 3.42 C. 1.76 D. 6.84 E. 34.2 6230001 C 15 35210 32 00940056009111 ETS2 OS Of the compounds of sulfur A. sulfurous acid can give off but a single proton per molecule B. the first ionization constant of h2s is a large number C. the pH of sulfuric acid in dilute solutions is a number much less than 7 D. when prepared in the laboratory, sulfur dioxide is usually collected over water 9 E. hydrogen sulfide is a good oxidizing agent 6230002 B 15 35216 31 00910099 11 ETS2 OS What is the pH of a neutral solution? A. 5 B. 7 C. 8 D. 10 9 E. 14 6230003 C 15 35218 52 0100 11 ETS2 OS Concerning nitric acid A. the nitrogen in the compound has the same oxidation state that it has in ammonia B. the concentrated laboratory reagent has no odor C. it is not possible to obtain 100% acid by distillation of an aqueous solution of the compound D. hydrogen is formed by the action of the acid on copper E. at room temperature the vapor pressure of the pure acid is 9 less than that of concentrated h2so4 6230004 B 15 35224 52 01010105007211 ETS2 OS An unknown gas dissolves readily in water. The solution turns red litmus blue. The gas reacts with hydrogen chloride gas, forming a white fume. The unknown gas is A. nitric oxide B. ammonia C. hydrogen sulfide D. carbon monoxide 9 E. sulfur dioxide 6230005 C 14 35228 31 007701580056 2 OS Among the following concentrated acids, the one which has the highest specific gravity is A. nitric B. hydrochloric C. sulfuric 9 D. carbonic 6230006 A 14 35231 31 007700870138 2 OS The acid whose colorless concentrated solution turns brown from standing awhile is A. nitric acid B. sulfur acid C. hydrochloric acid 9 D. carbonic acid 6230007 C 14 35234 31 04770077 2 OS An example of a mineral acid is A. acetic acid B. citric acid C. nitric acid 9 D. butyric acid 6230008 C 14 35236 31 14460100 0041 A common laboratory strong acid is 9 A. acetic acid B. boric acid C. nitric acid D. citric acid 6230009 D 14 44752 31 132300031765 0043 The oxides of the alkali metals are: A. covalent oxides C. amphoteric E. interstitial oxides 9 B. acidic anhydrides D. basic anhydrides 6230010 A 14 35240 51 0804 0043 The anhydride of HClO is: 4 3 A. Cl O B. ClO C. ClO D. HCl 94 2 5 5 6230011 C 15 35242 31 00660804 0043 The compound of which P O is the anhydride is: 4 4 6 A. HPO B. H P O C. H PO D. H PO E. PH 94 3 4 2 7 3 3 3 4 3 6231001 D 15 35245 51 02340056023511 ETS2 OS In the contact sulfuric acid process A. oxides of nitrogen are used as a catalyst B. very high temperatures are required C. the reaction goes on best in aqueous solution D. either platinum or compounds of vanadium may be used as catalysts E. the process of dissolving SO in water offers NO practical 9 difficulties 6231002 C 14 35250 51 133308300554 0043 Pyrosulfuric acid may be synthesized by dissolving SO in: 4 3 A. H O B. H SO C. H SO D. H S O 94 2 2 3 2 4 2 2 8 6231003 A 14 35253 72 19540056 0061 Concentrated H SO may be used to prepare which acids from their 4 2 4 halides? 9 A. HF and HCl B. HCl and HBr C. HBr and HI D. HI and HF 6231004 B 14 35256 72 19541846 0061 HF is usually produced by A. the reaction of H and F B. the reaction of concentrated H SO on CaF 4 2 4 2 C. the displacement of chloride from HCl by F D. heating KHF 2 94 2 6232001 B 15 35260 52 00850086008311 ETS2 OS Carbonic acid attacks limestone and changes it into a new substance called A. sodium carbonate B. sodium bicarbonate C. calcium carbonate D. calcium bicarbonate 9 E. magnesium carbonate 6232002 B 15 35263 31 00920072009111 ETS2 OS An aqueous solution of ammonia A. has a pH of less than 7 because the ammonia molecule picks up protons from the water B. provides a low concentration of hydroxyl ions and is therefore useful for cleaning purposes C. is almost completely ionized into ammonium and hydroxyl ions D. has its hydroxyl ion concentration increased by the addition of ammonium chloride 9 E. is the only form of nitrogen that plants can assimilate 6232003 E 15 35270 52 01010102010311 ETS2 OS A certain solution turns blue litmus red, reacts with magnesium with slow evolution of gas, does not react with silver nitrate, and is a poor conductor of an electric current. The solution may contain A. hydrochloric acid B. ethyl alcohol C. sodium hydroxide D. copper acetate 9 E. acetic acid 6232004 E 15 35275 51 00530209 11 ETS2 OS Hydrogen sulfide may best be prepared in the laboratory by the action of A. hydrochloric acid on copper sulfide B. hydrogen on iron sulfide C. an acid on a sulfite D. hydrogen on sulfur 9 E. hydrochloric acid on iron sulfide 6232005 E 15 35279 52 00140236 11 ETS2 OS For the equation Ca(OH) + CO ---> CaCO + H O, which one of 4 2 2 3 2 these is true? A. the reaction will reach a state of equilibrium rather than completion. B. The reaction will not reach completion because ions of a 3 ___ product are removed by formation of undissociated water molecules. C. Completion is achieved because one of the products leaves as a gas. D. The reactants will not form the desired products. E. The reaction will be completed because a precipitate is 9 formed. 6232006 B 14 35287 31 005605470498 2 OS Sulfuric acid is used in the manufacture of many other acids because of its A. high specific gravity B. high boiling point C. oxidizing ability 9 D. solubility 6240001 A 15 35290 52 2WVW Which of the following chemical species are not Lewis bases? A. NaOH B. NH 4 3 C. H O 4 2 5 - D. Br 9 E. both A and D 6240002 C 14 35293 52 1947 0058 In the reaction CoCl + AlCl --> CoClAlCl , the CoCl is a: 4 2 3 4 2 A. Bronsted base B. Bronsted acid 9 C. Lewis base D. Lewis acid 6240003 D 15 35296 31 093201920263 0042 The Lewis base is a substance which: A. accepts a pair of electrons B. ionizes to form hydroxide ions C. ionizes to form hydronium ions D. donates a pair of electrons 9 E. none of these 6240004 D 15 35299 52 09320212 0042 All of the following may act as Lewis bases except: 3 ______ 5 - A. NH B. H O C. C H D. CH E. CN 94 3 2 2 4 4 6240005 B 14 44995 32 080604070105 0043 The product(s) of the reaction of NH with HCl, both in 4 3 solution, is (are): A. H O(l) C. NH Cl (aq) + H O(l) E. NH Cl(s) + H (g) + O (g) 4 2 4 2 4 2 2 5 + B. NH (aq) D. NH Cl (s) 94 4 4 6240006 C 14 35305 51 08990061026351 9000 The Lewis theory states that a base A. has a hydroxyl ion B. accepts a pair of electrons C. donates a pair of electrons 9 D. accepts an hydroxyl ion. 6240007 E 15 35308 52 117904070087 0020 There is an instantaneous reaction when a solution of sodium chloride is added to a solution of silver nitrate because A. sodium chloride is completely soluble B. silver nitrate is completely soluble C. both silver nitrate and sodium chloride ionize completely D. silver chloride ions react 9 E. silver and chloride ions combine to form a precipitate 6240008 C 14 35313 52 040709450931 0009 In the reaction: BF + NH -----> F B:NH , BF accepts an 4 3 3 3 3 3 electron pair and acts as A. an Arrhenius base B. a Bronsted acid 9 C. a Lewis acid D. a Lewis base 6240009 A 15 35316 51 093105230077 0019 Which of the following is false? Lewis acids: A. are necessarily Arrhenius acids B. are electron pair acceptors C. may be transition metal ions D. react with Lewis bases 9 E. need not contain hydrogen 6240010 E 15 35319 51 0932 0019 Which of the following is not a Lewis base? 5 - - - + A. OH B. Cl C. NH D. NH E. NH 94 2 3 4 6240011 A 14 35322 52 105504070931 0009 Which species in the following reaction acts as a Lewis acid? 5 2+ 2- CuSO (s) + 4 NH (aq) -----> Cu(NH ) (aq) + SO (aq) 4 4 3 3 4 4 5 2+ 2- 2+ A. Cu B. NH C. SO D. Cu(NH ) 94 3 4 3 4 6240012 C 14 35327 31 0931 0003 According to the Lewis definition, an acid is: A. a proton donor B. a proton acceptor 9 C. an electron-pair donor D. an electron-pair acceptor 6240013 C 14 35330 51 008713710091 0043 Choose the solution with the lowest pH: A. 0.1 M BaCl B. 0.1 M Ba(NO ) 4 2 3 2 C. 0.1 M BeCl D. 0.1 M Ba(OH) 94 2 2 6300001 B 15 35333 31 01350136008712 ETS2 OS A chemical reaction between two solid substances usually proceeds quite slowly. However, many of these reactions proceed rapidly in a water solution. This is due to the fact that A. all solutes when dissolved become catalysts B. a decrease in particle size increases surface area C. undissociated water molecules are formed D. equilibrium is quickly attained 9 E. all solutes ionize when dissolved 6300002 A 14 35339 31 00080293 2 OS Water will not wet a sheet of wax paper because water molecules A. attract each other more than they attract wax molecules B. attract each other less than they attract wax molecules C. attract each other and attract wax molecules with equal strength 9 D. form a new substance which repels wax 6300003 A 14 35344 31 024400051139 0041 Ionic crystals dissolve only in liquids that are 9 A. polar B. nonpolar C. saturated D. supersaturated 6300004 B 14 35346 52 080805540089 0043 Although BaSO is not very soluble in water, one would expect it 4 3 to dissolve more readily in 1.0 M HCl because: A. BaCl is a strong electrolyte B. H SO is a weak acid 4 2 2 3 C. HCl is a strong acid D. BaCl is a weak electrolyte 94 2 6300005 D 15 35351 31 040802440554 0020 Sodium chloride crystals dissolve in water due to A. solvation B. hydration C. the attraction of water dipoles D. all of these 9 E. none of these 6300006 B 15 35354 31 016803930008 0020 A mixture of gasoline and water A. is completely miscible B. contains two saturated solutions C. is called an amalgam D. all of these 9 E. none of these 6300007 E 15 35357 31 049100870018 0020 The rate of solution of a salt in water is affected by A. particle size B. temperature C. concentration D. stirring 9 E. all of these 6300008 E 15 35360 31 011000660008 0020 The solubility of a compound in water is not affected by A. temperature B. nature of the compound C. mixing D. nature of the solute 9 E. is affected by all of these 6300009 E 15 35363 32 11750087 0020 Ideal solutions are A. completely miscible B. completely immiscible C. saturated D. all of these 9 E. none of these 6300010 C 15 35365 32 008911760178 0020 Electrolytic solutions are those that A. do not contain ions B. always have color C. conduct an electric current D. all of these 9 E. none of these 6300011 A 15 35368 52 011011391428 0040 Which of the following would be most soluble in benzene, C H 4 6 6 (nonpolar)? A. CH 4 4 B. water (H O) C. sugar D. salt 4 2 9 E. no correct response is given. 6300012 B 15 35372 52 01100243 0040 What one of the following will be most soluble in the polar solvent water? A. I B. NaCl C. CCl D. N 4 2 4 2 9 E. no correct response is given. 6300013 D 15 35375 52 011004910738 0040 The rate at which a substance will dissolve in a solution is decreased 3_________ A. if the particle size of the solute is decreased B. if the temperature is increased C. if the solution is agitated or stirred D. if the concentration of the solution is increased 9 E. no correct response is given. 6300014 C 14 35380 32 162615180112 0009 A student wants to remove naphthalene, an aromatic hydrocarbon, from his lab coat. What solvent would you recommend? 9 A. Water B. Ethyl alcohol C. Benzene D. Sulfuric acid 6300015 D 14 35383 31 15130087 MSU A supersaturated solution is one which has A. more solute present than solvent B. a superoxide dissolved in a solvent in equilibrium with undissolved solute C. as much solute in solution as can be dissolved under any conditions D. more solute dissolved than can be dissolved at 9 equilibrium 6300016 D 14 35388 51 0110 40 MSU Which substance should dissolve more readily in water under conditions of low temperature and high pressure than under other conditions ? A. A salt which dissolves endothermically B. A nonionic solute ich dissolves without solvation C. A sparingly soluble compound 9 D. A gas which is solvated by water 6300017 C 14 35393 51 0110 40 MSU Which substance should dissolve more readily in hot water than in cold ? A. A gas which is solvated by water B. A nonionic solute which dissolves without solvation C. A salt which dissolves endothermically 9 D. A compound which dissolves with the evolution of heat 6310001 A 14 35397 31 0402 0003 Which has a high dielectric constant? A. H O B. CH C. CO D. H 94 2 4 2 2 6310002 A 14 35399 51 00080180 40 MSU Which of the following ions should be most strongly solvated by water? 5 2+ 2+ 2+ 2+ 9 A. Mg B. Ca C. Sr D. Ba 6310003 C 15 35402 51 01100008 40 MSU Consider the following compounds BaCl , PbSO , Na S, and 4 2 4 2 KOH. Which of the following statements about their solubility in water is correct ? A. Only BaCl and Na S are soluble. 4 2 2 B. Only PbSO and KOH are insoluble. 4 4 C. Only BaCl , Na S and KOH are soluble. 4 2 2 D. All are soluble. 9 E. All are insoluble. 6310004 D 15 35408 51 00080180 40 MSU Which of the following ions would be most strongly solvated by water ? 5 + 2+ + 3+ 2+ 9 A. Na B. Sr C. Cs D. Al E. Ba 6310005 A 14 35411 51 00080180 40 MSU Which of the following ions should be most strongly solvated by water ? 5 - - - - 9 A. F B. Cl C. Br D. I 6310006 A 14 35413 51 00080180 40 MSU Which of the following ions should be most strongly solvated by water ? 5 + + + + 9 A. Li B. Na C. K D. Cs 6310007 C 15 35416 51 00080180 40 MSU Which of the following ions should be most strongly solvated by water ? 5 + 2+ 3+ + 2+ 9 A. K B. Sr C. Al D. Na E. Ca 6310008 B 14 35419 31 00080180 40 MSU The most strongly solvated of a group of ions would be the one with A. the lightest molecular weight B. the greatest charge and the smallest size C. the lowest oxidation state 9 D. the smallest charge and the largest radius 6310009 C 14 35423 31 00080180 MSU An ion is most strongly solvated by solvent molecules which A. have polar bonds but are nonpolar molecules B. are large C. are polar molecules 9 D. solvate with absorption of energy 6310010 C 14 35426 31 00080180 MSU An ion which is very strongly solvated in solution A. has little attraction for solvent molecules B. is only weakly attracted to other ions in the solid crystal C. also has strong interionic attractive forces in a solid crystal 9 D. has a low charge density 6310011 C 15 35430 51 00080180 40 MSU Which of the following ions should be most strongly solvated by water ? 5 + 2+ 3+ 2+ + 9 A. Rb B. Ca C. Ga D. Ba E. Cs 6310012 A 14 35433 51 00080180 40 MSU Which of the following ions would be the least strongly solvated by water ? 5 2+ 2+ 2+ 2+ 9 A. Ba B. Sr C. Ca D. Mg 6310013 B 13 35436 31 07250180 40 MSU If the charge on an ion is kept constant, the degree of solvation of the ion will increase as the size of the ion 9 A. increases B. decreases C. remains the same 6310014 A 13 35439 31 07250180 40 MSU If the size of an ion is kept constant, the degree of solvation of the ion will increase as the charge on the ion 9 A. increases B. decreases C. remains the same 6310015 D 15 35442 52 01040091000811 ETS2 OS A certain compound is a very poor conductor of electricity but can dissolve many other substances forming solutions which conduct electricity well. Its pH is 7 and it is formed when a base reacts with an acid. It is A. acetic acid B. sodium chloride C. alcohol D. water 9 E. benzene 6320001 D 15 35446 52 02420243024411 ETS2 OS Radium has two outer electrons. What compound would you expect it to form with chlorine which has 7 electrons in its outermost shell? A. Ra Cl 4 7 2 B. Ra Cl 4 2 7 C. Ra Cl 4 7 6 D. RaCl 4 2 E. Ra Cl 94 2 6320002 C 14 35450 31 2WVW Which organic compound is very soluble in water? A. Benzene B. Ether C. Ethyl alcohol 9 D. Carbon tetrachloride 6320003 D 14 35452 31 2WVW Which is formed when two immiscible liquids are shaken together? A. An emulsion B. A precipitate C. A solution 9 D. A suspension 6320004 D 14 35454 32 2WVW Iodine is least soluble in A. ethyl alcohol B. carbon disulfide C. carbon tetrachloride 9 D. water 6320005 C 15 35456 51 052017791178 0047 Concentrated brine solution is poured into household water softeners to regenerate the resin by which of the following mechanisms? A. Replenishes chloride ions in the resin. B. Dissolves out the impurities from the resin. 5 ++ + C. Replaces Ca ions by Na ions. D. Sequesters the heavy metals causing hard water. 9 E. Dissolves hard water residues from the pipes. 6320006 D 14 35462 31 055411780180 0043 When NaCl is dissolved in water, the sodium ions become: 9 A. oxidized B. reduced C. hydrolyzed D. hydrated. 6320007 D 15 35464 31 006611710008 0020 Which of the following compounds is insoluble in water? A. Zinc nitrate B. Ammonium acetate C. Sodium phosphate D. Iron(III) oxide 9 E. Iron(III) chlorate 6320008 C 15 35467 52 118000870527 0020 The Debye-Huckel theory A. explains why sodium chloride solutions do not give the expected freezing point depressions B. says that strong electrolytes are completely ionized C. says that ions attract and are surround by oppositely charged ions D. all of these 9 E. none of these 6320009 D 15 35472 51 113901120527 0019 A polar solvent doesn't dissolve a nonpolar solute because: A. the strong forces of attraction between the solute particles and the weak forces of attraction between the solvent and solute B. the kinetic energy of the solute is greater than that of the solvent C. the repulsion between the dipolar solvent and the nonpolar solute D. the solvent particles have greater attraction for each other than for solute particles 9 E. there is an unfavorable entropy of solution 6320010 C 15 35479 31 139405270107 0019 A nonpolar solvent does not dissolve polar solutes because: A. the attraction of the solvent molecules for each other is too great B. of the repulsion between the dipolar solute and the nonpolar solvent C. of the strong forces between the solute particles and weak forces of attraction between the solvent and solute D. the kinetic energy of the solute is greater than the solvent 9 E. none of these is true 6320011 A 15 35485 52 117801590180 0019 Which of the following ions would have the highest hydration energy? 5 + + + + + 9 A. Li B. K C. Na D. Cs E. Rb 6320012 C 15 35488 52 024301070112 0040 In a solution system consisting of a polar solvent and nonpolar solute, the solute-solvent interactions or attractions would be A. very strong B. strong C. moderately weak D. very weak 9 E. no correct response is given. 6320013 B 15 35492 52 024314280110 0040 Consider the following substances and their polarities: a--polar, b--polar, c--nonpolar, d--nonpolar. It is true that A. a will be more soluble in c than in b B. c will be more soluble in d than in a C. b will be more soluble in d than in a D. d will be more soluble in b than in c 9 E. no correct response is given. 6320014 B 15 35497 51 011200810066 0035 In order for the solvent to promote the dissociation of compounds into ions. The most essential characteristic of the solvent would be for it to A. exist as a liquid at room conditions. B. have a high dipole moment. C. have a low dielectric constant. D. be a good conductor of electricity. 9 E. have a high density. 6320015 C 15 35502 51 008700181178 0034 The solution of a salt in water requires A. that the attractive forces between the dissociated ions and the water molecules be stronger than the covalent bonds that hold the ions together B. that the ions in the crystal be bonded more firmly than the attractive forces between the respective ions and molecules of water C. that the ions in the crystal be bonded less firmly than the attractive forces between the respective ions and the molecules of water D. that the water molecules become ionized E. that strong ionic bonds form between the ions and the water 9 molecules 6320016 D 14 35511 51 177801590180 0043 5 2+ The hydration energy of Mg is larger than that of: 5 3+ 2+ 3+ + 9 A. Al B. Be C. Mg D. Na 6320017 B 15 35514 31 0525 MSU If glycerol and benzene (both are liquids) are mixed together and then allowed to stand, the mixture separates into two liquid layers of pure glycerol and pure benzene. These two liquids are A. solvated C. anhydrous E. dissociated 9 B. immiscible D. unsaturated 6320018 C 14 35518 51 0525 MSU The property of immiscibility is being displayed when A. HCl gas dissolves in water only until the solution is 37% by weight HCl. B. solid KBr crystallizes from solution as the temperature is lowered C. cyclohexanol and water are shaken together but separate into two layers 9 D. crystals of sodium acetate do not dissolve in water 6320019 A 15 35523 31 05060087 40 MSU When two liquids are mutually soluble that is, when they are mixed together and a homogeneous mixture results, the liquids are said to be A. miscible C. saturated E. None of these is correct 9 B. immiscible D. unsaturated 6320020 A 15 35527 31 05060087 40 MSU When two liquids are mutually insoluble that is, when they are mixed together and a homogeneous mixture results, the liquids are said to be A. immiscible C. saturated E. none of these is correct 9 B. miscible D. unsaturated 6320021 B 13 35531 51 0110 MSU Which of the following solvents would dissolve the most KI? A. Liquid CCl B. liquid NH C. gasoline 94 4 3 6320022 D 14 35533 51 0110 MSU Which of the following substances should be most soluble in hexane, C H ? 4 6 14 9 A. LiI B. AgBr C. LiBr D. IBr 6320023 D 14 35535 51 01100008 40 MSU Which of the following substances should be most soluble in water? A. Br B. ClBr C. BaSO D. LiBr 94 2 4 6320024 C 14 35537 51 01100008 40 MSU Which of the following sets contains sulfates all of which are insoluble in water ? A. MgSO , PbSO , CaSO C. BaSO , PbSO 4 4 4 4 4 4 B. CaSO , MgSO D. BaSO , CaSO , SnSO 94 4 4 4 4 4 6320025 B 14 35541 51 01100008 40 MSU Which of the following substances should be least soluble in water? A. Ba(OH) B. BaSO C. BaCl D. BaS E. Ba(NO ) 94 2 4 2 3 2 6320026 C 14 35544 51 01100008 40 MSU Which of the following sets contains sulfates which all are insoluble in water ? A. HgSO , PbSO , CaSO C. BaSO , PbSO 4 4 4 4 4 4 B. CaSO , MgSO D. BaSO , CaSO ,SnSO 94 4 4 4 4 4 6320027 B 14 35548 51 01100008 40 MSU Which of the following sets contains three sulfides soluble in water ? A. BeS, CaS, ZnS C. BaS, PbS, Al S 4 2 3 B. Na S, CaS, Cs S D. Li S, Ag S, SnS 94 2 2 2 2 6320028 E 14 35552 51 01100008 40 MSU Which of the following substances should be least soluble in water? A. CaS B. Na S C. H S D. BaS E. Cs S 94 2 2 2 6330001 B 14 35555 52 00050087 05 STOP If the molal concentration of the strong electrolyte NaCl is doubled, what will be the effect on the freezing point depression of the solution? A. It will be slightly greater than twice its original value B. It will be slightly less than twice its original value C. It will exactly double 9 D. It will remain unchanged 6330002 B 14 35560 52 0111 40 STOP In concentrated ionic solutions, A. Ions move faster than in dilute solutions B. Ions are more restricted in their motion due to interionic attraction C. The solute is never completely ionized D. Ions affect colligative properties to the greatest 9 extent 6330003 B 14 35564 52 0111 40 STOP 5 o A 1.0 molal solution of NaCl freezes at -1.5 C. If the solution is diluted to 0.5 molal, its freezing point will be how much below the freezing point of pure water? 5 o o A. 3.0 C C. slightly less than 0.75 C 5 o o 9 B. slightly greater than 0.75 C D. 1.5 C 6330004 C 15 35570 52 0070 05 STOP A 4.0 molar solution of the weak acid HCN in water is 2.0% 5 + - ionized according to the equation HA -----> H + A . If the solution is diluted to 2.0 molar, the percent ionization will be A. 1.0% B. 2.0% C. slightly greater than 2.0% D. slightly less than 1.0% 9 E. unaffected 6330005 B 14 35575 51 0089 05 STOP Weak electrolytes A. ionize to a greater extent in more concentrated solutions than in dilute solutions B. ionize to a greater extent in more dilute solutions than in concentrated solutions C. ionize to the same extent in concentrated or dilute solutions as long as the solvent is the same D. dissolve as molecular species and do not ionize in 9 solution 6330006 E 15 35581 51 0160 05 MSU Two wires, connected to a battery, are dipped into a 2.0 molar solution of acetic acid and the conductance of the solution is measured. If enough water is added to dilute the solution to 0.5 molar, what change takes place in the conductance? A. Increases slightly D. falls to zero B. decreases slightly E. falls to about half 9 C. remains the same the original value 6330007 B 15 35587 51 00050087 05 STOP Dilution of an ionic solution A. causes ions to be more strongly influenced by ions of the opposite charge B. causes ions to interact less strongly with ions of opposite charge C. increases the attractive force between ions of the same charge D. increases the density of the ionic atmosphere around the central ion E. produces NO change in the ionic atmosphere of a 9 hydrated ion in water 6340001 A 15 35593 52 01100008 11 ETS2 OS Which of the following statements is true? A. The solubility in water of most compounds usually increases with a rise in temperature, the amount of the increase varying greatly with the compound. B. The solubilities of compounds in liquids, such as benzene or alcohol, are proportional to their solubilities in water. C. The composition of the solute and that of the solvent are the only factors that determine solubility. D. The solubility of any compound in water is directly proportional to the temperature of the solution. 9 E. Water solutions of compounds boil at 100 degrees C. 6340002 C 15 35602 51 01130110011411 ETS2 OS A gas is most soluble in water at A. low pressure and low temperature B. high pressure and high temperature C. high pressure and low temperature D. low pressure and high temperature E. pressure and temperature have NO effect on the solubility 9 of a gas in water 6340003 B 15 35606 52 01150110011611 ETS2 OS The cleaning properties of a soap solution are to the greatest extent due to A. reduced surface tension B. increased solubility C. increased cohesive forces D. increased molecular motion 9 E. reduced chemical activity 6340004 A 15 35610 51 01170118011911 ETS2 OS Milk may be considered as a colloidal suspension of fats and proteins in water. The fats and proteins may be precipitated from the suspension by A. adding an acid B. allowing the milk to settle C. pasteurization D. homogenization 9 E. filtration 6340005 C 15 35614 52 OS85 In a laboratory experiment, a student dissolved 5.30 g of lithium chloride in 100 mL of water, giving 105 g of solution with 5 o a specific heat capacity of 0.950 cal/g C. The dissolution caused 5 o o the temperature to change from 24.0 C to a maximum of 35.0 C. What 5 -o is the molar enthalpy of solution (/\H ) of lithium chloride? 4 -- soln A. +46.0 kJ/mole C. -36.7 kJ/mole E. -43.1 kJ/mole 9 B. +20.5 kJ/mole D. -20.5 kJ/mole 6340006 B 15 35622 51 01100087 11 ETS2 OS Which one of the following is not true? 3 ___ A. The ability of water to dissolve substances depends upon the attractive forces between water molecules and the substance. B. The maximum quantity of substance that can be dissolved in a certain amount of water is its solubility. C. It is possible to have a solution containing more of a substance than would be allowed on the basis of this solubility alone. D. A saturated solution is one containing an amount of solute per unit amount of solvent which is equal to its solubility. E. If we have solid NaCl in contact with a saturated solution of NaCl in water NO more NaCl molecules, Na ions or Cl 9 ions dissolve. 6340007 C 15 35633 51 01100113 11 ETS2 OS Which of the following statements is not true? 3 __ ___ A. Gases usually are not very soluble in liquids although there are many exceptions. B. Gas solubility in liquids usually increases with an increase in pressure. C. Gas solubility in liquids usually increases with an increase in temperature. D. Gases mix with other gases always. E. Some solid elements can be combined after melting and 9 freezing to form solutions of solid in solid. 6340008 E 15 35640 31 00050237 11 ETS2 OS Ionic compounds differ from covalent compounds in that ionic compounds A. usually form well defined crystals, covalent usually do not B. are all soluble in water, covalent are all insoluble C. never contain carbon, covalent always contain carbon D. are generally less volatile than covalent compounds 9 E. none of the above 6340009 D 14 35645 31 05060087 MSU Isopropanol and water form a homogeneous mixture when combined in any proportion. This property being displayed is called 9 A. solvation B. alloying C. saturation D. miscibility 6340010 D 15 35648 51 01300087010711 ETS2 OS A saturated solution A. is one that contains all the solute it can B. is one having the composition indicated by any point in the area below and to the right of the solubility curve C. always boils at 100.51 degrees C. D. is one in which (in the presence of undissolved solute) the processes of solution and deposition are going on at equal rates E. is an unstable condition and is thus likely at the slightest 9 disturbance to relapse to an unsaturated solution 6340011 C 14 35655 31 2WVW Tinctures always contain the solvent A. water B. iodine C. alcohol 9 D. glycerine 6340012 B 14 35657 31 2WVW Of the following solvents, the one most likely to dissolve an ionic solute is A. carbon tetrachloride B. methanol C. pentane 9 D. butyl ether 6340013 C 14 35660 31 2WVW Which has the least effect on the rate of solubility of a solid in a liquid? A. surface area B. agitation C. pressure 9 D. temperature 6340014 C 14 35663 31 2WVW Which one of the following is a description of a solution of potassium iodide in carbon tetrachloride? A. violet B. orange C. colorless 9 D. reddish brown 6340015 A 14 35666 31 2WVW Silver sulfate is a compound whose water solution could be A. dilute and saturated B. dilute and concentrated C. concentrated and saturated 9 D. concentrated and unsaturated 6340016 B 14 35669 31 2WVW If a compound has a negative heat of solution, at high temperatures it dissolves A. more rapidly and is more soluble B. more rapidly and is less soluble C. less rapidly and is less soluble 9 D. less rapidly and is more soluble 6340017 C 14 35673 31 2WVW Increasing the pressure increases the solubility in water of A. solids and gases B. liquids only C. gases only 9 D. both liquids and gases 6340018 B 15 44939 31 2WVW A crystal of potassium chloride added to a solution of potassium chloride does not dissolve and the solution remains unchanged. The solution is A. dilute B. saturated C. supersaturated D. unsaturated 9 E. colloidal 6340019 C 14 44776 31 2WVW A gas is most soluble in water at A. low pressure and low temperature B. high pressure and high temperature C. high pressure and low temperature D. low pressure and high temperature 9 E. Gas solubility is independent of temperature and pressure 6340020 A 14 35682 31 2WVW A saturated solution of potassium nitrate may be made unsaturated by A. raising the temperature B. raising the pressure C. adding more solute 9 D. evaporating some of the water 6340021 B 14 35685 32 2WVW Which two liquids are immiscible? A. Water and methyl alcohol B. Water and carbon tetrachloride C. Water and glycerol 9 D. Kerosene and gasoline 6340022 C 14 35688 31 2WVW Which procedure is most likely to increase the solubility of nearly all solids? A. Stirring B. Pulverizing the solid C. Heating the solution 9 D. Increasing the pressure. 6340023 A 14 35691 32 040308080008 2 OS Iodine is least soluble in A. water B. a water solution containing an iodide C. carbon tetrchloride 9 D. carbon disulfide 6340024 A 14 35693 32 07860008 2 OS Bromine is only moderately soluble in A. water B. carbon tetrachloride C. carbon disulfide 9 D. water solutions of bromides 6340025 B 14 35695 32 011401100113 2 OS As the pressure decreases, the solubility of gases in liquids A. increases B. decreases C. decreases first then increases 9 D. remains the same 6340026 C 14 35698 31 024401070087 2 OS Adding a small crystal of solute to a supersaturated solution causes A. the crystal to dissolve B. the crystal to fall to the bottom of the solution without perceptible change C. the excess solute to cystallize out 9 D. a decrease in the temperature of the solution 6340027 D 14 35702 31 011001690161 2 OS The solubility of solids depends on all of the following except A. the identity of the solid B. the solvent used C. the temperature 9 D. the particle size of the solid 6340028 A 14 35705 31 044505520554 2 OS The form in which equal weights of sugar will dissolve most rapidly while stirring is A. powdered B. lump C. granulated 9 D. rock candy 6340029 B 14 35708 31 007301960908 2 OS Among the following, the calcium compound most soluable in pure water is calcium A. carbonate B. hydrogen carbonate C. sulfite 9 D. hydroxide 6340030 A 14 35711 31 013000870107 0041 A saturated solution is a solution that A. contains the maximum amount of solute B. contains the maximum amount of solvent C. is in process of crystallizing 9 D. contains polar molecules 6340031 C 14 35714 32 079400180808 0041 Which group of the following salts is least soluble? A. acetates B. sodium salts 9 C. copper salts D. ammonium salts 6340032 B 14 35716 51 003708080008 0043 Choose the compound which is most soluble in water: A. HgS B. K S C. ZnS D. SnS. 94 2 6340033 E 15 35718 31 011001070169 0019 Which of the following doesn't affect the solubility of a solid solute in a solvent? A. nature of the solvent B. nature of the solute C. temperature D. pressure 9 E. all of the above affect the solubility 6340034 A 15 35721 31 141401610110 0019 Which of the following statements is true concerning the effect of temperature on the solubility of a solid in a liquid? A. If the process is exothermic, the solubility decreases with a temperature increase B. If the process is endothermic, the solubility decreases with a temperature increase C. The solubility always increases with a temperature increase D. The solubility always decreases with a temperature increase 9 E. None of the above is true 6340035 B 15 35728 31 016105540110 0019 When LiCl is mixed with water, the temperature increases as the salt dissolves. Thus, one would expect: A. solubility to increase with increasing temperature B. solubility to decrease with increasing temperature C. solubility not to depend on the temperature D. solubility to depend on the pressure 9 E. none of these 6340036 B 14 35733 31 011001130114 0019 High solubility of a gas in a liquid is most favored by A. high pressure, high temperature B. high pressure, low temperature C. low pressure, high temperature 9 D. low pressure, low temperature 6340037 A 15 35736 31 008706830110 0040 A solution process is found to be endothermic. Which of the following will increase the solubility of solute in solvent? A. Heating the solution B. Stirring the solution C. Grinding the solute into a fine powder D. Cooling the solution 9 E. No correct response is given. 6340038 B 15 35740 72 072101801453 0040 A salt is dissolved in water and the reaction is endothermic. If E is the energy needed to separate the ions of the salt 4 1 lattice, E is the energy needed to separate water molecules from 4 2 each other, and E is the energy of hydration of the ions by 4 3 water molecules, it is true for this reaction that A. E + E < E B. E + E > E C. E + E > E D. E + E > E 4 1 2 3 1 2 3 1 3 2 2 3 1 E. E + E = E 94 1 2 3 6340039 D 15 35747 52 01100130 0040 The solubility of a substance is 20 g per 80 g of water. A saturated solution contains what percent water by weight? 3 _____ A. 33.4% B. 66.6% C. 20% D. 80% 9 E. no correct response is given. 6340040 B 14 44548 52 011011730130 0009 5 o The solubility of a certain salt in water is 22 g/liter at 25 C 5 o and 60 g/liter at 80 C. A student prepares 500 mL of saturated 5 o o solution at 80 C, cools to 25 C and adds a tiny crystal of salt. How many grams of salt come out of solution? 9 A. 11 B. 19 C. 22 D. 8 6340041 D 14 35756 51 031801100114 0009 Which of the following has the least effect on the solubility of a solid in a liquid solvent? A. Nature of solute B. Nature of solvent 9 C. Temperature D. Pressure 6340042 D 14 35759 51 011000080114 0009 The solubility of CO in water at 20 degrees C is 3.4 g/liter at 4 2 1 atm. If the CO pressure is raised to 3 atm, the solubility, 4 2 in g/liter, is expected to be 9 A. 3.4/3 B. 3 C. 3.4 D. 3.4 x 3 6340043 D 14 35763 32 01101377 0009 For which of the following pairs would you expect solubility to be the greatest? A. O -water B. sugar-water C. sugar-benzene D. O -N 94 2 2 2 6340044 C 14 35766 52 19480110 0059 The least water-soluble of the following is: A. CaCl B. Ca(HCO ) C. CaCO D. CaSO 94 2 3 2 3 4 6340045 B 14 35768 52 1948 0059 5 2+ Which of the following gives the lowest concentration of Pb under usual conditions? A. PbCl B. PbCrO C. PbSO D. Pb(C H O ) 94 2 4 4 2 3 2 2 6340046 D 14 35772 31 0087 MSU Calcium chloride (CaCl ) absorbs heat when it dissolves in 4 2 water. The amount of CaCl which dissolves could be increased by 4 2 A. not having solid solute in equilibrium with the solution B. stirring vigorously while dissolving the solute C. adding a huge excess of CaCl to the solution 4 2 9 D. heating the water while adding the salt 6340047 A 13 35778 31 0087 MSU The solubility of a certain salt decreases with increasing temperature. When crystals of this salt are dissolved in water, the temperature of the resulting solution A. would increase C. would not change E. oscillates 9 B. would decrease D. cannot be predicted 6340048 A 14 35782 51 0110 40 MSU Consider a gas such as CO and a salt such as KNO . 4 2 3 Dissolving KNO in water is an endothermic process. Which 4 3 of the following statements is true ? A. The solubility of KNO would increase as the temperature of 4 3 the solution is increased, while that of CO would decrease. 4 2 B. The solubility of KNO would increase as the temperature of 4 3 the solution is decreased, while that of CO would decrease. 4 2 C. The solubilities of both KNO and CO would increase 4 3 2 as the temperature of the solution is increased. D. The solubilities of both KNO and CO would decrease 4 3 2 9 as the temperature of the solution is decreased 6340049 D 14 35795 51 0110 40 MSU Consider a gas such as HCl and a salt such as Na SO . 4 2 4 dissolving Na SO in water is an exothermic process. Which 4 2 4 of the following statements is true ? A. The solubility of Na SO would increase as the temperature of 4 2 4 the solution is increased, while that of HCl would decrease. B. The solubility of Na SO would decrease as the temperature of 4 2 4 the solution is decreased, while that of HCl would increase. C. The solubilities of both HCl and Na SO would increase 4 2 4 as the temperature of the solution is increased. D. The solubilities of both HCl and Na2SO4 would decrease 4 2 4 9 as the temperature of the solution is increased. 6340050 C 14 35807 31 01100008 40 MSU Which of the following statements about the solubility of a substance in water is correct ? A. All nitrates are insoluble. B. Nonpolar liquids are soluble in polar liquids. C. If hydrogen-bonding can occur between a solute and solvent, the solute is more soluble than if no hydrogen bonding could occur. D. All sulfates are insoluble except those of barium and lead. 9 E. All chlorides are soluble. 6340051 D 15 35813 51 01100008 40 MSU Consider the following compounds NH NO , MgSO and NaBr. 4 4 3 4 Which of the following statements about their solubility in water is correct ? A. Only NH NO and NaBr are soluble. 4 4 3 B. Only MgSO is soluble. 4 4 C. Only NH NO is soluble. 4 4 3 D. All are soluble. 9 E. All are insoluble. 6341001 C 14 35819 52 01100008 40 MSU Which of the following substances should be MOST soluble in water? A. BaSO B. CCl C. NaCl D. Cl 94 4 4 2 6341002 E 15 35822 52 01100008 40 MSU Which of the following substances should be LEAST soluble in water? A. MgSO B. H SO C. K SO D. Ag SO E. BaSO 94 4 2 4 2 4 2 4 4 6350001 C 15 35825 52 01070081010811 ETS2 OS Whether or not a solute dissociates upon solution may be determined by A. noting the physical appearance of the solution B. filtering the solution C. passing an electric current through the solution D. noting the evolution of heat during solution 9 E. observing a chemical change while the solute is dissolving 6350002 C 15 35830 31 00700081 11 ETS2 OS The degree of ionization of a solution refers to A. the temperature of the solution B. the quantity of solution C. the number of molecules dissociated D. the quantity of electricity produced 9 E. the quantity of free electrons 6350003 B 14 35834 31 2WVW Soluble salts make good electrolytes because they contain many A. atoms B. ions C. electrons 9 D. molecules 6350004 D 14 35836 32 007000890087 2 OS The degree of ionization of an electrolyte may be found by measuring all the following properties of the solution except its A. freezing point B. boiling point C. electrical conductivity 9 D. density 6350005 D 14 35839 31 1109 0192 0041 Dissociation refers to A. the formation of a precipitate B. the separation of a mixture of polar and nonpolar liquids (such as oil and water) into separate layers C. the separation of a solution containing ions into separate layers of + and - ions 9 D. the separation of a substance into free ions 6350006 B 14 35844 52 007704380081 0041 The reason that pure acids in the liquid state are not dissociated is that their chemical bonds are 9 A. ionic B. covalent C. metallic D. van der waals 6350007 E 15 35847 52 008702390522 0042 Given a 0.1 M solution of a weak acid HX, what will happen if it is diluted to 0.01 M? 5 + A. The H will decrease to .01 M B. The pH will decrease 5 - C. The X will increase D. The K will change 4 a 9 E. The percent dissociation will increase. 6350008 B 14 35851 51 142102540081 0043 Which of the following has the largest dissociation constant? A. NH B. HNO C. HC H O D. H O 94 3 3 2 3 2 2 6350009 D 14 35853 51 13180081 0043 Which of the following shows the highest percentage dissociation? 5 -10 A. 1.0 M HCN (K = 4.0 x 10 ) B. 0.10 M HCN 4 diss 5 -4 C. 1.0 M HNO (K = 4.5 x 10 ) D. 0.10 M HNO 94 2 diss 2 6350010 A 15 35858 31 055209580554 0020 Sugar dissolves in water A. due to the formation of hydrogen bonds B. due to the formation of ions C. because of compound formation D. because sugar molecules are ionic 9 E. none of these 6350011 A 14 35861 52 023900811318 0009 A certain weak acid is 10% dissociated in 1.0 M solution. In 0.10 M solution, the percentage of dissociation would be 9 A. > 10 B. 10 C. < 10 D. complete E. no dissociation 6350012 C 15 35864 31 008100870178 0035 Whether or not a solute dissociates upon solution may be determined by A. noting the physical appearance of the solution. B. filtering the solution. C. passing an electric current through the solution. D. noting the evolution of heat during solution. 9 E. observing a chemical change while the solute is dissolving. 6360001 D 14 35869 51 080800870522 0043 BaSO is soluble in a dilute solution of: 4 3 A. NaOH B. NH C. BaCl D. HNO 94 3 2 3 6400001 A 15 35871 72 05210495029312 ETS2 OS Van't Hoff's coefficient i may be interpreted to represent A. the average number of particles formed per molecule of solute due to association or dissociation B. the number of particles in excess of the normal number formed by dissociation C. the ratio of dissociated molecules to undissociated molecules D. the number of ions per mole of solute E. the excess osmotic pressure due to the ions present in 9 solution 6400002 D 15 35878 72 05210536010712 ETS2 OS What does Van't Hoff mean by the term "ideal solution"? A. one which exhibits an increase in osmotic pressure with concentration. B. one which has the same total molecular concentration as an equal volume of ideal gas under the same conditions. C. one in which removal of the solvent forms an ideal gas consisting of the pure solute. D. one in which solute molecules are far enough apart to act independently of one another. 9 E. one in which the solute is not dissociated. 6400003 C 15 35885 52 03820107012813 ETS2 OS A solution consisting of one gram of an organic solute in 100 grams of water is observed to freeze at -0.20 degrees C. The molecular weight of the solute is, therefore, nearest 9 A. 10 B. 60 C. 90 D. 100 E. 120 6400004 A 15 35889 72 05230087051912 OS90 According to Arrhenius, a solution of a substance which dissociates into ions would have, at a given temperature and percentage concentration, A. a greater osmotic pressure than if the substance did not dissociate B. the same osmotic pressure as if the substance did not dissociate C. a smaller osmotic pressure than if the substance did not dissociate D. an osmotic pressure which may be greater or smaller than that of the undissociated solution, depending upon the value of the activity coefficient a E. an osmotic pressure which may be greater or smaller than that of the undissociated solution, depending upon the value 9 of Van't Hoff's coefficient i. 6400005 C 15 35941 51 00180292052211 ETS2 OS The "additivity" of properties of dilute salt solutions can be regarded as direct evidence for the proposition that A. in a dilute solution the solute consists only of ions B. in a dilute solution the solute is a mixture of elements C. Avogadro's law holds for all dilute solutions D. the activity coefficient of a dilute solution is proportional to its conductivity E. a great expenditure of energy is required to separate ions 9 from one another 6400006 D 15 35948 72 05210292010711 ETS2 OS Which of the following statements furnishes the strongest support for Van't Hoff's extension of Avogadro's law to solutions? A. The behavior of solute molecules may be expected to resemble that of gas molecules, since in both cases the distance between molecules is great relative to their size. B. Densities of gases and concentrations of solutions are similar concepts, since both are expressible in terms of amount per unit volume. C. Correct molecular weights can be found from the assumption that isotonic solutions contain the same weight of solute in equal volumes. D. A gas pressure calculated for a given molecular concentration and temperature is found to correspond to an osmotic pressure measured under the same conditions. E. Gas pressures vary in the same 9 ratio with changes in temperature and concentration. 6400007 D 15 45574 71 For a 0.001 molar solution of Al(NO ) , the van't Hoff factor, i, 4 3 3 would be about 9 A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 6400008 AD 25 35960 51 90 2WVW MACROITEM STEM 2Consider 0.1 molal solutions of the following materials. 2 A. CaF 4 2 2 B. HF 2 C. CH COOH 4 3 2 D. C H O (glucose) 4 6 12 6 2 E. AlPO 04 4 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 Which would have the largest freezing point depression? MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 9 Which would have the smallest freezing point depression? 6400009 C 15 35964 52 073604981149 0020 Which of the following is not a colligative property? A. Freezing points B. Boiling points C. Solubility D. Vapor pressure 9 E. Osmotic pressure 6400010 E 15 45037 31 0736 0040 A solution which contains 10 g of sugar in 500 g of water would 5 o A. freeze at a temperature above 0 C at sea level 5 o B. boil at a temperature below 100 C at sea level C. have a vapor pressure more than pure water at sea level 5 o D. freeze at 0 C 9 E. has the same vapor pressure as pure water 6400011 D 15 35972 31 0736 0040 Which of the following observations represents the involvement of colligative properties of solutions? A. ice cream freezes at a temperature lower than 0 degrees C B. salt water boils at a higher temperature than pure water C. pure water moves through a thin membrane separating it from sugar water D. all above involve colligative properties 9 E. no correct response is given. 6400012 D 15 35978 31 0736 0040 Which of the following observations is caused by a colligative property of solutions? A. Water freezes at lower temperature under pressure B. Water boils at a higher temperature under pressure C. Salt dissolves more rapidly in hot water than in cold D. Ice melts at a lower temperature when salt is added 9 E. No correct response is given. 6400013 D 15 35983 31 07360131 0040 Which of the following colligative properties of solutions are related to the vapor pressure change? A. boiling point B. freezing point C. osmotic pressure D. more than one response is correct 9 E. no correct response is given. 6400014 B 14 35987 52 00871620 0009 For a 0.1 M solution of KNO , i would probably be 4 3 A. about 1 B. slightly less than 2 9 C. slightly greater than 2 D. about 5 6400015 D 14 35990 51 07360662 0009 Which one of the following is not a colligative property? 9 A. freezing point B. molarity C. osmotic pressure D. color 6400016 B 14 35992 51 049811490161 On a vapor pressure--temperature curve, the temperature which corresponds to a vapor pressure of 760 torr is called the A. heat of vaporization C. critical temperature B. normal boiling point D. triple point 9 temperature 6400017 D 14 35996 51 0149 At 25 degrees C and 1 atm pressure, the vapor pressure of water is less than that of SO . Which of the following must be true? 4 3 A. SO must be more polar than water 4 3 B. Water should sublime more easily than SO 4 3 C. The intermolecular attractive forces are greater in SO than in water 4 3 D. The intermolecular attractive forces are greater in water than in SO 94 3 6400018 B 14 36003 52 024508710286 A closed system consisting of 5.0 grams of water and 5.0 grams of steam is at equilibrium at 100 degrees C. How much heat is needed to change the system entirely to steam at 100 degrees C? 9 A. 5400 cal B. 2700 cal C. 540 cal D. 10 cal 6400019 B 15 36007 51 049811490438 When the vapor pressure of a liquid is equal to the pressure of the atmosphere around it, the liquid must be at its ________ point. 9 A. triple B. boiling C. critical D. sublimation E. freezing 6400020 D 14 36010 52 04450181 A sample of water (molecular weight = 18) is vaporized in a device such that the exact amount of heat required can be measured. If 1080 calories of heat are used, what was the initial weight of the water? 9 A. 1080 g B. 540 g C. 60 g D. 2.0 g 6400021 C 14 36014 52 04450286 A moist sample of earth weighing 6.0 grams total is to be dried for soil analysis. If 1080 calories of heat are supplied to vaporize all of the water in the sample, what is the final dry weight of the soil? 9 A. 6.0 g B. 5.0 g C. 4.0 g D. 2.0 g 6400022 C 15 36018 52 0111 40 STOP The freezing point of a 0.1 M NaCl solution is depressed 5 o 0.348 C. The freezing point of a 1.0 M NaCl is depressed 5 o A. 0.348 C 5 o B. 3.48 C 5 o C. slightly less than 3.48 C 5 o D. slightly more than 3.48 C 5 o 9 E. slightly more than 0.348 C 6400023 D 15 44702 52 0111 40 STOP The freezing point of a 0.1 molal aqueous solution of a 5 o nonelectrolyte is depressed 0.186 C. How much would the freezing point of a 0.1 molal solution of MgCl be depressed? 4 2 5 o A. 0.186 C 5 o B. exactly three times 0.186 C 5 o C. exactly one-third 0.186 C 5 o D. slightly less than three times 0.186 C 5 o 9 E. slightly greater than three times 0.186 C 6400024 C 15 36032 52 0111 40 STOP 5 o The freezing point of a 0.1 M NaCl solution is -0.348 C. What would be the freezing point of a 0.01 M NaCl solution? 5 o A. -0.348 C 5 o B. -0.0348 C 5 o C. slightly lower than -0.0348 C 5 o D. slightly higher than -0.0348 C 5 o 9 E. slightly lower than -0.348 C 6400025 C 15 36039 52 0498 40 STOP 5 o The boiling point of an aqueous solution of KBr is 0.5 C higher than that of pure water. If the KBr concentration is doubled, the boiling point of the resulting solution would be 5 o A. exactly 0.25 C above that of pure water. 5 o B. exactly 0.50 C above that of pure water. 5 o C. slightly less than 1.0 C above that of pure water. 5 o D. slightly less than 0.25 C above that of pure water. 5 o 9 E. slightly greater than 1.0 C above that of pure water. 6400026 C 15 36048 51 1149 05 MSU Which one of the following aqueous solutions has the highest 5 o water vapor pressure at 20 C A. 0.1 M CaCl (100% ionized) C. 0.01 m glycerine (unionized) 4 2 B. 0.1 m NaCl (100% ionized) D. 0.1 m glucose (unionized) E. 1.0 m KNO (100% ionized) 94 3 6400027 C 15 36054 52 0111 40 MSU A benzene solution is 2.0 m in CI . What will be the freezing point 4 4 5 o -1 of this solution? (k for benzene is 4.9 C m . The freezing point 4 f 5 o of pure benzene is 5.0 C.) 5 o o o o o 9 A. 15 C B. 4.9 C C. -4.8 C D. -9.8 C E. 0.1 C 6400028 C 15 36060 52 0111 40 MSU A 0.10 molal solution of NaCl is completely ionized in water. What will be the freezing point of this solution ? (K for water is 1.86.) 4 f 5 o o o o o 9 A. 0.186 C B. -0.093 C C. -0.372 C D. 0.372 C E. -0.186 C 6400029 D 15 36064 52 0111 40 MSU Addition of 0.5 mole of a nonionic, nonvolatile solute will have what effect on the freezing point of 500 grams of water ? (K for water is 1.86) 4 f 5 o o A. raise f.p. 0.93 C D. Lower f.p. 1.86 C 5 o B. Lower f.p. 0.93 C E. No effect 5 o 9 C. raise f.p. 1.86 C 6400030 C 15 36069 52 0111 40 MSU What is the freezing point of a solution containing 0.2 mole of sugar dissolved in 100 grams of water ? (K for water is 1.86) 4 f 5 o o o o o 9 A. 1.86 C B. 3.72 C C. -3.72 C D. -0.0186 C E. -0.372 C 6400031 E 15 36074 52 0172 40 MSU 5 o Pure phenol melts at 42 C. What is the melting point of a solution of 1.0 mole of napthalene in 500 g of phenol? K for phenol is 7.40) 4 f 5 o o o o o 9 A. 14.8 C B. 38.9 C C. 34.6 C D. 49.4 C E. 27.2 C 6400032 A 14 36078 52 0498 40 MSU If 500 ml of a 1.0 molal solution of sugar in acetic acid 5 o boils at 12l C, what would be the boiling point of pure acetic acid ? (K for acetic acid is 3.0) 4 b 5 o o o o 9 A. 118 C B. 119.5 C C. 122.5 C D. 124 C 6400033 B 15 36082 52 0498 40 MSU How will the boiling point of a 1.5 m solution of a nonvolatile nonelectrolyte in acetic acid compare with the boiling point of pure solvent. 5 o (k for pure acetic acid is 3.07 C/molal) 4 b 5 o o o A. 3.5 C higher C. 4.6 C lower E. 46 C higher 5 o o 9 B. 4.6 C higher D. 3.07 C lower 6400034 D 15 36088 52 0498 40 MSU At what temperature would a 2.0 molal solution of sugar syrup boil ? (K for water is 0.51) 4 b 5 o o o o o 9 A. 110 C B. 200 C C. 10 C D. 101 C E. 105 C 6400035 A 15 44847 52 0498 40 MSU 5 o Pure benzene boils at 80 C. If 13.0 g naphthalene (C H ) are added to 1000 g benzene, what will be the boiling point 4 10 10 5 o -1 of the solution ? (k for benzene is 2.5 C m ) 4 b 5 o o o o o 9 A. 80.25 C B. 82.5 C C. 80 C D. 77.5 C E. 79.75 C 6400036 C 15 45056 52 0498 40 MSU If 3.94 grams of solid CHI are dissolved in 100 grams of 4 3 benzene, how will the boiling point of benzene be 5 o -1 affected ? (K for benzene is 2.5 C m ) 4 b 5 o o A. raise B.P. 2.5 C D. raise B.P. 0.025 C 5 o o B. lower B.P. 2.5 C E. lower B.P. 3.94 C 5 o 9 C. raise B.P. 0.25 C 6400037 B 15 36103 52 0498 40 MSU What is the B.P. of a 5.0 molal solution of sugar dissolved in water ? (K for water is 0.5) 4 b 5 o o o o o 9 A. 2.5 C B. 102.5 C C. 97.5 C D. 105 C E. 95 C 6400038 B 15 36107 52 0498 40 MSU What is the B.P. of a 5.0 molal solution of sugar dissolved in water ? (K for water is 0.5) 4 b 5 o o o o o 9 A. 2.5 C B. 102.5 C D. 97.5 C D. 105 C E. 95 C 6400039 D 15 36111 52 0111 MSU What is the freezing point of 1000 grams of water to which has been added 4.0 moles of sugar ? (K for water is 1.86) 4 f 5 o o o o o 9 A. 0.00 C B. 4.0 C C. 7.44 C D. -7.44 C E. -1.86 C 6400040 C 15 36115 52 0498 40 MSU If 25.4 grams of solid I are dissolved in 1000 grams of 4 2 5 o o pure benzene (b.p. 80 C), what will be the boiling point ( C) of the resulting solution ? (K for benzene is 2.5.) 4 b 9 A. 105.4 B. 100 C. 80.25 D. 80.0 E. 79.75 6400041 B 15 36120 52 0111 40 MSU What effect will addition of 2.0 moles of a nonvolatile, nonionic solute to 2000 grams of pure nitrobenzene have on the freezing point of nitrobenzene ? (K for nitrobenzene is 7.0) 5 o o A. raise the F.P. 7.0 C C. raise the F.P. 14 C E. no effect 5 o o 9 B. lower the F.P. 7.0 C D. lower the F.P. 14 C 6400042 D 15 36126 52 0111 40 MSU 5 o A 4.0 molal solution of CCl in benzene freezes at -15 C. What is 4 4 5 o the freezing point (in C) of pure benzene (K for benzene is 5.0)? 4 f 9 A. 0.0 B. -10 C. -15 D. 5.0 E. 10.0 6400043 C 15 36131 52 0498 40 MSU 5 o A 2.0 molal solution of sugar in acetic acid boils at 124 C. What 5 o is the boiling point of pure acetic acid (in C)? (K for 4 b acetic acid is 3.0.) 9 A. 126 B. 124 C. 118 D. 122 E. 127 6400044 D 14 36136 51 0736 05 MSU Which of the following statements is true concerning the nonvolatile, nonionic solids CHI and CI ? 4 3 4 A. Because CI has greater size, a mole of it will depress the 4 4 freezing point of 1,000 grams of pure solvent more than a mole of CHI . 4 3 B. CHI is more polar and will lower the vapor pressure of 1000 g 4 3 of benzene more than an equimolar amount of CI . 4 4 C. because both CI and CI are both covalent compounds, neither 4 3 4 will affect the colligitive properties of any solvent. D. Equimolar amounts of both CHI and CI will have identical 4 3 4 effects on the colligative properties of 1000 g of a solvent 9 in which they are dissolved. 6400045 C 14 36148 31 0736 05 MSU The colligative property which is the direct cause of the boiling point elevation of a solution is A. vapor pressure increase C. vapor pressure decrease 9 B. freezing point depression D. osmotic pressure 6400046 C 14 36151 51 1149 05 MSU A and B are both nonvolatile, nonionic solids. A has a higher molecular weight than B. If one mole of each is dissolved in separate 1000 g portions of the same solvent, which solution (A or B) will have the lowest vapor pressure? A. A B. B C. both solutions would have the same vapor pressure D. It depends upon the vapor pressure depression constant 9 for the particular solvent. 6400047 B 14 36157 51 0736 05 MSU When added to one liter of water, which of the following amounts of substances should have the greatest effect on the colligative properties of the water ? A. 1.0 mole LiCl (completely ionized) B. 1.0 mole CaCl (completely ionized) 4 2 C. 1.0 mole BaSO (insoluble) 4 4 9 D. 1.0 mole glycerin (unionized) 6400048 C 14 36162 51 0736 05 MSU When added to one liter of water, which of the following amounts of substances should have the LEAST effect on the colligative properties of the water ? A. 1.0 mole NaBr (completely ionized) B. 1.0 mole BaCl (completely ionized) 4 2 C. 1.0 mole PbSO (insoluble) 4 4 9 D. 1.0 mole naphthalene (nonionized) 6400049 C 15 36167 51 1149 05 MSU Which of the following aqueous solutions has the lowest 5 o water vapor pressure at 33 C? A. 0.1 M NaCl (100% ionized) B. 1.0 M sugar (unionized) C. 1.0 M KNO (100% ionized) 4 3 D. 0.01 m glycerin (unionized) E. 0.5 m Ca(NO ) (100% ionized) 94 3 2 6400050 C 14 36172 51 0111 05 MSU A solution is to be made by dissolving 10 g of solute in 100 g of water. Choose the solute from the following list which would give the solution with the LOWEST freezing point. A. Sugar, C H O (unionized) 4 6 12 6 B. ethylene glycol, C H O (unionized) 4 2 6 2 C. NaOH (100% ionized) D. ethyl alcohol, C H O (unionized) 94 2 6 6400051 A 14 36178 51 0111 05 MSU In order to protect your car radiator against freezing you must add some kind of solute to the water. Consider 100 g of each of the following substances dissolved in 1000 g water. Which would give you the greatest protection against freezing. That is, which has the lowest freezing point? A. Methyl alcohol, CH OH (unionized) 4 3 B. ethyl alcohol, C H OH (unionized) 4 2 5 C. ethylene glycol, C H (OH) (unionized) 4 2 4 2 D. butyl alcohol, C H OH (unionized) 94 4 9 6410001 E 15 36186 32 01310132 11 ETS2 OS It is difficult to cook potatoes in water at the top of a high mountain because water boils there at a relatively low temperature. This difficulty might be overcome by A. using a larger flame so as to boil the water more rapidly B. using distilled water C. using an aluminum kettle so as to distribute the heat more evenly D. using a larger kettle 9 E. using a pressure cooker 6410002 E 15 36192 52 07360132 2WVW A solution of 0.30 mole of a nonvolatile substance in 1500 g of solvent (BP 107.0 deg. C.) boils at 109.0 deg. C. What is the molal boiling point elevation constant of the solvent in units 5 -1 of (deg. C.) x (molality) ? 9 A. 0.5 B. 0.75 C. 5.0 D. 7.5 E. 10.0 6410003 C 14 36196 31 049800870073 2 OS Theoretically the boiling point of a molal solution of calcium chloride is A. 100 degrees Celsius B. 100.52 degrees Celsius C. 101.56 degrees Celsius 9 D. 101.86 degrees Celsius 6410004 B 15 36199 52 013207900087 0044 Calculate the boiling point of a .163 molal solution of a non-electrolyte in acetic acid. The boiling point and boiling 5 o o point elevation constant for acetic acid are 118 C and 3.07 C per molal respectively. A. 118 - 3.07 B. 118 + 3.07 X 0.163 C. 118 9 D. 118 - 3.07 x 0.163 E. none of the above. 6410005 D 15 36204 52 013207900087 0044 Calculate the boiling point of a 0.104 molal solution of a nonelectrolyte in phenol. The boiling point and boiling point 5 o o elevation constant for phenol are 182 C and 3.56 C per molal respectively. A. 182 - 3.56 x 0.104 B. 182 + 3.56 C. 182 9 D. 182 + 3.56 x 0.104 E. None of the above. 6410006 E 15 36209 52 079001140128 0044 A solution of 12.7 grams of a nonelectrolyte in 0.148 kilogram of 5 o H O boils at 100.950 C. at standard pressure. What is the 4 2 molecular weight of the compound? (The boiling point elevation 5 o constant for H O at standard pressure is 0.520 C per molal.) 4 2 9 A. 6.95 B. 174 C. 157 10.3 E. 47.0 6410007 C 14 36215 32 04050107012851 9000 One hundred eighty grams of a non-volatile molecular solute is dissolved in 750 grams water. The boiling point of the water is determined to be 101.04 degrees C at 760 mm Hg. (The molal boiling point constant for water is 0.52 degrees C) What is the molecular weight of the solute? 9 A. 300 B. 240 C. 120 D. 60 6410008 D 15 36220 51 04980114 Which one of the following changes in a system would raise the boiling point of a pure liquid? A. An increase in the temperature of the liquid B. An increase in the volume which the vapor over the liquid can occupy C. A decrease in the intermolecular forces of attraction in the liquid D. An increase in the pressure applied 9 E. None of the above 6410009 C 14 36226 52 06030403013205 CWHS 5 o The normal boiling point (B.P.) of pure CCl is 76.80 C. 4 4 5 o Its molal boiling point elevation constant is 5.03 C. Neglecting the volatility of I , calculate the expected 4 2 B.P. of a solution containing 1.00 g I and 25.38 g CCl . 4 2 4 5 o o o o 9 A. 70.36 C B. 76.02 C C. 77.58 C D. 83.20 C 6420001 D 15 36234 51 01110107011211 ETS2 OS Adding a solute to a solvent will A. raise the freezing point but not affect the boiling point B. raise the boiling point but not affect the freezing point C. raise the freezing point and the boiling point D. lower the freezing point and raise the boiling point 9 E. lower the freezing point and the boiling point 6420002 B 15 36239 52 01270128 11 ETS2 OS The freezing point depression method of molecular weight determination is particularly useful because A. it is much more accurate than the vapor density method B. many more substances can be examined in solution than as vapors C. vapor densities require a knowledge of Avogadro's number D. it is easier to measure a temperature than to determine a weight E. substances of high molecular weights produce such large 9 depressions 6420003 BC 25 36246 72 0127012801391390 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM If you add one mole of sugar (non-ionic) to 1000 g water 0 the freezing point will be -1.86 degrees C. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 What is the molecular weight of an alcohol (non-ionic) if a solution of 6.4 grams of it in 1000 grams of water freezes at -0.372 degrees C? A. 5 grams per mole B. 32 grams per mole C. 60 grams per mole D. 167 grams per mole 1 E. 372 grams per mole MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 Using what information you need from the preceeding item, determine what the freezing point of a 0.1 molal solution of the strong acid HCl would probably be. The answer is A. 0 degrees C. B. -0.186 degrees C. C. -0.372 degrees C. D. -0.558 degrees C. 9 E. -1.86 degrees C. 6420004 BA 25 36255 51 0553055405551390 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 0 Answer the following questions. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 When one mole of a certain gas is dissolved in 1000 grams of water, the observed freezing point of the resulting solution is observed to be -3.5 degrees C. The value of i for this solute is A. 1 B. 1.9 C. 2 D. 3.5 1 E. not calcuable unless the molecular weight of the gas is known MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 On the basis of the data above, one may conclude that the gas in solution is A. almost completely dissociated B. dissociated, but to an unknown extent C. ionized and dissociated D. neither ionized nor dissociated 9 E. composed of molecular complexes and not ionized 6420005 D 15 36263 52 01270736 2WVW Consider the following freezing point depression data taken, using 5 o -1 100 g of diphenylamine (C H ) NH (k = 6.8 C m ) as the 4 6 5 2 f solvent in each case: (1) 1.0 g n-propylamine, CH CH CH NH , gave /\ t = x deg. C. 4 3 2 2 2 -- f (2) 1.0 g isopropylamine, C H N, gave /\ t = y deg. C. 4 3 9 -- f (3) 1.0 g trimethylamine, (CH ) N, gave /\ t = z deg. C. 4 3 3 -- f How should the values of x, y, and z compare? A. x > y > z B. x < y < z C. x > y = z D. x = y = z 9 E. none of these 6420006 B 14 36273 31 00870711 2WVW Which solution has the lowest freezing point? A. 1 molal sugar B. 1 molal barium chloride C. 1 molal nitric acid 9 D. 1 molal sodium hydroxide 6420007 B 14 36276 31 2WVW The molal freezing point constant for water is A. .51 degrees centigrade/molal B. 1.86 degrees centigrade/molal C. zero degrees centigrade 9 D. 273 degrees centigrade 6420008 C 14 36279 32 000807890790 2 OS The molal-freezing point depression of water due to nonelectrolytes is A. 3 C. B. 0.52 C. 1.86 C. 9 D. dependent on their molecular weights 6420009 C 14 36282 31 012708160008 2 OS The molal-freezing point depression of water due to nonelectrolytes is A. 0 degrees C. B. .52 degrees C. 1.86 degrees C. 9 D. dependent on their molecular weights 6420010 A 15 36285 52 008714990789 0042 Consider 0.1 molal solutions of the following materials. Which would have the largest freezing point depression? A. CaF B. HF C. CH COOH D. C H O (glucose) E. AlPO 94 2 3 6 12 6 4 6420011 D 15 36289 52 008714990789 0042 Consider 0.1 molal solutions of the following materials. Which would have the smallest freezing point depression? A. CaF B. HF C. CH COOH D. C H O (glucose) E. AlPO 94 2 3 6 12 6 4 6420012 A 15 36293 52 008701270798 0042 Which 0.1 molal water solution has the lowest freezing point? A. Na SO B. NaCl C. KNO D. C H O (sugar) E. HC H O 94 2 4 3 12 22 11 2 3 2 6420013 C 15 36296 52 008717120111 0042 A solution of 20.0 g of an organic compound dissolved in 500 g anhydrous acetic acid lowered the freezing point by 1.30 deg. C the molal freezing point constant for acetic acid is 3.90 degrees C. The organic acid has a molecular weight which is: 9 A. 20 B. 60 C. 120 D. 240 E. none of these 6420014 C 15 36300 32 011100870081 0042 What is the freezing point of a solution of 0.10 F. Wt of MX 4 2 in 100 g of water if it is 20% dissociated? 9 A. -5.58 B. -1.30 C. -2.60 D. -0.650 E. none of these 6420015 A 15 36304 32 011100870534 0042 What is the freezing point of a solution containing 0.10 formula-weight of MX in 1000 g of water if it is 4 2 undissociated? 9 A. -1.86 B. -0.93 C. +0.52 D. -3.72 E. none of these. 6420016 A 15 36307 32 008701111371 0047 Which of the following solutions has the lowest freezing point? A. 15 g of NaCl in 1000 g of water. B. 10 g of LiI in 1000 g of water. C. 15 g of CaCl in 1000 g of water. 4 2 D. 1.0 g of BaCl in 1000 g of water E. pure water. 94 2 6420017 C 15 36311 52 011107890008 0044 Calculate the freezing point of a .137 molal solution of a non-electrolyte in water. The freezing point and freezing point 5 o depression constants for water are 0.0 degrees C and 1.86 C per molal respectively. A. .0 - 1.86 B. .0 + 1.86 C. .0 - (1.86)(0.137) D. .0 9 E. None of the above. 6420018 A 15 36316 52 079001140128 0044 A solution of 15.8 grams of a nonelectrolyte in .125 kilograms of 5 o H O freezes at -2.86 C at standard pressure. What is the 4 2 molecular weight of the compound (the freezing point depression 5 o constant for H O at standard pressure is 1.86 C per molal.) 4 2 A. 82.2 grams/mole B. 235 grams/mole C. 23.8 grams/mole 9 D. 3.04 grams/mole E. 1.28 grams/mole. 6420019 A 15 36322 52 000817860790 0044 What weight of ethylene glycol (HOCH CH OH, MW=62.1 g/mole) must 4 2 2 be added to 6000 grams of water to produce an antifreeze 5 o solution that would protect a car radiator down to -5.0 C)? Ethylene glycol is a nonelectrolyte. 5.0x62.1x6 11.9 x 62.1 1.86 x 62.1 A. ------------- B. ----------- C. ----------- 1.86 1.86 x 6 5.0 x 6 1.86 x 62.1 x 6 D. ----------------- E. none of the above. 9 5.0 6420020 C 15 36330 52 079001110008 0044 If one mole of ethyl alcohol (a nonelectrolyte) is dissolved in one kilogram of water, the freezing point is lowered 5 o approximately 1.86 C. If one mole of NaF is dissolved in a liter of water, the freezing point is lowered approximately: A. 1 x 1.86 C B. 5 x 1.86 C C. 2 x 1.86 C D. 3 x 1.86 C 9 E. none of the above. 6420021 B 13 36335 31 07360789 0026 Which organic compound given below should produce the greatest depression of the freezing point of water, assuming equimolal solutions of each? A. HOCH -CHOH-CH OH B. CH OH C. CH CH OH 94 2 2 3 3 2 6420022 E 15 36339 52 055307900111 0020 One mole of a nonelectrolyte dissolved in 1000 g of water lowers the freezing point A. 0.519 degrees C B. 3.98 degrees C C. 5.12 degrees C 9 D. 0.540 degrees C E. none of these 6420023 D 15 36342 52 011101070128 0020 The addition of 186 g of an unknown solute to 2.00 liters of water lowered the freezing point to -2.79 degrees C. What is the molecular mass of the solute? 9 A. 620 g B. 310 g C. 31.0 g D. 62.0 g E. none of these 6420024 D 14 36345 32 010700080555 0009 5 o A small amount of a certain solute (MP=800 C) is added to water. The solution will be expected to freeze A. above room temperature B. slightly above 0 degrees C 9 C. at 0 degrees C D. slightly below 0 degrees C 6420025 C 14 36349 72 08330127183105 When 16 grams of a non-ionizing substance dissolves in 250 g H O 4 2 5 o the freezing point is lowered to -3.72 C. The substance is: A. C H OH B. C H O C. CH OH D. LiOH 94 2 5 6 12 6 3 6420026 D 15 36354 31 008701110977 0019 Why does a 1 M NaCl solution have a lower freezing point than a 1 M sugar solution? A. NaCl has a lower molecular mass B. the greater solute concentration gives the lower freezing point C. NaCl decreases the vapor pressure of the solvent less than sugar does D. NaCl yields more particles per mole than sugar does E. the NaCl does not have a lower freezing point than the 9 sugar solution 6420027 D 15 36360 32 00870127 0019 A 1 M solution of NaCl would have a /\T in water of (k for 4 -- f H O is 1.86): 4 2 A. 1.86 B. less than 1.86 C. 3.72 D. less than 3.72 9 E. greater than 3.72 6420028 D 15 36363 52 011112010087 0019 Calculate the freezing point of a benzene solution made up of 12.2 grams of C H O dissolved in 200 grams of benzene. 4 7 6 2 t = 5.40 degrees C; k = 5.12. 4 f f 5 o o o o o 9 A. 2.56 C B. -2.56 C C. -2.94 C D. 2.84 C E. 5.40 C 6420029 C 15 36368 32 085301270128 0035 When one mole of naphthalene is dissolved in 1000 grams of benzene, the freezing point changes from 5.51 degrees C to 0.41 degrees C. When 20 grams of an unknown organic compound is dissolved in 500 grams of benzene, the freezing point of this solution is 5.00 degrees C. What is the molecular weight of the unknown organic compound? 9 A. 40 B. 128 C. 400 D. 100 E. 200 6420030 C 14 36373 32 0789 0003 The freezing point of a 0.050 molal solution of a nonelectrolyte in water is: A. -1.86 degrees C B. -0.93 degrees C 9 C. -0.093 degrees C D. 0.93 degrees C 6420031 A 14 36376 51 0127 0003 Which of the following exhibits the greatest freezing-point lowerings A. 0.1 M NaCl B. 0.1 M CaCl 4 2 C. 0.1 M HC H O D. 0.1 M NaC H O 94 2 3 2 2 3 2 6420032 C 14 36379 51 0127 0003 Which of the following exhibits the smallest freezing-point lowerings A. 0.1 M NaCl B. 0.1 M CaCl 4 2 C. 0.1 M HC H O D. 0.1 M NaC H O 94 2 3 2 2 3 2 6420033 D 14 36382 72 19550128 0062 When 3.1 g of a nonelectrolyte are dissolved in 100 g of water, the solution freezes at -0.93 deg C. Calculate the molecular weight of the nonelectrolyte. 9 A. 15.5 B. 17.3 C. 55.4 D. 62.0 6420034 A 14 36385 52 OS85 5 o A 0.1 M solution of KCl would be expected to freeze at about ___ C. 9 A. -0.37 B. -0.185 C. -0.10 D. 0.0 6420035 C 15 45554 71 The molecular mass of a substance was etermined by the freezing-point depression technique. The minimum data required for the determination are A. /\T and K only. 4 -- f B. /\T, K , and mass of solute. 4 -- f C. /\T, K , mass of solute, and mass of solvent. 4 -- f D. /\T, K , mass of solute, mass of solvent, and identity of 4 -- f solvent. E. /\T, K , mass of solute, mass of solvent, and identity of 4 -- f 9 solvent and solute. 6430001 DCA 35 36388 51 1 0336048901071290 9026 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2The following question refers to Figure 7. A glass vessel is 2divided into equal parts by a glass wall having a semipermeable 2membrane in its lower portion. At equilibrium, liquids P and Q 2assume the levels designated as x and y. Water is present in 2both compartments. Using this information, answer the 0 following questions. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 From the diagram one may conclude most safely that A. P must be pure water B. Q must be pure water C. P must contain more solute particles than Q D. Q must contain more solute particles than P E. the number of grams of solute dissolved in P is less 1 than that dissolved in Q MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 If one of the compartments is known to contain only pure water, than the osmotic pressure is determined by A. the depth x of liquid P B. the depth y of liquid Q C. the difference in depths, y - x D. the ratio of depths, y/x 2 E. the ratio of volumes of Q to P MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 Consider P and Q to be solutions of different substances, but containing the same weight of solute per unit volume. What may be concluded? A. the molecular weight of the solute in P is greater than that in Q. B. The molecular weight of the solute in Q is greater than that in P. C. The solute particles in Q have a greater average mass than those in P. D. The solute in P is ionized to a greater extent than that in Q. E. The situation described is impossible; none of these 9 conclusions may be made. 6430002 D 15 36407 52 05190087052011 ETS2 OS The law of PV = 845 x T does not describe the behavior of concentrated solutions very closely. Which of the following best accounts for the deviation of concentrated solutions from this law? A. The proportionality of number of solute molecules to solvent molecules is not the same in concentrated solutions as in dilute. B. Molecules of solvent, being more numerous in concentrated solutions, interfere with the motion of solute molecules. C. The concentration of solute molecules is greater in concentrated solutions. D. Attraction between solute molecules is more effective in concentrated solutions. E. Forces between solvent molecules become greater 9 with decreasing distance between them. 6430003 C 15 45561 71 Which of the following solutions has highest osmotic pressure? A. 0.15 M NaCl C. 0.15 M Ba(NO ) E. 0.10 M Al(NO ) 4 3 2 3 3 B. 0.10 M CaCl D. 0.20 M NH 94 2 3 6430004 E 15 36417 51 02760127051911 ETS2 OS The theoretical basis of the calculation of "i" from the freezing point depression is provided by which of the following statements? A. The freezing point depression for a 1 per cent solution is equal to 18.5 degrees C. B. The freezing point depression for a 1 per cent solution is equal to M x 18.5 degrees C. C. The freezing point depression for any solution containing 1 mol of solute per 100 gm of water is 18.5 degrees C. D. The osmotic pressure of a solution is equal to its freezing point depression which is 185.5 degrees C. For a solution containing 1 mol of non-electrolyte in 100 g of water. E. The osmotic pressure of a solution is equal to its 9 freezing point depression divided by 18.5. 6430005 C 15 36428 31 04890112029311 ETS2 OS A semipermeable membrane is one which A. permits solvent molecules to pass in only one direction B. permits solute molecules to pass in only one direction C. permits solvent molecules to pass, but not solute molecules D. permits solute molecules to pass, but not solvent molecules 9 E. exerts osmotic pressure on both solutions and gases 6430006 D 14 36433 31 085800080087 2WVW A chamber is divided into left and right halves by a membrane which is permeable to water molecules but not to glucose molecules. The left side is half filled by a 2% glucose solution, while the right side is filled to the same level by a 3 per cent glucose solution. How does the water act? A. Water moves across the membrane, and only toward the left. B. Water moves across the membrane, equally in both directions. C. Glucose moves across the membrane, equally in both directions. 9 D. Water moves in both directions, but mainly to the right. 6430007 D 14 36441 31 08590489 2WVW Membranes that allow some substances to pass through but do not allow all substances to pass through are said to be A. osmotic B. permeable C. impermeable 9 D. semipermeable 6430008 A 14 36444 31 086008610862 2WVW A biologist dilutes blood cells with water on a glass slide. As he watches under the microscope, the cells seem to explode. This is probably because he A. used distilled water B. used very salty water C. added the water too rapidly 9 D. used dead cells 6430009 A 14 36448 31 085904880138 2WVW The direction in which a substance moves through a differentially permeable membrane in the process osmosis is most dependent upon the differences in A. concentration of water molecules B. relative diffusion rates C. rate of molecular motion on either side of the membrane D. affinity of the dissolved substance for water and the 9 cohesive force of water 6430010 A 14 36453 31 04880864 2WVW The net osmotic difference would be greatest between cytoplasm and A. 0.9 per cent sodium chloride solution B. pond water C. distilled water 9 D. Ringer's solution 6430011 B 14 36456 32 0488 2WVW An ocean going ship whose hull is covered with barnacles will lose many of the barnacles if it goes up the mouth of a fresh-water river which empties into the ocean. The factor which seriously affects the barnacles in this case is A. a change in food relationships B. a change in osmotic relationships C. contact with new enemies which feed on them D. the muddiness of river water as contrasted with the much 9 clearer ocean water 6430012 D 14 36462 52 051900870161 0009 The osmotic pressure of a 1 M solution of sugar at room temperature would be closest to: 9 A. 0.25 atm B. 1 atm C. 2.5 atm D. 25 atm 6430013 A 14 36464 51 012806740519 0009 To determine the molecular weight of a polymer (appr. MW = 10,000) one would probably measure A. osmotic pressure of a solution B. boiling point of a solution C. density of the solid 9 D. vapor pressure of a solution 6430014 D 15 36468 52 05190736 0040 The process of osmosis is not responsible for which of the 3 ______ following? A. Partial driving force in movement of water through plants B. A cut finger stings when placed in salt water C. Salt sprinkled on fresh meat tends to dry it out D. Ice melts when sprinkled with salt 9 E. No correct response is given. 6430015 C 15 45565 71 To determine the molecular weight of a small protein whose molecular weight is in the range of 20,000 - 40,000, it would be best to measure A. the boiling point of the solvent and of the solution and the weight of the solute and solvent. B. the freezing point of the solvent and of the solution and the weight of the solute and solvent. C. the osmotic pressure of the solution and the weight of the solute and solvent. D. the vapor pressure of the solvent and of the solution and the weight of the solute and solvent. 9 E. the density of the protein and to make x-ray measurements. 6440001 AB 25 36473 52 1 0087055200081390 9026 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 0 The following questions refer to Figure 8. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 Two glass flasks, one containing a solution of sugar in water and the other pure water, are connected by means of a glass tube. Which of the following results is most likely? A. Eventually all of the water originally in the left-hand flask will pass into the sugar solution by evaporation and subsequent condensation. B. Eventually all of the water originally in the sugar solution will pass into the left-hand flask by evaporation and subsequent condensation. C. Eventually the concentration of sugar in the two flasks will become equal as a result of evaporation and subsequent condensation. D. Eventually all of the water will evaporate from both flasks. E. After all of the water in the left-hand flask has evaporated and most of it has condensed in the sugar solution, 1 equilibrium will be established. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 The principle most closely underlying your answer in the preceding item is that A. the osmotic pressure of a solution is higher than that of the pure solvent B. the vapor pressure of a solvent is reduced by the presence of dissolved material C. the osmotic pressure of a solvent is reduced by the presence of dissolved material D. the vapor pressure of a solution is the sum of the vapor pressures of solute and solvent 9 E. isotonic solutions have the same vapor pressure 6440002 B 15 36492 31 0087 11 ETS2WVW The concept that is applicable in explaining the effect of adding a solute at the boiling point of a solution is that of A. specific heat B. vapor pressure C. adiabatic change D. kinetic energy 9 E. heat of fusion 6440003 C 14 36496 52 055307901149 0009 When one mole of a nonvolatile nonelectrolyte is dissolved in two moles of a solvent, the vapor pressure of the solution, relative to that of the pure solvent is: 9 A. 1/3 B. 1/2 C. 2/3 D. cannot tell 6440004 E 15 36499 52 164516460087 0035 A bell jar is placed over a beaker of water (a) and a beaker of one molal sugar solution (b). When equilibrium is reached, there will be A. equal numbers of sugar and water molecules in each beaker. b. a decrease in the number of sugar molecules in b. C. a decrease in the volume of liquid in beaker b. D. no change in either a or b. 9 E. an increase in the number of water molecules in b. 6440005 C 15 36505 52 114900920552 0035 The vapor pressure of an aqueous solution containing 1 mole of sugar per 1000 grams of water (55.5 moles of H O) at 100 degrees, 4 2 if ideal, should be A. 760 mm Hg - 1.86 mm Hg B. (56.5/55.5) x 760 torr. C. (55.5/56.5) X 760 torr. D. (1/56.5) X 760 torr. E. higher than that of water at 100 degrees C because the boiling point of the solution is higher than that of 9 water. 6440006 C 15 36511 51 01140245 0038 A gauge attached to a cylinder fitted with a movable piston, shows a pressure of 23.5 mm. When 2.0 g of liquid water in the cylinder is in equilibrium with water vapor at 25 degrees C. Which of the following would cause a permanent decrease in the 3 _________ pressure? A. Moving the piston upward a short distance B. Moving the piston downward a short distance C. Dissolving salt in the water D. Removing a small amount of water vapor 9 E. Removing a small amount of liquid water 6440007 D 14 36518 51 1149 If compound AB has a higher vapor pressure at 25 C than compound CD, which of the following is true? A. AB has a higher density than CD. B. AB has a lower density than CD. C. AB has stronger intermolecular forces than CD 9 D. AB has weaker intermolecular forces than CD. 6440008 E 15 45540 71 5 o Given that the vapor pressure of water at 75 C is 290 mm Hg, the 5 o vapor pressure of an aqueous solution at 75 C containing 60.0 g of urea (molecular weight 60.0 g/mol) in 180.0 g of water (in mmHg) is: 9 A. 29 B. 100 C. 150 D. 190 E. 260 6500001 D 15 36522 52 00870107 11 ETS2 OS All of the following are true of solutions EXCEPT that A. the homogeneous condition is permanent B. a solid solution may exist C. a liquid solution is clear but may have color D. heavy solute particles may settle out 9 E. air may be classed as a solution 6500002 E 15 36526 31 00870112000811 ETS2 OS Which of the following is not a general property of solutions? A. The molecules of the solute are separated from each other as they become distributed throughout the solvent. B. They are always clear but not necessarily colorless. C. They are homogeneous after thorough stirring. D. The homogeneous condition is permanent. 9 E. Water is always the solvent. 6500003 A 15 36531 31 012001180019 ETS2 OS Dialysis is the A. separation of ions from colloidal suspensions B. coagulation of colloids by ions C. movement of colloidal particles in an electrical field D. effect of water on a lyophilic colloid 9 E. migration of solvent from dilute to strong solutions 6500004 E 15 36535 31 01210122012311 ETS2 OS The ultramicroscope A. is the same as the electron microscope B. is an extremely powerful microscope C. produces colloids by the method of dispersion D. is a necessary part of the cottrell process 9 E. views the tyndall cone at a right angle to the source of light 6500005 E 15 36539 51 01330131013411 ETS2 OS According to Raoult's law A. a crystal deliquesces if its vapor pressure is less than that of pure water B. the freezing points of all aqueous solutions of the same percentage concentration are identical C. a molal solution of a very soluble substance in a given solvent always boils at a higher temperature than a molal solution of a substance less soluble in that solvent D. the vapor pressure of a solution is directly proportional to its molecular concentration E. in a solution the lowering of vapor pressure of the solvent 9 is proportional to the mole fraction of the solute 6500006 E 15 36548 31 01240118 11 ETS2 OS Lyophilic colloids A. coagulate to form gels B. are extremely unstable C. are usually made by the bredig process D. are only made from inorganic materials 9 E. are usually made in a colloid mill 6500007 C 14 36551 31 2WVW A true aqueous solution may be A. milky B. cloudy C. colored 9 D. opaque 6500008 D 14 36553 31 2WVW A saturated solution which may also be considered a dilute solution is a solution of A. ammonium chloride C. sodium bromide E. cesium chloride 9 B. potassium nitrate D. calcium hydroxide 6500009 A 14 36556 31 2WVW A true solution cannot be A. cloudy B. colored C. uniform 9 D. transparent 6500010 B 14 36558 31 2WVW Properties which depend upon the number rather than the nature of the dissolved particles in a solution are called A. general B. colligative C. isotropic 9 D. isotopic 6500011 A 14 36561 31 079101120138 2 OS Evaporation of a solvent from a solution of a solid in a liquid causes the solution to become A. more concentrated B. more dilute C. super saturated 9 D. unsaturated 6500012 D 14 36564 31 04380808 2 OS Two liquids that are mutually soluble in each other are A. hygroscopic B. deliquescent C. immiscible 9 D. miscible 6500013 A 14 36566 31 008701070245 2 OS A solution in which the dissolved solute and undissolved solute are in equilibrium is A. saturated B. dilute C. concentration 9 D. weak 6500014 C 14 36569 31 00870168 2 OS A solution is fundamentally A. an element B. a compound C. a mixture 9 D. an emulsion 6500015 C 14 36571 31 023702930008 2 OS Covalent substances which form molecular solutions with water are A. ionic B. electrolytes C. nonelectolytes 9 D. immiscible 6500016 C 14 36573 31 019200870107 2 OS The dissolved substance in a solution is the A. solvent B. suspended phase C. solute 9 D. precipitate 6500017 B 14 36575 31 06930008 2 OS When clay is mixed with water the clay particles are A. dissolved B. suspended C. emulsified 9 D. miscible 6600001 C 15 36577 51 01180129 11 ETS2 OS Colloidal suspensions may be produced A. sometimes by mixing solutions which might be expected to give a visible precipitate B. by the Tyndall effect C. by adding an emulsifying agent to water D. by passing an electric current through carefully purified water E. by mixing electrolyte solutions that can form no insoluble 9 substances by reaction 6600002 A 14 36583 31 2WVW Homogenized milk is a colloidal suspension from which proteins may be precipated by A. adding an acid B. allowing the milk to settle C. filtration 9 D. pasteurization 6600003 B 14 36586 31 2WVW A true property of all colloidal suspensions is their A. color B. ability to scatter a light beam C. cloudy appearance 9 D. tendency to settle upon standing 6600004 A 14 36589 31 2WVW Brownian motion of the suspended particles in a colloidal suspension is probably the result of A. movement of the molecules of the dispersing medium B. the Tyndall effect C. electrical interaction between unlike charges 9 D. the particles precipitating out 6600005 C 14 36593 31 2WVW One significant difference between true solutions and colloidal suspensions is that colloidal suspensions A. are clear B. will not separate out on standing C. show the Tyndall effect 9 D. will pass through a filter 6600006 B 14 36597 31 2WVW Which two of the following are most alike? A. colloid and compound B. emulsion and colloid C. mixture and compound 9 D. solution and compound 6600007 C 14 36600 32 19551958 0062 A mist is a dispersion of: A. liquid in a liquid B. gas in a liquid 9 C. liquid in a gas D. gas in a gas 7000001 B 14 36602 51 151003511425 0009 Of the following interactions between two atoms or molecules or ions, the strongest is most likely to be A. gravitational B. ionic bond C. dipole-dipole forces between polar molecules 9 D. hydrogen bond 7000002 A 14 36605 31 09261595 0003 In a covalent solid the units which occupy lattice points are: 9 A. atoms B. ions C. molecules D. electrons 7000003 B 14 36607 51 026307810731 0009 The electrons generally involved in bonding A. are those that lie closest to the nucleus B. are those for which the ionization energies are small C. end up being transferred from one atom to another 9 D. occupy s atomic orbitals 7000004 B 14 36611 51 073108850721 0009 The fact that ionization energies for "valence" electrons in units of kcal/mole (rather than the usual ev/atom) are of the same order of magnitude as heats of reaction for chemical changes: A. is a mere coincidence B. supports the idea that only the outer-level electrons are generally involved in molecular rearrangements C. supports the idea that chemical changes involve moles of atoms and not simply individual atoms 9 D. has no apparent rationale 7000005 C 14 36618 31 14180169 0003 Molecular solids are usually: A. good electric condictors B. quite hard 9 C. quite brittle D. volatile 7000006 D 14 36620 31 15951400 0003 The number of nearest neighbors which each particle has in a face centered cubic lattice is: 9 A. 4 B. 6 C. 8 D. 12 7000007 B 14 36622 31 1595 0003 A crystal of sodium chloride which has some sodium ions and chloride ions missing from the lattice points is said to exhibit: A. polymorphism B. lattice defects 9 C. an electron gas D. crystal deformity 7000008 A 14 36625 31 0778 0003 Dipole-dipole attractions exist in solid: A. NH B. H C. CO D. NaCl 94 3 2 2 7000009 B 14 36627 31 00620169 0003 In a metallic solid the points of the space lattice are occupied by: A. electrons B. positive ions 9 C. negative ions D. positive and negative ions 7000010 D 14 36630 31 0715 0003 The number of lattice points in an orthorhombic unit cell is: 9 A. 4 B. 6 C. 7 D. 8 7000011 A 14 36632 31 0244 0003 Most crystals show good cleavage because the atoms, ions, or molecules in a crystal are: A. arranged in planes B. strongly bonded together 9 C. weakly bonded together D. spherically symmetrical 7000012 C 14 36635 31 0244 0003 One would expect a crystal of calcium oxide (CaO) to be: 9 A. ionic B. molecular C. covalent D. metallic 7000013 D 14 36637 31 0355 0003 In a crystal of ammonium chloride there are: A. dipole-dipole forces only B. covalent bonds only 9 C. ionic bonds only D. ionic and covalent bonds 7000014 B 14 36640 31 00620244 0003 Metals are elements which have: A. high ionization potentials B. low ionization potentials 9 C. high electron affinities D. high electronigativities 7000015 A 14 36643 31 14180244 0003 In a molecular crystal the forces holding together the atoms within a molecule are: A. covalent bonds B. ionic bonds 9 C. metallic bonds D. Van Der Waals forces 7000016 B 14 36646 31 00140589 0003 Each carbon atom in the diamond lattice is bonded covalently to: A. two other C atoms B. four other C atoms 9 C. six other C atoms D. eight other C atoms 7000017 C 14 36649 31 0244 0003 Experimental evidence for the orderly arrangement of atoms in crystals is given by: A. polymorphism observations B. the unit cell C. x-ray diffraction patterns 9 D. electric-conduction measurements 7000018 D 14 36652 31 1400 0003 In a simple cubic space lattice, a point at the corner of one unit cell is also at the corners of, and therefore is shared by, how many other unit cells? 9 A. 1 B. 3 C. 5 D. 7 7000019 A 14 36655 31 1400 0003 Each face-centered point in a face-centered cubic lattice is shared by a total of how many unit cells? 9 A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8 7000020 D 14 36657 31 14000715 0003 Each point at a unit-cell corner in a body-centered cubic lattice is shared by a total of how many unit cells? 9 A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8 7000021 B 14 36659 31 0715 0003 If in the NaCl lattice the chloride ions are considered to occupy the corners of each unit cell, then each sodium ion is shared by a total of how many unit cells 9 A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8 7000022 B 14 36662 31 0579 0003 What kind of symmetry is exhibited by a matchbox? 9 A. Cubic B. Tetragonal C. Orthorhombic D. Monoclinic 7000023 B 14 36664 31 0579 0003 What kind of symmetry is exhibited by a square, untapered table legs? 9 A. cubic B. tetragonal C. orthorhombic D. triclinic 7000024 D 14 36666 31 1400 0003 In hexagonal close-packing each atom has as nearest neighbors how many other atoms? 9 A. 3 B. 6 C. 9 D. 12 7000025 D 14 36668 31 1400 0003 In cubic close-packing each atom has as nearest neighbors how many other atoms? 9 A. 6 B. 9 C. 10 D. 12 7000026 B 14 36670 31 0920 0003 An atom (or ion) in an octahedral hole of a close-packed structure has how many nearest neighbors? 9 A. 4 B. 6 C. 8 D. 12 7000027 B 14 36672 31 0874 0003 An atom (or ion) in a tetrahedral hole of a close-packed structure has how many nearest neighbors? 9 A. 3 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8 7000028 B 15 36674 52 09190355 0044 The following statements are concerned with the concept of hybrid orbitals in chemical bonding. Which one is wrong? 3 _____ A. CCl is a tetrahedral molecule with each Cl-C-Cl angle 4 4 equal to 109.5 degrees. The sigma bonds between C and Cl can be considered to be the overlap between 4 5 3 equivalent sp hybrid orbitals on the C atom and the appropriate wave function for the Cl atoms. B. Hybrid orbital sets for the characteristic elements on the right side of the periodic table use only s and p orbitals since those are the only orbitals occupied by valence electrons. C. A set of 4 hybrid orbitals separated by 109.5 degrees angles is obtained by mixing 4 atomic orbitals. D. BeCl is a linear molecule. The sigma bonds between Be and 4 2 Cl can be considered to be the overlap between 2 equivalent sp hybrid orbitals on the be atom and the appropriate wave functions for the chlorine atoms E. Atomic orbitals not used to compose a hybrid set may be used 9 in forming pi bonds to neighboring atoms. 7000029 D 15 45421 51 Which compound contains both ionic and covalent bonds? A. PF B. KF C. NaH D. MgSO E. C H 94 3 3 3 8 7100001 B 14 36690 31 035503510263 2 OS A bond in which atoms share a pair of electrons is A. an ionic bond B. a covalent bond C. an electrovalent bond 9 D. a binary compound bond 7100002 D 15 36693 51 09260781 0020 In covalent bonding A. atoms share electrons B. the octet rule is usually obeyed C. electrons of opposite spin are paired D. all of the above are correct 9 E. none of the above are correct 7100003 C 15 36696 32 092600940006 0040 Which of the following pairs of elements would be expected to form a covalent compound upon reaction? A. Ca and Cl B. Na and Cl C. S and Cl 9 D. Ca and S E. Li and F 7100004 B 15 36699 31 049503550066 0035 Particles which are paired to form valence bonds in carbon compounds are 9 A. atoms. B. Electrons. C. Ions. D. Neutrons E. protons. 7100005 A 15 36701 31 092614250081 0034 Covalent bonds differ from ionic bonds in that covalent bonds A. cannot dissociate to form ions B. are more stable than ionic bonds C. are directed equally in all directions D. are directed geometrically in space 9 E. are more difficult to decompose 7100006 C 14 36705 31 02370169 0003 An example of a covalent solid is: 9 A. hydrogen B. sodium sulfate C. diamond D. copper 7110001 B 14 36707 31 05110938 0026 As two objects which attract each other come closer together A. their potential energy increases B. their potential energy becomes a more negative value C. their kinetic energies must necessarily increase 9 D. they tend to fly apart. 7111001 C 15 36711 71 2WVW A plot of the wave function versus r (radius) for the 2p orbitals shows that A. there are two nodes B. there is a high electron density near the nucleus C. there is one maximum in the electron density distribution D. electron density is independent of r 9 E. the electron density goes to zero at the second Bohr radius 7111002 A 15 36716 31 12 ETS2JPB If a sound wave has a velocity of 1100 ft./sec., a wave length of 4.4 ft. and a frequency of 250 hertz, the period is A. .004 sec. B. 4.4 sec. C. 1.0 sec. D. 250 sec. 9 E. None of these 7111003 D 14 36719 31 026303510926 0041 The sharing of an electron by two atoms in a covalent bond is a consequence of A. Newton's third law of motion B. electronegativity C. the particle nature of moving electrons 9 D. the wave nature of moving electrons 7111005 D 14 36722 51 151014550926 0009 Of the following interactions at the atomic-molecular level, the strongest is most likely to be A. dispersion B. dipole-dipole 9 C. hydrogen bond D. covalent bond 7111006 D 14 36725 32 018905270263 0009 Of the elements listed below, which would you expect to have the largest attraction for bonding electrons? A. Li B. Al C. Fe D. S E. Zn 94 3 13 26 16 30 7113001 B 15 36728 51 092616520924 0034 According to Pauling's concept of covalent bonding, a covalent bond forms A. by the overlap of two empty orbitals B. by the overlap of two half-filled orbitals C. by the overlap of two filled orbitals D. by the transfer of an electron from an orbital of one atom to an orbital of another 9 E. by any of the above processes 7115001 A 15 36733 31 12 ETS2JPB If the velocity of a wave motion in a certain medium is v, and the frequency is 360 hertz, the length of the waves in the medium is A. v/360 B. 360/v C. 360v D. -360 + v 9 D. 360 - v 7115002 C 15 36736 51 12 ETS2JPB The wave length of a 1000 kilohertz radio broadcast radiation is A. 30,000,000 meters B. 30,000 meters C. 300 meters D. 30 meters 9 E. 3 meters 7115003 A 15 36739 52 13 ETS2JPB While a tuning fork whose frequency is 100 vibrations per second is making one complete vibration, the sound wave it produces in air advances (speed of sound in air is 1100 feet per second) A. about 11 feet B. about 100 feet C. about 1100 feet D. a distance equal to two wave lengths of sound in air 9 E. 110,000 feet 7120001 D 15 36744 31 03170351035512 ETS2 OS Which best describes the forces holding two atoms together by a chemical bond? A. The electrons act like tiny magnets and attract one another. B. The atoms are always of opposite electrical charge and therefore attract one another. C. The neutrons of the two atoms resonate with one another. D. Electrons are shared, the electrons of each atom being attracted electrostatistically by both nuclei. E. Each atom itself is a magnet and the south pole of one becomes attached to the north pole of the other by magnetic 9 forces. 7120002 B 15 36752 31 03510346 11 ETS2WVW Which one of these is not true? 3 ___ A. Atoms may share electrons as well as lend or borrow. B. During chemical combinations, the inner shells of atoms tend to be broken up. C. When filled, the innermost shell of the atom contains two electrons. D. There may be certain atoms within a molecule which are held together by sharing electrons and which react as a unit in chemical changes. E. In the formula of a compound, the total positive valence 9 must equal the total negative valence. 7120003 E 15 36760 31 02370355002011 ETS2WVW Covalent bonds are due to A. the attraction between ions of opposite charge B. the gain or loss of electrons by atoms C. the transfer of electrons from one atom to another D. the lattice structure of the crystal 9 E. the sharing by atoms of two electrons for each valence bond 7120004 B 15 36764 51 07800781 2WVW Sulfur combines with fluorine to form SF , SF , and SF but 4 2 4 6 the only compound formed between oxygen and fluorine is OF . The 4 2 reason for this is that A. the oxygen atom is too small to accommodate more than two fluorine atoms B. the bonding of oxygen does not involve d orbitals C. the electron affinity of oxygen is greater than that of sulfur D. the effective nuclear charge on sulfur is greater than that on oxygen E. the first ionization energy of oxygen is greater than that 9 of sulfur 7120005 B 14 36773 52 087902930760 0043 The structure of the following molecule may be considered a resonance hybrid: A. C H OH B. C H C. C H D. C H 94 2 5 6 6 4 10 2 4 7120006 C 15 36776 31 035103550263 0018 In the ground state of the uncombined nitrogen atom there are _______ unpaired elctrons. 9 A. one B. two C. three D. four E. five 7120007 D 15 36779 31 078302610776 0028 5 12 16 Which of the following is the correct structure for CO ( C and O) 4 2 6 8 A. O-C-O B. O=C=O C. O=C-O D. O=C=O E. O=C=O 93 _ _ _ 7120008 C 14 36784 32 1807 0003 Which contains both polar and nonpolar bonds? A. NH Cl B. HCN C. H O D. CH 94 4 2 2 4 7120009 A 14 36786 32 1379 0003 Which contains a coordinate covalent bond? 5 + A. N H B. BaCl C. HCl D. H O 94 2 5 2 2 7120010 B 15 36788 51 178416520783 0047 The term canonical structure represents a concept in A. molecular orbital theory B. valence bond theory C. ionic bond theory D. ligand field theory 9 E. none of the above. 7121001 BD 25 36791 52 90 2WVW MACROITEM STEM 0 Answer the following questions. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 What is the formal charge on the N atom in the NOBr molecule, wherein the O atom is in the middle? A. -2 B. -1 C. 0 D. +1 1 E. +2 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 What is the formal charge on the O atom in the NOBr molecule? A. -2 B. -1 C. 0 D. +1 9 E. +2 7121002 E 15 36795 52 2WVW Which of the following electron dot formulas are not resonance 5 - forms of the thiocyanate ion, SCN A. : B. : :S=C-N: :S=C=N: 3 _ : C. .. .. :S=C=N: D. .. .. S=C=N: 9 E. both B and D are not resonance forms of the thiocyanate ion 7121003 A 15 36800 72 2WVW Which of the Lewis dot structures shown below is correct for the thionyl chloride molecule, SOCl ? 4 2 : : Cl: Cl: : :/: : /: : : : A. :O-S C. O=S E. :S=O-Cl-Cl: : \: : \: : : : Cl: Cl: : : : Cl: : : : : : :/: B. :S-Cl-O-Cl: D. :S=O : : : : \: Cl: 9 : 7121004 A 15 36808 52 1 007607779028 95 2WVW Thionyl chloride, SOCl is widely used industrially, and in the 4 2 laboratory for the replacement of hydroxyl (OH) groups in organic molecules by chlorine. Which one of the following is the Lewis structure of thionyl chloride? A. refer to Figure 28 B. refer to Figure 28 C. refer to Figure 28 D. refer to Figure 28 E. none of the above structures is correct; no Lewis structure 9 can be drawn for thionyl chloride. 7121005 D 14 36815 51 0777 0043 The octet rule is not obeyed in: 5 2- A. NI B. NCCN C. SO D. BCl 94 3 2 3 7121006 B 14 36817 52 0777 0043 Which of the following illustrates "violation" of the octet rule? A. I B. ICl C. HClO D. HOBr 94 2 3 2 7121007 B 15 36819 52 0776 0044 The Lewis structure for CO shows: A. one unshared pair of electrons B. one triple bond C. one double bond D. three unshared pairs of electrons 9 E. none of the above. 7121008 A 15 36822 52 077713841055 0044 In which of the following species is the octet rule violated? 5 + A. O B. Cl C. SnCl D. none of them E. all of them. 94 2 2 4 7121009 A 14 36825 52 07761435 51 9000 One would expect the Lewis structure of HOF to be .. .. .. .. .. A. H : O : F: B. H : F : O : C. H : O : : F : .. .. .. .. .. .. .. D. H : : O : : F : .. 9 7121010 A 15 36829 51 029309750263 0018 The molecule AsCl would have 4 5 A. no lone pairs of electrons B. one lone pair of electrons C. two lone pairs of electrons D. four pairs of electrons in bonds 5 2 3 9 E. d sp hybridization 7121011 C 15 36833 51 077713731374 0020 The octet rule A. applies to atoms that have 8 electrons in their outer energy level B. states that the maximum number of electrons in the third energy level is 8 C. was proposed by Lewis and Kossel D. states that no more than 8 electrons can be in any energy level 9 E. none of these 7121012 D 14 36838 32 00900777 0009 Indicate which one of the following does not obey the octet rule: 5 - A. NO B. O C. HCN D. NO 94 3 3 2 7121013 D 14 36840 52 035106041002 0009 Although it is known that the actual bonding sequence of atoms in the nitrous oxide molecule is N-N-O, an electronic structure based on the sequence N-O-N (i.e., oxygen bonded to two nitrogens): A. cannot be drawn B. can also be drawn, and predicts a polar molecule C. can also be drawn, and involves unpaired electrons 9 D. can also be drawn, and obeys the octet rule 7121014 B 15 36845 51 058107770069 0034 Lewis' cubical atomic model of chemical bonding was based upon A. the idea of periodicity B. the octet rule C. the solar system model of the atom D. the inability of electron shells to interpenetrate 9 E. none of the above 7121015 B 14 36849 31 0777 0003 Which of the following always shows violation of the octet rule? 9 A. C B. H C. O D. N 7121016 C 14 36851 32 0926 0003 Which contains both covalent and ionic bonds? A. CH B. CaCl C. NH Cl D. H O 94 4 2 4 2 7121017 B 14 36853 32 0927 0003 Which contains but one unshared pair of valence electrons? A. H O B. NH C. CH D. NaCl 94 2 3 4 7121018 E 15 36855 52 12110014 Which of the following is NOT possible for a carbon atom? 5 . . - + A. CH B. CH C. :CH D. CH E. CH 94 3 . 2 3 3 5 7121019 C 15 45418 71 In the Lewis structure for difluorodiazine, N F , the total number 4 2 2 of lone electron pairs around the two nitrogen atoms is: 9 A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3 E. 4 7121020 C 15 45432 71 The formal charge on the sulfur atom in sulfur trioxide, SO , is: 4 3 9 A. -2 B. 0 C. +2 D. +4 E. +6 7123001 C 15 36858 52 1227 1380 0042 A double bond consists of: A. two sigma bonds B. two pi bonds C. one sigma and one pi bond D. one sigma and one p bond 9 E. none of these 7123002 B 14 36861 52 13810261 51 9000 How many pi bonds are there in CO ? 4 2 9 A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 7123003 A 15 36863 31 02930355 0018 A molecule of N is characterized as 4 2 A. having a triple bond B. being a polar molecule C. having a double bond D. being ionic 9 E. none of these 7123004 C 14 36866 32 1382 0003 Which contains a triple bond? A. NH B. SO C. HCN D. C H 94 3 2 2 4 7123005 D 14 36868 32 1227 0003 Which contains a double bond? A. ClF B. BaF C. BaO D. CS 94 2 2 7123006 A 15 36870 31 001413830939 In carbon compounds, the single bond is A. slightly longer than the double bond. B. shorter than the double bond. C. shorter than the triple bond. D. the same length as the double bond. 9 E. twice as long as the double bond. 7125001 D 14 36874 31 022400670760 2WVW Of the following situations, the one in which no single electronic formula conforms both to the observed properties and to the octet rule is described as A. isomerism B. allotropism C. enantiomorphism 9 D. resonance 7125002 D 15 36878 51 07760879 The concept of resonance explains molecular structures A. which are formed from hybridized orbitals. B. of isomers which have several different known structures. C. of atoms which are resonating back and forth. D. which have no suitable single electron-dot (Lewis) formula. E. for which laboratory data suggest that no possible 9 arrangements of electrons exist. 7125003 C 14 36884 52 026317090853 0041 Delocalized electrons are important in the bonding of A. the water molecule B. the methane molecule 9 C. the benzene molecule D. isomers 7125004 A 14 36886 52 035502680760 0009 The fact that all bonds in SO are the same is accounted for by 4 3 A. the idea of resonance B. the Lewis octet rule C. electron repulsion theory 9 D. sulfur always forms three bonds 7125005 B 14 36889 52 00580760 19 0063 5 2- X-ray diffraction studies of the three C-O bonds in CO indicate 4 3 identical lengths intermediate between those for a single bond and a double bond. Thus, the least important contributing structure among the following is 2 2 : - : - : - 2 :O: :O: :O: :O: 2 : / - : / - : // - : / 2 A. :O=C B. :O-C C. :O-C D. :O-C 2 \ +\ : \ : \\ 2 :O: :O: :O: :O: 92 : - : - : - 7125006 D 14 36899 52 00581960076019 0063 Summation of double bond covalent radii of O and S gives a bond length of 1.49 Angstroms for S=O. In SO , both S-O bond 4 2 lengths are 1.43 Angstroms. A resonance structure that would best account for this fact is 2 2 : : 2 :O: :O: :O: :O: 2 \ : \ \\ : \\ 2 A. :S-O: B. :S=O: C. :S-O: D. :S=O: 3 _ 92 : : : 7127001 E 15 36907 51 034700940919 The hybrid electron orbitals involved in the bonding of the compound SF are: 4 6 5 2 3 3 3 2 9 A. sp B. sp C. sp D. sp d E. sp d 7127002 B 15 36910 51 OS82 The C atom in CO uses which of the following atomic orbitals: 4 2 5 2 3 9 A. s B. sp C. sp D. sp E. p 7127003 B 15 36913 31 0763 2WVW What type of hybridization does the antimony atom adopt in the 5 3- hexabromoantimonate (III) ion, SbBr ? 4 6 5 2 A. sp 5 3 3 B. sp d 5 3 C. sp d 5 3 D. sp 5 3 2 9 E. sp d 7127004 D 15 36917 51 029307630351 0042 In which one of the following molecules are all of the carbon 5 2 atoms sp hybridized? A. CH -CH -CH D. CH =CH-CH=CH-CH=CH 4 3 2 3 2 2 B. CH -CH=CH E. CH =CH-CH=CH-CH 4 3 2 2 3 C. CH -CH=CH-CH -CH=CH 94 3 2 2 7127005 B 15 36922 32 09191447 0042 5 2 There are _____ equivalent sp hybrid orbitals with a spatial arrangement of _____ A. 4, 104 degrees apart B. 3, 120 degrees apart C. 2, 180 degrees apart D. 5, 2 collinear and three equatorially in a belt 9 E. 6, 90 degrees apart 7127007 C 15 36926 31 035515990874 0042 5 3 The bonds in an sp hybridization form: A. a planar shape B. a trigonal pyramid shape C. a tetrahedral shape D. a linear shape 9 E. trigonal bipyramidal 7127008 D 15 36929 52 0355 1367 0042 Bonds 120 degrees apart in the same plane are exhibited by the hybrid bonds: 5 2 3 2 3 9 A. p B. p C. sp D. sp E. sp 7127009 B 14 36932 31 001408520879 0043 Within each carbon sheet in the graphite structure each carbon atom bonds by ________ hybrids 5 2 3 2 2 9 A. sp B. sp C. sp D. pd E. spd 7127010 B 15 36935 51 076303511230 0047 The hybridization of the carbon atoms in ethylene is 5 3 2 2 3 2 9 A. sp B. sp C. sp D. d sp E. dsp 7127011 A 14 36937 52 035102930763 0044 Which one of the following gives the correct hybridization for the central atom in each of the molecules? 5 - GaF NCO HCN 4 3 5 2 A. sp sp sp 5 2 3 B. sp sp sp 5 3 2 2 C. sp sp sp 5 2 3 3 9 D. sp sp sp 7127012 B 15 36945 52 076303470919 0018 Hybridization of the four outer shell orbitals of carbon leads to 5 2 3 A. sp hybrid orbitals B. sp hybrid orbitals 5 2 3 C. sp hybrid orbitals D. d sp hybrid orbitals 9 E. none of these 7127013 D 15 36949 51 02930763 0018 The molecule XeF is characterized by 4 4 5 2 2 A. dsp hybridization B. sp hybridization 5 3 2 3 C. sp hybridization D. d sp hybridization 5 3 9 E. dsp hybridization 7127014 D 15 36953 52 OS82 The oxygen atom in water exhibits A. ionic bonding B. sp hybridization 5 2 C. sp hybridization 5 3 D. sp hybridization 9 E. metallic bonding 7127015 D 15 36956 51 035502121380 0020 All bonds in methane are A. hybrid bonds B. sigma bonds C. at angles of 109 degrees 28 minutes D. all the above are correct 9 E. none of the above is correct 7127016 B 15 36959 51 035100660763 0020 The sulfur atom in the compound SF has 4 6 A. no hybridization 5 3 2 B. sp d hybridization 5 3 C. sp hybridization D. a tetrahedral structure 5 3 3 9 E. sp d hybridization 7127017 A 14 36963 52 063102930930 0009 The fact that the BeF molecule is linear implies that the Be-F 4 2 bonds involve 5 2 A. sp hybrids B. sp hybrids 5 2 9 C. dsp hybrids D. resonance 7127018 D 14 36966 52 07631507 0009 5 3 sp hybridization is most likely not involved in a description of 5 + + A. H O B. CCl C. NH D. C H 94 3 4 4 2 2 7127019 A 13 36969 72 087417371531 0019 5 2+ The Co ion has a coordination number of 4 in the complex 5 2- (Co(SCN) ) . Magnetic studies indicate the presence of 3 4 4 unpaired electrons in the complex. The type of hybrid bonding involved is 5 3 2 2 3 9 A. sp B. dsp C. d sp 7127020 B 14 36973 52 076315940967 0009 The hybridization of boron in B H is expected to be 4 2 4 5 2 3 2 9 A. sp B. sp C. sp D. dsp 7127021 B 14 36976 52 091900141594 0009 What type of hybrid orbitals are used by carbon in formaldehyde, CH O? 4 2 5 2 3 2 3 9 A. sp B. sp C. sp D. d sp 7127022 A 14 36979 52 00580919 19 0063 Tetrahedral hybrid orbitals, in terms of blended atomic orbitals, are designated 5 3 2 3 9 A. sp B. sp C. sp d D. sp 7127023 B 14 36982 52 00580347138019 0063 In the molecule H-C=N: the orbitals used by the C atom to form 3 _ sigma bonds with H and N are 5 3 2 A. a 2p and a 2p B. two sp C. two sp D. two sp 94 x y 7127024 B 14 36986 52 00580763195919 0063 5 - In IF the hybridization used by I is 4 4 5 3 3 2 3 9 A. sp d B. sp d C. sp D. none of these 7127025 D 14 36988 52 00581961 19 0063 The orbital occupied by the unshared pair of electrons in NH 4 3 is most likely 5 2 3 9 A. sp B. sp C. p D. sp 7130001 D 15 36991 52 078204510939 0044 Use molecular orbital theory to predict which one of the following diatomic molecules has the greatest bond length. 5 + + A. BO B. NO C. CO D. O 4 2 9 E. all of the above species have the same bond length. 7130002 A 15 36995 52 078204510081 0044 Use molecular orbital theory to predict which one of the following diatomic molecules has the greatest bond dissociation energy. 5 2- A. NF B. O C. F D. Br 4 2 2 2 E. all of the above species have the same bond dissociation 9 energy. 7131001 B 15 36999 51 019602930347 0020 The hydrogen molecule is formed from the overlap of A. two pi orbitals B. two 1s orbitals C. two 2s orbitals D. two electrons that have similar spins 9 E. none of these 7131002 D 15 37002 52 The overlap of two p orbitals along a line joining the atomic nuclei is A. a pi bond B. a coordinate covalent bond C. two atomic orbitals D. a sigma bond 9 E. none of these 7131003 C 15 37005 52 138109241159 0020 Pi bonds are formed from the overlap of A. two p orbitals 4 x B. two 2s orbitals C. orbitals that are parallel to one another D. orbitals that are spherical 9 E. all of these 7131004 C 15 37008 51 138213811380 0020 Carbon-carbon triple bonds contain A. sigma bonds only B. pi bonds only C. two pi and one sigma bonds D. two sigma and one pi bonds 9 E. none of these 7131005 A 15 37011 31 078009060934 0019 The d orbital whose high electron probability region is in the xz plane and directed along the x and z axes is A. d B. d 2 2 C. d 2 D. d E. d 94 xz x -y z xy yz 7131006 A 15 37014 31 093407800906 0019 The d orbital whose high electron probability is in the xy plane and directed along the x and y axes is A. d B. d 2 2 C. d D. d E. d 2 94 xy x -y xz yz z 7131007 A 14 37017 51 078001591531 0019 The d orbital that is raised in energy in a square planar complex ion is A. d 2 2 B. d C. d 2 D. d 94 x -y xz z xy 7131008 B 14 37019 52 00580916138018 0063 The head-to-head overlap of two p atomic orbitals can produce A. a pi bond B. a sigma bond C. a molecular orbital with a nodal plane incorporating the bond axis 9 D. an antibonding pi molecular orbital 7131009 D 14 37022 52 00580338184918 0063 The electronic configuration of Be is written as 4 2 5 2 2 2 2 (sigma ) (sigma *) (sigma ) (sigma *) . The number of net 3 ___ 4 1s 1s 2s 2s bonding electrons is 9 A. 4 B. 2 C. 8 D. 0 7131010 B 14 37027 52 00580782138218 0063 The MO representation of nitrogen, N , is 4 2 5 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 (sigma ) (sigma ) (sigma ) (sigma ) (pi ) (pi ) (sigma ) . 4 1s 1s 2s 2s y z 2p The triple bond in N corresponds to 4 2 A. three sigma bonds B. one sigma and two pi bonds C. two sigma and one pi bond 9 D. three pi bonds 7131011 B 14 37033 52 00580916138118 0063 The lateral overlap of two p atomic orbitals may form a pi bond in 4 y which the electron density is concentrated A. in the nodal plane containing the bond axis B. above and below the bond axis C. in a cylindrical charge cloud between the nuclei 9 D. along the z axis 7131012 D 14 37038 52 00580916 18 0063 The overlap of a p orbital with a p orbital leads to 4 y z A. a pi bond B. an antibonding sigma molecular orbital C. a sigma bond 9 D. neither a bonding nor an antibonding molecular orbital 7131013 C 14 37042 52 00580338078218 0063 5 2 2 The MO electronic configuration for O , (sigma ) (sigma *) 4 2 1s 1s 5 2 2 2 2 2 1 1 (sigma ) (sigma *) (pi ) (pi ) (sigma ) (pi *) (pi *) , predicts 4 2s 2s y z 2p y z all of the following, except A. the net number of bonding electrons is 4 B. O is paramagnetic with two unpaired electrons 4 2 C. O has one sigma bond and two pi bonds 4 2 D. O has six electrons in antibonding orbitals 94 2 7131014 C 14 37051 52 00581380091618 0063 Sigma bonds may result from all the following except A. overlap of two s atomic orbitals B. head-to-head overlap of an s and a p atomic orbital 4 x C. head-to-head overlap of a p and a p atomic orbital 4 x z D. head-to-head overlap of two p atomic orbitals 4 y 9 E. face-to-face overlap of two d orbitals 7131015 A 14 37057 52 00580451078218 0063 The diatomic MOlecule Ne appears not to exist. In terms of the MO 4 2 theory, it is probably because A. the number of bonding electrons equals the number of antibonding electrons resulting in zero bonds in Ne 4 2 B. the overlap of the p orbitals of the Ne atoms leads only to antibonding molecular orbitals C. the energies of the pi* antibonding orbitals are lower than the pi bonding orbitals D. Ne is not paramagnetic and therefore is unstable 94 2 7131016 A 14 37065 52 00580929033818 0063 The ground-state electronic configuration for F is 4 2 5 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 A. (sigma ) (sigma *) (sigma ) (sigma *) (pi ) (pi ) (sigma ) 4 1s 1s 2s 2s y z 2p 5 2 2 2 (pi *) (pi *) 4 y z 2 5 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 B. (sigma ) (sigma *) (sigma ) (sigma *) (pi ) (pi ) (sigma ) 4 1s 1s 2s 2s y z 2p 2 5 2 2 2 2 4 4 2 2 C. (sigma ) (sigma *) (sigma ) (sigma *) (pi ) (pi ) (sigma ) 4 1s 1s 2s 2s y z 2p 2 5 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 D.(sigma ) (sigma *) (sigma ) (sigma *) (sigma ) (pi ) (pi *) 94 1s 1s 2s 2s 2p y y 7131017 B 14 37078 52 00580782 18 0063 4 -3 The net number of ground-state bonding MO's in 2.0 x 10 mole of Li metal is 5 20 21 21 3 9 A. 3.0 x 10 B. 1.2 x 10 C. 2.4 x 10 D. 4.0 x 10 7131018 B 14 37082 52 00581381034719 0063 In the compound ethene, H C=CH , the orbitals used by the C atoms to 4 2 2 form the pi bond are 5 3 2 9 A. sp B. p C. sp D. sp 7131019 C 15 37085 51 OS82 5 + - The reaction NO -----> NO + e takes place more readily than the 5 + - reaction N -----> N + e because 4 2 2 A. N is a free radical 4 2 B. NO has more valence electrons C. the electron lost by NO comes from an antibonding MO* D. N and NO are not isoelectronic 4 2 E. N is a component of the atmosphere. 94 2 7132001 E 15 37091 51 OS82 Which statement does NOT pertain to a sigma bond: A. It is formed by overlap of two s atomic orbitals. B. It can be formed by head-to-head overlap of p atomic orbitals. C. It has symmetrical cylindrical electron density about the bond axis. D. There is relatively free rotation about the sigma bond axis. 9 E. None of these 7133001 B 15 37096 31 00230916 0018 The compound fluorine,F , would be formed by 4 2 A. overlap of an s and a p orbital B. overlap of two p orbitals C. overlap of two s orbitals D. overlap of a p and a d orbital 9 E. none of these 7135001 B 12 13165 52 074514860762 0003 5 + The bond order in O is 4 2 9 A. 1 B. 1.5 C. 2 D. 2.5 E. 3 7135002 D 15 37100 52 035513240782 0042 5 + The number of bonds predicted for the N ion on the basis of 4 2 molecular orbital theory is 9 A. 1 B. 1 1/2 C. 2 D. 2 1/2 E. 3 7135003 B 15 37103 32 09130263 0042 5 -3 How many unpaired electrons are there in Mn(CN) ? 4 6 9 A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 0 7135004 D 15 37106 32 056600251162 0020 O 4 3 A. contains only oxygen atoms B. is ozone C. is an allotropic form of oxygen D. all of these 9 E. none of these 7135005 E 15 37108 52 006607771384 0020 Which of these compounds violates the Lewis octet rule? A. BF B. PCl C. NO D. IF E. all of these 94 3 5 7 7135006 D 14 37110 52 10550263 0009 Which one of the following species would have unpaired electron? 5 - + A. SO B. NO C. NO D. NO 94 2 2 2 2 7135007 A 14 37113 52 105502631301 0009 Which one of the following species would have an odd number of electrons? 5 + + A. N B. N C. NO D. electrons are always paired 94 2 7135008 C 14 37116 32 0762 0003 Which shows a bond order of two? A. H B. N C. O D. Cl 94 2 2 2 2 7135009 B 14 37118 32 0762 0003 Which shows a bond order of three? A. H B. N C. O D. Cl 94 2 2 2 2 7135010 C 14 37120 52 0058 18 0063 5 + The number of bonds in the species, CO , is 9 A. 1 B. 2 C. 2.5 D. 3 7135011 A 14 37122 52 07620768 0003 Which is paramagnetic ? A. O B. N C. BrCl D. HCl 94 2 2 7135012 A 14 37124 52 00581382 18 0063 5 - The triple bond in CN corresponds to A. one sigma and two pi bonds B. three sigma bonds C. one pi and two sigma bonds 9 D. three pi bonds 7135013 A 15 45456 71 Carbon monoxide has ten bonding electrons and four antibonding electrons. Therefore it has a bond order of 9 A. 3 B. 7 C. 1 D. 5/2 E. 2 7137003 A 15 37127 52 093604510020 0044 The simple homonuclear diatomic molecules of the second period, such as N , O , etc., can be described by assigning all the 4 2 2 valence electrons to molecular orbitals made up from the atomic orbitals with n=2. These molecular orbitals are classified as sigma, sigma *, pi, pi * and are described as follows (select the one wrong statement) 3 ___ _____ A. The sigma * orbitals differ from the sigma in that the internuclear axis is not an axis of symmetry. B. A sigma * orbital is higher in energy than the corresponding sigma orbital made from the same atomic orbital. C. In a diatomic molecule there is only one sigma * orbital that can be made from the 2s atomic orbitals. D. A sigma * orbital has zero probability density in the plane midway between the nuclei and perpendicular to the bond axis. E. The sigma * orbital is invariably higher in energy than the 9 two pi * orbitals. 7140001 E 15 37140 52 08800355 0044 Which one of the following best describes the H-Be-H bond angle in BeH ? 4 2 9 A. 90 CH + HBr 4 4 3 which statement about E is correct? 4 a 5 -1 Data Bond Energy (kcal mole ) 3_____________________________________________________________ CH -H ----------- 4 3 CH -Br ----------- 4 3 H-Br 88 Br 46 5 -1 A. E > 192 kcal mole 4 a - 5 -1 B. E > 16 kcal mole 4 a - 5 -1 C. E < 20 kcal mole 4 a - 5 -1 D. E = 0 kcal mole 4 a 5 -1 E. E < 111 kcal mole 94 a - 7153006 C 14 37658 31 2WVW Which one of the following carbon-to-carbon bonds has the highest bond dissocation energy? A. simple bond B. covalent bond C. triple bond 9 D. double bond 7153007 B 14 37661 31 035102930159 0041 When two or more atoms join together to form a stable molecule, A. energy is absorbed B. energy is given off C. there is no energy change 9 D. any of the above, depending upon the molecule 7153008 B 15 37664 52 072107450192 0044 Given the following heat of reaction and the bond energies listed below, calculate the energy of the C=O bond. All numerical values are in kilocalories per mole and all substances are in the gas phase. Warning: be sure to draw accurate structural formulas first. 5 o CH CHO + H -----> CH CH OH /\ H = -17 kcal/mole 3 __ 4 3 2 3 2 BOND O-H C-H C-C C-O H-H kcal/mole 111 99 83 84 104 9 A. 277 B. 173 C. 190 D. 79 E. 157. 7153009 C 15 37672 52 059006250624 0044 Electromagnetic radiation of sufficient energy can be used to break chemical bonds. Calculate the wavelength in Angstroms of photons with enough energy to break H-O single bonds. The H-O single bond energy is 102 kcal/mole. 5 -14 (1 kcal/mole = 6.94 x 10 erg/photon) 5 12 A. 3.56 x 10 Angstroms B. 35600 Angstroms C. 2810 Angstroms 5 -5 -4 9 D. 2.81 x 10 Angstroms E. 7.03 x 10 Angstroms 7153010 B 15 37679 52 059006250624 0044 Electromagnetic radiation of sufficient energy can be used to break chemical bonds. Calculate the wavelength in Angstroms of photons with enough energy to break H-Cl single bonds. The H-Cl single bond energy is 103 kcal/mole. 5 -21 -10 (1 kcal/mole = 6.94 x 10 Joules/photon) (1 Angstrom=10 m) 5 12 3 A. 3.59 x 10 Angstroms B. 2.78 x 10 Angstroms 5 -4 4 C. 7.15 x 10 Angstroms D. 3.59 x 10 Angstroms 5 -5 9 E. 2.78 x 10 Angstroms. 7153011 D 14 37687 52 194607450939 0057 Of the three bonds N-N, N=N, and N=N, the N-N bond is: 3 _ A. shortest and strongest B. shortest and weakest C. longest and strongest 9 D. longest and weakest 7153012 B 14 37690 52 19481874 0059 Which of the following bonds is strongest? 9 A. Si-H B. Si-F C. Si-Cl D. Si-I 7153013 A 14 37692 52 0058 18 0063 The most stable species among the following is 5 + - 2- A. O B. O C. O D. O 94 2 2 2 2 7153014 B 14 37695 52 00580159 19 0063 The energy required to break the carbon to nitrogen bond is highest for A. H CNH B. HCN C. H CNH D. BrNCCl 94 3 2 2 2 7155001 D 15 37698 71 2WVW Arrange the following in order of increasing dipole moment ClF, LiH, HI, KF A. HI, ClF, KF, LiH B. KF, LiH, ClF, HI C. ClF, LiH, HI, KF D. HI, ClF, LiH, KF 9 E. LiH, KF, ClF, HI 7155002 D 14 37701 31 2WVW When an atom of an active metal combines with an atom of an active nonmetal, the resulting compound is said to be A. coordinate covalent B. polar covalent C. nonpolar covalent 9 D. ionic 7155003 D 14 37704 31 113902930185 0041 Polar molecules A. contain tiny magnetic poles B. are completely symmetric in every way C. do not dissolve ionic compounds D. behave as though positively charged at one end and negatively charged at the other 9 E. are good coolants 7155004 A 14 37708 32 11390008 0041 The most strongly polar liquid is 9 A. water B. alcohol C. hydrochloric acid D. gasoline 7155006 C 14 37710 31 02720778029351 9000 Experiment shows that hydrogen sulfide has a dipole moment. This result suggests that the H S molecule is 4 2 9 A. nonpolar B. symmetrical C. bent D. dimeric. 7155007 B 15 37713 32 02931139 0018 Which of the following molecules would be considered polar? A. F B. HF C. CCl D. CO E. H 94 2 4 2 2 7155008 D 15 37715 32 000807780293 0020 Water molecules have a dipole moment because A. the molecules are bent B. the electrons are closer to oxygen C. oxygen has a greater electonegativity than hydrogen D. all of the above 9 E. none of the above 7155009 B 14 37718 52 03551139 0009 Which of the following bonds would be the least polar? 9 A. H-F B. O-F C. Cl-F D. Ca-F 7155010 D 14 37720 52 00901139 0009 Indicate which one of the following is definitely polar: A. O B. CO C. BF D. C H F 94 2 2 3 2 3 7155011 A 14 37722 31 1139 0019 Which of the following is the most polar? 9 A. HF B. HCl C. HBr D. HI 7155012 A 14 37724 52 14030498 0019 Which of the following has the highest boiling point? A. H O B. H S C. H Se D. H Te 94 2 2 2 2 7155013 C 15 37726 51 030714270516 0019 In which of the following might one expect to see evidence of considerably more intermolecular attraction than can be accounted for in terms of Van Der Waals forces? A. F B. PH C. H O D. H S E. none of these 94 2 3 2 2 7155014 C 15 37730 51 1428 0019 Which of the following has the least polar bond? 9 A. NaCl B. HCl C. ClCl D. BrCl E. BrF 7155015 A 15 37732 31 082413240781 0040 Electronegativity is a concept that is useful along with other concepts in A. predicting the polarity of a bond B. deciding how many neutrons an atom has C. deciding the electron configuration for an atom D. both A and C 9 E. both B and C. 7155016 C 15 37736 31 077814280293 0040 Which of the following molecules would have the most polar bond? 9 A. ICl B. BrCl C. IF D. ClF E. BrF 7155017 B 15 37738 31 077809361394 0040 Which of the following molecules could not possibly be polar? 3 ____________ A. H O B. F C. HCBr D. C H OH E. NH 94 2 2 3 2 5 3 7155018 B 15 37741 31 139409361428 0040 Which of the following statements concerning polarity is correct? A. All diatomic molecules are polar. B. Molecules containing only one type of atom must be nonpolar. C. All triatomic molecules are polar. D. Both A and C 9 E. All molecules are polar. 7155019 C 15 37745 32 142807780781 0040 Which of the following pairs of elements upon reaction would give the least polarized bond? A. Na and Cl B. C and Cl C. Cl and Br D. Sn and F 4 2 2 2 2 9 E. Cl and I 7155020 C 15 37748 52 023711390926 0040 AB and AB are both covalent compounds, where A and B are two 4 2 different elements. Which of the following statements concerning the polarity of these molecules is true? A. AB and AB both must be polar molecules. 4 2 B. AB must be nonpolar. 4 2 C. AB must be polar D. AB and AB each can be polar or nonpolar. 4 2 9 E. Both B and C 7155021 C 14 37754 32 1428 0003 Which contains no polar bonds? A. C H B. CCl C. O D. NH 94 2 6 4 2 3 7155022 D 14 37756 32 1425 0003 Which exhibits ionic bonding? A. Cl B. SO C. ClF D. CaO 94 2 2 7155023 D 14 37758 32 0778 0003 Which has a molecular dipole? A. O B. CH C. BeCl D. NH 94 2 4 2 3 7155024 D 14 37760 52 00580778 19 0063 Dipole moments are predicted for all the following molecules except A. SF B. IF C. ClF D. SF 94 2 5 3 6 7155025 A 14 37762 52 00580778 19 0063 Of the following species, the one expected to have a permanent dipole moment is 5 - A. BrF B. PF C. SiF D. BF 94 5 6 4 3 7157001 A 14 37765 72 120117551756 0043 The calculated spin-only magnetic moment (in Bohr magnetons) of 5 2+ gaseous Fe is: 9 A. 4.9 B. 6.9 C. 1.7 D. 0 7157002 D 14 44598 72 17550920 0043 The theoretical spin-only magnetic moment (in Bohr magnetons) of 5 2+ [Cr(H O) ] would be expected to be: 4 2 6 9 A. 1.7 B. 2.8 C. 3.9 D. 4.9 7157004 B 14 37773 71 11780662 0043 The following ion would be expected to be colorless: 5 2+ 4+ 3+ 2+ 9 A. Cu B. Ti C. V D. Fe 7157005 C 14 37775 52 087315310695 0043 The following square-planar complex shows cis-trans isomerism: 5 2- - 2- A. PtCl B. PtCl NH C. PtCl D. PtCl CN 94 4 3 3 2 2 2 7157006 D 14 37778 52 026311780548 0043 5 2+ The number of unpaired electrons in a gaseous V ion is: 9 A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3. 7157007 D 14 37780 52 142307690920 0043 5 2+ The number of unpaired electrons in a V ion in a strong octahedral crystal field is: 9 A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3. 7157008 D 14 37783 52 142307690920 0043 5 2+ The number of unpaired electrons in a V ion in a weak octahedral crystal field is: 9 A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3. 7157009 D 14 37786 52 142305481178 0043 5 2+ The number of unpaired electrons in a gaseous Mn ion is 9 A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5. 7157010 B 14 37788 52 14230920 0043 5 2+ The number of unpaired electrons in a Mn ion in a strong octahedral field is: 9 A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3. 7157011 D 14 37791 52 14230920 0043 5 2+ The number of unpaired electrons in a Mn ion in a weak octahedral field is: 9 A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5. 7157012 B 14 37794 51 01920768 0043 A substance which is not paramagnetic is: A. Cr(ClO ) B. KMnO C. TiCl D. VOBr 94 4 3 4 3 2 7157013 B 14 37796 51 17580189 0043 The most strongly ferromagnetic element is: 9 A. Fe B. Co C. Ni D. Os. 7157014 D 15 37798 51 0768 0043 Which of the following is paramagnetic? A. NH OH B. N H Cl C. N O D. NO E. NH 94 2 2 6 2 2 3 2 3 7157015 B 14 37800 51 02930768 0043 Choose the molecule which is not paramagnetic: A. ClO B. ClF C. NO D. BrO 94 2 3 2 2 7157016 B 14 37802 51 0768 0043 The following is paramagnetic: A. Na O B. O C. NaHO D. H O E. NaOH 94 2 2 2 2 2 2 7157017 E 15 37804 72 15310768 0044 Which of the following complexes is/are paramagnetic? 5 + 2+ - 3- 1. Ag(NH ) 2. Zn(NH ) 3. AgCl 4. CuCl 4 3 2 3 4 2 4 A. 2 B. 3 and 4 C. 1, 2 and 4 D. all of them 9 E. none of them. 7157018 C 14 37809 31 076802630347 0019 The property of paramagnetism is A. shown by all atoms B. a function of the charge of the proton C. due to an electron which occupies an orbital alone 9 D. due to the electromagnetic variation of individual orbitals 7157019 A 14 37813 52 0942 0019 Which of the following is not diamagnetic? A. NO B. N O C. HNO D. NH OH 94 2 2 3 3 2 7157020 A 15 37815 31 076814230185 0019 Which of the following is paramagnetic? 5 2- 2- - A. O B. O C. O D. H O E. HO 94 2 2 2 2 2 7157021 D 15 37818 31 076803690027 0019 Which of the following species is paramagnetic? 5 3+ 2+ A. Sc B. O C. F D. Zn E. S 94 2 2 7157022 A 15 37821 51 078115311423 0019 5 3+ 3- 2 3 The complex (Fe (SCN) ) shows d sp hybrid bonding. How many 4 6 unpaired electrons does the complex have? 9 A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 7157023 A 15 37824 51 117809420369 0019 Which of the following ions are diamagnetic ? 5 3+ + 2+ 4+ 5+ 1. Sc 2. Cu 3. Zn 4. Zr 5. V A. all five are diamagnetic B. 1, 3 and 5 C. 2, 4 and 5 D. 3 and 4 9 E. 5 only 7157024 B 15 37827 51 02930067 0034 The requirement that the O molecule contains unpaired electrons 4 2 is based on A. the fact that there are an odd number of electrons in the O molecule 4 2 B. the magnetic properties of oxygen C. the observation that absorption of ultraviolet light converts it into ozone (O ) 4 3 D. the fact that oxygen exists in two molecular forms-- O and O 4 2 3 9 E. its relatively low boiling point compared to nitrogen 7157025 B 14 37835 52 00580768 18 0063 The paramagnetic species among the following is 5 2- A. H B. NO C. N D. O E. Br 94 2 2 2 2 7157026 D 14 37838 52 00580768 18 0063 The 10-electron paramagnetic species, B , has the ground-state 4 2 molecular orbital designation 5 2 2 2 2 2 A. (sigma ) (sigma *) (sigma ) (sigma *) (pi ) 4 1s 1s 2s 2s y 5 2 2 2 2 2 B. (sigma ) (sigma *) (pi ) (pi ) (sigma ) 4 2s 2s z z 2p 5 2 2 1 1 1 1 C. (sigma ) (sigma *) (sigma ) (sigma *) (pi ) (pi ) 4 1s 1s 2s 2s y z 5 1 1 (sigma ) (pi *) 4 2p y 5 2 2 2 2 1 1 D. (sigma ) (sigma *) (sigma ) (sigma *) (pi ) (pi ) 94 1s 1s 2s 2s y z 7157027 C 14 37850 52 00580768 18 0063 Among the following species, the one not expected to be paramagnetic is 5 + + A. O B. Li C. NO D. HeH 94 2 2 7158001 B 15 45450 71 Which of the following diatomic species would you expect to have the shortest length? 5 2- 2- A. NO B. C C. O D. O E. F 94 2 2 2 2 7158002 E 15 45453 71 Which of the following diatomic species would you expect to have the longest bond length? 5 2- A. NO B. N C. O D. O E. Cl 94 2 2 2 2 7160001 B 15 37853 72 2WVW 5 3- How many unpaired electrons are there in Mn(CN) ? 4 6 9 A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 0 7160002 E 15 37856 52 003507670741 2WVW Consider the following complexes of a metal M. (1) (M(en)(Cl)(Br)(NH )(I))(CO ) 4 3 3 2 (2) K (M(C O ) (NH )(NO )) 4 3 2 4 2 3 2 (Note: en = H N--CH --CH --NH ; oxalic acid is H C O .) 4 2 2 2 2 2 2 4 What are the oxidation states of M in these complexes? (1) (2) A. +3 +6 B. +4 +3 C. +7 +3 D. +6 +3 9 E. +7 +2 7160003 D 14 37862 32 03690015022451 9000 The transition metal complex ammonium tetrathiocyanatodiammine molybdate(III) has the formula A. (NH (CNS) (NH ) )MoO B. ((NH ) (CNS) (NH ) )MoO 4 4 4 3 2 4 4 2 4 3 2 4 C. NH (Mo(CNS) (NH ) ) D. NH (Mo(CNS) (NH ) ) 94 3 4 4 2 4 4 3 2 7161001 C 15 37867 52 05850767 2WVW How many different geometrical isomers are there for the cationic 5 2+ octahedral complex, (Pt(NH ) (Py) Cl ) ? 4 3 2 2 2 (Note: Py is the abbreviation for pyridine, C H N.) 4 5 5 (Hint: use the trial and error approach.) A. 1 B. 3 C. 5 D. 7 9 E. there are no geometrical isomers for this complex. 7161002 B 15 37873 72 069509201531 0042 How many different geometrical isomers are there for the cationic octahedral complex (Pt(NH ) BrCl ) ? 4 3 3 2 9 A. 1 B. 3 C. 2 D. 7 E. no geometrical isomers 7161003 B 14 45135 72 1245 0043 The following represents a pair of enantiomers: (en = ethylenediamine) 5 3- + + A. CrCl C. cis-CrCl en E. cis-CrCl (NH ) 4 6 2 2 2 3 4 5 + + B. trans-CrCl en D. trans-CrCl (NH ) 94 2 2 2 3 4 7161004 C 14 37880 52 069516591228 0043 The total number of possible isomers (cis-trans and optical) of 5 + CrCl en is: 4 2 2 9 A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4. 7161005 B 14 37882 52 0695 0043 The total number of possible isomers of CrCl (NH ) is: 4 3 3 3 9 A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4. 7161006 A 14 37884 52 0695 0043 5 2- The total number of possible isomers of ZnCl F is: 4 2 2 9 A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4. 7161007 D 14 37887 52 0695 0043 The total number of possible isomers of CrCl CNNH en is: 4 2 2 9 A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6. 7161008 D 14 37889 51 007505540061 0043 When stannous hydroxide is dissolved in excess base, the product is: 5 2- 2- - A. Sn(OH) B. Sn(OH) C. SnO D. Sn(OH) 94 4 6 3 3 7161009 C 14 37892 52 0705 0043 By subtracting H O's, a simpler, but less accurate, formula for 4 2 5 + Cr(H O) (OH) could be written: 4 2 4 2 5 - + + - A. CrO B. CrO C. CrO D. Cr(OH) 94 2 2 7161010 B 15 37896 72 069509201531 0044 How many geometrical isomers are possible for the hypothetical octahedral complex (MA B )? (A and B are ligands) 4 3 3 9 A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 6 E. 8 7161011 D 15 37899 72 153116590695 0044 Which of the following complexes would exhibit optical isomerism? 5 3- 3- 1. [Co(ox) ] 2. [Cr(ox) ] 4 3 3 5 + + 3. cis-[Co(en) Cl ] 4. [Cr(en) (acac)] 4 2 2 2 ox = oxalate, dianion; en = ethylenediamine, neutral; acac = acetylacetonate, monoanion. 9 A. 4 B. 1 and 2 C. 2, 3 and 4 D. all of them E. 1 and 4 7161012 C 14 37906 51 10551541007251 9000 The predominant copper containing species, when CuSO is 4 4 dissolved in ammonium hydroxide, could be best represented by 5 ++ A. Cu(NO ) (aq) B. Cu(NH ) (aq) 4 3 2 3 2 5 ++ C. Cu(NH ) (aq) D. Cu(NH ) (aq) 94 3 4 2 2 7161013 B 15 37911 31 153103690767 0019 A metal forms two different complexes of formula MCl (NH ) . 4 2 3 2 This result is most consistent with 5 2 3 2+ A. d sp hybridization of M to give an octahedral complex B. the geometry of the complex being square planar C. the geometry of the comples being tetrahedral D. the center metal atom of the complex being in its highest oxidation state 5 10 9 E. a transition metal ion having the d configuration 7161014 C 15 37919 51 078015310369 0019 Which d orbitals are used in the formation of octahedral complexes? A. d and d 2 B. d , d and d C. d 2 2 and d 2 4 xy z xy xz yz x -y z D. d and d 2 2 E. all of the above 94 xy x -y 7161015 A 15 37923 51 153114231737 0019 5 2+ 2+ The complex (Ni (H O) ) is known to have 2 unpaired electrons. 4 2 4 What type of hybrid bonding is involved? 5 3 2 2 2 3 9 A. sp B. sp C. dsp D. d sp 7161016 B 15 37927 52 069515311738 0019 How many square planar compounds having the formula ZnCl (NH ) 4 2 3 2 are there? 9 A. one B. two C. three D. four 7161017 B 15 37930 51 076317381531 0019 Which d orbital(s) is/are used in hybridization in the formation of a square planar complex? A. d 2 B. d 2 2 C. d D. d E. d 2 2 and d 2 94 z x -y xy xz x -y z 7161018 A 15 37933 51 153117391423 0019 5 4- 2 3 The complex [Fe(CN ) ] is said to exhibit d sp bonding. 4 6 How many unpaired electrons are there in the complex? 9 A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3 E. 4 7161019 B 14 37936 52 173915310695 0019 5 3- How many isomers of CrF Cl are there? 4 4 2 9 A. one B. two C. three D. four 7161020 B 14 37938 52 153106951739 0019 5 3- How many octahedral isomers of CrF Cl are there? 4 3 3 9 A. one B. two C. three D. four 7161021 B 14 37941 52 069515311738 0019 How many isomers of PdCl (NH ) are there? 4 2 3 2 9 A. one B. two C. three D. four 7161022 C 14 37943 52 069515311738 0019 5 2- How many isomers of PdFClBrI are there? 9 A. one B. two C. three D. four 7161023 C 14 37945 52 003702090471 0009 5 2+ When (Ni(NH ) ) is treated with concentrated HCl, two compounds 4 3 4 having the same formula, Ni(NH ) Cl , designated I and II are 4 3 2 2 formed. Compound I can be converted to compound II by boiling in dilute HCl. A solution of I reacts with oxalic acid, H C O , to 4 2 2 4 form Ni(NH ) (C O ). Compound II does not react with oxalic 4 3 2 2 4 acid. Compound II is: A. the same as compound I B. the cis isomer 9 C. the trans isomer D. tetrahedral in shape 7161024 B 14 37953 52 117802631301 0009 5 2- In the NiCl ion, the total number of electrons around the Ni 4 4 is 9 A. 28 B. 34 C. 36 D. 38 7161025 C 14 37955 52 022413580919 0009 5 2- The formula PdCl (OH) is known to represent two different 4 2 2 ions. The hybrid orbitals occupied by the bonding electrons are 5 3 2 2 3 9 A. sp B. sp C. dsp D. d sp 7161026 D 14 37959 52 076300391592 0009 5 + The hybridization of gold in Au(NH ) is: 4 3 2 5 2 3 9 A. dsp B. dsp C. sp D. sp 7161027 D 14 37962 52 135506951599 0009 The maximum number of possible geometric isomers for a complex 5 3 having sp hybridization would be 9 A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. none 7161028 C 14 37964 72 16001435 0009 Geometric isomers would be expected for: 5 2+ A. Zn(NH ) B. Zn(H O) (OH) 4 3 4 2 2 2 5 + C. Co(NH ) Cl Br D. Au(NH ) 94 3 3 2 3 2 7161029 A 15 44634 51 Which of the following shapes of molecules do not exhibit geometric 3 ______ isomerization: A. tetrahedral B. square planar C. octahedral 9 D. pentagonal bipyramidal E. square pyramidal 7161030 D 14 37968 52 153207280920 0009 Complex ions of coordination number six have a geometric structure that is 9 A. square B. linear C. tetrahedral D. octahedral 7161031 D 15 37970 51 069500660204 0034 Isomers are A. atoms that have the same electronic configurations B. two or more forms of the same element C. compounds that have different molecular structures D. compounds that have the same elemental compositions but different molecular structures E. compounds that have the same molecular structure but 9 different elemental compositions 7162001 A 15 37975 32 122815310293 0042 How many geometrical isomers may exist for the complex 5 3 (Zn(NH ) Cl )? The bonding in the molecule involves sp 4 3 2 2 hybridization. 9 A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four E. Five. 7162002 D 15 45657 31 011000081172 0009 The solubility of AgCl in water may be increased by the addition of A. HCl B. AgNO C. H O D. NH E. NaCl 94 3 2 3 7162003 C 15 45729 51 5 O 5 // - There are ____ -C-O binding sites in the chelating agent EDTA. 9 A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 E. 6 7163001 D 15 37981 52 07670769 2WVW In a tetrahedral transition metal complex the d(xy), d(xz), and 5 2 2 2 d(yz) orbitals are degenerate, as are the d(z ) and d(x - y ) orbitals. They are designated by the labels t2 and e, respectively. What is the ground state d electronic configuration of cobalt in 5 2- the tetrahedral low-spin complex CoBr ? 4 4 A. (t2)6,(e)1 (t2)6 means 6 electrons in the t2 orbital set, etc. B. (e)4,(t2)5 C. (e)4,(t2)2 D. (e)4(t2)3 9 E. (t2)6(e)3 7163002 C 14 37989 51 092003470159 0043 In an octahedral field the following orbitals of the central atom in a complex have the same energy0 A. d and d B. d and d 4 2 xy 2 2 2 4 z y x -y C. d and d D. d and d 4 2 2 2 2 2 94 z x -y x -y 7163003 A 15 37994 72 076901590920 0044 What is the crystal field stabilization energy (in Dq units) of a hypothetical complex of Co(II) in an octahedral strong field? 9 A. 18 Dq B. 4 Dq C. 0 Dq D. 6 Dq E. 12 Dq. 7163004 E 15 37997 51 OS82 According to crystal field theory, when ligands arrange themselves octahedrally about a transition metal ion, A. covalent bonds are formed B. bond formation cannot occur C. ionic bonds cannot form D. all the d orbitals are repelled to lower energy levels E. the d orbitals are unequally repelled, forming two sets 9 of higher energy levels. 7163005 B 12 13244 72 184009170934 0043 In an octahedral field the set of d orbitals having the lower energy is 5 2 A. t B. e C. t D. e E. pi 94 g 2g 7164001 B 14 38002 52 11780338 0009 5 2+ The ion, Ni , would have the electron configuration: 5 8 2 8 A. (Ar) 3d 4s B. (Ar) 3d 5 7 6 2 9 C. (Ar) 3d 4s D. (Ar) 3d 4s 7165001 B 14 44947 72 2WVW Given the spectrochemical series . . . (strongest ligand first) 5 - - - - - - - - CN NO NH SCN HOH F OH Cl Br I 4 2 3 Mark the letter corresponding to the complex ion which would absorb visible radiation of the longest wavelength. (Consider only the most intense band in the visible spectrum) 5 3+ A. (Co)(NH ) hexaamminecobalt(III) 4 3 6 5 3+ B. (Co)(NH ) (HOH) aquopentaamminecobalt(III) ion 4 3 5 5 2+ C. (Co)(NH ) (NO ) nitropentaamminecobalt(III) ion 4 3 5 2 5 + D. (Co)(NH )(NO ) 4 3 2 2 9 E. all would have the same absorption maximum. 7165002 C 14 38015 72 2WVW Mark the letter corresponding to the complex ion which would absorb visible radiation of the shortest wavelength. (Consider only the most intense band in the visible spectrum). A. hexaamminecobalt(III) B. pentaammineaquocobalt(III) C. pentaamminecyanocobalt(III) D. pentaamminefluorocobalt(III) E. all would have the same absorption maximum since all contain 9 cobalt(III) 7165003 B 14 38025 72 2WVW Given the spectrochemical series . . . (strongest ligand first) 5 - - - - - - - - CN NO NH SCN HOH F OH Cl Br I 4 2 3 Mark the letter corresponding to the complex ion which would absorb visible radiation of the longest wavelength. (Consider only the most intense band in the visible spectrum) 5 3+ A. (Co)(NH ) hexaamminecobalt(III) ion 4 3 6 5 3+ B. (Co)(NH ) (Cl) chloropentaamminecobalt(III) ion 4 3 5 5 2+ C. (Co)(NH ) (F) fluoropentaamminecobalt(III) ion 4 3 5 D. all would have the same absorption maximum since all 9 contain cobalt(III) 7165004 A 14 38035 72 2WVW Given the spectrochemical series (strongest ligand first), 5 - - - - - - - - CN NO NH SCN HOH F OH Cl Br I 4 2 3 mark the letter corresponding to the complex ion which would absorb visible radiation of the longest wavelength. (Consider only the most intense band in the visible spectrum) 5 2+ A. (Cr)(NH ) (Cl) chloropentaamminechromium(III) ion 4 3 5 5 2+ B. (Cr)(NH ) (OH) hydroxopentaamminechromium(III) ion 4 3 5 5 3+ C. (Cr)(NH ) hexaamminechromium(III) ion 4 3 6 D. all would have the same absorption maximum since all 9 contain chromium(III) 7165005 A 14 38045 72 2WVW Given the spectrochemical series . . . (strongest ligand first) 5 - - - - - - - - CN NO NH SCN HOH F OH Cl Br I 4 2 3 Mark the letter corresponding to the complex ion which would absorb vsible radiation of the shortest wavelength. (Consider only the most intesne band in the visible spectrum) 5 3+ A. (Co)(NH ) hexaamminecobalt(III) ion 4 3 5 5 3+ B. (Co)(NH ) (Cl) chloropentaamminecobalt(III) 4 3 5 5 2+ C. (Co)(NH ) (F) fluoropentaamminecobalt(III) ion 4 3 5 D. all would have the same absorption maximum since all 9 contain cobalt(III) 7165006 C 14 38055 72 2WVW Given the spectrochemical series . . . (strongest ligand first) 5 - - - - - - - - CN NO NH SCN HOH F OH Cl Br I 4 2 3 Mark the letter corresponding to the complex ion which would absorb visible radiation of the shortest wavelength. (Consider only the most intense band in the visible spectrum) 5 2+ A. (Cr)(NH ) (Cl) chloropentaamminechromium(III) ion 4 3 5 5 2+ B. (Cr)(NH ) (OH) hydroxopentaamminechromium(III) ion 4 3 5 5 3+ C. (Cr)(NH ) hexaamminechromium(III) ion 4 3 6 D. all would have the same absorption maximum since all contain 9 chromium(III) 7165007 A 14 38065 72 2WVW Given the spectrochemical series . . . (strongest ligand first) 5 - - - - - - - - CN NO NH SCN HOH F OH Cl Br I 4 2 3 Mark the letter corresponding to the complex ion which would absorb visible radiation of the longest wavelength. (Consider only the most intense band in the visible spectrum) 5 2- A. (Cr)(C=N) (HOH) pentacyanoaquochromate(III) ion 4 5 5 2- B. (Cr)(C=N) (NH ) pentacyanoamminechromate(III) ion 4 5 3 5 3- C. (Cr)(C=N) hexacyanochromate(III) ion 4 6 D. all would have the same absorption maximum since all 9 contain (Cr)(III) 7165008 C 14 38075 72 2WVW Given the spectrochemical series (strongest-->weakest is left-->right) 5 - - - - - - - - CN NO NH SCN HOH F OH Cl Br I 4 2 3 Mark the letter corresponding to the complex ion which would absorb visible radiation of the shortest wavelength.(consider only the most intense band in the visible spectrum) 5 2- A. (Cr)(CN) (HOH) pentacyanoaquochromate(III) ion 4 5 5 2- B. (Cr)(CN) (NH ) pentacyanoamminechromate(III) ion 4 5 3 5 3- C. (Cr)(CN) hexacyanochromate(III) ion 4 6 D. all would have the same absorption maximum since all 9 contain (Cr)(III) 7165009 A 14 38085 72 2WVW Given the spectrochemical series . . . (strongest ligand first) 5 - - - - - - - - CN NO NH SCN HOH F OH Cl Br I 4 2 3 Mark the letter corresponding to the complex ion which would absorb visible radiation of the longest wavelength. (Consider only the most intense band in the visible spectrum) 5 4- A. (Fe)(C=N) (SCN) pentacyanothiocyanatoferrate(II) ion 4 5 5 4- B. (Fe)(C=N) hexacyanoferrate(II) ion 4 6 5 4- C. (Fe)(C=N) (NO ) pentacyanonitroferrate(II) ion 4 5 2 D. all would have the same absorption maximum since all contain 9 (Fe)(II) 7165010 B 14 38095 72 2WVW Given the spectrochemical series . . . (strongest ligand first) 5 - - - - - - - - CN NO NH SCN HOH F OH Cl Br I 4 2 3 Mark the letter corresponding to the complex ion which would absorb visible radiation of the shortest wavelength. (Consider only the most intense band in the visible spectrum) 5 4- A. (Fe)(C=N) (SCN) pentacyanothiocyanatoferrate(II) ion 4 5 5 4- B. (Fe)(C=N) hexacyanoferrate(II) ion 4 6 5 4- C. (Fe)(C=N) (NO ) pentacyanonitroferrate(II) ion 4 5 2 D. all would have the same absorption maximum since all contain 9 (Fe)(II) 7165011 C 14 38105 72 2WVW Given the spectrochemical series . . . (strongest ligand first) 5 - - - - - - - - CN NO NH SCN HOH F OH Cl Br I 4 2 3 Mark the letter corresponding to the complex ion which would absorb visible radiation of the longest wavelength. (Consider only the most intense band in the visible spectrum) A. hexanitroferrate(II) ion B. pentanitroaquoferrate(II) ion C. pentanitrohydroxoferrate(II) ion D. all would have the same absorption maximum since all contain 9 Fe(II) 7165012 A 14 38115 72 2WVW Given the spectrochemical series . . . (strongest ligand first) 5 - - - - - - - - CN NO NH SCN HOH F OH Cl Br I 4 2 3 Mark the letter corresponding to the complex ion which would absorb visible radiation of the shortest wavelength. (Consider only the most intense band in the visible spectrum) 5 4- A. [Fe(NO ) ] hexanitritoferrate(II) 4 2 6 5 3- B. [Fe(NO ) (H O)] aquopentanitritoferrate(II) 4 2 5 2 5 4- C. [Fe(NO ) (OH)] hydroxopentanitritoferrate(II) 4 2 5 D. all would have the same absorption maximum since all contain 9 Fe(II) 7165013 A 15 38125 72 07660767 2WVW Which of the following complexes would you expect to exhibit optical activity? 5 - (1) bis(glycinato)zinc(II) (glycinate ion = NH CH COO ) 4 2 2 (2) cis-(Co(en) Cl ) (en = H N-CH -CH -NH ) 4 2 2 2 2 2 2 (3) trans-(Pt(SCH ) (SCN) ) 4 3 2 2 (4) potassium 1-fluoro-3-chloro-4-bromo-5-iododiammine-tungstate(II) (5) Fe(en)((CO) )(NH ) trigonal bipyramid structure 4 2 3 A. all but 3 B. all of them C. none of them D. 1 and 4 9 E. 1,2, and 4 7165014 B 14 38134 51 066200870141 0043 The yellow color of a solution prepared by adding 0.1 mole of Fe(NO ) to one liter of water is largely due to: 4 3 3 5 2+ 2+ - 3+ A. FeCl B. FeOH C. Fe(OH) D. Fe(H O) 94 4 2 6 7165015 B 15 38138 51 OS82 From the following, pick the ion that according to crystal field theory is most paramagnetic: 5 - 10 4- 6 3- 5 A. [CuCl ] , d C. [Fe(CN) ] , d E. [Fe(CN) ] , d 4 2 6 6 5 3- 5 2+ 9 B. [FeF ] , d D. [Cu(NH ) ] , d 94 6 3 4 7165016 D 15 38144 51 11780662 0020 Which of the following ions have color? A. dichromate B. nickel(II) 5 - C. MnO 4 4 D. all of these 9 E. none of these 7165017 C 14 38147 52 153104490254 0009 5 2+ 2+ Of the two complexes, Cu(H O) and Cu(NH ) , the second is 4 2 4 3 4 the more stable. This means that 5 2+ A. Cu(NH ) would be the stronger acid 4 3 4 B. ethylenediamine would replace H O faster than it would 4 2 replace NH 4 3 5 2+ C. Cu(NH ) has a smaller dissociation constant 4 3 4 5 2+ D. Cu(NH ) has a larger dissociation constant 94 3 4 7165018 B 14 38155 72 19541956 0061 Prussian blue is obtained by mixing which pairs of solutions? 5 3+ - 3+ A. Fe and SCN B. Fe and K [Fe(CN) ] 4 4 6 5 3+ 3+ 2- C. Fe and K [Fe(CN) ] D. Fe and C O 94 3 6 2 4 7165019 C 14 45097 72 195402090413 0061 Which has the highest molar solubility in 1 M HCl? 5 -31 -53 A. Bi S (K = 5.7 x 10 ) D. HgS (K = 4 x 10 ) 4 2 3 sp sp 5 -45 -49 B. CuS (K = 8.5 x 10 ) E. Ag S (K = 1.6 x 10 ) 4 sp 2 sp 5 -19 C. FeS (K = 3.7 x 10 ) 94 sp 7165020 D 15 38162 51 OS82 Pick the ion that according to crystal field theory has no unpaired electrons: 5 2- 9 4- 6 4- 8 A. [CuCl ] , d C. [FeF ] , d E. [Ni(CN) ] , d 4 4 6 6 5 3- 5 4- 6 B. [FeF ] , d D. [Fe(CN) ] , d 94 6 6 7165021 B 12 44374 51 06621531078309 0009 The color most often associated with transition metal complexes is best explained by A. valence bond theory C. electron-transfer resonance 9 B. crystal field theory 7165022 A 13 13249 52 8003 06 2WVW Crystal field theory predicts that [Cr(NH ) Cl ]Cl is 4 3 4 2 A. paramagnetic B. diamagnetic C. colorless D. ferromagnetic 9 E. electromagnetic 7175001 D 14 38167 32 0768 0003 Which is not paramagnetic? A. NO B. CO C. NO D. B 94 2 2 7200001 C 15 38169 31 02420263001511 ETS2 OS Electrovalence A. is the sharing of a pair of electrons between two atoms B. results when an electron is transferred from a halide ion to a sodium ion C. results when one electron is transferred from a metal atom to a halogen atom D. produces compounds which are likely to have low melting points 9 E. results in the formation of definite molecules 7200002 B 14 38175 32 046300700112 2 OS The degree of ionic character is a chemical bond is best determined from its A. boiling point B. degree of ionization in a suitable solvent C. dipole moment 9 D. melting point 7200003 B 14 38178 32 035503510824 2 OS During the formation of an ionic bond, the atom which transfers its valence electron is the atom with the A. higher electronegativity value B. lower electronegativity value C. higher ionization energy 9 D. lower oxidation number 7200004 D 15 38182 52 06650192 0044 Listed below are a number of facts and phenomena which are understandable in terms of the ionic nature of one or more of the substances involved. Select the one statement which does NOT belong. A. A solution of potassium nitrate in water conducts an electric current even though solid potassium nitrate does not. B. A solution of magnesium chloride in water conducts an electric current even though pure water does not. C. A one molal solution of calcium chloride lowers the freezing point of water approximately 1.5 times as much as a one molal solution of sodium chloride. 5 o D. At 18 C pure HF is a liquid even though all the other pure hydrogen halides are gases. E. All the hydrated Cu(II) salts are about the same shade of 9 blue. 7200005 B 15 38193 52 002000050037 0044 Atom A, an active metal, has two valence electrons and atom B, a non-metal, has 5 valence electrons. The formula expected for an ionic compound of A and B 1s: A. A B B. A B C. A B D. AB E. AB 94 2 3 2 2 3 3 2 7200006 A 15 38197 52 019608240005 0040 Which of the following hydrogen compounds would you expect to have bonds with the greatest percent ionic character? A. H O B. H Te C. H S D. H Se 4 2 2 2 2 E. all would have the same percent ionic character since the 9 formulas are similar. 7200007 A 14 38201 31 0159 0003 Energy is released when a substance dissolves in water if: A. the hydration energy is negative B. the hydration energy is positive C. the hydration energy is greater than the lattice energy 9 D. the lattice energy is positive 7210001 C 14 38205 31 2WVW An ionic bond is believed to be caused by A. the actual sharing of electrons B. a release of energy C. the transfer of electrons 9 D. a combination of fats and proteins 7210002 D 15 38208 32 142511780005 0040 Of the following pairs of elements which pair would most likely form an ionic compound upon combination? A. O and S B. O and N C. O and Al D. O and Ca 9 E. O and O 7210003 E 15 38211 31 000514251178 0040 When K and O react to give the ionic compound K O 4 2 A. each K atom loses two electrons B. each O atom loses two electrons C. each K atom gains one electron D. each O atom gains one electron 9 E. each O atom gains two electron. 7230001 D 14 38215 31 2WVW The geometric form of crystals is the result of the orderly arrangement of A. molecular, only B. atoms, only C. ions, only 9 D. molecules, atoms or ions 7230002 D 14 38218 31 00050244 0003 Ionic crystals are typically brittle because distortion of the crystal lattice produces: A. a flow of the electron gas B. ionization of some atoms 9 C. interionic attractions D. interionic repulsions 7250001 B 14 38221 31 00020066016911 ETS2WVW The fact that sodium chloride and similar compounds are solids with high melting and boiling points is attributed to the A. sharing of electrons B. electrostatic forces holding the ions together C. fact that the positive ions are metals 9 D. crystalline character of such compounds 7250002 D 15 38225 51 12 ETS2JPB A piano tuner hears four beats per second when he sounds a fork with a frequency of 256 hertz and at the same times strikes the C string on the piano. After he slightly tightens the the piano string, he hears six beats per second. The frequency of the piano string at first must have been A. 262 B. 252 C. 250 D. 260 9 E. 266 7250003 B 15 38230 31 12 ETS2JPB If I hear 4 beats a second when two tuning forks are sounding, and the frequency of the higher fork is 256, I know the frequency of the other is A. 64 B. 252 C. 260 D. 512 9 E. 1024 7250004 D 14 38233 52 040814530180 0019 NaCl has a lattice energy of 183 kcal/mole. The hydration energy 5 + - of the Na is 97 kcal/mole and of the Cl 85 kcal/mole. Which of the following is true concerning the solution process of NaCl? A. The process is exothermic by 12 kcal/mole B. The process is endothermic by 12 kcal/mole C. The process is exothermic by 1 kcal/mole 9 D. The process is endothermic by 1 kcal/mole 7270001 A 15 38239 31 141500650207 0047 According to Dulong and Petit, for many metals, a constant of about 6.3 is obtained by A. multiplying atomic weight by specific heat B. dividing atomic weight by specific heat C. multiplying equivalent weight by specific heat D. dividing specific heat by atomic number 9 E. multiply atomic number by specific heat. 7270002 DC 25 38244 72 02070065 90 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM The specific heats per gram of two chlorides of an element X are (I)0.152, and (II)0.146. the specific heat of chlorine is 1.170 and that of element X is 0.115. Based on this information, answer the 0 following questions. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 What is the approximate atomic mass of element X? A. 17 B. 24 C. 37 D. 52 1 E. none of these MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 Which of the formulas below represents compound II? A. XCl B. XCl 4 2 C. XCl 4 3 D. XCl 4 4 9 E. none of these 7280001 D 15 38251 31 02420066017211 ETS2WVW Electrovalent compounds A. are always more difficult to decompose chemically than covalent compounds B. are the only substances which form crystal lattices C. are only produced among elements in the first four groups of the periodic table D. nearly always form brittle solids of high melting point 9 E. conduct electricity well because they contain free electrons 7280002 D 15 38257 31 04040408002011 ETS2WVW Sodium metal combines with chlorine gas to form the compound NaCl. Sodium is a very electropositive metal, chlorine is a very electronegative substance. Which of the following is true? A. Sodium accepts an electron from the chlorine atom to form an ionic compound B. The bonding between sodium and chlorine is covalent C. Sodium is reduced to the +1 valence state D. Chlorine is reduced to the -1 valence state 9 E. None of the above is true 7280003 C 14 38264 31 006602420555 2WVW Compounds in which ionic (electrovalent) bonds predominate have liquid forms characterized by A. low freezing point and slight electrical conductivity B. low freezing point and good electrical conductivity C. high freezing point and good electrical conductivity 9 D. high freezing point and slight electrical conductivity 7280004 A 14 38269 31 001900660781 2WVW The existence of ions in the solid state is characteristic of compounds whose bonding is A. ionic B. covalent C. weak 9 D. temporary 7280005 B 14 38271 31 2WVW Ionic particles A. are present only in water solutions B. may exist in crystalline solids C. are present in covalent gases 9 D. are neutral molecules 7280006 B 14 38274 32 01920160000551 9000 A white powdery substance is found to have a high electrical conductivity when molten. It dissolves readily in water and the solution is found to be electrically conducting. From these observations, the bonding in this substance could be said to be: A. coordinate covalent B. ionic C. polar covalent 9 D. metallic. 7280007 C 15 38279 31 142500670005 0040 In which of the following pairs do both compounds exhibit predominantly ionic bonding? A. SO , HCl B. KNO , CH C. NaF, MgO D. KCl, CO 4 2 3 4 2 9 E. both A and D 7280008 C 15 38282 31 000500671425 0040 Which of the following compounds is not an ionic compound? 3 ______ A. LiF B. NaF C. ClF D. BaCl 4 2 9 E. both A and B. 7280009 C 14 38285 31 017201691435 0035 One would expect a very high melting point for a: A. molecular solid B. metallic solid C. ionic solid 9 D. covalent solid 7280010 A 14 38287 32 1778 0003 One would expect a high hydration energy of an ion with: A. high charge and small radius B. high charge and large radius C. low charge and small radius 9 D. low charge and large radius 7280011 D 15 38290 31 035500050189 0047 Bonds with the highest degree of ionic character are formed between two elements having respectively A. high ionization energy and high electron affinity B. high ionization energy and low electron affinity C. low ionization energy and low electron affinity D. low ionization energy and high electron affinity 9 E. intermediate ionization energy and electron affinity. 7280012 E 15 45424 71 Which of the following compounds would be expected to have the lowest melting point? 9 A. LiF B. NaF C. KF D. CsF E. CsCl 7280013 A 15 45426 51 Which of the following compounds would be expected to have the highest melting point? 9 A. LiF B. LiCl C. CsF D. NaBr E. CsI 7300001 D 14 44870 31 00150189026311 ETS2WVW A characteristic of the structure of metallic atoms is that A. they tend to share their electrons with other atoms B. their atoms are smaller and more compact than those of non-metallic elements C. their outermost orbit of electrons is nearly complete and they attract electrons from other atoms D. the small number of electrons in their outermost orbit are weakly held and easily lost 9 E. they have heavier nuclei than non-metallic atoms 7300002 D 14 38301 31 011302630244 0041 A "gas" of freely moving electrons is present in A. ionic crystals B. covalent crystals 9 C. molecular crystals D. metal crystals 7310001 D 15 38303 32 00670015040211 ETS2WVW Which of the following properties does not contribute to the usefulness of metals? A. malleability B. ductility C. high tensile strength D. high dielectric constants 9 E. resistance to corrosion 7310002 D 14 38306 31 016000150263 2WVW The high electrical conductivity of metals is due chiefly to A. their high ionization potential B. the presence of filled electron shells C. the chemical activity of metal ions 9 D. the presence of mobile electrons in metal crystals 7310003 A 14 38310 31 0009 0716 0041 A piece of iron is hammered flat on an anvil, which increases the crystalline solids. number of dislocations in its crystal structure. As a result the iron is A. harder B. softer C. less able to conduct electricity 9 D. better able to conduct electricity 7310004 A 14 38314 51 001508790067 0043 Which of the following resembles a metal in structure and properties? A. Li(NH ) B. Na P O C. NH D. ATP. 94 3 4 3 3 9 3 7310005 D 14 38317 51 019201920160 0009 Metallic substances are distinguished from other classes of chemical substances by their A. high boiling points B. being solids at room temperature C. ability to conduct electricity in the liquid state 9 D. high conductivity in the solid state. 7310006 D 14 38321 52 19480173 0059 Which of the following metals is hardest? 9 A. Be B. Mg C. Ca D. Ba 7310007 A 14 38323 72 00580160 18 0063 A possible reason for the decrease in conductivity of metals as the temperature increases is that A. increased vibrations of the positive metal ions in the crystal lattice interfere with electron movement B. the conduction band becomes increasingly full which slows down electron movement C. the electrons are promoted to higher energy levels, thus decreasing the number of conduction electrons D. the flow of positive ions through the lattice is slowed down 9 because of an increased collision frequency 7330001 D 14 38331 31 015902440263 0041 Energy bands exist in crystals in place of specific levels because of A. the uncertainty principle B. the exclusion principle 9 C. Ohm's law D. the electron gas 7330002 A 14 38334 31 032715510263 0041 Current in an n-type semiconductor is carried by 9 A. electrons B. protons C. holes D. metallic ions 7330003 D 15 38336 51 180101691499 0042 In the band theory for solids, a large band gap implies the material is A. a conductor B. an intrinsic semiconductor C. an impurity semiconductor D. an insulator 9 E. both answers B and C 7330004 A 14 38339 52 0058 18 0063 The number of electrons in the conduction band in 0.10 mole of 5 2 1 lithium metal ( Li: 1s 2s ) is 4 3 5 22 23 23 9 A. 6.0 x 10 B. 1.2 x 10 C. 1.8 x 10 D. 1 7330005 B 14 38343 52 00581551 18 0063 A semiconductor has the ability to conduct electricity because A. the very large forbidden zone prevents electrons from escaping, and thus they are available for conduction B. a small temperature increase is sufficient to promote electrons to the conduction band C. the conduction band is always half-filled with electrons 9 D. the conduction band is always completely filled with electrons 7330006 D 14 38349 52 00581676169918 0063 Insulators do not conduct electricity for all but one of the following reasons. The exception is A. there are NO electrons in the conduction band B. there is a large energy gap between the filled electron bands and the conduction band C. a temperature rise is not sufficient to promote electrons to the conduction band 9 D. electrons are trapped in the forbidden zone 7400002 B 15 38355 52 2WVW Which one of the following trends in the extent of intermolecular hydrogen bonding is correct? 3 _______ A. CH OH < CH NH < CH F 4 3 3 2 3 B. CH F < CH NH < CH OH 4 3 3 2 2 C. CH F < CH OH < CH NH 4 3 3 3 2 D. CH OH < CH F < CH NH 4 3 3 3 2 E. CH NH < CH F < CH OH 94 3 2 3 3 7400003 C 14 38361 52 097500370527 0009 In which pair of compounds must the same type of attractive force be overcome upon melting? A. LiCl and ICl B. SiO and CO 4 2 2 C. CCl and O D. K and C 94 4 2 7410001 D 15 38364 31 05160438031711 ETS2WVW Van Der Waals' forces A. cause the high melting point of most salts B. hold together the atoms in a diamond crystal C. disappear when gases are liquefied D. are responsible for the liquefication of covalent compounds 9 E. promote the supercooling of liquids 7410002 B 14 38368 31 051603511697 0041 Van Der Waals forces between atoms and between molecules arise from A. symmetric charge distributions B. asymmetric charge distributions 9 C. electron transfer D. electron sharing 7410003 C 15 38371 52 151005110516 0042 The energy of Van Der Waals interaction in solid radon should be equal to the average kinetic energy of a mole of radon gas (assuming ideal gas behavior) at the melting point of solid radon. If the melting point of solid radon is -71 degrees C, predict the energy of Van Der Waals interaction in solid radon. 5 -1 -1 (R = 1.99 cal mole deg ) 5 -1 -1 -1 A. 71 cal mole B. 210 cal mole C. 600 cal mole 5 -1 -1 9 D. 1.9 kcal mole E. 22.4 kcal mole 7410004 D 14 38379 52 0516 0043 One would expect Van der Waals forces to be very high in solid: 9 A. HBr B. LiBr C. LiCl D. AgBr 7410005 E 15 38381 31 05161424 0019 Which of the following are the weakest? A. ionic bonds B. covalent bonds C. polar covalent bonds 9 D. hydrogen bonds E. London forces 7410006 A 15 38383 52 052702930161 0035 The attractive forces between molecules become less when A. temperature is raised at constant pressure. B. temperature is lowered at constant pressure. C. pressure is raised at constant temperature. D. volume is decreased at constant temperature. 9 E. volume is decreased at constant pressure. 7410007 B 14 38388 51 139405270293 The attraction that non-polar molecules have for each other is primarily caused by: A. hydrogen bonding B. van der Waals forces 9 C. electronegativity differences D. high ionization energies 7430001 B 14 38391 31 035502930196 2WVW The type of bonding best representing the bonds between water molecules is A. covalent B. hydrogen C. London forces 9 D. ionic 7430002 B 15 45462 71 The relatively high boiling point of HF can best be explained by the fact that: A. HF has the strongest H-X bond. B. HF molecules form hydrogen bonds. C. HF has the smallest mass. D. HF is the weakest acid. 5 - 9 E. Of the X ions, F has the highest hydration energy. 7430003 D 14 38393 31 2WVW The tendency of hydrogen fluoride to polymerize is explained by the fact that it A. is a strong acid B. reacts vigorously with glass C. is electrovalent 9 D. can form hydrogen bonds 7430004 C 14 38396 51 019600230293 2 OS The hydrogen halide whose molecules associate by hydrogen bonding is that of A. chlorine B. bromine C. fluorine 9 D. iodine 7430005 D 14 38398 31 029302440958 0041 Water molecules are held together in ice crystals by A. covalent bonds B. ionic bonds 9 C. metallic bonds D. hydrogen bonds 7430006 A 15 45466 71 Which of the following compounds is expected to have the highest heat of vaporization? A. H O B. NH C. PH D. AsH E. SbH 94 2 3 3 3 3 7430007 D 15 38400 52 019209581503 0042 Which substance would not have hydrogen bonding in its normal 3 ___ state at room temperature? A. CH COOH B. HF C. NH D. H Se E. C H OH. 94 3 3 2 2 5 7430008 B 14 38403 51 09580438 0043 Apparently considerable hydrogen bonding occurs in liquid: A. C H B. HCN C. SiH D. C H 94 6 6 4 4 10 7430009 C 14 38405 52 019213670958 0043 A substance exhibiting hydrogen bonding is: A. CaH (s) B. NaH(s) C. NH (l) D. H (g) E. LiH (s) 94 2 3 2 7430010 D 14 38407 51 000809580072 0043 Water forms hydrogen bonds with: A. NaCl B. Al S C. CH (methane) D. NH 94 2 3 4 3 7430011 D 15 38409 31 095800080263 0020 Hydrogen bonding in water is due to the presence of A. electrons in nonbonding orbitals B. the 104.7 degree bond angle C. a linear structure D. excess hydrogen atoms 9 E. all of these 7430012 E 15 38412 31 095800080959 0020 Which of the following does NOT exhibit hydrogen bonding? A. water molecules in ice B. HF C. water molecules in the liquid state D. ammonia 9 E. methane 7430013 A 14 38415 52 019201131503 0009 Which one of the following substances would you expect to normally exist as a gas at room temperature? A. CH B. C H C. C H D. C H OH 94 4 2 6 3 8 3 7 7430014 A 14 38418 52 105501740958 0009 Which of the following species could be converted from liquid to vapor without breaking hydrogen bonds? A. CH B. NH C. H O D. none of these 94 4 3 2 7430015 D 15 38421 31 095900080516 0040 Which of the following is most responsible for some unexpected properties shown by water? A. high molecular weight B. small size of oxygen C. high electronegativity of hydrogen D. hydrogen bonding 9 E. NO correct response is given. 7430016 A 15 38425 32 095900670157 0040 Which of the following properties of a substance would most likely be due to hydrogen bonding? A. an unexpectedly high boiling point B. an unexpectedly low boiling point C. an unexpectedly low heat of vaporization D. unexpectedly low heat of fusion 9 E. NO correct response is given. 7430017 C 15 38429 32 000809590157 0040 In which of the following states of water does hydrogen bonding have the least effect? A. solid B. liquid C. gas (vapor) D. the effect is the same in two of the given states 9 E. NO correct response is given. 7430018 C 15 38432 51 07810959 0040 Which of the following compounds would have the strongest hydrogen bonds? A. H Te B. H Se C. H S D. all are equal 4 2 2 2 9 E. NO correct response is given. 7430019 B 15 38435 32 095900080067 0040 Water has a number of unusual properties which are attributed to the effect of hydrogen bonding. Which of the following compounds would you also expect to exhibit appreciable hydrogen bonding? A. H Se B. HF C. H Te D. Lih 4 2 2 9 E. NO correct response is given. 7430020 D 15 38439 52 141401961151 0035 Which of the following statements is not true? A. Van Der Waal's forces account for the fact that all substances can be liquefied. B. The heat of melting results from the energy necessary to change solid to a liquid. C. The heat of vaporization results from the energy required to separate liquid molecules or atoms. D. Hydrogen gas probably has a larger heat of fusion than does water E. The macromolecular solid diamond would be expected to have a 9 very large heat of fusion if it melts. 7430021 B 15 38447 31 049800080959 0047 The unexpectedly high boiling point of water compared to the other group 6 hydrides, H S, H Se, and H Te, is due to 4 2 2 2 A. greater dipole moment of water molecules B. hydrogen bonding in water C. high thermal stability of water D. lattice structure of water 9 E. polarity of the water molecules. 7500001 D 14 38452 52 00581580006119 0063 Among the following oxyanions, the strongest base is 5 - - - - A. ClO B. ClO C. ClO D. ClO 94 2 3 4 7500002 A 14 38455 52 00581847 19 0063 Among the following oxyacids, the strongest one is A. HClO B. H SiO C. H AsO D. H SeO 94 4 4 4 3 4 2 4 7500003 C 14 38457 52 00580061 19 0063 The order of decreasing basicity is correct for all the following except 3______ 5 - - 2- 2- A. NO > NO B. SeO > SO 4 2 3 3 3 5 2- 3- 3- 2- C. CO > BO D. AsO > SO 94 3 3 4 4 7500004 E 15 45458 71 Which of the followign compounds would be expected to have the lowest boiling point? A. CH CH CH F C. CH CH(OH)CH E. CH CH CH NH 4 3 2 2 3 3 3 2 2 2 B. CH CH CH OH D. CH CH COOH 94 3 2 2 3 2 8000001 CACBABEDB95 38462 32 0416046204631190 ETS2WVW MACROITEM STEM 2The work of our civilization is accomplished by energy in a variety 2of forms such as 2 A. potential 2 B. kinetic 2 C. chemical 2 D. electrical 2 E. radiant 2After each item number on the answer sheet, blacken the space 0 representing the proper form of energy listed above. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 A stick of dynamite explodes. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 An arrow is released from a bent bow. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 3 The storage battery in an automobile. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 4 An automobile coasting down a hill. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 5 When water is retained by a large dam. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 6 6 When a spring is stretched. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 7 7 The burning of coal. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 8 8 The waves from a radio transmitter. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 9 9 A windmill in operation 8100001 CADD 44 38470 52 030607290733 0043 MACROITEM STEM Given that the standard delta H of formation of SO (g) at 4 2 0 25 degrees C is -297 kilojoules/mole. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 The standard delta H Of the reaction 2SO (g) + O (g) -----> 2SO (g) at 25 degrees C is: 4 2 2 3 A. 196 kilojoules/mole B. 98 kilojoules/mole 1 C. -196 kilojoules/mole D. -98 kilojoules/mole. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 The standard delta E of the reaction above at 25 degrees C is: A. -194 kilojoules/mole B. -162 kilojoules/mole 2 C. -198 kilojoules/mole D. -144 kilojoules/mole. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 The standard entropies of SO (g), O (g), and SO (g) at 4 2 2 3 5 -1 -1 25 degrees C are 248, 205, and 256 joules/mole deg , respectively. The standard delta S for the reaction above is: A. -298 joules/deg B. -222 joules/deg 3 C. -195 joules/deg D. -189 joules/deg. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 Using data from above questions, calculate the standard delta H at 25 degrees C for the reaction in the first question: A. -196 kilojoules/mole B. -253 kilojoules/mole 9 C. 253 kilojoules/mole D. -140 kilojoules/mole. 8100002 A 14 38485 72 In which process is no heat exchanged between system and surroundings? 9 A. adiabatic B. isothermal C. isobaric D. isometric 8100003 E 15 38487 52 09820555 MSU 5 o What energy change takes place when 7.0 grams of water at 0 C freezes to ice at that temperature? A. 29.3 J of heat are absorbed D. 2341 J of heat are absorbed B. 29.3 J of heat are evolved E. 2341 J of heat are evolved 9 C. 2257 J of heat are absorbed 8100004 C 15 45360 71 For one of the following processes /\H and /\U are essentially 3 __ __ identical. Select that process. A. 2C(s) + O (g) ---> 2CO(g) 4 2 B. CaCO (s) ---> CaO(s) + CO (g) 4 3 2 C. N (g) + O (g) ---> 2NO(g) 4 2 2 D. H O(l) ---> H O(g) 4 2 2 E. N (g) + 3H (g) ---> 2NH (g) 94 2 2 3 8102001 A 15 45358 71 All of the following are state functions except: 9 A. w B. H C. U D. P E. T 8104001 B 15 45103 72 In some gaseous system the pressure P is completely determined by the independent variables V and E. The total differential (dP) of P is [oP] [oP] [oE] [oE] 3 ) ) ) ) 4 A. ---- + ---- C. ---- dP + ---- dP E. None of these is [oE] [oV] [oV] [oE] correct. 3 ) ) ) ) 4 V E P P [oP] [oP] [oE] 3 ) ) ) 4 B. ---- dV + ---- dE D. ---- dP + dP [oV] [oE] [oV] 3 ) ) ) 94 E V P 8104002 A 14 38500 72 For one mole of an ideal gas, (oV/oP) is 3 ) ) 4 T 9 A. -V/P B. R/PV C. -R/PV D. V/P 8104003 C 15 44593 72 For an ideal gas which relation is NOT true? A. (oE/oV) = 0 B. (oH/oP) =0 C. (oE/oT) =0 3 ) ) ) ) ) ) 4 T T V D. (oE/oP) =0 E. (oH/oV) =0 3 ) ) ) ) 94 T T 8110001 CDACEB 65 38507 51 0462046304641190 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2In each of the following questions, the answer space which 2corresponds to the letter of the one type of energy transformation 3 ___ 2listed below which is characteristic in the operation of the 2device or instrument, or which is characteristic of the 2particular phenomenon stated in the item. 2 A. Electrical energy into mechanical energy 2 B. Electrical energy into chemical energy 2 C. Radiant energy into chemical energy 2 D. Radiant energy into electrical energy 0 E. Electrical energy into radiant energy MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 The production of an image on a photographic plate MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 Photoelectric effect MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 3 Electric motor MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 4 Synthesis of starch in the green leaf of a plant MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 5 Electric lamp MACRO SUB-ITEM # 6 9 Charging of storage battery 8110002 CADB 45 38517 51 0464046304651190 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2The following questions refer to types of energy changes. Select 2from the key the type of change involved in the question. 2 A. The change is from radiant energy to chemical energy. 2 B. The change is from chemical energy to heat energy alone. 2 C. The change is from chemical energy to heat energy and 2 mechanical energy. 2 D. The change is from heat energy to mechanical energy. 0 E. The change is from mechanical energy to heat energy. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 The operation of an automobile engine MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 The growth of vegetation which later changed to coal MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 The transformation of water to steam, and the expansion of the 3 Steam in the cylinder of a steam engine MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 9 The burning of coal 8110003 C 15 38526 31 01610511 12 ETS2WVW The temperature in a medium refers to A. the quantity of molecules present B. the total potential energy of the molecules C. the average kinetic energy of the molecules D. the total caloric content of the individual molecules 9 E. the average potential energy of the molecules 8110004 B 15 38530 31 01610206 12 ETS2WVW If a number of substances were heated to various temperatures, the one with the greatest heat energy would be the A. substance with the greatest mass B. one with the highest temperature C. best conductor of heat D. one which contains the most calories 9 E. one which cools off at the slowest rate 8110005 D 15 38535 31 0161 12 ETS2WVW Which one of the following is the lowest temperature in the list? 5 o o o 9 A. 140 F B. 75 C C. 312 K D. 250 K E. 5 C 8110006 C 15 38538 31 0161 12 ETS2WVW Of these scales on which one would a 10 degree change be actually smaller than a 10 degree change on any of the others? A. absolute scale B. Kelvin scale C. Fahrenheit scale D. centigrade scale 9 E. the same on all of the above 8110007 BD 24 38542 31 01610499 1490 ETS2WVW MACROITEM STEM 2The following questions contain pairs of statements which 2are either in agreement with each other or not in agreement, 2and either one of the statements may be true or false. 2For each item select from the key the correct response. 2 A. Statement I and II are in agreement and both false. 2 B. Statement I and II are in agreement and both true. 2 C. Statement I and II are not in agreement; I true, II false. 0 D. Statement I and II are not in agreement; I false, II true. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 I. at absolute zero the molecules of a substance do not move with respect to each other. II. No heat energy is possessed by a substance at 1 absolute zero. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 I. if an air mass expands isothermally, its temperature will rise. 9 II. Heat must be added in the isothermal expansion of air. 8110008 BDC 35 38552 31 1190 ETS2WVW MACROITEM STEM 2Select from the key the most closely related principle. 2 A. Heat is released when a vapor changes to a solid. 2 B. Heat is given off when a vapor condenses. 2 C. Solidification of a liquid releases heat. 2 D. Vaporization requires heat. 0 E. Heat is needed to change a solid to a vapor. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 A lid on a steaming kettle soon gets as hot as the contents 1 of the kettle. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 Wet hands feel cold especially on a windy day. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 9 The heat energy possessed by frost is less than that of rain. 8110009 DBACEC 65 38559 31 0286055806471290 ETS2WVW MACROITEM STEM 2Select from the key the one physical principle 2which is characteristic of the item. 2 A. Heat is absorbed when a substance is changed from 2 a solid to a liquid. 2 B. Air and other gases are poor conductors of heat. 2 C. Most substances expand when the temperature is increased. 2 D. Heat is absorbed when a substance changes from a liquid 2 to a vapor. 2 E. Heat is liberated when a substance changes from 0 a vapor to a liquid. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 Gasoline spilled on the hand makes the hand feel cold. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 Rock wool is a good heat insulating material. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 3 Ice is used in an ice box to preserve food. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 4 A thermostat is used as a furnace control. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 Steam at 212 degrees F will burn the hand more severely than 5 water at 212 degrees F MACRO SUB-ITEM # 6 Tires are more likely to blow out in summer than in 9 winter. 8110010 CEBEDBB 75 38570 32 0286055806471290 ETS2WVW MACROITEM STEM 2The following items refer to practical application of the 2principles of heat energy. For each item select from the key the 2most appropriate response. 2 A. Heat is absorbed when a solid changes to a liquid. 2 B. Heat is absorbed when a liquid changes to a gas. 2 C. Heat is absorbed when a liquid is increased in 2 temperature. 2 D. Heat is liberated when a liquid is solidified. 2 E. Heat is liberated when a gas is condensed to a 0 liquid. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 A wet compresss feels good on the head of a person ill 1 with a fever. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 An ordinary electric refrigerator never cools the room 2 in which it is placed. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 Under standard conditions, turning up a gas flame does 3 not raise the temperature of boiling water. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 4 The basic principle of how a steam radiator is heated. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 Even when the weather is very cold, bodies of water 5 still tend to moderate the climate. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 6 A swimmer just out of the water feels cool on a breezy 6 day. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 7 9 The cooling principle used in electric home freezers. 8110011 CCE 35 38583 31 0131 1390 ETS2WVW MACROITEM STEM 2Select from the key the most appropriate response. 2 A. 76 cm. of mercury 2 B. 152 cm. of mercury 2 C. between 76 and 152 cm. of mercury 2 D. greater than 152 cm. of mercury 2 E. there is not sufficient information to calculate 0 the pressure MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 A quart jar is half full of water, the other half containing air at a pressure of 76 cm. Of mercury. If the jar is sealed at 20 degrees C. and then placed in a vessel of water which is brought to the boiling point, what is the final 1 pressure in the jar? MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 If the jar contains only water and its vapor and is sealed at 20 degrees C. and placed in the vessel of water which is brought to the boiling point, what is the final pressure in the jar? Assume that the jar contains sufficient water 2 so that some remains in the liquid state. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 If the same jar contains air and only a very small amount of water, so that all of the water evaporates during the heating process, and is sealed at 20 degrees C. and placed in the vessel of water which is brought to the boiling 9 point, what is the final pressure in the jar? 8110012 B 15 38597 31 06100286 11 ETS2WVW A characteristic of infra-red radiations is A. the ability to fade dyes and kill bacteria B. their heating power C. the ability to cause tanning D. their inability to pass through ordinary window glass 9 E. their pale blue color 8110013 B 15 38601 31 02720471015911 ETS2WVW Experimentally it is possible to A. convert heat completely into mechanical work B. convert mechanical energy completely into heat C. create possibly an impractical but nevertheless a 100% efficient engine D. completely transform any type of energy into any other one 9 E. convey heat from one body to another at a higher temperature 8110014 C 15 38606 31 0161 11 ETS2WVW Which one of these is not true of the absolute scale of temperature? 3 ___ A. The size of a degree on the absolute scale is the same as on the centigrade. B. The lowest point on the absolute scale represents the minimum temperature. C. There are 273 degree spaces between the freezing and boiling point for water on the absolute scale. D. Maximum temperatures possible on the scale have not been established. E. The temperature at which molecular motion ceases is the same 9 for all substances. 8110015 E 15 38614 31 0286 11 ETS2WVW The term heat is often used loosely. The popular statement in which it is used incorrectly is A. The radiator gives off a great amount of heat. B. He turned off the heat in the radiator. C. A student heated a test tube. D. The engine is heating up. 9 E. The heat of the water in the pool was 68 degrees F. 8110016 E 15 38619 31 02860161 11 ETS2WVW On a mountain top, the temperature of boiling water may be 187 deg. F. instead of 212 deg. The most effective way to raise the temperature for cooking purposes would be to A. add several spoonfuls of salt B. use a pan with a smaller area of exposed water surface C. reduce the vapor pressure over the liquid D. turn up the flame to increase the rate of boiling 9 E. cover the pan tightly with a sealed safety lid 8110017 C 14 38625 72 0747 Changes of state may be carried out over an infinite number of different paths. However, for specified initial and final states, it is always observed that A. q = q 4 path 1 path 2 B. w = w 4 path 1 path 2 C. (q - w) is the same regardless of path. D. /\E = 0 regardless of path. 94 -- 8110018 C 15 38630 31 0131 11 ETS2WVW Room temperature is often quoted as 20 degrees on the A. absolute scale B. Kelvin scale C. Celsius scale D. Angstrom scale 9 E. Fahrenheit scale 8110020 A 15 38633 31 0161 11 ETS2WVW Which of the following is a device for measuring temperature? A. optical pyrometer B. photoelectric cell C. calorimeter D. radiometer 9 E. electroscope 8110021 A 15 38636 31 0161 11 ETS2WVW All of these scales are related in some way except 3 ______ A. vernier B. absolute C. Kelvin D. Celsius 9 E. Fahrenheit 8110022 A 15 38639 31 0161 11 ETS2WVW We picture the zero on the absolute scale as the temperature at which A. the molecular kinetic energy is zero B. the volume of the substance is zero C. the pressure is 1/273 of its value at 0 deg. C. D. The Centigrade and Fahrenheit scales coincide 9 E. the pressure has changed by 1/273 of its value at 100 deg. C. 8110023 E 15 38644 31 0286 11 ETS2WVW Heat is transferred along a metal rod by the process called A. convection B. induction C. deduction D. effusion 9 E. conduction 8110024 C 15 38646 31 0161 11 ETS2WVW Mercury is used in thermometers largely because A. of its high density B. it is more readily purified than other liquids C. it has a fairly large coefficient of expansion D. it has the same coefficient of expansion as glass 9 E. it is one of the cheaper metals 8110025 A 15 38650 31 0286 11 ETS2WVW A British Thermal Unit is a unit of A. quantity of heat B. absolute temperature C. temperature difference D. expansion 9 E. pressure change 8110026 A 15 38653 31 0161 11 ETS2WVW The critical temperature of a gas is that temperature A. above which a gas is always in the vapor phase B. below which a gas cannot be liquefied C. corresponding to the triple point of the substance D. at which the gas vaporizes 9 E. at which the gas solidifies 8110027 C 15 38657 31 0161 11 ETS2WVW Which of the following is correct? A. A one degree centigrade change in temperature is the same as a one degree Fahrenheit change. B. Zero degrees Fahrenheit is about 15 degrees Centigrade. C. The Centigrade thermometer is based on the freezing and boiling temperatures of water. D. A desirable liquid to use in an ordinary thermometer should not expand or contract as temperature is raised or lowered. E. About -27 degrees centigrade is the coldest possible 9 temperature. 8110028 D 15 38664 32 0286 11 ETS2WVW Which of the following changes would not increase the rate of heat 3 ___ passage through a barrier? A. Increase the area. B. Decrease the thickness. C. Increase the temperature difference between the two sides. D. Allow the heat to pass for a longer period of time. 9 E. Replace a non-metallic barrier with a metallic barrier. 8110030 C 15 38669 32 0286 11 ETS2WVW A housewife was boiling potatoes at a steady rate in an open pan. Turning up the flame to the highest point would not 3 ___ A. affect the fuel consumption B. lower the rate of evaporation C. raise the temperature of the water D. affect the cooking time if the pan were tightly covered 9 E. affect the temperature of the kitchen 8110031 E 15 38675 32 0286 11 ETS2WVW The amount of heat passing through the bottom of a coffee pot on a gas stove is independent of 3 ___________ A. the temperature gradient in the bottom of the pot B. the thickness of the material in the bottom of the pot C. the kind of material of which the pot is made D. the area of the bottom of the pot 9 E. the amount of coffee in the pot 8110032 B 15 38680 32 0286 11 ETS2WVW The distribution of heat in hot-air systems depends upon the A. decrease of air density with increase in temperature B. rapid transfer of heat from heated molecules to adjoining molecules C. absence of water vapor D. transfer of energy in the form of waves 9 E. conduction of heat by the air 8110033 B 15 38685 31 0286 11 ETS2WVW Indicate experimental or observational study giving best support for statement, "Heat is a form of energy and not a substance or fluid." A. conduction of heat B. a liquid can be warmed by stirring C. conservation of heat D. heats of melting and evaporation 9 E. heat flows from a hot body to a colder one 8110034 D 14 38690 31 0286 11 ETS2WVW The fact that water, when being heated from 2 deg. C. to 6 deg. C., first contracts and then expands, can be satisfactorily explained by A. the caloric theory of heat B. the kinetic theory of heat C. either of the above theories 9 D. neither of the above theories 8110035 B 14 38694 31 02860161 11 ETS2WVW If one body 1 is at a higher temperature than another body 2, A. 1 must contain more heat energy than 2 B. the average kinetic energy per molecule of 1 is greater than that of 2 C. the total molecular kinetic energy of 1 is greater than that of 2 9 D. 2 has a greater heat capacity than has 1 8110036 C 15 38699 31 0161 12 ETS2WVW On a Fahrenheit thermometer, the temperature half-way between that of melting ice and boiling water is A. 50 deg. B. 68 deg. C. 90 deg. D. 106 deg. 9 E. 122 deg. 8110037 D 15 38702 32 0286 12 ETS2WVW If two identical vacuum bottles, one filled with coffee at 0 degrees C. and the other with coffee at 100 degrees C., are placed in a room at normal temperature (about 22 degrees C.), the cold coffee will remain cold much longer than the hot coffee will remain hot. This can be explained by stating that A. the vacuum space allows heat to penetrate from the inside to the outside but not from the outside to the inside. B. the rate of heat transfer depends on the amount of air remaining in the vacuum space. C. heat is transferred much more rapidly at high temperatures than at low temperatures. D. the rate of heat transfer depends primarily on the difference in temperature between the inside and the outside. E. the statement is incorrect. In a vacuum bottle, hot coffee remains hot and cold coffee remains cold for an infinite 9 period of time. 8110038 D 15 38714 32 0286 12 ETS2WVW On a very cold day, with freezing temperature, a child who puts a wet hand against a steel fence post is much more apt to have it stick fast than if the post were made of wood. The best explanation of this is that A. steel has a higher specific heat than wood. B. steel is a better radiator of heat than wood. C. steel has a greater specific gravity than wood. D. steel is a better conductor of heat than wood. 9 E. steel has a magnetic permeability and wood does not. 8110039 A 15 38721 32 0286 12 ETS2WVW In the laboratory you found that various objects that had been in the room for many hours seemed, when touched, to be at different temperatures. Some objects, in other words, felt colder than others. The reason for this is that A. Heat transfer from the body into various objects occurs at different rates. B. Various objects under these conditions actually contain different quantities of matter. C. The heat capacity and the temperature of an object are independent of each other. D. Various objects under these conditions actually have different temperatures. E. Various objects under these conditions actually contain 9 different quantities of heat. 8110040 B 14 38731 31 0348 12 ETS2WVW If two substances at different temperatures are mixed, the final temperature of the mixture is intermediate. This is best accounted for theoretically on the basis that A. substances in the same container eventually possess the same average potential energy. B. on the average, kinetic energy is transferred on collision from particles of higher kinetic energy to those of lower kinetic energy. C. the average speeds of molecules of different substances become equal after a sufficient number of collisions. D. all molecules in the same container eventually have the 9 same kinetic energy. 8110041 A 15 38740 32 0161 12 ETS2WVW Which of the following situations involves a direct application of the principle that materials change volume with changes in temperature? A. All of the following. B. Some rocks are reduced to sand by disintegration. C. Automobile pistons require lubrication. D. The lead-in wires for electric light bulbs is made of invar. E. Glass containers will break if subjected to sudden temperature 9 changes. 8110042 B 15 38746 32 0507 12 ETS2WVW An explanation of why an ordinary glass jar is apt to break when boiling water is poured into it would have to include the concept that A. the specific heat of water is higher than that of glass. B. glass is a very poor conductor of heat. C. the coefficient of expansion of water is greater than that of glass. D. glass appears to be a supercooled liquid and its structural characteristics undergo changes at a temperature of 212 degrees f. E. the construction of heat proof glass requires 9 a special formula 8110043 A 15 38754 31 02860387 13 ETS2WVW Would the air in a closed room be heated or cooled by the operating of an electric refrigerator in the room with the refrigerator doors open? A. Heated, because the heat given off by the motor and the compressed gas would exceed the heat absorbed. B. Cooled, because the refrigerator is a cooling device. C. Cooled, because compressed gases expand in the refrigerator. D. Cooled, because liquids absorb heat when they evaporate. 9 E. Not heated or cooled. 8110044 B 14 38761 31 0206 14 ETS2WVW Two identical samples of a gas (1 and 2) at the same initial temperature were heated to the same final temperature under the following conditions Gas 1 at constant volume. Gas 2 at constant pressure. Which one of the following is true? A. Sample 1 required more heat than sample 2. B. Sample 2 required more heat than sample 1. C. Both samples required the same amount of heat. D. The answer cannot be determined without knowing the kind of 9 gas. 8110045 C 15 38768 31 0286 11 ETS2WVW An explanation of the fact that a rug feels warmer than the wooden floor on a cold morning, although both may be at the same temperature, would involve principally the phenomenon of A. heat of fusion B. heat of vaporization C. heat conduction D. heat convection 9 E. heat radiation 8110046 C 15 38772 32 0286 11 ETS2WVW The principle of most direct significance in the operation of mechanical refrigerators is that A. evaporation is a cooling process B. it is impossible to convert heat wholly into work C. cooling results when a vapor expands against the attractive forces which exist between the molecules D. the volume occupied by a given mass of gas is inversely proportional to the pressure applied 9 E. none of the above applies to refrigerators 8110047 A 15 38779 51 078709820984 0018 "In any process energy can be changed from one form to another but is never created or destroyed" is a statement of A. the first law of thermodynamics B. Boyle's law C. the second law of thermodynamics D. the kinetic molecular theory 9 E. none of these 8110048 E 15 38783 52 121304701288 0034 An example which readily proves the law of conservation of energy is A. a pendulum B. an apple falling to the earth C. a bouncing rubber ball 9 D. a clock in operation E. none of the above 8110049 C 14 38786 72 During any cyclic process the First Law of Thermodynamics requires that (the subscript i represents the ith step in the cycle, q is the heat transferred from surroundings to system during 4 i the ith step and w is the work done by the system on the 4 i surroundings during the ith step) A. sum q = 0 B. sum w = 0 4 i i C. [(sum q ) - (sum w )] = 0 D. [(sum q ) - (sum w )] > 0 94 i i i i 8111001 EC 25 38793 52 0468038403871390 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2In a steam-engine cylinder during the power stroke, the average 2total pressure of the expanding steam is 215 pounds per square 2inch. The area of one face of the piston is 50 square inches, the 2length of the power stroke is 2 feet, and the number of power 2strokes per minute is 180. Assume the exhaust is at atmospheric 0 pressure. Using this information, answer the following questions. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 The useful work done on the piston by the expanding steam is, 3 ______ in foot pounds, A. 20,000 B. 400 C. 430 D. 10,000 1 E. 21,500 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 The useful power developed by the engine is, in horsepower, A. 2.4 B. 109 C. 117 D. 55 9 E. 6540 8111002 D 15 38802 31 04190159044111 ETS2 OS No kinetic energy is possessed by A. a shooting star B. a propeller on a plane during flight C. a pendulum at the middle of its swing D. an elevator standing at the fifth floor 9 E. a cyclone 8111003 C 15 38805 31 04340442 11 ETS2 OS Inertia is the tendency of bodies to A. destroy energy through resistance B. stretch beyond the elastic limit C. maintain their existing state of rest or motion D. become magnetized rather than to be attracted or repelled 9 E. disintegrate or fall apart 8111004 A 15 38809 32 03870445 11 ETS2 OS A man held one end of a 10 foot see-saw while a child weighing 40 lb. sat on the other end 2 feet off the ground. The work done by the man is A. 0 ft lb B. 40 ft lb C. 80 ft lb D. 400 ft lb 9 E. None of these 8111005 D 15 38813 31 01590419041611 ETS2 OS The energy possessed by a bouncing rubber ball at the middle of its flight is A. all kinetic B. largely heat energy C. all potential D. part kinetic and part potential 9 E. impossible to predict because the ball is elastic 8111006 D 15 38817 31 03870317044611 ETS2 OS Work, as used in science, means A. mass times the velocity B. the force times the time of application of that force C. that a machine can give a mechanical advantage D. that a force has displaced a body 9 E. the power consumed 8111007 C 15 38821 31 04340398 11 ETS2 OS Inertia is a term associated with A. force B. weight C. mass D. work 9 E. two of the above 8111008 C 15 38823 31 04430159 11 ETS2 OS A machine is a device in which A. we can obtain more energy than we expend B. the greater the mechanical advantage the greater is the efficiency C. energy may be transferred D. the practical mechanical advantage can never be greater than 100 E. the practical mechanical advantage is always greater than 9 the ideal mechanical advantage 8111009 A 15 38828 31 1 039804209018119095 ETS2 OS The following question refers to figure 18. The mass, m, at point P falls a distance "h" to Q. Which of the following are equal? (Be sure to read all of the answers.) A. The kinetic energy at Q and the potential energy at P 5 2 B. mgh and 1/2 mv C. The kinetic energy at Q and the work required to lift m from Q to P D. The potential energy at P and the work required to lift m from q to P 9 E. All of the above are equal 8111010 B 15 38835 32 01590399028611 ETS2WVW When the brakes are applied to a moving train, the energy of the train is transformed into A. potential energy B. heat C. electrical energy D. kinetic energy 9 E. chemical energy 8111011 C 14 38838 31 11 ETS2 OS Work really is A. power B. a weight times a height C. force times distance 9 D. force times distance divided by time 8111012 D 15 38840 32 03870424014411 ETS2WVW In which of the following situations is work being done? A. A body sliding along a frictionless, horizontal plane. B. A man holding a suitcase off the ground while waiting for the bus. C. The moon in its orbit traveling around the earth. D. Lifting a half-dollar through a height of one meter. E. Two teams of equal strength pulling on opposite ends of a 9 rope. 8111013 D 15 38846 31 04210416042311 ETS2 OS A golf ball is hit and falls on a "green" on a hilltop above the rest of the golf course. The potential energy of the ball is greatest when it A. comes to rest on the green B. is hit by the golf club C. strikes the green and then rolls to its final resting place D. reaches its highest point in flight 9 E. rolls off the green and down the other side of the hill 8111014 C 15 38851 31 01590422038711 ETS2 OS Energy may be defined as A. a continually operating force B. the product of the mass and the velocity C. the capacity to do work D. the amount of inertia of a body 9 E. the distance of an object above the earth 8111015 D 15 38854 31 0387 13 ETS2 OS Two hammers are used to drive stakes into the ground, the one hammer weighs 30 pounds and drives the stake 20 inches deep in only 3 minutes. The lighter hammer weighs 10 pounds and must be used for 12 minutes to drive another stake the same depth. The work done by the hammers was (assume both stakes have equal resistance to the hammers.) A. zero B. twice as much for the larger hammer C. one-fourth as much for the small hammer D. equal 9 E. one-third as much for the larger hammer 8111016 B 15 38861 31 03870425041911 ETS2 OS The amount of work required in stopping a moving object is equal to the A. velocity of the object B. kinetic energy of the object C. mass of the object times its acceleration D. potential energy of the object at rest 9 E. square of the velocity of the object 8111017 D 15 38865 31 04270428031711 ETS2 OS In raising an object to a given height by means of an inclined plane, as compared with raising the object vertically to the same height, there is a reduction in the A. total amount of work required B. amount of potential energy acquired by the object C. speed with which the purpose can be accomplished D. force required 9 E. amount of energy required 8111018 CAEC 45 38870 31 0426041701591190 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 0 Answer the following questions. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 When an object falls from a position 300 feet high, its energy A. increases during its fall B. decreases during its fall C. remains constant during its fall D. is zero at the start of the fall 1 E. is a maximum at the end of the fall MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 The object referred to in the preceding question has its maximum potential energy A. at the start of the fall B. one-fourth the way down C. one-half the way down D. three-fourths the way down 2 E. at the instant of impact MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 The object has its maximum kinetic energy A. at the start of the fall B. one-fourth the way down C. one-half the way down D. three-fourths the way down 3 E. at the instant of impact MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 The kinetic and potential energies of the object are equal A. at the start of the fall B. one-fourth the way down C. one-half the way down D. three-fourths the way down 9 E. at the instant of impact 8111019 A 15 38883 32 03980113015913 ETS2 OS A certain mass of an ideal gas has 5000 foot-pounds of random molecular kinetic energy at 1000 degrees absolute temperature. What is the greatest possible amount of mechanical work, in foot-pounds, which the gas could perform as its temperature falls to 800 degrees absolute? A. 1000 B. 2000 C. 3000 D. 4000 9 E. 5000 8111020 D 15 38888 31 03870416 11 ETS2 OS A body at rest is capable of performing work if A. its potential energy is greater than zero B. it has any potential energy whether greater or less than zero C. its potential energy is less than its kinetic energy D. it is free to move in such a way that its potential energy will diminish E. it is free to move in such a way that its potential energy 9 will increase 8111021 C 15 38894 31 04430159 11 ETS2 OS A machine is a device in which A. we can obtain more energy than we expend B. the greater the mechanical advantage the greater is the efficiency C. energy may be transferred D. the practical mechanical advantage can never be greater than 100 E. the practical mechanical advantage is always greater than the 9 ideal mechanical advantage 8111022 C 15 38899 31 03870418015911 ETS2 OS If a body has the ability to do work, the measure of the work it can do is its A. force B. power C. energy D. motion 9 E. speed 8111023 C 15 38901 52 01130419016113 ETS2 OS A certain mass of an ideal gas has 12,000 foot-pounds of random molecular kinetic energy at 400 degrees absolute temperature. What is the greatest amount of mechanical work (in foot-pounds) which the gas could perform when its temperature falls to 300 degrees absolute temperature? A. 8000 B. 9000 C. 3000 D. 4000 9 E. 12000 8111024 B 15 38906 51 04660467046811 ETS2 OS A steam turbine is usually more efficient than a reciprocating type of steam engine chiefly because in the steam turbine 3 _______ A. greater expansion of steam occurs B. there are fewer different moving parts C. no condenser is needed D. all motion is rotary rather than partly back and forth 9 E. very high operating speeds are possible 8111025 D 14 38911 31 04690470047111 ETS2 OS The fact that a swinging pendulum eventually comes to rest is not a violation of the law of conservation of energy because energy may be A. created but not destroyed B. destroyed but not created C. created and destroyed but not transferred from one form into another D. changed from one form to another but neither created nor 9 destroyed 8111026 B 15 38916 51 04430467015911 ETS2 OS A machine or engine that operates with 100% efficiency involves a process that A. is reversible B. permits no heat energy to escape with the exhaust C. involves only perfect gases D. uses only 100% pure substances 9 E. operates at a temperature of absolute zero 8111027 E 15 38920 52 03870475 12 ETS2WVW The work done by a 20 horsepower engine in 10 minutes is (550 ft-lb/sec = 1 H.P.) A. 2.18 ft lb B. 11,000 ft lb C. 12,000 ft lb D. 110,000 ft lb 9 E. None of these 8111028 E 15 38923 32 04740387047312 ETS2WVW According to the physical definition of work, a situation in which work is being done is A. a meteor of certain mass moves 4 miles through space with a constant speed of 5 miles per second B. the product of the centripetal force times the circumference of the path in uniform circular motion C. a man pushes against a lawn mower with a force of 10 lbs. When it is stuck against a stone D. a wooden prop 4 feet long holds up a corner of a building weighing 20 tons 9 E. a piece of rock is thrown 100 feet into the air by a volcano 8111029 A 15 38931 31 0286 11 ETS2WVW Beverages too hot to drink are sometimes cooled by stirring. Which of the following would serve to defeat the intended purpose? 3 ______ A. mechanical equivalent of heat B. conduction C. convection D. radiation 9 E. calorimetry 8111030 D 15 38935 32 06450646 12 ETS2WVW A Carnot engine operates between the temperatures of 300 degrees C. and 100 degrees C. the efficiency of the engine is A. 30% B. 35% C. 50% D. 67% 9 E. 82.5% 8111031 C 15 38938 52 03980511038711 ETS2 OS A certain mass of an ideal gas has 12,000 Joules of random molecular kinetic energy at 400 degrees absolute temperature. What is the greatest possible amount of mechanical work (Joules) which the gas could perform when its temperature falls to 300 K? A. 8000 B. 9000 C. 3000 D. 4000 9 E. 12000 8111032 A 14 38943 52 109701130387 0043 When a sample of gas expands from 4.0 to 12.0 liters against a constant pressure of 0.30 atm, the work done by the gas is: A. 2.4 liter-atm B. 4.0 liter-atm 9 C. 1.3 liter-atm D. 2.7 liter-atm. 8111033 A 14 38946 52 109701130114 0043 When a sample of gas expands from 2.0 to 7.0 liters against a constant pressure of 0.60 atm, the work done by the gas is: 9 A. 310 Joules B. 12 Joules C. 0.50 Joules D. 34 Joules. 8111034 C 14 38949 52 011305380114 0043 If a gas expands adiabatically from 2.0 to 22 liters against a constant pressure of 380 mmHg, delta E for the gas is: A. -670 Joules B. 670 Joules 9 C. 1000 Joules D. -1000 Joules 8111035 D 15 38952 51 03840995 0018 A modern steam-electric power plant operates at an efficiency of about 9 A. 80% B. 60% C. 100% D. 33% E. 10% 8111036 E 15 38954 31 05110423 0019 A forward pass is completed for a gain of 20 yards. While in flight the football has A. kinetic energy B. potential energy C. radiant energy D. atomic energy 9 E. both kinetic and potential energy 8111037 B 15 38957 31 042305110159 0040 Two weights connected by a spring are pushed close together; the spring is compressed and then locked in that position. The energy of the system is of what kind? A. attractive potential B. repulsive potential C. kinetic 9 D. both A and C E. both B and C. 8111038 B 15 38961 31 042305110159 0040 A stretched rubber band represents a system with which of the following characteristics? A. high kinetic energy B. high potential energy of attractive type C. high potential energy of repulsive type D. high kinetic and potential energy 9 E. both A and D. 8111039 C 15 38965 31 0511 0429 0034 The kinetic energy of an object of mass m moving at a velocity of v is 5 2 2 2 2 2 9 A. mv B. m v C. mv /2 D. m v/2 E. 1/2 vm 8111040 D 15 38968 31 037205110423 0034 When a rock falls to earth under the influence of gravity A. its kinetic energy increases B. its kinetic energy increases at the expense of its potential energy C. its potential energy decreases D. all of the above 9 E. none of the above 8111041 B 15 38972 31 042303981654 0034 The potential energy of an object of mass m at a height h above the ground, and under the influence of the gravitational constant of acceleration g is 5 2 9 A. 1/2 mgh B. mgh C. mvh D. 1/2 mv E. 1/2 mh 8111042 D 15 38976 51 047001591655 0034 The law of conservation of energy, in effect, states that A. the random motion of molecules of a gas is a measure of its heat energy B. matter can neither be created nor destroyed C. for a given object, the sum of its potential and its kinetic energy must remain constant D. the total energy of the universe is constant E. an object can gain kinetic energy only at the expense of its 9 potential energy 8111043 DBEA 45 38982 72 1982 MACROITEM STEM For the following four items, the term PSIA means pounds per square inch absolute. That is, 14.7 PSIA is atmospheric pressure; a vacuum would have a pressure of 0.00 PSIA In a power plant, fuel oil is burned to heat water to create steam. The steam is used to drive a turbine which generates electricity. The spent steam from the turbine is condensed and pumped back into 0 the boiler to complete the cycle. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 The boiler produces 4,000,000 lbs/hr of steam at 3515 PSIA and 5 o 1000 F (enthalpy = 1425 BTU/lb). The feed water conditions are 5 o 4000 PSIA and 530 F (enthalpy = 530 BTU/lb). If the heating value of the fuel oil is 18,000 BTU/lb and the boiler efficiency is 90%, what is the rate of fuel oil usage in lbs/hr? 5 5 5 5 5 5 1 A. 1.31x10 B. 1.79x10 C. 1.99x10 D. 2.21x10 E. 3.52x10 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 4,000,000 lbs/her of superheated steam at 3515 PSIA and 5 o 1000 F (enthalpy = 1425 BTU/lb) pass through a turbine and exit 5 o at 5 PSIA and 170 F (enthalpy = 1030 BTU/lb). Assuming 90% efficiency, how many megawatts are generated? (1 watt = 3.41 BTU/hr) 2 A. 158 B. 417 C. 463 D. 515 E. 785 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 After passing through a turbine to generate electricity, 5 o 4,000,000 lb/hr of steam at 5 PSIA and 170 F (enthalpy = 5 o 1030 BTU/lb) is condensed into water at 5 PSIA and 110 F (enthalpy = 77 BTU/lb). Seawater is used to cool the steam to condense it, but does not mix with the steam. If the seawater flowrate is 230,000 gallons per minute, what is the temperature rise in the seawater. Assume that the heat capacity of seawater 5 o is 1 BTU/(lb F) and that 8.33 lbs = 1 gallon. 5 o o o o o 3 A. 10 F B. 13 F C. 26 F D. 30 E. 33 F MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 5 o 4,000,000 lb/hr of water at 3 PSIA and 110 F (enthalpy = 77 BTU/lb) 5 o is pumped to 4000 PSIA and heated to 530 F (enthalpy - 530 BTU/lb). The heat added is 1,740,000,000 BTU/hr. What is the pump horspower required? Assume 100% efficiency. (1 HP = 2545 BTU/hr) 9 A. 28,000 B. 72,000 C. 183,000 D. 712,000 E. 1,395,000 8111201 B 14 39013 52 The equation relating the pressure-volume relationship for the 5 Y Y reversible adiabatic expansion of an ideal gas is P V = P V 4 1 1 2 2 The equation relating the temperature-volume relationships for the same process is: (C = heat capacity at constant 4 p pressure, C = molar heat capacity at constant volume) 4 v A. T /T = (V /V ) 4 2 1 1 2 5 Y-1 Y-1 B. T V = T V 4 2 2 1 1 5 C. R/C T /T = (V /V ) v 4 1 2 1 2 5 D. C /C T /T = (V /V ) p v 94 2 1 1 2 8111202 B 14 39023 72 Three moles of an ideal monatomic gas are allowed to go from state 1 to state 2 adiabatic expansion 4 State 1 ------------------------> State 2 4 ext. pressure = 0.5 atm | 3 moles | | 3 moles | | T = 300 K | | T = ? | 4 | | | f | | P = 1 atm | | P = 0.5 atm| Select the correct set of values for q, w, /\E, /\H and T 4 -- -- f for this expansion. q w /\E /\H T 4 -- -- f (J) (J) (J) (J) (K) ------ ------ ------ ------ ----- A. 0 2257 2257 3344 240 B. 0 2257 -2257 -3762 240 C. 2257 2257 -2257 -2257 220 9 D. 0 -2257 0 0 230 8111203 B 15 45019 51 A system that does not exchange heat with its surroundings is said to be A. isothermal C. incompressible E. at equilibrium 9 B. adiabatic D. closed 8111401 D 14 39036 72 The equation of state of a non-ideal gas is: P(V-nb) = nRT. The coefficient of thermal expansion, alpha, of ANY gas is defined as [oV] 3 ) 4 alpha = (1/V)---- 4 [oT] 3 ) 4 P Therefore, alpha for this gas is: 9 A. 1/T B. R/T + bP C. nRT + nb D. (R/P)/[RT/P+b] E. 0 8111402 D 14 39041 72 A three mole sample of a monatomic ideal gas, 5 -1 -1 C = 1.5 R cal deg mol , initially at 300 K and 1.0 atm is 4 v allowed to undergo an irreversible isothermal expansion against a constant external pressure of 0.5 atm. expansion against 4 State 1 --------------------------> State 2 4 ext. pressure = 0.5 atm | 3 moles | | 3 moles | | T = 300 K | | T = 300 K | | P = 1.0 atm | | P = 0.5 atm | Select the correct set of values in calories of q, w /\E, /\H 4 -- -- q w /\E /\H 4 -- -- ------ ------ ------ ------- A. 0 0 0 0 B. 1240 1240 1240 0 C. 0 1240 620 620 D. 894 894 0 0 9 E. 1240 1240 0 0 8111403 B 14 39055 72 An ideal gas undergoes an isothermal expansion in two irreversible 4 ------------ stages as indicated in Figure 33. The dashed line indicates the P-V relationship for a totally reversible expansion. The total work done in the irreversible process (solid line) is A. P V - P V C. RT ln(V /V ) 4 1 1 o o 1 o B. P(V-V ) + P (V -V) D. P (V-V ) + P (V -V) 94 o 1 1 o o 1 1 8113002 C 14 39062 31 015904070801 ETS2 OS A reaction in which the products possess more enthalpy than the reactants is a (an) A. isothermic reaction B. reversible reaction C. endothermic reaction 9 D. exothermic reaction 8113003 D 14 39065 31 016100560008 2 OS Large changes in temperature which occur when sulfuric acid and water are mixed indicates that A. a physical change takes place, not a chemical one B. the liquids are not miscible C. chemical change is occuring 9 D. both physical + chemical changes occur 8113004 B 14 39069 31 006602860189 2 OS A compound which has a high heat of formation is normally A. easy to form from its elements and easy to decompose B. easy to form from its elements and difficult to decompose C. difficult to form from its elements and easy to decompose D. difficult to form from its elements and difficult to 9 decompose 8113005 A 15 39074 32 015904230504 0040 Potential energy represents the largest fraction of the total energy in which state of matter for a pure substance? A. solid B. liquid C. gas 9 D. both A and B E. all are the same. 8115001 E 15 39077 31 0315 11 ETS2WVW When an electric current flows through a resistance, the energy is expended as A. chemical energy B. amperes C. volts D. sound 9 E. heat 8115002 B 15 39080 51 000801590384 0018 Hydroelectric power is electric power produced by A. nuclear energy B. utilizing the energy of water C. harnessing the winds D. fast-breeder reactions 9 E. none of these 8130001 BAAB 44 39083 31 02860161 1190 ETS2WVW MACROITEM STEM 2Answer the questions according to the following key 2 A. Statement 1 is greater in quantity or magnitude than 2 statement 2. 2 B. Statement 2 is greater in quantity or magnitude than 2 statement 1. 2 C. Both statements are quantitatively equal. 0 D. No definite decision can be made from the information given. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 Statement 1 Statement 2 The speed of a given The speed of The same 1 chemical reaction at 10 deg. C chemical reaction at 20 deg. C. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 The temperature of a substance The temperature of the in which the average same substance when the molecular speed is average molecular speed is 2 100 "units." less than 100 "units." MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 The immediate effect on The immediate effect on body heat production of body heat production of eating 500 grams of eating 500 grams of fat. 3 carbohydrates. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 The tolerance of a man The tolerance of the same to heat in an environment man to heat in an environment of 100% relative of 10% relative humidity, 9 humidity, at 90 deg. F. at 90 deg. F. 8130002 CDAB 45 39099 31 02860207 1190 ETS2WVW MACROITEM STEM 2After the item number on the answer sheet, blacken the one lettered 3 ___ 2space indicating the term to which the item MoSt correctly refers. 2 A. Convection 2 B. Specific heat 2 C. Heat of fusion 2 D. Heat of evaporation 0 E. Conduction MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 The quantity of heat needed to melt one gram of a substance at its 1 melting point without change in temperature. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 The process of heat transfer where heat energy passes through a 2 substance from molecule to molecule. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 The process of transferring heat which is employed in a warm air 3 heating system. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 The quantity of heat necessary to change the temperature of unit 9 mass of a substance one degree in temperature. 8130003 BBBB 44 39109 31 1190 ETS2WVW MACROITEM STEM 2After each item on the answer sheet, blacken space 2 A. if the item on the left is the greater 2 B. if the item on the right is the greater 2 C. if the item on the left and right are of the same magnitude 0 D. if a comparison of the items cannot be made MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 Time required to boil Time required to boil an egg on top of Pike's an egg under pressure 1 peak in a pressure cooker MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 Amount of heat required Amount of heat required to melt one pound of to turn one pound of 2 ice water at 100 deg. C. into steam MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 Length of long steel Length of same bridge 3 bridge in winter in summer MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 Density of water at Density of water at 9 0 deg. C. 4 deg. C. 8130004 B 15 39120 31 07290747 2WVW The equation /\ H = /\ E (approx.), is valid if 3 __ __ A. the process involves only gases as products, and not reactants B. only liquids and solids are involved in the process C. the process occurs at P = 1 atm and T = 273 K. D. the process involves only gases as reactants, but not products 9 E. only if the process is reversible 8130005 B 14 39125 51 011402860729 0043 At constant pressure q = ? A. /\G B. /\H C. /\E D. /\T 93 __ __ __ __ 8130006 D 15 39127 51 072908700553 0044 Complete the statement below correctly. (Delta H = enthalpy change, delta S = entropy change, delta n = change in number of moles.) The enthalpy change in a chemical reaction A. is the heat obtained upon combustion in pure oxygen. B. is the criterion for spontaneity of reaction. C. can be predicted precisely from bond energies. D. can be estimated from the internal energy change by a correction of delta N rt. E. is directly proportional to the voltage of the corresponding 9 electrochemical cell. 8130007 C 15 39134 52 072913360721 0020 Enthalpy is the term given to A. exothermic reactions B. thermochemical reactions C. heat of reaction at constant pressure D. endothermic reactions 9 E. none of these 8130008 C 15 39137 51 059504070801 0020 When delta H has a negative sign it means A. heat is absorbed B. heat is a reactant C. the reaction is exothermic D. the reaction is endothermic 9 E. none of these 8130009 A 15 39140 51 040706830439 0020 The reaction: CO (g) ---> C(s) + O (g) delta H = 94.1 kcal 4 2 2 A. is endothermic B. is exothermic C. gives off heat D. cannot possibly occur 9 E. none of these 8130011 B 14 39143 52 040707291172 0009 In what order would you arrange the following reactions so that the enthalpy change increased in that order? 5 238 239 A. U + n -----> U B. H O(l) -----> H O(s) 4 2 2 C. C(coal) + O (g) -----> CO (g) 4 2 2 9 A. ABC B. BCA C. CAB D. ACB 8130012 C 15 39148 31 0171 What is the name of a process which can be used to separate a pure liquid from nonvolatile impurities by vaporizing the liquid and condensing it into another container? A. evaporation C. distillation E. condensation 9 B. sublimation D. fusion 8130013 A 15 39152 31 01711528 Two miscible liquids can often be separated by carefully heating the mixture and condensing the accumulating vapor in a series of portions at various time intervals. This process is called A. distillation D. fusion B. evaporation E. surface tension 9 C. condensation 8130014 E 15 39156 31 1151 The heat required to convert a given amount of solid to liquid at a constant temperature and pressure is called the A. heat of vaporization D. heat of sublimation B. heat capacity E. heat of fusion 9 C. heat of freezing 8130015 A 14 39160 52 04450170 A sample of fresh-perked coffee weighing 100 grams is frozen solid. The heat required to sublime only the water out of this sample is 61,200 calories. What is the weight of the sample (now called freeze-dried coffee) which is left after the sublimation? 9 A. 13 g B. 90 g C. 50 g D. 100 g 8131001 D 15 39164 31 0206 12 ETS2WVW 81 Calories is the amount of heat necessary to A. raise the temperature of 1 gram of ice from -1 degree C to 0 degrees C. (the ice is not melted in the process.) B. raise the temperature of 80 grams of water 1 degree C. C. raise the temperature of 1 gram of water 1 degree C. D. raise the temperature of 1 gram of ice from 0 degrees C to water at 1 degree C. 9 E. melt 81 grams of ice 8131002 D 15 39170 31 0653 12 ETS2WVW If heat were applied to a piece of ice at -5 deg. C. until the final temperature were 105 deg. C., in which one of the following temperature intervals would the most heat be applied? A. -5 deg. C. to 5 deg. C. B. 5 deg. C. to 15 deg. C. C. 45 deg. C. to 55 deg. C. D. 95 deg. C. to 105 deg. C. E. All of the above interval changes require the same amount 9 of heat 8131003 B 15 44678 52 0648 12 ETS2WVW 5 o o If one mixes equal masses of ice at 0 C and water at 100 C without heat exchange with the surroundings, the final temperature would be 5 o A. somewhere between 51 and 99 C. 5 o B. somewhere between 1 and 49 C. 5 o C. exactly 50 C. 5 o D. 0 C. 9 E. variable since the ice would float in the water 8131004 D 15 39181 52 0206 12 ETS2WVW If to 10 grams of ice at 0 deg. C. we add 1000 calories, the result will be A. water at 99.5 deg. C. B. ice at 0 deg. C. C. a mixture of ice and water D. water at 20 deg. C. 9 E. steam 8131005 BEDE 45 39184 31 06530286 1290 ETS2WVW MACROITEM STEM 2For the following items, consider that heat is uniformly applied to 210 g of H O initially in the form of ice at -20 deg. C. Use 4 2 2any of the following data which may be necessary. 5 -1 o -1 Specific heat of water 4.18 J g C 5 -1 o -1 Specific heat of ice 2.09 J g C 5 -1 o -1 Specific heat of steam 1.96 J g C 5 -1 Heat of fusion 334.4 J g 5 -1 Heat of vaporization 2257.2 J g 2 2T 120 deg |----------------------------. 2e | D E . 2m 100 deg |-------------.............. 2p | . 2 | . 2i | . 2n | C. 2 | . 2d | B . 2e 0 deg |----... 2g | A . 2 | . 2C -20 deg |-. 2 --------------------------------- 2 Time (approximate) 2Select from the key the lettered section of the graph for which 2the item would be true 02 A. A B. B C. C D. D E. E MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 The addition of salt would lower this line on the temperature scale. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 The addition of 4.18 Joules of heat would increase the temperature a 2 greater amount along this line than along any other. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 3 Along this line the vapor pressure must equal atmospheric pressure. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 A total of 392.9 Joules of heat would be needed for the whole 9 10 gm. Along this line. 8131006 BDEC 45 39203 31 0653020602071290 ETS2WVW MACROITEM STEM 2The following items are to be evaluated by means of the warming 2curve below for water, and the information in the table: State Density(g/ml) 3 _____ _____________ 5 o H O(s,0 C) 0.9170 4 2 5 o H O(l,0 C) 0.9999 4 2 5 o H O(l,100 C) 0.9584 4 2 110 deg| F 2 | * | * 2 100 deg| D *************** 2 T | * E 2 e | * 2 m | * 2 p | * 2 | * 2 d | * 2 e | * 2 g | B * 0 deg| **** C 2 C | * 2 -10 deg|* |A 2 -------------------------------------- 2 Heat (calories) 2 02 A. AB B. BC C. CD D. DE E. EF MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 That part of the graph which represents the heat of fusion MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 That part of the graph which represents the heat of vaporization MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 That part of the graph which represents the state of matter to which may be applied the law (P V )/T = (P V )/T 34 1 1 1 2 2 2 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 That part of the graph which represents the temperature range during which the volume will be the smallest (assuming no change 9 in pressure). 8131007 EBAA 45 39223 31 1290 9026 ETS2WVW MACROITEM STEM 2The graph given below shows the variation in temperature 2which results from heating a quantity of ice until it changes first 2to water and then to steam. 2 200 | 2 | * 2 150 | * 2 T | * 2 e 100 | ****************** 2 m | * 2 p 50 | * 2 | * 2 0 | ****** 2 |* 2 -50 |------------------------------------------ 2 5 10 15 20 25 30 35 2 Minutes 02 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 The temperature of the ice at the start of the experiment was evidently about A. 5 deg. C. B. 0 Deg. C. C. -5 Deg. C. D. -10 Deg. C. 1 E. -30 Deg. C. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 While the ice was melting the temperature evidently A. dropped B. remained constant C. increased slowly D. doubled 2 E. varied MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 Above 0 deg. C. and up to 100 deg. C., the temperature of the water A. increased at a constant rate B. increased at a variable rate C. increased more rapidly than before the ice began to melt D. increased more rapidly than after the water had changed to steam 3 E. increased while the water changed to steam MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 It can be predicted from the diagram that the steam would reach a temperature of 200 deg. C. in about__________ more minutes from end of dark line A. one B. three C. five D. fifteen 9 E. twenty 8131008 D 15 39242 52 0648 12 ETS2WVW The latent heat of fusion of ice is 335.2 J/g. 100 g ice at 273.16 K are melted to water at 273.16 K. The heat absorbed by the ice in changing to water is 9 A. 335.2 J B. 419 J C. 3352 J D. 33520 J E. none of these 8131009 D 15 45169 71 A clear colorless liquid in an open beaker was heated to boiling. 5 o The liquid began to boil at 110 C and, as vapors escaped, the 5 o temperature of boiling gradually increased to 115 C, at which the heating was stopped. On the basis of this information, we can say that the material in the beaker was a: A. pure compound. B. pure element. C. pure substance. D. homogeneous solution. 9 E. heterogeneous solution. 8131010 A 15 39250 31 0653 11 ETS2WVW During a change in state (liq-->gas, liq-->solid, etc.) A. the temperature will not change B. the substance always expands C. a chemical change occurs D. molecular activity is constant 9 E. kinetic energy changes to potential 8131011 C 15 39254 31 01610653 11 ETS2WVW The freezing point of water is stated to be 0 deg. C. under standard conditions. The truth of the statement follows from A. the kinetic theory B. the definition of the heat of fusion C. the definition of the centigrade scale D. the absence of heat energy in water in the solid state 9 E. properties inherent in the water 8131012 D 15 39259 31 0653 11 ETS2WVW A liquid always boils when A. the pressure of the saturated vapor equals standard atmospheric 3 ________ pressure B. the liquid reaches a temperature of 100 degrees C. C. the liquid evaporates freely under standard conditions of pressure D. the pressure of its saturated vapor equals the atmospheric pressure 9 E. its vapor pressure equals 1 gram/sq. Cm. 8131013 B 15 39265 51 01140286 11 ETS2WVW If pressure is exerted on A. steam it will make the steam cooler B. ice it will lower the freezing point C. water it will make the density drop from 1 to approximately .8 grams per cc. D. ice it will make the ice expand 9 E. water it will lower the boiling point 8131014 B 15 39269 31 0653 11 ETS2WVW A liquid boils whenever A. the latent heat of vaporization has all been absorbed B. its vapor pressure reaches the pressure on its surface C. bubbles form within it D. it is heated to a certain temperature 9 E. its temperature reaches 100 deg. C. 8131015 E 15 39273 31 0161 11 ETS2WVW On the absolute scale the normal boiling point of water is A. -100 deg. B. -273 deg. C. 100 deg. D. 312 deg. 9 E. 373 deg. 8131016 E 15 39275 31 0286 11 ETS2WVW Which of the following would be most apt to undergo the least 3 ____ _____ temperature change over a period of a few hours? A. A glass of water containing melting ice B. A pan of water covered with a tight fitting lid and placed on a heating unit C. An open container of gasoline with air of constant temperature bubbling through it D. A melting ice cube placed in the freezing unit of a fast-freeze food locker E. The water at the bottom of a small pond while the surface 9 is freezing over 8131017 D 15 39283 31 02860653 11 ETS2WVW Local health requirements in a certain place ask that all drinking water be boiled for five minutes. If a supply of water, being heated in an open vessel, is brought to the boiling point, for the ensuing five minutes the minimum heat supply necessary to continue the boiling A. is certainly zero B. is merely that needed to balance cooling by evaporation C. is merely that needed to balance the radiation loss D. is merely that needed to balance the conduction loss E. must not only provide for radiation and conduction losses, but 9 must also provide against cooling by evaporation 8131018 A 15 39291 32 02860422 12 ETS2WVW A tub of water is sometimes placed in a fruit cellar to help prevent the fruit from freezing in cold weather. This is effective because A. the heat of solidification of water is large. B. it takes 540 calories to change 1 gm. of water to vapor. C. water is a good conductor of heat. D. the condensation of water releases heat E. the specific heat of water is smaller than most common 9 substances. 8131019 D 15 39297 32 05580647 12 ETS2WVW A thermometer placed in a beaker of water being heated shows a gradual rise until boiling begins. During boiling, it shows a constant reading because A. heat is given off when a vapor condenses. B. heat is needed to change a solid to a vapor. C. the water stops absorbing heat energy. D. vaporization requires heat. E. convection currents allow the heat to escape without heating 9 the water. 8131020 C 14 39303 31 05580647 12 ETS2WVW Ice forms at the surface of a body of water because A. evaporation cools the water near the surface. B. water at the bottom is kept warm by the layer of water above. C. water expands slightly upon changing into ice. D. water at the freezing point is less dense than water slightly 9 warmer. 8131021 B 15 39308 31 05580647 11 ETS2WVW The temperature at which a liquid boils may be raised by A. insulating the container B. covering with an airtight cover C. removing the vapor from the surface above the liquid D. changing the type of container from metal to glass 9 E. adding a low-boiling-point liquid to form a solution 8131022 B 15 39312 52 04390286 MSU How many calories are required to heat 20.0 grams of ice at 5 o o 0.00 C to steam at 120 C? 9 A. 16,781 B. 14,588 C. 12,992 D. 12,800 E. 2,400 8131023 B 14 39315 52 05580647 13 ETS2WVW Five grams of ice at -10 degrees C. is heated until it is steam at 120 degrees C. The specific heat of both ice and steam is 0.5 The heat required in the process is about A. 3270 cal B. 3670 cal C. 3170 cal 9 D. 2685 cal 8131024 B 15 39319 31 02860652 11 ETS2WVW Evaporation is a cooling process because A. molecules of a vapor have less kinetic energy than those of the liquid. B. during evaporation the molecules with the greater kinetic energy escape from the liquid. C. water vapor conducts heat rapidly. D. evaporation makes the air damp. 9 E. None of these. 8131025 B 15 39324 31 01140161 11 ETS2WVW When a liquid is heated in an open vessel, its temperature rises until A. it is completely vaporized B. its vapor pressure equals atmospheric pressure C. the latent heat is all absorbed D. the kindling temperature is reached 9 E. the source of heat is removed 8131026 B 15 39328 31 0169 11 ETS2WVW Increasing the pressure on a block of ice at 0 deg. C. will A. raise the temperature B. lower the melting point of the ice C. cause NO change in state D. decrease molecular activity 9 E. raise the melting point of the ice 8131027 B 15 39332 31 02860442 11 ETS2WVW The expansion of a solid on heating is due to A. an increase in the size of the particles of the solid B. an increase in the agitation of the particles of the solid C. the addition of caloric to the solid D. application of the kinetic-molecular theory 9 E. none of the above 8131028 E 15 39336 31 0186 11 ETS2WVW A gram of distilled water at 4 deg. C. A. will increase slightly in weight when heated to 10 deg. C. B. has a specific gravity of 62.4 C. weighs less than a gram of water at 0 deg. C. D. will decrease in volume as its temperature is lowered 9 E. will increase in volume when heated or cooled 8131029 B 15 39341 31 0286 11 ETS2WVW Ice is always placed in the top of an ice box because A. it is easier to get the ice into that part of the box B. cold air is heavier per unit volume than warm air and sinks to the bottom of the box C. the ice does not melt as rapidly in this part of the box D. the ice contracts as it melts 9 E. the ice expands as it melts 8131030 E 15 39346 31 0286 11 ETS2WVW A hot breeze may seem distinctly cool to a bather who has just come from the water because A. water is a good conductor of heat B. water has a high specific heat C. water is more dense than air D. the moisture in the air condenses on the bather's body and liberates heat E. the evaporation of water from the bather's wet body 9 absorbs heat 8131031 C 15 39351 31 0438 11 ETS2WVW Any liquid may be said to be boiling when A. its temperature is 100 deg. C. B. the vapor pressure is 76 cm. of mercury C. the vapor pressure is equal to the pressure over the liquid D. molecules of vapor escape from the surface 9 E. the vapor pressure is less than the pressure over the liquid 8131032 B 15 39356 31 0653 11 ETS2WVW The heat absorbed by melting a block of ice A. can never be recovered B. does not change the temperature of the melted water C. depends upon the specific heat of ice D. causes mechanical expansion 9 E. warms the surrounding container 8131033 A 15 39360 31 0653 11 ETS2WVW The formation of ice is accompanied by A. an absorption of heat B. a temperature increase C. a decrease in volume D. an evolution of heat 9 E. a temperature decrease 8131034 B 15 39363 32 1 07489022 95 2WVW In the phase diagram for H O (Figure 22), the indicated point 4 2 describes A. an equilibrium between gas and liquid B. an equilibrium between solid and liquid C. an equilibrium between gas and solid D. an equilibrium among gas, solid, and liquid 9 E. No equilibrium state 8131035 A 15 44882 52 04381546115151 9000 2Pure liquid biphenyl produces the cooling curve shown below: 2 *************************************************** 2 * * 2 * * 2 *. * 2 * . * 2 * . * 2 * . * 2 * . * 2 T * . * 2 e * . * 2 m * . ................... * 2 p * . . * 2 e * . * 2 r * . * 2 a * . * 2 t * . * 2 u * . * 2 r * . * 2 e * . * 2 * . * 2 *************************************************** 2 2 Time 2 2 2The length of the level portion of the cooling curve depends, among other things, upon 2 A. the heat of fusion of biphenyl 2 B. the melting point of biphenyl 2 C. the heat capacity of solid biphenyl 2 D. the heat capacity of liquid biphenyl. 9 E. the boiling point of biphenyl 8131036 B 15 39389 51 016904380683 0020 The change from a solid to a liquid is A. not always possible B. endothermic C. exothermic D. accompanied by a chemical change 9 E. none of these 8131037 A 15 39392 51 115208010787 0020 Freezing is A. an exothermic process B. always at 0 degrees C C. an endothermic process D. due to molecules leaving the surface of the liquid 9 E. none of these 8131038 C 15 39395 52 028611530165 0020 How much heat is required to melt 100 g if ice at 0 degrees C? 9 A. 100 cal B. 80 cal C. 8000 cal D. 1000 cal E. 800 cal 8131039 B 15 39397 52 028611530165 0020 How much heat is required to change 10 g if ice at 0 degrees C to 10 g of steam at 100 degrees C? A. 1000 cal B. 7200 cal C. 800 cal D. 5400 cal 9 E. 720 cal 8131040 B 14 39400 32 015301140286 0009 When water evaporates at constant pressure, the sign of the change in enthalpy A. is negative B. is positive C. depends on the temperature D. depends on the container volume 9 E. the enthalpy change is zero 8131041 C 14 39403 72 114914161512 0009 The vapor pressure of CCl at 77 degrees C is 760 mm Hg. The 4 4 heat of vaporization is approximately 9 A. 1617 cal B. 3790 cal C. 7350 cal D. 9340 cal 8131042 B 14 39406 52 018112130787 0009 Vaporization is an example of a process for which: A. delta H, delta S and delta G are positive at all temperatures B. delta H and delta S are positive C. delta G is negative at low T, positive at high T 9 D. delta H is strongly pressure dependent 8131043 D 14 39410 71 067716060170 0009 Dry ice, solid CO , is frequently used as a cooling agent; it 4 2 undergoes sublimation at or near atmospheric pressure. This direct conversion of solid CO to gaseous CO involves an 4 2 2 absorption of energy by CO . This energy is used up, at least in 4 2 part, in overcoming A. covalent bonds B. polar covalent bonds 9 C. gravitational attractions D. Van der Waals forces 8131044 B 14 39417 31 016911530293 0009 When a solid melts to a liquid A. greater attractive forces appear B. the molecules become more randomly oriented C. the molecules become less randomly oriented 9 D. the container warms up 8131045 A 14 39420 32 065105890683 0009 Given the heats of combustion for diamond (-94.50 kcal) and graphite (-94.05 kcal), both composed of pure carbon, would you expect the formation of diamond from graphite to be endothermic or exothermic? A. endothermic B. exothermic 9 C. depends on the temperature D. insufficient information 8131046 D 15 39424 51 098504380165 0035 The formation of ice from liquid water is accompanied by A. an absorption of heat. B. a temperature increase. C. a decrease in volume. D. an evolution of heat. 9 E. a temperature decrease. 8131047 A 15 39427 32 079104380293 0035 Evaporation from a liquid results in A. a decrease in the average speed of the molecules of the liquid. B. an increase in the temperature of the liquid. C. an increase in the rate of collision between molecules of the liquid. D. an increase in the average speed of the molecules of the liquid. 9 E. a decrease in the amount of vapor above the liquid. 8131048 D 14 39433 52 0653 0003 If heat is added to ice and liquid water (only) in a sealed container, the: A. pressure will rise B. pressure will fall 9 C. temperature will fall D. temperature will remain constant 8131049 C 14 39436 52 19471151 0058 The approximate specific heat of fusion of ice in cal/g is: 9 A. 0.5 B. 1.0 C. 80 D. 540 8131050 C 14 39438 51 0114 A system of liquid and vapor are in equilibrium in a cylinder with a movable piston at one end. If the pressure over the liquid is increased by pushing the piston in, which of the following statements is true? A. The volume of the liquid decreases B. The density of the gas phase decreases because molecules of gas are transformed into liquid phase molecules C. The transfer of gas molecules to the liquid state is increased D. There is no change in the relative amounts of liquid and vapor phases because the system is in 9 equilibrium. 8131051 A 14 39446 52 087102450286 A closed system consisting of 8.0 grams of water and 2.0 grams of steam is at equilibrium at 100 degrees C. How much heat is needed to change the system entirely to stea at 100 degrees C? 9 A. 4320 cal B. 1080 cal C. 540 cal D. 2.0 cal 8131052 B 14 39450 52 028608710245 A closed system consisting of 10 grams of water and 4.0 grams of steam is at equilibrium at 100 degrees C, how much heat is liberated in changing the system entirely to water at 100 degrees C? 9 A. 5400 cal B. 2160 cal C. 540 cal D. 4.0 cal 8131053 A 14 39454 52 028608710245 A closed system consisting of 10 grams of water and 4.0 grams of steam is at equilibrium at 100 degrees C. How much heat is needed to change the system entirely to steam at 100 deg C 9 A. 5400 cal B. 2160 cal C. 540 cal D. 10.0 cal 8131054 C 14 39458 52 0286 MSU 5 o How much heat is required to heat 6.0 grams of water at 40 C 5 o to steam at 120 C? 9 A. 3,240 cal B. 360 cal C. 3,658 cal D. 58 cal 8131055 C 14 39461 52 02860800 MSU 5 o How much heat is liberated when 50.0 grams of water at 60 C 5 o are cooled to ice at -40 C? 9 A. 96 cal B. 3,000 cal C. 7,950 cal D. 9,047 cal 8131056 B 15 39465 52 0286 MSU 5 o o An ice cube at 0 C is converted to liquid water at 90 C. How much heat change occurs per gram of ice? A. 240 cal of heat is liberated by the system B. 170 cal of heat is absorbed by the system C. 79.8 cal of heat is liberated by the system D. 79.8 cal of heat is absorbed by the system 9 E. 90 cal of heat is absorbed by the system 8131057 C 14 39471 52 0286 MSU How much heat is required to convert 12.0 grams of water at 5 o o 40 C to steam at 120 C? 9 A. 6480 cal B. 720 cal C. 7315 cal D. 115 cal 8131058 D 14 39474 52 0286 MSU How much heat is required to convert 6.0 grams of ice at 5 o o -30 C to water at 75 C? 9 A. 86.4 cal B. 479 cal C. 536 cal D. 1015 cal 8131059 B 14 39477 52 02860800 MSU 5 o The cooling of 20.0 grams of steam initially at 110 C to ice 5 o at -10.0 C liberates how much heat? 9 A. 68100 J B. 61000 J C. 54300 J D. 53500 J 8131060 BDACDEA 75 39481 52 OS83 MACROITEM STEM Draw smooth lines through the asterisks in the phase diagram below. Each of the regions you create contains either gas, liquid or solid. All three are represented in this diagram. Remembering the material covered in class, write the name of the phase that occupies each region. | * | | * E | <------------------- | * | | * | * | | | * C | | * | * <---------------- | | B| * | | * | * pressure| | | * E | A| * | * | | V * | | * * | | * | | * ** | | ** | V * ** | * **** | ***** | ** D | ** <------------------ |*_______________________________________________________ temperature Each of the arrows represents a portion of a particular process. Give the best answer for each of the descriptions below. Unless stated otherwise, one may assume that each process continues in the same direction past the point of each arrow. 0 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 The first change in state to be observed by this process will be 1 evaporation. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 A gas followed by a solid will be observed in this process. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 If this process continues in the same direction, the solid substance 3 will melt and sublimate practically simultaneously. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 This constant pressure process will result in condensation 4 followed by crystallization. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 5 Deposition occurs along this path. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 6 This process occurs in a region not clearly defined as either 6 gas or liquid. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 7 The molecules of the substance are ordered in a crystal lattice 9 for just that segment of the process which is shown. 8131061 C 15 45505 71 5 o The critical point of carbon tetrachloride is 283 C and 45 atm pressure. Liquid carbon tetrachloride has a vapor pressure of 5 o 10.0 atm and 178 C. Which of the following statements must be true? 5 o A. The normal boiling point of CCl must be greater than 178 C. 4 4 5 o B. Liquid CCl can exist at temperatures greater than 283 C if 4 4 the pressure is greater than 45 atm. 5 o C. The triple point must be less than 178 C. D. Liquid and solid can only be in equilibrium at one temperature -- the freezing point. E. Vapor and liquid can only be in equilibrium at one 9 temperature -- the normal boiling point. 8132001 B 15 39507 52 0207 12 ETS2WVW If the specific heat of aluminum is 0.22 calories/gram/deg. C., the number of calories required to increase the temperature of 10 grams of aluminum from 15 deg. C. to 20 deg. C. is A. 5 B. 11 C. 1.1 D. 50 9 E. 22 8132002 D 15 39511 52 0648 12 ETS2WVW If, without loss of heat to the surroundings, 100 grams of aluminum of specific heat, 0.2 cal./gram degree at 100 deg. C. is dropped into 100 grams of water at 10 deg. C., the final temperature, in degrees Centigrade will be A. 55 B. 85 C. 45 D. 25 9 E. 15 8132003 A 15 39515 52 0648 12 ETS2WVW A 100 g copper calorimeter (use .090 cal/gram degree as the specific heat of copper) at a temperature of 15.0 degrees C. contains 200 g of water at 15.0 degrees C. A 300 g mass of aluminum at a temperature of 100 degrees C is plunged into the water. The temperature of the water rises to 34.7 degrees C. The specific heat of the aluminum is A. .210 B. .361 C. .613 D. .501 9 E. .841 8132004 B 14 39521 52 0648 12 ETS2WVW 600 g of substance 1 at 50 deg. C. Was mixed with 600 gm. of substance 2 at 30 deg. C. in a calorimeter. The equilibrium temperature was 43 deg. C. Disregarding any heat change in the calorimeter, the specific heat of substance 1 can be calculated to be A. equal to that of substance 2 B. higher than that of substance 2 C. lower than that of substance 2 D. a comparison of the specific heats cannot be made from 9 this data 8132005 EB 25 39527 31 0651 1490 ETS2WVW MACROITEM STEM 2A coal dealer needed to know the amount of heat 2evolved in the complete combustion of a certain type 2of coal. A sample of the coal was placed in a thin metal 2capsule, the capsule was filled with oxygen and then 2sealed. After immersing the capsule in an insulated 2vessel of water the contents were ignited by an electric 2spark. The heat evolved was determined by observing the 2temperature of the water surrounding the capsule. 2Which of the following observations is least essential for a 3 _____ 2fairly accurate determination of the heat evolved by the 0 type of coal in question? MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 A. weight of coal sample B. weight of water C. weight of the capsule D. final temperature of the water 1 E. time required for combustion MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 In the preceding item the amount of oxygen used in the capsule must be A. only enough to start the coal to burn C. enough to completely burn the coal and the capsule D. the same weight as the coal 9 E. none of the above 8132006 DADCC 55 39540 52 0205 1390 ETS2WVW MACROITEM STEM 2A calorimeter of weight 100 gms. and specific heat 0.1 contains 2500 g of water at 15 degrees C. after a block of metal weighing 250 g and at a temperature 1020 degrees C. is dropped in, the 0 temperature rises to 20 degrees C. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 The number of calories gained by the water is A. 500 B. 1000 C. 2000 D. 2500 1 E. 10,000 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 The number of calories gained by the calorimeter is A. 50 B. 100 C. 200 D. 5000 2 E. 1000 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 The number of calories lost by the block is A. 0 B. 400 C. 2200 D. 2550 3 E. 9500 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 the number of calories lost by each gram of the block is A. 8 B. 44 C. 51 D. 190 4 E. 0 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 The specific heat of the metal is A. 0 B. 0.008 C. 0.051 D. 1.90 9 E. 4.4 8132007 E 15 39550 31 06400286 11 ETS2WVW Suppose we have a pitcher of ice in ice-water, any part of which we may use to cool a beverage. Would 200 g of ice or 200 g of ice-water be more effective in cooling a beverage? A. Ice, because it is colder. B. Ice-water, because its specific heat is greater. C. Ice, because its specific heat is greater. D. Ice-water, because it is heavier. 9 E. Ice, because of its heat of fusion. 8132008 D 15 39556 31 03870286 11 ETS2WVW A vessel is filled with a known mass of water and contains a thermometer and a paddle wheel rotated by force transferred by a rope and pulley system from a falling object of known mass. This apparatus is useful in determining the A. specific heat of water 5 2 B. relation between 1/2 mv and the absolute temperature C. coefficient of thermal conductivity, K D. mechanical equivalent of heat, j 9 E. efficiency of a heat engine 8132009 C 15 39563 31 0286 11 ETS2WVW Prior to 1760, physicists assumed that, "the quantities of heat required to increase the heat of different bodies by the same number of degrees were directly in proportion to the quantity of matter in each." This assumption is modified by the modern concept of A. latent heat B. friction as a source of heat C. specific heat D. caloric 9 E. critical temperature 8132010 D 15 39568 32 0286 11 ETS2WVW One important principle involved in the construction of the thermos bottle is that A. glass is a good conductor of heat B. glass has a small coefficient of expansion C. a vacuum is a better conductor of heat than air D. a vacuum is a poorer conductor of heat than air 9 E. a vacuum prevents heat radiation 8132011 D 14 39573 52 016101590398 0043 5 3 If it takes 2.8 x 10 Joules to raise the temperature of a sample of water 27.5 degrees C, the mass of the sample is: 5 -2 9 A. 6.7 g B. 4.1 x 10 g C. 27 g D. 24 g. 8132012 D 15 39576 52 020507290407 0044 When the reaction below was carried out in a constant volume bomb calorimeter, 26.3 kcal of heat were evolved (on the basis of the number of moles indicated in the reaction as written). What is delta H in kilocalories for this reaction? (assume all steps 5 o carried out at 25 C.) CO + Cl -----> COCl 4 (g) 2(g) 2(g) 9 A. 26.3 B. -26.3 C. 25.7 D. -26.9 E. 26.9 8132013 B 14 39582 32 01610286020651 9000 Freshly distilled toluene is pumped into a holding tank at a temperature of 45 degrees C. If the tank contains 8000 kg toluene, how much heat will be lost as its temperature drops to 25 degrees C? (the heat capacity of toluene, MW = 92, is 5 -1 -1 32.4 cal mol deg ) 9 A. 2,800 kcal B. 56,000 kcal C. 70,000 kcal D. 56 kcal. 8132014 A 15 39587 32 064802060207 0028 Calculate the quantity of heat in calories required to raise the temperature of 200 g of water from 20 degrees to 40 degrees C. the specific heat of water is 1.0 cal/g x degrees C. 9 A. 4000 cal B. 400 cal C. 200 cal D. 2000 cal E. 1000 cal 8132015 B 14 39591 32 0648 0540 If a reaction occurs in an insulated container and the temperature of the contents is higher at the end of the reaction, then the reaction was A. endothermic C. irreversable 9 B. exothermic D. reversable 8132016 A 15 44643 32 0648 0540 If a reaction occurs in an insulated container and the temperature of the system is lower at the end of the reaction, then the reaction was A. endothermic C. reversible E. adiabatic 9 B. exothermic D. irreversible 8132017 C 14 39597 52 5 -1 -1 A calorimeter weighing 100 g (specific heat = 0.418 J g deg ) 5 o o contains 500 g of water at 15 C. After a 50 g block of metal at 1020 C 5 o is dropped in, the temperature rises to 20 C. The number of Joules gained by the water is 9 A. 2090 B. 4180 C. 10450 D. 41800 8133001 C 15 39603 52 2WVW What is the standard enthalpy of reaction (in kcal) for C H (g) + 3 O (g) ---> 2 CO (g) + 2 H O(g)? 4 2 4 2 2 2 Standard heats of formation C H (g) = + 13 kcal/mole 4 2 4 CO (g) = -94 kcal/mole 4 2 H O(g) = -68 kcal/mole 4 2 9 A. -175 B. -311 C. -337 D. +175 E. +337 8133002 B 15 39609 52 07290407 0044 Estimate /\H in kJ for the following reaction: 3 __ H C=CH (g) + Cl (g) -----> ClH C-CH Cl(g) 4 2 2 2 2 2 bond kJ/mole bond kJ/mole bond kJ/mole bond kJ/mole C-H 413.8 O-H 464.0 H-H 434.7 C-Cl 326.0 C-C 346.9 O=O 493.2 C=C 618.6 H-Cl 430.5 C-O 351.1 C=O 706.4 Cl-Cl 242.4 9 A. +209 B. -137.9 C. -380.3 D. +188.1 E. -409.6 8133003 B 15 39615 52 073307450407 0044 5 o -1 The tabulated delta H of benzene, C H is +19.8 kcal mole . 4 f 6 6(g) 5 o If we compute delta H by using bond energies in the reaction: 4 f 6C(graphite) + 3 H -----> C H 4 2(g) 6 6(g) 5 -1 we get the value 60.0 kcal mole . Select the statement below which best explains this discrepancy of 40.2 kcal: A. Bond energies are compromise values, not always accurate. B. The C=C bond energy is applicable only when there are no resonance forms that shift the double bond. 5 o o C. Delta H pertains to 298 k, at which temperature the reaction shown is endothermic. D. Bond energies can only be used for diatomic molecules. E. This discrepancy is not large and is about what one should 9 expect from using bond energies. 8133004 A 15 39628 52 073310200189 0044 The standard heat of formation of Al O is -399 kcal/mole. How 4 2 3 much heat (in kcal) is evolved when 215 grams of Al O are 4 2 3 formed? 5 2 2 5 A. 8.42 x 10 kcal B. 1.90 x 10 kcal C. 8.42 x 10 kcal 5 4 2 9 D. 8.56 x 10 kcal E. 3.99 x 10 kcal. 8133006 C 14 39636 32 1416 0003 The heat necessary to convert a sample of ice at 1 torr directly into water vapor is approximately equal to the: A. heat of fusion B. heat of vaporization C. heat of vaporization plus the heat of fusion 9 D. heat of vaporization minus the heat of fusion 8133007 B 14 39640 52 194607341953 0057 Given: C(s) + 1/2 O (g) --> CO + 26.41 kcal and C(s) + O (g) --> 4 2 2 CO (g) + 94.05 kcal. Calculate /\ H for the reaction: C(s) + 3 __ 4 2 CO (g) --> 2CO(g). 4 2 9 A. -67.64 kcal B. 41.23 kcal C. 67.64 kcal D. 120.46 kcal 8134001 D 15 39645 31 0286 12 ETS2WVW 5 o If we heat 20 grams of water 5 C, we know the heat absorption will be 9 A. 83.6 J B. 209 J C. 314 J D. 418 J E. 523 J 8134002 D 15 39648 31 0653 12 ETS2WVW A gram of ice at -100 deg. C. is heated until it becomes steam at a temperature of 200 deg. C. The greatest amount of heat is absorbed when the A. temperature of the ice is raised from -100 deg. C. to 0 deg. C. B. ice changes to water at 0 deg. C. C. temperature of the water is raised from 0 deg. C. to 100 deg. C. D. water changes to steam at 100 deg. C. E. temperature of the steam is raised from 100 deg. C. to 9 200 deg. C. 8134004 B 15 39655 32 0207 12 ETS2WVW If 30 calories change the temperature of 50 grams of a substance 5 o o from 20 C to 40 C, the specific heat of the substance is A. 0.01 B. 0.03 C. 1 D. 0.3 9 E. 0.1 8134005 D 15 39658 31 0286 11 ETS2WVW 5 o If sufficient heat is removed from 1 g of water at 100 C to cool it to 0 deg. C., it necessarily follows that A. its volume will be unchanged B. it will freeze C. its density will be the least at 4 deg. C. D. it will decrease in volume and then increase 9 E. it will reach its greatest density at 0 deg. C. 8134006 D 15 39664 31 0207 11 ETS2WVW Which one of the following is a correct definition of specific heat? A. The number of calories necessary to change the state of one gram of the substance. B. The number of calories emitted by the complete oxidation of one gram of the substance. C. The number of calories necessary to raise the temperature of 5 o one gram of the substance from 0 C to the kindling temperature D. The number of calories necessary to change the temperature of one gram of the substance one degree centigrade. 9 E. The temperature at which the solid melts. 8134007 D 15 39672 31 0207 11 ETS2WVW In the laboratory determination of the specific heat of a metal it is necessary to take into consideration all of the following except the 3______ A. weight and specific heat of water in the liquid state B. weight and specific heat of water in the solid state C. weight and specific heat of the calorimeter cup and stirrer D. temperature of the water 9 E. weight of the metal sample 8134008 E 15 39678 31 0207 11 ETS2WVW The specific heat of common substances is A. the same B. the intensity of the heat of a substance C. the number of calories present in a substance D. always a small whole number 9 E. generally less than 1 calorie/gram/deg. C. 8134009 A 15 39682 31 02860422 11 ETS2WVW Heat capacity is a measure of A. the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of a certain amount of substance a certain amount B. the change in temperature of a substance caused by adding one calorie of heat C. the maximum temperature to which you can heat a substance before it decomposes D. the temperature a substance will assume if it is placed in water of a certain temperature 9 E. the amount of substance which contains one calorie of heat 8134010 C 15 39689 31 0207 11 ETS2WVW "The quantity of heat required to increase the temperature of different substances by the same number of degrees is directly proportional to the quantity of matter in each." This statement is in contradiction to the currently accepted concept of A. latent heat B. friction as a source of heat C. specific heat D. calorie 9 E. critical temperature 8134011 E 15 39694 31 0207 11 ETS2WVW The specific heat of copper is 0.096. This characteristic makes it A. a substance of low expansion B. inactive chemically C. a good insulation material D. a poor conductor of heat 9 E. good for making cooking utensils 8134012 C 15 39698 32 02860507 11 ETS2WVW A silver spoon put in a glass before adding boiling water sometimes prevents the glass from cracking because A. it has a high coefficient of expansion B. it allows steam bubbles to collect on it C. the specific heat of silver is very high D. the specific gravity of silver is greater than that of glass 9 E. it reduces the temperature of the water 8134013 B 15 39703 31 06520511 11 ETS2WVW According to accepted theory, the heat content of a substance A. is equal to the sum of the potential energies of all its molecules B. is equal to the sum of the kinetic energies of all its molecules C. is equal to the sum of the kinetic and potential energies of all its molecules D. is proportional to the average kinetic energy of its molecules 9 E. is equal to the average kinetic energy of its molecules 8134014 D 14 39709 32 0648 12 ETS2WVW When a hot iron touches a block of ice, the iron cools but the ice does not warm; some ice melts. The final temperature of the system (iron, ice, and water) is the same as the initial temperature of the ice. From this experiment, one might conclude that A. since ice has a higher specific heat than iron it will melt with greater speed. B. the data are false because hot iron and ice cannot be brought into intimate contact without raising the temperature of the ice. C. heat is a fluid and flows into the ice, thus substantiating the caloric theory. D. since heat disappears from the iron, the heat must have been 9 used in changing the ice to water. 8134015 B 15 39719 51 02860422 12 ETS2WVW In an experiment two Bunsen burners giving the same kind and type of flame were used. One was placed under a suspended block of iron weighing a kg and the other was placed under a kg of water in a thin-walled vessel. Both materials were heated for the same length of time. Which one of the following is valid? A. the iron receives a greater quantity of heat than the water. B. The temperature of the iron will increase more rapidly than the temperature of the water. C. Quantity of heat and temperature are the same thing. D. The kinetic energy of the molecules of water increases more than the kinetic energy of the molecules of iron. 9 E. None of the above is valid. 8134016 C 15 39729 52 0648 13 ETS2WVW 200 g of lead was placed in a specially built calorimeter containing an electrical heating device. By means of this device, heat was supplied to the lead at the rate of 100 calories per minute. It was observed, that while the lead was melting, the temperature remained constant for 10 minutes. Based on these data, the heat of fusion of lead is approximately A. 0.5 cal./g B. 100 cal. C. 5 cal./g D. 1000 Cal. 9 E. None of these 8134017 A 15 39735 31 05580647 13 ETS2WVW If heat were applied to a piece of ice at -15 degrees C. until the final temperature were 105 degrees C., in which one of the following temperature intervals would the least amount of heat 3 _____ be required to produce the change in temperature indicated? The specific heat of ice is .5. A. -15 degrees C. to -5 degrees C. B. -5 degrees C. to +5 degrees C. C. 45 degrees C. to 55 degrees C. D. 95 degrees C. to 105 degrees C. 9 E. all of the above require the same amount of heat. 8134018 D 15 44364 51 0207 14 ETS2WVW A laboratory experiment to determine the specific heat of a metal yielded the following data. Weight of metal 240.9 g Weight of calorimeter cup and stirrer 289.0 g Weight of water 400.0 g Temperature change of water and calorimeter 2.4 deg. C. Temperature change of metal 100 deg. C. The experimenter cannot proceed with calculations until which of the following is determined: A. the original temperature of the water B. the final temperature of the water C. the specific gravity of the metal D. some other additional data E. no additional data. The experimenter can proceed with 9 calculations 8134019 D 15 39752 31 0653 11 ETS2WVW The formation of ice is accompanied by A. an absorption of heat B. a temperature increase C. a decrease in volume D. an evolution of heat 9 E. a temperature decrease 8134020 E 15 39755 31 0653 11 ETS2WVW If 40 calories of heat are required to vaporize one gram of a substance at 110 deg. C., then it follows that A. 20 calories will be required to vaporize one gram of the substance at 55 deg. C. B. 40 calories will be required to change one gram of the vapor to liquid C. the temperature of the vapor must be higher than that of the liquid D. 40 calories will vaporize one gram of the substance at 100 deg. C. E. The same amount of heat will be given up when one gram of the 9 vapor condenses at 110 deg. C. 8134021 E 15 39763 31 0286 11 ETS2WVW If the same amount of heat energy is applied without loss to two different substances of equal weight, their final temperature may be different. This is because A. they may differ in density B. one may absorb more heat than the other C. they may have different coefficients of expansion D. one may be a better conductor of heat 9 E. one may have a higher specific heat 8134022 D 15 39769 31 06530648 11 ETS2WVW Since 2260 Joules are required to vaporize 1 g of water at 5 o 100 C, it follows that 5 o A. 1130 Joules would vaporize 1 g at 50 C. B. for every 2260 Joules added, the temperature of the water 5 o rises 1 C. C. the weight of the vapor is greater than 1 g for every g of water vaporized D. 2260 Joules are released when 1 g of vapor condenses at 5 o 100 C. E. adding 2260 Joules successively, increases the vapor 9 pressure over the open container 8134023 A 14 39777 31 0207 11 ETS2WVW The specific heat of a body is A. the amount of heat energy required to raise its temperature one degree B. the ratio of its heat capacity to that of an equal mass of water C. dependent upon the temperature scale we are using 9 D. the same thing as its latent heat 8134024 D 14 39781 31 065508700244 2WVW The third law of thermodynamics states that the entropy of a perfect crystal of any element or compound is ________ at a temperature of ________. A. infinite, absolute zero B. zero, infinity C. infinite, infinity 9 D. zero, absolute zero 8134026 D 14 39785 52 055301920114 0043 If one mole of a substance is heated at constant pressure from 10 to 15 degrees C and its enthalpy increases by 35 Joules in the process, C for the substance is: 4 p 5 -1 -1 -1 - A. 175 Joules mole deg B. 150 Joules mole deg 5 -1 -1 -1 -1 9 C. 3.5 Joules mole deg D. 7.0 Joules mole deg . 8134027 A 14 39791 52 030601590438 0043 The standard delta E of formation of liquid water at 25 degrees C is: A. 282 kilojoules/mole B. 290 kilojoules/mole 9 C. 286 kilojoules/mole D. 238 kilojoules/mole. 8134028 D 15 39794 32 020604840653 0028 Calculate the amount of heat in kilocalories given off when 2.50 g of steam condense to form water at its normal boiling point A. 3.20 kcao B. 2.00 kcal C. 2.16 kcal D. 1.35 kcal 9 E. 4.63 kcal 8134029 E 15 39797 52 020602070653 0028 Calculate the amount of heat in kilocalories required to convert 5.00 g of ice at 0 degrees to steam at exactly 100 degrees C. (specific heat of water = 1.00 cal/g x degrees C) A. 3.10 kcal B. 3.20 kcal C. 0.90 kcal D. 1.17 kcal 9 E. 3.60 kcal 8134030 A 15 39801 31 072906530484 0028 Steam will produce serious burns when it condenses on the skin. This phenomenon may be explained by A. heat of condensation B. heat of sublimation C. heat of fusion D. heat of reaction 9 E. heat of ionization 8134031 E 15 39804 52 020506530288 0028 How many calories are required to change 100 g of ice at 0 degrees C, (heat of fusion = 80.0 cal/g, heat of vaporization = 540 cal/g, specific heat water = 1.00 cal/lg x 1 degrees C) to steam at 100 degrees C? A. 8,000 cal B. 54,000 cal C. 10,000 cal 9 D. 144,000 cal E. 72,000 cal 8134032 D 14 39808 52 072901810206 0026 How many calories are required to heat 5 grams of water at 40 degrees C to steam at 100 degrees C? 9 A. 300 B. 600 C. 2700 D. 3000 calories. 8134033 C 15 39810 52 110102861151 0019 A source of heat supplied 670 calories to 1 gram of ice originally at 0 degrees C. If the heat of fusion is 80 cal/gm, and the heat of vaporization is 540 cal/gm, what was the final state of the water? A. liquid water below 100 degrees C B. liquid water at 100 degrees C C. liquid water and steam together at 100 degrees C D. steam at 100 degrees C 9 E. steam above 100 degrees C 8134034 C 15 39816 51 043814160174 0019 Liquid zinc metal boils at 1180 K with a heat vaporization of 27.14 kcal/mole. A good estimate of the heat of vaporization of liquid manganese, boiling point = 2360 K, would be A. 27 kcal/mole B. 13.5 kcal/mole C. 54 kcal/mole D. 96 kcal/mole 9 E. there is no simple way to make such an estimate 8134035 D 15 39821 32 016504680439 0019 How many calories would be required to convert 20 g of ice at 0 degrees C to steam at 100 degrees C? 9 A. 10,800 B. 12,400 C. 12,800 D. 14,400 E. none is correct 8134036 D 14 39824 51 028601590172 0019 The heat energy added to a solid at its melting point A. increases the temperature of the solid B. increases the molecular kinetic energy of the solid C. increases the specific heat of the solid D. increases the potential energy of the molecules 9 E. none of the above is correct 8134037 B 14 39828 51 063102060398 0019 The fact that the heat capacities of two solids are not equivalent indicates that A. their kinetic energies at the same temperature are not equal B. the masses of the two samples are not equal C. attractive forces are unimportant D. the same number of calories does not always lead to the same increase in average kinetic energy in equivalent 9 weights of different solids 8134038 C 14 39834 52 040704820729 0009 The largest amount of energy is stored in which one of the following systems? A. 1.0 mole H O(l) at 100 degrees C 4 2 B. 1.0 mole H O(l) at 0 degrees C 4 2 C. 1.0 mole H O(g) at 100 degrees C and 1.0 atmosphere 4 2 D. 1.0 mole H O(g) at 100 degrees C and 1.0 atmosphere and 1.0 4 2 mole H O(l) at 100 degrees C have the same amount of 4 2 9 stored energy 8134039 A 14 39840 32 0206 0003 5 2 If it takes 6.7 x 10 cal to raise the temperature of a sample of water 27.5 degrees C, the weight of the sample is: 5 -2 -2 9 A. 24.4 g B. 4.1 x 10 g C. 4.10 x 10 g D. 24 g 8134040 A 14 39844 52 02060651 0003 If a gram of kerosene liberates 11.00 kcal of heat when it is burned, to what temperature can 0.2500 g of kerosene heat 75.00 cc of water at 25 degrees C? A. 62 degrees C B. 46 degrees C C. 45.6 degrees C 9 D. 45.62 degrees C 8134041 D 14 39848 32 02060651 0003 In order to raise the temperature of 1.00 g of water from 25.0 to 47.5 degrees C, the quantity of heat required is: 9 A. 17.5 cal B. 47.5 cal C. 25.0 cal D. 22.5 cal 8134042 B 14 39851 32 02060651 0003 In order to raise the temperature of 16.8 of g of water from 25.0 to 47.5 degrees C, the quantity of heat required is: 9 A. 420 cal B. 378 cal C. 528 cal D. 190 cal 8134043 B 14 39854 32 02060651 0003 In order to lower the temperature of 16.8 g of water from 47.5 to 25.0 degrees C, the following amount of heat must be removed: 9 A. 420 cal B. 378 cal C. 528 cal D. 190 cal 8134044 E 14 39857 31 02060161 The heat required to raise the temperature of one gram of a substance one degree centigrade is called the A. heat of fusion B. heat of vaporization C. heat of sublimation D. heat capacity 9 E. specific heat 8134045 B 15 45672 32 0206 The specific heat of carbon is 0.13 cal/g-deg. How much heat is required to raise the temperature of 4.0 grams of carbon from 25 degrees C to 35 degrees C? 9 A. 15.6 cal B. 5.2 cal C. 4.0 cal D. 13.0 cal E. 0.52 cal 8134046 A 15 39863 52 0206 The heat capacity of iron is 0.11 cal/g-deg. How much heat would be liberated when 2.0 grams of iron are cooled from 30 degrees C to 20 degrees C? A. 2.2 cal C. 61.6 cal E. 1.1 cal 9 B. 6.16 cal D. 0.11 cal 8134047 B 14 39867 52 0206 The heat capacity of aluminum is 0.21 cal/g-deg. How much heat is needed to raise the temperature of a 7.0 gram block of aluminum from 0 degrees C to 20 degrees C? 9 A. 70 cal B. 29.4 cal C. 113 cal D. 1.47 cal 8134048 B 14 39871 52 043802860439 How many calories of heat are liberated or absorbed when 10 grams 5 o of gaseous H O (molecular weight = 18) at 100 C 4 2 condense completely to liquid water at that temperature? A. 9720 cal absorbed C. 540 cal absorbed 9 B. 5400 cal liberated D. 9720 cal liberated 8135001 D 15 39876 52 0648 11 EUS2WVW Identical 1.00 g samples of coal are completely burned in closed containers. Chemical container 1 contains pure oxygen at a pressure of 1 atmosphere; 2 contains air at a pressure of 5 atmospheres. The initial temperatures are the same. What is the result? A. The maximum temperature in 2 is greater than in 1. B. The total amount of heat generated in 1 is less than that in 2. C. The total amount of heat generated in 1 is greater than that in 2. D. The total amount of heat generated in 1 is the same as that in 2. E. The amounts of heat evolved cannot be compared from the data 9 furnished. 8135002 C 15 39885 52 07330734 2WVW The standard enthalpy change for the reaction CH (g) + I (g) ---> CH I(g) + I(g) 4 3 2 3 5 -1 is about -106.2 kJ mole . Estimate the standard heat of formation (/\ H ) of gaseous methyl radicals (CH ) (in kJ/mole). 3 __ 4 3 DATA /\ H (kJ/mole) 3 __ 4 f ----- ------------------- I (gas) 62.3 4 2 I (gas) 106.6 CH I(gas) -8.36 4 3 9 A. -284.2 B. -142.1 C. 142.1 D. 284.2 E. 426.4 8135003 E 15 39894 31 06550735 2WVW The equation /\ G = /\H - T/\S 3 __ __ __ is valid for a process at constant temperature and pressure. This is because (under these conditions) 3 _______ A. /\H = T/\S B. /\G is independent of pressure 3 __ / __ __ C. /\G is a state function D. T/\S = S/\T E. S/\T = 0 93 __ __ __ __ 8135004 A 15 39899 52 07290721 12 2WVW What is the standard enthalpy change for the reaction C H (g) + 3 O (g) ---> 2 CO (g) + 2 H O(g), in kcal/mole? 4 2 4 2 2 2 Standard heat of formation (298 K) 3___________________________________ C H (g) = +13 kcal/mole 4 2 4 CO (g) = -94 kcal/mole 4 2 H O(g) = -68 kcal/mole 4 2 9 A. -337 B. -311 C. -175 D. +175 E. +337 8135005 C 15 39904 52 0733 2WVW Calculate the standard heat of formation of propane (C H ), 4 3 8 in kcal/mole. /\H (298K) 3 __ (kcal) 3 ______________ C(graphite) + O (g) ---> CO (g) -94.1 4 2 2 H (g) + 1/2 O (g) ---> H O(l) -68.3 4 2 2 2 C H (g) + 5 O (g) ---> 3 CO (g) + 4 H O(l) -530.7 4 3 8 2 2 2 9 A. -280 B. -171 C. -24.8 D. 0 E. 530.7 8135006 D 15 39913 52 06550721 2WVW What is /\H for the following reaction at 298K (kcal/mole)? 3 __ 2Fe O (s) + 3C(s) ---> 4Fe(s) + 3CO (g)? 4 2 3 2 Standard heats of formation (298 K) 3___________________________________ Fe O (s) = -197 kcal/mole 4 2 3 CO (g) = -94.0 kcal/mole 4 2 A. -676 B. -103 C. +103 D. +112 E. Insufficient information; heats of formation of C and Fe 9 must be given. 8135007 A 14 39919 31 040701590801 0041 Chemical reactions that evolve energy are said to be 9 A. exothermic B. endothermic C. activated D. electrolytic 8135008 D 14 39921 32 008014461601 0041 The neutralization of a strong acid by a strong base liberates an 5 + amount of energy per mole of H that A. depends upon which acid and base are involved B. depends upon the temperature at which the reaction takes place C. depends upon which catalyst is used 9 D. is always the same 8135009 B 14 39926 72 0651 Given the heats of formation 5 o Substance /\H 4 -- f ---------------------- --------------- 5 -1 acetic acid -120 kcal mol 5 -1 carbon dioxide -95 kcal mol 5 -1 water -60 kcal mol 5 o The /\H of combustion of acetic acid (CH COOH) is 4 -- 3 5 -1 -1 -1 A. +190 kcal mol B. -190 kcal mol E. +45 kcal mol 5 -1 -1 9 C. -430 kcal mol D. -45 kcal mol 8135010 B 15 39938 52 065100430733 0042 The heat of formation (/\H ) of CO is -393.7 kJ/mol, 4 -- f 2 of H O (g) is -241.8 kJ/mol and of C H OH is -280.8 kJ/mol. 4 2 2 5 The molar heat of combustion of ethyl alcohol is: A. 354.8 kJ/mol B. -1232.2 kJ/mol C. +1232.2 kJ/mol 9 D. -2464.4 kJ/mol E. +2464.4 kJ/mol 8135011 A 15 39943 32 0827 0407 0047 Partisans once used the thermite process as an anti tank weapon. It is based on the reaction 2Al + Fe O -----> Al O + 2Fe exothermic 4 2 3 2 3 Using the associated thermochemical data 2Al + 3/2 O -----> Al O + 400 kilo calories 4 2 2 3 2Fe + 3/2 O -----> Fe O + 200 kilo calories 4 2 2 3 select the energy that would be released by the reaction of one mole of aluminum with Fe O 4 2 3 A. 100 kilo calories B. 200 kilo calories C. 300 kilo calories D. 400 kilo calories 9 E. 600 kilo calories. 8135012 A 14 39952 52 177402860161 0043 If a gram of kerosene liberates 46.0 kilojoules of heat when it is burned, to what temperature can 0.2500 g of kerosene raise the temperature of 75.00 ml of water at 25 degrees C? A. 62 degrees C B. 46 degrees C 9 C. 45.6 degrees C D. 75 degrees C. 8135013 C 14 39956 51 09180407 0043 The slope of a plot of ln(K) for a reaction against the reciprocal temperature equals: 5 o 5 o - delta H A. R delta H B. - delta H C. ---------- D. -R delta H 9 R 8135014 B 14 39960 52 072906510306 0043 The standard enthalpy of combustion of a mole of acetylene, C H , 4 2 2 to form CO (g) and H O(l) at 25 degrees C is: 4 2 2 A. -871 kilojoules/mole B. -1301 kilojoules/mole 9 C. -420 kilojoules/mole D. -982 kilojoules/mole. 8135015 B 14 39965 52 072107210306 0043 The standard enthalpy of reaction at 25 degrees C for CO(g) + 1/2 O (g) -----> CO (g) is: 4 2 2 A. -202 kilojoules B. -284 kilojoules 9 C. +202 kilojoules D. -568 kilojoules. 8135016 A 14 39968 72 5 -1 The enthalpy of formation of gaseous CO is -393.3 kJ mol , 4 2 5 -1 and the enthalpy of combustion of CH is -889.5 kJ mol . 4 4 If it is desired to determine the enthalpy of formation of CH , 4 4 What additional thermochemical data will be needed? A. The enthalpy of formation of water. B. The enthalpy of vaporization of water C. The enthalpy of formation of hydrogen. D. The enthalpy of formation of O 94 2 8135017 D 14 39978 52 030607290407 0043 If the standard /\H for the reaction 3 __ 4NH (g) + 5O (g) -----> 4NO(g) + 6H O(g) is -905 kilojoules at 4 3 2 2 25 degrees C, the standard enthalpy of formation of NO(g) at 25 degrees C is: A. -82.2 kilojoules/mole B. -20.9 kilojoules/mole 9 C. 48.4 kilojoules/mole D. 91.0 kilojoules/mole. 8135018 A 14 39983 52 022704070161 0043 5 3 If the equilibrium constant for a reaction is 1 x 10 at 300 K, and /\H is 100 kilojoules and is constant 3 __ with temperature, the value of K at 400 K is: 5 7 4 -5 -7 9 A. 2 x 10 B. 2 x 10 C. 5 x 10 D. 5 x 10 . 8135019 D 14 39988 52 040707290407 0043 5 -5 -9 If K for a reaction is 2.0 x 10 at 200 degrees C and 2.0 x 10 5 o o at 0 C, delta H (assumed constant) for the reaction is: A. 2.6 kilojoules B. 4.9 kilojoules 9 C. -4.9 kilojoules D. 49 kilojoules. 8135020 B 15 39992 52 072908700735 0044 Given the standard enthalpies of formation and third-law entropies tabulated below, calculate the standard free energy 5 o change (in kcal) at 298 K for the reaction: 2PbO -----> 2PbO + O 4 2(s) (s) 2(g) COMPOUND: O PbO PbO 4 2 2 5 o delta H (form.) kcal/mole 0.00 -66.1 -52.4 4 f 5 o S cal/mole deg 49.0 18.3 16.2 9 A. 11.7 B. 14.1 C. 27.4 D. -29.4 E. -26.8 8135021 D 15 40000 52 073307340043 0044 Given the following information: Compound Standard heat of formation (kcal/mole) CO -94.1 4 2(g) H O -68.3 4 2 (l) C H -20.2 4 2 6 C H + 7/2 O -----> 2 CO + 3 H O 4 2 6(g) 2(g) 2(g) 2 (l) calculate the enthalpy change for the combustion of C H . 4 2 6 A. 142 kcal/mole B. -20.2 kcal/mole C. -142 kcal/mole 9 D. -373 kcal/mole E. 373 kcal/mole. 8135022 A 15 40007 52 073307210407 0044 Given that the standard heats of formation of SO and SO are 4 2 3 -70.9 and -94.6 kcal/mole respectively, find the heat of reaction for the following reaction: SO + 1/2 O -----> SO 4 2 2 3 A. (1 x -94.6) - (1 x -70.9) B. 1 x -94.6 C. -(1 x -94.6) + (1 x -70.9) D. -(-70.9) - (-94.6) 9 E. none of the above. 8135023 B 15 40013 52 073307210407 0044 Given that the standard heats of formation of CO and CO are 4 2 -26.40 and -94.05 kcal/mole respectively, find the heat of reaction in kcal for the following reaction: CO + 1/2 O -----> CO 4 2 2 9 A. 67.65 B. -67.65 C. 120.4 D. -120.4 E. none of the above. 8135024 E 15 40018 52 07330043 0044 Given the following information compound standard heat of formation (kcal/mole) CO (g) -94.1 4 2 H O(l) -68.3 4 2 C H (g) -24.8 4 3 8 calculate the heat of combustion of C H (g). 4 3 8 A. 531 kcal/mole B. -24.8 kcal/mole C. -138 kcal/mole 9 D. 138 kcal/mole E. -531 kcal/mole. 8135025 C 15 40024 52 040702860806 0044 Given the reaction C H (g) + 5 O (g) -----> 3 CO (g) + 4 H O(g) (/\H = -2023 kJ) 4 3 8 2 2 2 -- Calculate how many kJ of heat are evolved when 9.80 moles of gaseous products are produced. 5 44.0 18.0 (9.80 x 2023) (9.80 x 2023) A. ---- + ----(9.80)(2023) B. ------------- C. ------------- 4 3 4 3 7 5 (9.80 x 2023) D. ------------- E. none of these is correct 94 4 8135026 E 15 40031 52 003707330721 0044 Given: Compound Molecular wt. Standard heat of formation (kcal/Mole) NO 30.0 21.57 N O 92.0 2.190 4 2 4 What is the standard heat of reaction if 69.5 grams of N O are 4 2 4 formed, via: 2NO + O <=====> N O 4 2 2 4 A. 1.65 kcal B. -40.9 kcal C. -20.4 kcal 9 D. 2.19 kcal E. -30.9 kcal. 8135027 D 15 40037 52 028604070733 0044 Calculate the heat evolved or absorbed when 73.0 grams of H SO 4 2 3 is formed in the reaction SO + H O -----> H SO 4 2 2 2 3 the heats of formation in kcal per mole are: SO -71.0 H O -68.3 H SO -147 4 2 2 2 3 The molecular weight of H SO is 82.1 grams per mole. 4 2 3 A. 7.70 kcal evolved B. 150 kcal absorbed 9 C. 133 kcal absorbed D. 6.85 kcal evolved E. 133 kcal evolved 8135028 C 15 40045 31 07210729 0028 The reaction C H O + heat -----> 12 C + 11 H O is 4 12 22 11 2 A. a duothermic reaction B. an exothermic reaction C. an endothermic reaction D. a biothermic reaction 9 E. a hypothermic reaction 8135029 C 15 40049 31 011201070087 0020 Solvent + solute -----> solution + heat A. This is an endothermic reaction B. An increase in temperature should increase the solubility C. An increase in temperature should decrease the solubility D. The solution of most solids in liquids follows this pattern 9 E. None of these 8135030 A 14 40053 52 040702860302 0020 Given the reaction: CS (1) + 3O (g) ---> CO (g) + 2SO (g) for 4 2 2 2 2 which delta H = -257 kcal. How many kilocalories of heat are liberated when 100 g of CS is burned in the presence of excess 4 2 oxygen? 9 A. 338 kcal B. 169 kcal C. 257 kcal D. 76.1 kcal 8135031 D 15 40058 32 00310263 0020 5 0 + complete the equation: H + e ---> H + _____ 4 2 -1 2 A. a proton B. a neutron C. 2 protons D. 2 electrons 9 E. none of these 8135032 D 14 40061 51 040707330105 0009 For the reaction: 2 HCl(g) -----> H (g) + Cl (g), 4 2 2 /\H = +44.2 kcal. This means that: 3__ A. if the given reaction is to be carried out at constant temperature, then the reaction mixture must be heated B. the chemical bonds in the products are weaker than those in the reactants C. HCl(g) has a negative heat of formation 9 D. all of the above 8135033 B 14 40067 52 040702860161 0009 Given /\H = -601.1 kJ for the reaction: 3 __ Mg(s) + 1/2 O (g) -----> MgO(s), what would you expect to 4 2 happen if the reaction were allowed to proceed at constant pressure in such a way that no heat transfer could take place between the reaction mixture and the surroundings? A. No reaction could occur B. The temperature of the reaction mixture would increase C. The temperature of the reaction mixture would decrease 9 D. Insufficient information is given 8135034 A 14 40074 52 016101140733 0009 When 1.00 gram of ammonia, NH (MW = 17.0), is produced from N 4 3 2 and H at a constant temperature (25 degrees C) and pressure 4 2 (1 atm), 2709 Joules are produced. The molar heat of formation of ammonia, in kilojoules, is 9 A. -2.709x17.0 B. 17.0/2709 C. -2.709/17.0 D. 2.709x17.0 8135035 C 14 40079 52 040702861421 0009 Which one of the following reactions would you expect to be the source of the largest amount of heat? A. CH (l) + 2 O (g) -----> CO (g) + 2 H O(g) 4 4 2 2 2 B. CH (g) + 2 O (g) -----> CO (g) + 2 H O(g) 4 4 2 2 2 C. CH (g) + 2 O (g) -----> CO (g) + 2 H O(l) 4 4 2 2 2 D. CH (g) + 3/2 O (g) -----> CO(g) + 2 H O(l) 94 4 2 2 8135036 A 15 40086 32 015905540077 0040 Suppose a watch spring were wound up and then dissolved in acid without unwinding. Which of the following is a possible effect of the winding? A. The resulting acid solution would be at a higher temperature than otherwise. B. The resulting acid solution would be at a lower temperature than otherwise. C. The spring would dissolve more slowly when wound. D. The spring would not completely dissolve when wound up. 9 E. Both A and C. 8135037 C 15 40093 31 068308010729 0040 Which of the following is an endothermic process? A. Freezing of water B. Condensation of steam C. Melting of tin D. Solidifying of sulfur 9 E. both A and D 8135038 C 15 40096 31 068308010729 0040 Which of the following processes is exothermic? A. Water evaporates B. Ice melts C. Steam condenses D. Ice sublimes 9 E. both B and D. 8135039 E 15 40098 31 015706830801 0040 Which of the following terms indicating a type of physical change is correctly matched with the terms exothermic or endothermic? 3 _________ A. sublimation--exothermic B. vaporization--exothermic C. freezing--endothermic D. condensation--endothermic 9 E. melting-endothermic. 8135040 C 15 40102 32 028601530438 0040 A liquid evaporates from an open thermos bottle slower than from an open pan because A. the fraction of molecules with sufficient kinetic energy to escape is higher in the open pan liquid than in the thermos liquid at the same temperature B. molecules leaving the open pan remove less energy when they leave than do those leaving the thermos bottle. C. less heat flows into the liquid of the thermos to replace energy removed by escaping molecules 9 D. the pan is bigger E. both B and D. 8135041 C 14 40109 51 019600490159 0009 Hydrogen, H , has been proposed as a fuel of the future. Knowing 4 2 that very little hydrogen exists in this elemental state, you would expect that A. hydrogen could play no role in the transfer of energy from one system to another B. elemental hydrogen might well supplant all other fuels C. energy received from another source might be stored in H 4 2 and later released during the combustion of the hydrogen 9 D. all of the above 8135042 B 15 40116 51 072113390159 0034 The heat of reaction may be defined as A. the amount of energy released in a chemical reaction B. the amount of energy released in the reaction of a fixed amount of reactants C. the amount of energy which must be supplied to a fixed number of reactant molecules to cause them to achieve the activated state D. the amount of energy that is released by a fixed number of reacting molecules on achieving the activated state 9 E. none of the above 8135043 CA 25 40123 52 124900490729 0047 MACROITEM STEM Dimethyl hydrazine was once proposed as a fuel for booster rockets. A rough measure of the thrust a burning fuel can supply is given by the expression /\H/M, where /\H is the molar enthalpy of combustion 3 __ __ of the fuel and M, is the average molecular weight of the products. 3 _______ If we assume the combustion reaction to be: C H N (l) + 4O (g) -----> 2CO (g) + 4H O(g) + N (g) 04 2 8 2 2 2 2 2 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 What is the average molecular weight of the products? 1 A. 90.0 B. 30.0 C. 26.8 D. 188.0 E. 35.4 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 Using the reaction above, let us assume that the enthalpy of formation of dimethyl hydrazine = -50.16 kJ/mole and /\H = -392.9 kJ/mole, /\H = -241.6 kJ/mole. Calculate the enthalpy 4-- f -- f 4 CO H O 4 2 2 of combustion of dimethyl hydrazine and evaluate /\H/M. Its value, in kJ/mole, is 3__ 9 A. 63.1 B. 94.9 C. 1702.1 D. 53.1 E. 409.6 8135044 C 14 40138 51 0172 Heat is slowly supplied to a pure solid sample until the melting point is reached. Which of the following is true? A. When the temperature first reaches the melting point, the solid melts very quickly and any further heat imput raises the temperature of the liquid. B. After the temperature reaches the melting point, further heat imput causes the temperature to rise steadily but more slowly until the last bit of solid melts. C. After the temperature reaches the melting point, further heat serves to melt the solid at constant temperature only when the solid is all melted does the temperature rise again. D. After the temperature reaches the melting point, NO 9 more heat can be absorbed by the system. 8135045 C 14 40149 32 02861153 How much heat is needed to completely melt 7.00 grams of ice 5 o at 0 C? Heat of fus. of H O=79.8 cal/g, heat of vap.=454 cal/g 4 2 9 A. 79.8 cal B. 7.00 cal C. 559 cal D. 3780 cal 8135046 A 14 40152 52 11530286 How much heat is needed to melt 1.00 mole of ice at 0 degrees C? 9 A. 1436 cal B. 540 cal C. 321 cal D. 79.8 cal 8135047 C 14 40154 52 115102861153 The heat of fusion of benzene is 30 cal/g. How much heat is required to melt 6.0 grams of benzene (molecular weight = 78) at its melting point? 9 A. 30 cal B. 2340 cal C. 180 cal D. 6.0 cal 8135048 A 14 40157 52 115102861153 The heat of fusion of HCl is 14 cal/g. How many calories of heat are required to melt 1.0 mole of HCl (molecular weight = 36.5) at its melting point? 9 A. 511 cal B. 14 cal C. 10 cal D. 2.0 cal 8135049 C 14 40160 52 11530286 5 23 How much heat is needed to completely melt 12.0 x 10 molecules of ice? 9 A. 4200 cal B. 2873 cal C. 160 cal D. 79.8 cal 8135050 D 14 40163 52 115111530286 The heat of fusion of mercury (atomic weight = 201) is 2.8 cal/g. How much heat is required to melt a 2.0 mole sample of solid mercury at its melting point? 9 A. 5.6 cal B. 10 cal C. 563 cal D. 1126 cal 8135051 A 14 40166 52 05550286 How much heat is liberated when 4.0 grams of water freezes at 0 degrees C? 9 A. 319 cal B. 72 cal C. 4.0 cal D. 1.0 cal 8135052 B 14 40168 52 05550286 How much heat is liberated when 10.0 grams of water freezes 5 o at 0 C? 9 A. 4180 J B. 3366 J C. 75.2 J D. 41.8 J 8135053 A 14 40170 52 04390181 How many calories are expended in vaporizing 40 grams of water at 100 degrees C. A. 21,600 calories C. 720 calories 9 B. 4000 calories D. 40 calories 8135054 C 15 45351 71 What is the molar heat of combustion of methanol, CH OH, if 4 3 combustion of 1.00 g of methanol causes a temperature rise of 5 o 3.68 C in a bomb calorimeter that has a heat capacity of 5 o -1 6.43 kJ C ? (Formula weight CH OH = 32.) 4 3 5 -1 -1 -1 A. 55.9 kj mol C. 757 kJ mol E. 368 kJ mol 5 -1 -1 9 B. 923 kJ mol D. 18.3 kJ mol 8135055 E 15 45369 71 The equation for the standard enthalpy of formation of potassium iodide, KI(s), corresponds to which reaction? A. K(s) + 1/2I (g) ---> KI(s) 4 2 B. K(g) + 1/2I (g) ---> KI(s) 4 2 C. K(g) + I(g) ---> KI(s) D. K(s) + 1/2I (l) ---> KI(s) 4 2 E. K(s) + 1/2I (s) ---> KI(s) 94 2 8135056 E 15 45374 71 All of the following would be expected to have enthalpy of formation values of zero except: A. P (s) B. S (s) C. graphite(s) D. O (g) E. I(s) 94 4 8 2 8135057 A 15 45377 71 5 o Calculate the enthalpy change, /\H , for the combustion of C H (g): 3 __ 4 3 6 5 o C H (g) + 9/2 O (g) ---> 3CO (g) + 3H O(l) /\H values in kJ/mol 4 3 6 2 2 2 -- f are as follows: C H (g) = 21, CO (g)=-394, H O(l)=-286 4 3 8 2 2 9 A. -2061 kJ B. -2019 kJ C. -701 kJ D. 2019 kJ E. 2061 kJ 8137001 D 15 40173 31 0113 12 ETS2WVW The compression of a gas is adiabatic if A. the temperature is lowered during compression B. heat is removed as fast as it is formed C. the temperature is held constant D. no heat is removed or added from an outside source 9 E. heat is added from an outside source 8137002 C 14 40177 51 070604720538 0043 When an ideal gas is suddenly allowed to expand adiabatically into an evacuated container: 9 A. delta S = 0 B. delta V = 0 C. delta E = 0 D. delta P = 0 8137003 B 15 40180 52 A gas expands from 1.5 to 4.5 liters against a constant pressure of 0.20 atm. If it simultaneously absorbs 50 Joules of heat, /\ E for the gas is (101 J = 1 L-atm) 3__ 9 A. -59 J B. -10 J C. 69 J D. -69 J E. 10 J 8137004 D 15 45366 71 All of the following have a standard enthalpy of formation value of 5 o zero at 25 C and 1.00 atm except: A. Cl (g) B. Fe(s) C. Ne(g) D. N(g) E. Hg(l) 94 2 8150001 B 14 40183 31 0735 2WVW Free energy is defined as A. G = H + TS B. G = H - TS C. delta G = delta H + delta S 9 D. G = H - T (delta S) 8150003 D 15 40185 51 04070159 2 OS The driving force of a chemical reaction is most closely related to the concept of A. heat of formation C. entropy E. catalysts 9 B. heat of reaction D. free energy 8150004 B 14 40188 51 028407351291 0043 The definition of free energy is that it is equal to: 9 A. E - TS B. H - TS C. S - TH D. S - TE. 8150005 A 14 40190 52 030608700735 0043 Given that the standard entropies of Na(s), Cl (g), and NaCl(s) 4 2 5 -1 -1 at 25 degrees C are 51.0, 223, and 72.4 Joules mole deg , respectively, the standard free energy of formation of NaCl(s) at 25 degrees C is: A. 384 kilojoules/mole B. 361 kilojoules/mole 9 C. 342 kilojoules/mole D. 308 kilojoules/mole. 8150006 A 14 40196 52 073501920375 0043 If the molar free energy of a substance at 25 degrees C is 1.72 kilojoules less than its standard molar free energy at the same temperature, the activity of the substance is: 9 A. 0.50 B. 0.60 C. 0.70 D. 0.80 8150007 D 14 40199 52 073509850407 0009 The free energy of formation of AgCl is -109.5 kJ/mol. /\ G 3 __ for the reaction: 2 AgCl(s) -----> 2 Ag(s) + Cl (g) is: 4 2 9 A. -219.0 kJ B. -110.8 kJ C. +109.5 kJ D. +219.0 kJ 8150008 D 15 40203 52 1 07350649903395 IU Using the data in Figure 33, the standard free energy change for the transfer of two electrons from nitrite to oxygen is A. -9 kcal B. -12 kcal C. -15 kcal D. -18 kcal 9 E. -21 kcal 8151001 C 15 40206 31 073504070729 2WVW If the change in free energy of a reaction is negative and the change in enthalpy of the same reaction is positive, the change in entropy must be A. zero B. infinity C. positive D. negative 9 E. this is impossible 8151002 B 14 40210 31 040708720729 2WVW All reactions which proceed with _____ will not occur spontaneously. A. an enthalpy decrease and an entropy increase B. an enthalpy increase and an entropy decrease C. an enthalpy decrease with no change in entropy 9 D. none of these 8151005 A 15 40214 52 040707340407 0042 Assuming a reaction in which delta H and delta S are both positive, then delta F for the reaction may be: A. either positive or negative B. only negative 9 C. only positive D. only zero E. infinite 8151006 C 14 40217 51 048204070735 0043 All spontaneous reactions: A. are exothermic B. are fast 9 C. have delta G < 0 D. have delta H < 0 8151007 B 14 40219 51 068304820870 0043 If an endothermic reaction occurs spontaneously at constant T and P, then the following must be true: 9 A. delta G > 0 B. delta S > 0 C. delta H < 0 D. delta E < 0 8151008 D 14 40222 31 078506550226 0026 Which of the following would be an easy reaction to reverse? A. 2Na + Cl ----> 2NaCl 4 2 B. S + O -----> SO 4 2 2 fire C. paper -----> CO + H O 4 2 2 D. hemoglobin + O -----> oxyhemoglobin 94 2 8151009 B 15 40226 32 04070482 0020 Will the following reaction occur spontaneously as written? 5 - - 2Cl + Br (l) <====> Cl (g) + 2Br 4 2 2 A. Yes B. No C. Sometimes D. More information needed in the equation 9 E. Perhaps 8151010 D 14 40230 52 040708010482 0009 For the reaction at 25 degrees C and 1 atm: CH (g) + 2O (g) -----> CO (g) + 2H O(l), 4 4 2 2 2 which one of the following statements is not true? A. The reaction is exothermic B. The reaction is spontaneous C. Delta G < 0 9 D. Work has to be done to make the reaction go 8151011 B 14 40235 52 055408081503 0009 When aniline dissolves in hexane, delta S is positive. Why then is aniline only slightly soluble in hexane at room temperature? choose the best thermodynamic explanation. A. An equilibrium is reached, at which point, delta G = 0 B. Delta H is positive C. The intermolecular forces in the two liquids are quite different 9 D. The formation of a solution is always a spontaneous process 8151012 A 15 40241 31 015908700482 0040 Four processes occur and the following changes take place in enthalpy and entropy. Which process is without doubt spontaneous? A. Enthalpy decrease, entropy increase B. Enthalpy decrease, entropy decrease C. Enthalpy increase, entropy increase D. Enthalpy increase, entropy decrease 9 E. No correct response is given. 8151013 A 15 40246 31 015908700653 0040 At 20 degrees C a sample of vapor spontaneously condenses to a liquid. This change in state is accompanied by which of the following changes in the sample? A. Entropy and energy decrease B. Entropy and energy increase C. Entropy decrease and energy increase D. Entropy increase and energy decrease 9 E. No correct response is given. 8151014 E 15 40251 31 048208700159 0040 In general, spontaneous reactions occur when a system A. lowers its energy B. increases its entropy C. lowers energy and entropy D. increases energy and entropy 9 E. No correct response is given. 8151015 C 15 40254 31 048201590870 0040 When a certain salt is dissolved in water, heat is given up. The fact that the process occurs spontaneously is probably due to A. An energy increase B. An entropy increase C. An energy decrease and entropy increase D. An energy decrease and entropy decrease 9 E. No correct response is given. 8153001 A 15 40259 32 02890245016113 ETS2WVW In the action AB<===> A + B + 80,000 cal. A. The value of the equilibrium constant K changes with changes of temperature B. increase in the concentration of B changes the value of K C. the escape of B as a gas decreases the concentration of A, if AB and A are in solution D. increase of temperature shifts the equilibrium point to the right, if all the substances are gases 9 E. positive catalysts shift the equilibrium point 8153002 B 14 40266 31 02450735 2WVW If the equilibrium constant K is greater than one, the change in free energy will be A. positive B. negative C. zero 9 D. need more data 8153003 A 14 40269 31 02450735 2WVW If the equilibrium constant K is less than one, the change in free energy will be A. positive B. negative C. zero 9 D. need more data 8153004 B 14 40272 31 073504070245 2WVW If the standard change in free energy for a reaction is positive, then K (the equilibrium constant for the reaction) will be A. greater than one B. less than one C. negative 9 D. need more data 8153005 A 14 40275 31 040707350245 2WVW If the change in free energy for a reaction is negative, then K (the equilibrium constant for the reaction) will be A. greater than one B. less than one C. negative 9 D. need more data 8153006 B 14 40278 31 02450735 2WVW If the equilibrium constant K is greater than one, the change in free energy will be A. positive B. negative C. zero 9 D. need more data 8153010 B 14 40281 51 024508710735 0043 For any system at equilibrium at constant T and P: A. delta S = 0 B. delta G = 0 9 C. delta H = 0 D. delta E = 0. 8153011 D 14 40283 51 016102270407 0043 At a given temperature the value of the equilibrium constant for a reaction can be calculated from the balanced equation and: 5 o 9 A. delta H B. delta G C. delta E D. delta G 8153012 A 14 40287 51 073504070245 0043 Delta G for a reaction equals zero if: A. the system is at equilibrium B. all activities are unity 9 C. no heat is evolved or absorbed D. delta S = 0. 8153013 D 14 40290 51 12910735 0043 RT ln(K) equals: 5 o o 9 A. delta G B. delta G C. - delta G D. - delta G . 8153014 C 14 40292 52 073504070227 0043 If the standard free-energy change for a reaction is 1.00 kilojoule at 500 degrees C, then the value of the equilibrium constant for the reaction at that temperature is: 9 A. 0.52 B. 0.58 C. 0.85 D. 0.98 8153015 C 14 40295 52 022704070735 0043 5 3 If the equilibrium constant for a given reaction is 1.0x10 at 400 K, then the standard free-energy change for the reaction at that temperature is: A. -2.40 kilojoules B. -42.0 kilojoules 9 C. -23.0 kilojoules D. -68.1 kilojoules. 8153016 B 15 40299 52 040702450870 0044 In the following reaction: Mg + 1/2 O -----> MgO 4 (s) 2(g) (s) 5 o o delta H = -144 kcal/mole delta G = -136 kcal/mole Which of the following is true? A. The large enthalpy insures that this reaction will spontaneously occur at any temperature. B. The equilibrium is displaced toward the products because the unfavorable entropy change is more than overcome by the large favorable enthalpy change. C. Since the spontaneity of this reaction is common knowledge, the entropy of the system must increase. D. The reaction is not spontaneous because it is accompanied by a decrease in entropy. E. The bright light emitted proves that the reaction is spontaneous since the photons are emitted by electrons 9 dropping to lower energy levels. 8153017 C 15 40311 52 040701380245 0044 Given the following reaction: Y + 2 W <=====> 2Z what concentration of Z will be equilibrium with 1.74 moles/liter of Y and .775 moles/liter of W if the equilibrium 5 5 constant = 4.55 x 10 ? 5 5 4.55 x 10 5 A. ------------ B. (4.55 x 10 )(.775)(1.74) (.775)(1.74) 5 5 1/2 (.775)(1.74) C. ((1.74)(4.55 x 10 )) (0.775) D. ____________ 5 5 4.55 x 10 9 E. none of the above. 8153018 C 15 40319 52 024501130485 0044 Consider the following gas phase equilibrium system: PCl <=====> PCl + Cl delta H = +22.2 kcal 4 5 3 2 which of the following statements is not correct? 3 ___ A. Increasing the concentration of PCl will cause the 4 5 equilibrium to shift to the right. B. Increasing the temperature will shift the equilibrium to the right. C. A catalyst speeds up the approach to equilibrium and shifts the position of equilibrium. D. When the total pressure of the system is decreased, the equilibrium is shifted to the right. E. The entropy change in this reaction favors the formation of 9 products. 8153019 D 15 40329 52 040707710245 0044 Given the reaction: 5 o 2XY <=====> X + Y K = 0.0317 at 371 K. 4 (g) 2(g) 2(g) P 3.36 moles of XY are injected into a 8.18 liter container at 5 o 371 K. What is the partial pressure of XY when equilibrium is reached? A. 1.89 atm B. 12.5 atm C. 1.64 atm D. 9.22 atm 9 E. more information is required. 8153020 D 15 40335 52 040702450553 0044 4.06 moles of XY were injected into a 2.82 liter container at 4 (g) 5 o 344 K. The following reaction was allowed to reach equilibrium: 2XY <=====> X + Y 4 (g) 2(g) 2(g) At equilibrium, 1.64 moles of xy remained. What is K for this 4 p 5 o reaction at 344 K? 9 A. 0.740 B. 0.896 C. 1.48 D. 0.547 E. 2.19 8153021 B 15 40341 52 024504070485 0044 Consider the equilibrium: C + CO <=====> 2 CO delta H = 41 kcal 4 (s) 2(g) (g) Which of the following changes will have NO effect; that is, will not cause the reaction to proceed to either the right or left? A. Increase the temperature. B. Add a catalyst C. Selectively absorb the CO by reaction with sodium hydroxide 4 2 solution D. Selectively absorb the CO by reaction with cuprous chloride solution 9 E. None of the above. 8153022 B 15 40348 52 024504070647 0044 Consider the equilibrium: PCl <=====> PCl + Cl delta H = 22 kcal 4 5(g) 3(g) 2(g) Which of the following changes will cause the reaction to shift to the left? A. Pump in more PCl B. Pump in more Cl 4 5 2 C. Increase the temperature D. Pump in an inert gas at constant volume 9 E. None of the above. 8153023 B 15 40354 52 024504070647 0044 Consider the equilibrium: 4NH + 3 O <=====> 2N + 6H O delta H = -303 kcal 4 3(g) 2(g) 2(g) 2 (g) Which of the following changes will cause the reaction to shift to the right? A. Pump in more H O B. Decrease the temperature 4 2 C. Increase the pressure D. Selectively absorb the O by reaction with an active metal 4 2 surface 9 E. None of the above. 8153024 A 15 40361 52 024502270407 0044 The equilibrium constant K for the reaction A + B <=====> C + D delta H = -1.16 kcal 5 o o was found to be 12100 at 461 K. Calculate K at 450 K. 5 4 4 4 A. 1.25 X 10 B. 2.27 x 10 C. 1.21 x 10 5 -5 2 9 D. 8.52 x 10 E. 1.62 x 10 8153025 E 15 40366 52 022704070729 0044 The equilibrium constant K for the reaction A + B <=====> C + D was measured at two temperatures, with the results tabulated below. 5 o | Temperature, K | 935 869 4 -----------------------------|----------------------------- 5 | 2 2 Equilibrium constant, K | 0.28 x 10 2.31 x 10 Calculate delta H in kilocalories for the reaction, assuming that delta H and delta S are essentially constant in this temperature range. 9 A. -0.00256 B. -10300 C. 1220 D. -1220 E. -25.6 8153026 A 14 40375 52 152107291409 0009 What would you predict to be the conditions that would favor maximum conversion of noxious nitric oxide and carbon monoxide: NO(g) + CO(g) <=====> 1/2 N (g) + CO (g), /\H = -89.3 kcal? 4 2 2 -- A. low T, high P B. high T, high P 9 C. low T, low P D. high T, low P 8153027 C 14 40380 52 040702450729 0009 5 1 atm For a certain reaction, delta H = +2.5 kcal, delta S = 10 cal/mole-K. This reaction will be at equilibrium at 1 atm at about A. 0.25 degrees C B. 25 degrees C 9 C. -23 degrees C D. cannot tell 8153028 C 14 40384 52 016204070735 0009 5 o For a certain redox reaction, E is positive. This means that: 5 o o o o A. /\G >0, K>1 B. /\G >0, K<1 C. /\G <0, K>1 D. /\G <0, K<1 93 __ __ __ __ 8153101 D 15 40388 52 073502270407 0044 Given the values for the standard free energies of formation tabulated below, calculate the equilibrium constant for the reaction: 3 H + N <=====> 2 NH 4 2(g) 2(g) 3(g) Compound NH 4 3 5 o delta G (formation) kilocalories per mole -3.98 5 -6 9 A. 2.71 B. 1.55 x 10 C. 0.287 D. 646000 E. 0.00124 8153102 C 15 40395 52 040701140245 0020 In which of the following reactions will an increase of pressure shift the equilibrium to the right? A. H (g) + Cl (g) <====> 2HCl(g) 4 2 2 B. 2N O (g) <====> 2N (g) + 3O (g) 4 2 3 2 2 C. CO(g) + Cl (g) <====> COCl (g) 4 2 2 D. H (g) + Br (g) <====> 2HBr(g) 4 2 2 9 E. none of these 8153103 D 14 40400 52 073507330161 0009 The free energy of formation of CO is -32.8 kcal/mole at 25 degrees C; its heat of formation is -26.4 kcal/mole. As the temperature is increased, delta G will 4 f A. remain unchanged B. go through zero 9 C. become less negative D. become more negative 8153301 D 15 40404 31 011401101172 0020 A pressure increase A. has no effect on the solubility of liquids in liquids B. increases the solubility of a gas in a liquid C. does not alter the solubility of a solid in a liquid D. all the above are correct 9 E. none of the above are correct 8153701 D 15 40408 52 031801610407 0020 What effect does an increase in temperature have on the reaction: A + B <=====> C + D + heat ? A. Shift to right, K increases B. Shift to left, K increases C. Shift to right, K decreases D. Shift to left, K decreases 9 E. No effect 8153702 C 14 40412 51 141413680735 0009 Which one of the following statements best describes the relationship between delta G and temperature? A. delta G is independent of T B. delta G varies with T C. delta G is a linear function of T 9 D. delta G usually decreases with T 8155001 B 14 40416 72 017201860114 0009 The melting point of benzene at 1 atmosphere is 5.5 degrees C. The density of liquid benzene is 0.90 g/ml; that of the solid is 1.0 g/ml. At an applied pressure of 10 atm, the melting point of benzene A. is equal to 5.5 degrees C B. is slightly greater than 5.5 degrees C C. is slightly less than 5.5 degrees C D. The direction of the pressure effect cannot be estimated 9 from the information given. 8170001 B 15 40422 31 087008710418 2WVW The entropy of a system is a measure of A. order B. disorder C. heat D. work 9 E. enthalpy 8170002 B 14 40424 31 040708720729 2WVW All reactions which proceed with ________ will occur spontaneously. A. an enthalpy decrease and an entropy decrease B. an enthalpy decrease and an entropy increase C. an enthalpy increase and an entropy increase 9 D. an enthalpy increase and an entropy decrease 8170003 B 15 40428 31 087008710418 2WVW The entropy of a system is a measure of A. order B. disorder C. heat D. work 9 E. enthalpy 8170005 D 14 40430 51 017408700438 0043 When a liquid boils, the following is always true: A. delta S < 0 B. delta T > 0 9 C. delta T < 0 D. delta S > 0. 8170006 E 15 40432 52 04070870 0044 Which of the following reactions shows the least change in entropy? A. 3Fe O -----> 2Fe O + 1/2 O 4 2 3(s) 3 4(s) 2(g) B. NH NO ---->2 H O + N 4 4 2(s) 2 (g) 2(g) C. C H -----> C H + 2 H 4 6 10(g) 6 6(g) 2(g) D. HgCl + 2 Na ----> 2 NaCl + Hg 4 2(s) (s) (s) (l) E. Ag O + H ---->2 Ag + H O 94 2 (s) 2(g) (s) 2 (g) 8170007 C 14 40439 52 04070870 51 9000 Of the following reactions, which would most likely be accompanied by the largest increase in entropy? 5 o A. 2H (g) + O (g) ---->2 H O(g) (at 100 C) 4 2 2 2 5 ++ = o B. Ca + CO -----> CaCO (s) (in water solution at 25 c) 4 3 3 5 o C. N (l) -----> N (g) (at -220 C) 4 2 2 5 o D. H O(g) -----> H O (l) (at 100 C) 94 2 2 8170008 C 15 40447 31 087009870989 0018 An important thermodynamic function derived from the second law and used to measure randomness or disorder is A. heat B. potential energy C. entropy D. efficiency 9 E. none of these 8170009 C 14 40450 51 008708701174 0009 Of the following 1.0 M solutions, which has the greatest molar entropy? A. NaCl B. CuCl C. AlCl D. (Co(NH ) Cl)Cl 94 2 3 3 5 2 8170010 C 15 40453 52 117208700553 0019 In which of the following situations is the increase in entropy expected to be greatest? A. One mole of water vaporizes B. One mole of ice melts C. One mole of ice sublimes D. One mole of salt precipitates from one mole of water 9 E. One mole of water is used to make jello 8170011 C 15 40458 31 087005040987 0040 Which of the following responses correctly arranges the states of matter for a pure substance in order of increasing entropy? A. Gas, liquid, solid B. Liquid, solid, gas C. Solid, liquid, gas D. Solid, gas, liquid 9 E. Gas, solid, liquid. 8170012 A 14 40462 52 08700553 0009 Which of the following would you expect to have the lowest entropy per mole? A. Li(s) B. Li(g) C. LiCl(s) D. Cl (s) 94 2 8170013 C 14 40465 72 11510172 0009 The heat of fusion of benzene is 2.55 kcal/mole. Its melting 5 o point is 5 C. /\S for the melting of benzene, in cal/mol-K, is 3 __ 9 A. .00917 B. 0.51 C. 2.55 D. 9.17 E. 12.8 8170014 A 14 40468 52 0870 0009 For which of the following would you expect delta S to be nearest zero? A. C(s) + O (g) -----> CO (g) 4 2 2 B. 2 SO (g) + O (g) -----> 2 SO (g) 4 2 2 3 C. CaSO (s) + 2 H O(l) -----> CaSO .2 H O(s) 4 4 2 4 2 D. CO(g) + 1/2 O (g) -----> CO (g) 94 2 2 8170015 C 14 40473 52 040707290870 0009 For a certain reaction, delta H is 20 kcal and delta G at 25 degrees C is 14 kcal. Delta S in cal/mole K is approximately0 9 A. +6000 B. -6000 C. +20 D. -20 8170016 C 15 40476 51 098714140871 0034 The second law of thermodynamics is given best by the statement A. an object cannot be made simultaneously hot at one end and cold at the other B. a process tends to occure spontaneously in the direction that yields the more perfect arrangement C. systems tend to change in the direction that brings all of the components of the system to the same temperature and pressure D. the total energy of a system cannot change E. the energy of a system can change only at the expense of its 9 mass 8170017 A 15 40484 51 02900870 0034 The warming up of a rubber band on stretching may be explained as A. the conversion of entropy into heat B. the conversion of entropy into potential energy C. the conversion of kinetic energy into entropy D. the conversion of potential energy into entropy 9 E. the conversion of kinetic energy into potential energy 8170018 C 14 40489 52 0870 0003 If the heat of vaporization of water at its normal boiling point is 9.72 kcal per mole, what is the entropy change of 1 mole of water which is condensed reversibly from gas to liquid at 100 degrees C? A. -97.2 cal/mole-deg 5 -2 B. -2.61 x 10 cal/mole-deg C. -26.1 cal/mole-deg 9 D. 97.2 cal/mole-deg 8170019 D 14 40494 52 08700172 0003 The molar heat of fusion of ammonia is 1.351 kcal per mole, and the entropy increase for melting solid ammonia is 6.914 cal per mole-deg. What is the melting point of ammonia? A. 5.12 degrees C B. 195 degrees C 9 C. -195 degrees C D. -78 degrees C 8170020 C 14 40498 52 08700172 0003 When 1 g of benzene freezes reversibly, its enthalpy decreases by 30.1 cal and its entropy decreases by 0.108 cal per deg. What is the freezing point of benzene? A. -267 degrees C B. 395 degrees C 9 C. 6 degrees C D. 267 degrees C 8170021 A 14 40502 31 08700172 0003 If delta H of vaporization of water is 9.72 kcal per mole, what is delta G for boiling 1 mole of water at 1 atm reversibly? A. 0 cal/mole B. 26.1 cal/mole 5 3 9 C. 9.72 x 10 cal/mole D. 9.72 kcal/mole 8170022 A 14 40505 31 08700172 0003 If delta H of fusion of ice is 1.44 kcal per mole, what is delta G for melting 1 mole of ice at 0 degrees C? A. 0 cal/mole B. 1.44 kcal/mole 9 C. 5.27 cal/mole D. 5.27 kcal/mole 8170023 D 14 40508 52 08700172 0003 If delta H of fusion of ice is 1.44 kcal per mole, what is delta G for melting 1 mole of ice at -20 degrees C? A. 0 cal/mole B. 5.27 cal/mole 9 C. 1.33 cal/mole D. 110 cal/mole 8170024 B 14 40511 52 08700172 0003 If delta G of fusion of ice is 1.44 kcal per mole, what is delta G for melting 1 mole of ice at +20 degrees C? A. 154 cal/mole B. -110 cal/mole 9 C. -154 cal/mole D. -100 cal/mole 8170025 B 14 40514 51 167002860161 0041 In the operation of a heat engine heat is taken in at a particular temperature and A. is completely converted into mechanical energy B. is partly converted into mechanical energy and partly exhausted at a lower temperature C. is partly converted into mechanical energy and partly exhausted at the same temperature D. is partly converted into mechanical energy and partly 9 exhausted at a higher temperature 8170026 C 14 40520 52 1946 0057 The boiling point of mercury is 357 degree C. The heat of vapori- zation is 70.8 cal per gram. Calculate the change in entropy, /\S, at the boiling point in cal/gram-atom-deg. 3__ 9 A. 5.04 B. 8.90 C. 22.5 D. 39.8 8200001 A 14 40523 51 1551 0003 Doping germanium with a small quantity of boron might be expected to produce: A. a p-type semiconductor B. an n-type semiconductor C. an n-p junction 9 D. an excess of electrons 8210001 E 15 40526 32 02090087016011 ETS2WVW When hydrochloric acid is placed in water the solution will conduct a current. In so doing A. the H(+) goes to the anode and there gains an electron B. the Cl(-) is reduced C. molecules of HCl are neutralized D. the HCl is not used up 9 E. the valence of the chlorine is changed 8210002 B 15 40530 32 01050008023511 ETS2WVW If we had some hydrogen chloride (HCl) dissolved in water (hydrogen chloride is a strong acid) and we placed two platinum wires in the water, one charged negatively and the other positively, which of the following would be correct? A. Nothing would happen. B. Hydrogen gas would be given off at the negative wire. C. Chlorine gas would be given off at the negative wire. D. Both hydrogen and chlorine gases would be given off at the negatively charged wire. E. Nothing would be expected to happen at the negatively charged 9 wire. 8210003 A 15 40538 32 00080087008911 ETS2WVW A condition which is necessary in order that a water solution conduct an electric current is that A. the substance being placed in the water as the electrolyte must ionize B. the substance being placed in the water as the electrolyte must be a compound in which all composing elements are non-metals C. the compound in solution must be one formed by sharing electrons D. a chemical change must not take place during the process of conduction 9 E. hydration must occur 8210004 E 15 40545 32 05990066 11 ETS2WVW To test whether an unknown compound is formed by sharing electrons or by electron transfer, the best procedure would be to A. find out its percentage composition B. test its combustibility C. determine whether the compound has an electric charge D. test the solubility of the substance 9 E. test the electrical conductivity of its water solution 8210005 E 15 40550 32 00130077007011 ETS2WVW In the electrolysis of water, the addition of an acid affects the reaction by influencing A. oxidation-reduction B. polymerization C. the degree of isomerism D. the temperature at which water boils 9 E. ionization 8210006 D 15 40554 32 00130196057411 ETS2WVW In the electrolysis of an aqueous solution of sodium chloride A. an asbestos diaphragm is used to reduce heat losses B. equal volumes of hydrogen and chlorine are evolved at cathode and anode respectively C. a very pure solution of sodium hydroxide is produced D. hydrogen appears at the cathode because the sodium discharged there rapidly reacts with water to liberate hydrogen, especially if the electrolyte is hot 9 E. the anode is usually made of zinc 8210007 B 15 40561 32 01960263032711 ETS2WVW When an electric current is passed through a solution of sodium chloride A. chloride ions travel toward the cathode or negative pole B. hydrogen ions gain electrons at the negative pole C. sodium ions gain and hold electrons at the negative pole D. chloride ions form chlorine gas on gain of electrons 9 E. the solution eventually becomes acid 8210008 A 15 40566 51 OS82 5 2+ 2+ The cell Zn(c)/Zn (aq)/Cu (aq)/Cu(c) cannot contain A. a salt bridge D. dissolved ZnCl 4 2 B. a solid Zn electrode E. dissolved CuCl 4 2 9 C. a solid Cu electrode 8210010 E 15 40571 31 118600210030 0042 In a voltaic cell, oxidation occurs at the A. anode B. cathode C. + electrode D. - electrode 9 E. both A and B are correct 8210011 D 15 40573 52 041603060482 0042 Given the standard potentials: 5 2+ - o Fe = Fe + 2e E = +.44 v 5 2+ 3+ - o Fe = Fe + 1e E = -.77 v 5 2+ 2+ - o Hg = 2 Hg + 2e E = -.91 v 4 2 5 o on the basis of only these E values, it is true that 5 2+ 2+ A. Hg will react spontaneously with Fe , 4 2 5 2+ 3+ B. Fe will spontaneously change to Fe , 5 2+ C. Fe will spontaneously reduce Hg , 4 2 5 3+ D. Fe will spontaneously reduce Fe , 5 o 2+ 9 E. the E for the reaction between Fe and Hg is + 3.26 volts. 8210012 B 15 40585 52 040704161167 0042 Given the following reactions and potentials: 5 3+ 2+ 2+ 4+ o 2 Fe + Sn = 2 Fe + Sn E = +.62 5 2+ 4+ - o Sn + I = Sn + 2 I E = +.38 4 2 it follows that: 5 3+ A. Fe would react with I , 4 2 5 - 3+ B. I would react with Fe , 5 2+ C. Fe would react with I , 4 2 5 3+ D. Fe is a poorer oxidizing agent than I , 4 2 5 2+ - 9 E. Fe is a better reducing agent than I . 8210013 D 15 40594 32 181004820407 0042 5 2+ 3+ - o Given: Fe = Fe + e ; E = -0.77 5 - - o 2Br = Br + 2e ; E = -1.06 4 2 5 o the value of E for the spontaneous reaction which will occur is: 9 A. -2.60 B. -1.83 C. +0.48 D. +0.29 E. +1.83 8210014 E 15 40598 51 001304080087 0042 Given that the electrolysis of sodium chloride solution yields H 4 2 gas and Cl gas. The reaction 4 2 5 + A. causes a decrease in the molarity of Na 5 + B. causes an increase in the molarity of Na 5 + C. causes an increase in the H molarity D. yields chlorine at the cathode 9 E. yields hydrogen at the cathode. 8210015 A 14 40605 31 00290574059751 9000 In any electrolytic cell, the cathode is that electrode A. at which reduction occurs B. which attracts anions C. at which electrons are collected from electron donors in the solution 9 D. at which oxidation occurs. 8210016 B 14 40609 51 026300170574 0018 ____________, The loss of electrons, takes place at the _________ A. oxidation...cathode B. reduction...cathode C. oxidation...anode 9 D. reduction...anode 8210017 D 15 40612 52 118605970021 0020 When copper and zinc are placed in solutions of their respective ions and a voltaic cell is constructed. A. Zinc is reduced B. Copper is oxidized C. Reduction occurs at the Cu electrode D. Oxidation occurs at the zinc electrode 9 E. None of these 8210018 C 15 40616 51 118605740030 0020 In the copper-zinc voltaic cell A. copper is the anode B. zinc is the cathode C. copper is the cathode D. zinc is plated out of solution 9 E. none of these 8210019 D 15 40619 31 075103270104 0040 In an electrical cell, the current is carried internally by A. electrons B. positive ions C. negative ions D. More than one response is correct 9 E. No correct response is given. 8210021 B 15 40622 32 075100130253 0040 Which of the following carries electricity from the anode to the cathode in the internal circuit of an electrolysis cell? A. electrons B. positive ions C. negative ions D. water molecules 9 E. No correct response is given. 8210022 B 15 40626 32 001305740017 0040 The following reaction is assumed to take place in an electrolysis cell: 5 2+ - Mg + 2e -----> Mg. Which response below is correct? A. The reaction is an oxidation B. The reaction would take place at the cathode C. The reaction would take place at the anode D. The reaction could not possibly take place in an 9 E. No correct response is given 8210023 B 14 40631 31 133101591535 0009 When the Zn-Cu cell is used to produce electrical energy: A. cations move toward the Zn electrode, anions to the Cu B. cations move toward Cu, anions toward Zn C. cations and anions move toward Zn 9 D. cations and anions move toward Cu 8210024 D 14 40635 52 1946 0057 Of the following oxidizing agents, which one has the largest equivalent weight for the half-reaction given? 5 - - A. Cl + 2e --> 2Cl 4 2 5 - + - - B. 2ClO + 4H + 4e --> 2Cl + 2H O 4 2 5 - + - - C. ClO + 6H + 6e --> Cl + 3H O 4 3 2 5 - + - - D. IO + 2H + 2e --> IO + H O 94 4 3 2 8220001 A 15 40642 32 00320019026311 ETS2WVW Copper ions could be removed from a copper sulfate solution by A. reduction C. filtration E. distillation 9 B. oxidation D. centrifugation 8220002 D 15 40645 32 00890066026311 ETS2WVW Electrolytes are compounds which A. are covalent B. are un-ionized C. are non-polar D. result from transfer of electrons 9 E. result from sharing of electrons 8220003 C 14 40648 32 00130327060011 ETS2WVW Electrolysis is the A. production of electric current by chemical reaction B. production of ions by water C. decomposition of an ionic compound by electric current 9 D. removal of hair by ionic needles 8220004 A 15 40651 32 00890263035111 ETS2WVW Electrolytic conduction involves A. only electron changes between atoms and ions B. alteration of the number of protons in the atoms C. no chemical changes D. alteration of all the particles within the atom 9 E. only the nucleus of the atom 8220005 BBCADBCAB94 40655 31 1 0598001505971290 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2Figure 10 represents a device for plating any metal object through 2use of a direct electric current. In this case the object is to 2be copper plated. After each item number on the answer sheet, 2blacken the one lettered space which designates the part of the 0 diagram to which the item correctly refers. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 The electrode receiving electrons streaming through the wire 1 to which it is connected MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 Electrode where ions may take up electrons MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 3 Ions which may take up electrons and form neutral atoms MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 Electrode which dissolves in accordance with this reaction, 5 2+ - 4 Cu = Cu + 2e MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 5 Ion which plays no part in the reactIon MACRO SUB-ITEM # 6 6 Electrode which is the object to be plated MACRO SUB-ITEM # 7 If silver plating were to be carried out which ion would be 5 + 7 replaced with the Ag ion from a silver compound? MACRO SUB-ITEM # 8 8 In silver plating which electrode would be metallic silver? MACRO SUB-ITEM # 9 9 Which electrode would be the object to be silver plated? 8220006 B 14 40667 52 1946 0057 Which equation is the most reasonable representation of the cath- ode reaction in the electrolysis of aqueous Na SO ? 4 2 4 5 + - A. Na + 1e --> Na 5 - - B. 2H O + 2e --> H (g) + 2OH 4 2 2 5 2- 2- - C. 2SO --> S O + 2e 4 4 2 8 5 + - D. 2H O --> O (g) + 4H + 4e 94 2 2 8220007 C 14 40674 52 00130195019605 The number of liters of Hydrogen (STP) liberated by a flow of 15 amps for three hours is: 9 A. 2 B. 37 C. 18.8 D. 22.4 8220008 B 15 40676 52 07120713 2WVW The cathode reaction in the common flashlight battery is 5 2+ - 2MnO (s) + Zn + 2e ---> ZnMn O (s) 4 2 2 4 How much MnO will be required to manufacture a battery that is 4 2 required to deliver a current of 2.0 milliamperes (ma) for 500 hours? 5 3 (MW: MnO =87, ZnMn O = 240; 1 F=96,500 coulombs; 1 amp=1x10 ma) 4 2 2 4 A. 1.6 g B. 3.2 g C. 8.9 g D. 9.7 g 9 E. 240 g 8220009 D 14 40683 52 2WVW The electrolysis of 72 grams of water will yield A. 8 grams of oxygen B. 9 grams of oxygen C. 36 grams of oxygen 9 D. 64 grams of oxygen 8220010 B 15 40686 52 026300131178 How many electrons are gained by one gram of Cu ion as the result of electrolysis of a CuSO solution? 4 4 5 21 22 22 A. 9.48 x 10 B. 1.90 x 10 C. 3.79 x 10 5 23 9 D. 6.02 x 10 E. Electrons are lost by Cu ions during electrolysis. 8220011 C 14 40691 31 001300080977 0041 The electrolysis of water yields A. gaseous hydrogen only B. gaseous oxygen only 9 C. both gaseous hydrogen and gaseous oxygen D. water vapor 8220012 C 14 40694 32 017815340006 0041 When an electric current is passed through molten sodium chloride, A. sodium metal is deposited at the positive electrode B. sodium ions are deposited at the positive electrode C. chlorine gas is liberated at the positive electrode 9 D. chlorine ions are liberated at the positive electrode 8220013 B 14 40698 32 039801920597 0041 The mass of any substance liberated at an electrode during electrolysis is directly proportional to its 9 A. atomic number B. atomic mass C. valence D. concentration 8220014 D 14 40701 52 018500871702 0041 The amount of charge that must be passed through a solution 5 ++ containing Cu in order to deposit 1 g atom of copper (63.55 g) is 9 A. 1.520 coul B. 3,040 coul C. 96,500 coul D. 193,000 coul 8220015 B 15 40704 52 012501861589 0042 Most babies' christening spoons are plated with about 3.6 g of 5 -3 silver. If the density of silver is 10 g cm , approximately what current, in amps, would be required to plate such a spoon in 20 minutes? (AW: Ag=108; 1 F= 96,500 coulombs) 9 A. 0.27 B. 2.7 C. 9.7 D. 10 E. 160 8220016 E 15 40709 31 074300130713 0042 Faraday's laws for electrolysis state that A. the weight of an element deposited is directly proportional to the quantity of electricity passed through the solution B. the weights of various elements deposited by a given quantity of electricity are proportional to their combining weights C. one coulomb of charge will deposit one mole of metal D. one faraday of charge will always deposit one mole of material 9 E. both A and B are correct 8220017 C 15 40716 52 001600130327 0042 How many grams of aluminum can be deposited electrolytically in 1.0 minute by a current of 40.0 amperes? 9 A. .672 B. .00351 C. .223 D. 4.47 E. 351. 8220018 E 15 40719 32 001303771458 0042 Electrolysis of 1m aqueous solution of copper (II) chloride between inert electrodes produces only chlorine at the anode. If the weight of copper deposited on the cathode is 2.52 grams, the volume of chlorine discharged at stp would be: 9 A. 14.24 1. B. 7.12 1. C. 3.56 1. D. 1.78 1. E. 0.89 1. 8220019 C 15 40723 32 008700130597 0042 A solution of CdSO is electrolyzed between inert electrodes. 4 4 How many hours must a current of 1.75 amperes flow to deposit 11.8 g of cadmium? 9 A. 0.51 B. 1.26 C. 3.22 D. 5.18 E. 6.81 8220020 E 15 40726 52 0013 0087 0047 The same quantity of electricity was passed through two separate electrolytic cells containing solutions of copper sulfate (CuSO ) 4 4 and silver nitrate (AgNO ), respectively. The reactions at the 4 3 cathodes in the two cells are: 5 2+ - first cell: Cu + 2e ---> Cu(s) 5 + - second cell: Ag + e ----> Ag(s) If 3.18 g of Cu were deposited in the first cell, how many grams of Ag were deposited in the second cell? 9 A. 0.936 g B. 2.70 g C. 3.75 g D. 5.40 g E. 10.8 g 8220021 C 14 40734 32 00131188078751 9000 0.536 g AuCl (aq) are converted by electrolysis to metallic Au. 4 2 How many coulombs are required for this process? 9 A. 38.6 B. 193 C. 386 D. 19.3 8220022 A 15 40737 32 000801960013 0020 Water can be shown to consist of two volumes of hydrogen combined with one volume of oxygen in an experiment called A. electrolysis B. ionization C. gasification D. hydration 9 E. none of these 8220023 B 15 40740 32 019501960013 0020 What volume of hydrogen can be obtained from the electrolysis of 100 g of water? A. 249 liters at STP B. 124 liters at STP C. 62 liters at STP D. 93 liters at STP 9 E. none of these 8220024 B 15 40743 32 001300080884 0020 What mass of water is needed to produce 20.0 liters (STP) of hydrogen by means of electrolysis? A. 8.05 g B. 16.1 g C. 1.61 g D. 0.805 g 9 E. none of these 8220025 D 15 40746 51 017800870408 0020 When an electric current is passed through a solution of sodium chloride, the products are A. hydrogen B. hydroxide ions C. chlorine gas 9 D. all of these E. none of these 8220026 E 15 40749 51 027713680178 0034 The person who made important generalizations about the relationship between the amount of electric current passed through a solution and the amount of chemical reaction produced was A. Henry Cavendish B. Humphrey Davy C. Alessandro Volta 9 D. J. Clark Maxwell E. Michael Faraday 8220027 A 15 40753 52 145807430315 2912 IU Approximately how many grams of copper will be deposited from a solution of CuSO by 0.5 faraday of electricity 4 4 A. 16 B. 32 C. 48 D. 64 9 E. 128 8220028 A 15 40756 52 032700870597 2913 IU A current of 0.100 amperes is passed through a cupric sulfate solution for ten minutes, using platinum electrodes. The number of milligrams of copper deposited at the cathode is A. 19.9 B. 29.0 C. 39.8 D. 34.5 9 E. 60.0 8220029 B 15 40760 52 032700871589 IU If a current of 10 amperes is passed through a solution of CuSO for 16 minutes in an electroplating cell, the weight in grams 4 4 of copper deposited is 9 A. 1.58 B. 3.16 C. 6.32 D. 12.64 E. 25.28 8220030 A 15 40764 52 001303271534 2915 IU How many grams of Na will be produced by the electrolysis of molten NaCl by a current of 10 amps for 5 minutes. A. 0.715 B. 2.545 C. 23 D. 96,500 9 E. 2.08 8220031 A 15 40767 52 145811880087 2916 IU Which one of the following weights of nickel metal would be closest to the weight deposited by the passage of 5 2+ 24,125 coulombs through an aqueous solution of Ni A. 7.3 g B. 14.6 g C. 29.2 g D. 3.7 g 9 E. 58.7 g 8220032 E 15 40771 52 03270013 2918 IU An electric current of 2,000 amps flows through a copper electrolyzer. In one hour we can obtain one of the following weights of copper. A. 10 g B. 50 g C. 100 G. D. 500 g 9 E. 2400 G. 8220033 B 14 40774 31 074303850185 0041 The Faraday is a unit of 9 A. mass B. charge C. valence D. polarity 8220034 B 15 40776 52 008700130327 2921 IU When aqueous NaCl solution is electrolyzed, how long (in sec) must a current of 0.010 amp run in order to liberate 0.015 mole of H at the cathode 4 2 5 4 5 4 5 6 9 A. 2x10 B. 2.9x10 C. 2.9x10 D. 2x10 E. 2x10 8220035 C 15 40780 51 OS82 5 - When an electrode reaction converts ReO into ReO , the number 4 2 4 of faradays passed through the circuit per mole ReO is 4 2 9 A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 8230001 A 15 40785 52 04160407 2907 IU 5 + 2+ Calculate the potential for the reaction Mg + 2 H = Mg + H 4 2 5 2+ + when Mg is 0.45 M and H is 0.1 M. (in volts) 9 A. +2.32 B. -2.37 C. +1.65 D. -0.03 E. +45 8230002 A 15 40790 52 04160407 2908 IU 5 2+ 2+ Calculate the potential for the reaction Co + Sn = Co + Sn 5 -10 5 2+ 2+ when Sn is 1 M and Co is 10 M. A. +0.44 volt B. -0.16 volt C. +0.14 volt D. +0.20 volt 9 E. -0.20 volt 8230003 B 15 40795 72 04160407 IU Calculate the potential for the reaction 5 2+ -10 2+ Co(s) + Sn (aq,10 M) <==> Co (aq,1M) + Sn(s) 9 A. +0.44 V B. -0.16 V C. +0.14 V D. -0.46 V E. +0.46 V 8230004 C 15 40799 52 041604070140 2910 IU 5 + 2+ If the potential for the reaction Mg + 2 H = Mg + H is 4 2 5 + 2+ +2.32 volts and H is 0.20 M what is the molarity of Mg 5 -10 9 A. 0.1 M B. 10x10 M C. 1.89 M D. 0.45 M E. 0.045 M 8230005 D 15 40804 52 04160087 2911 IU 5 2+ - 2+ What E do you expect for Pb = Pb + 2 e in 0.015 M Pb 5 o solution (E = +0.1263 V) A. -1.54 volts B. +0.118 volt C. +0.140 volt D. +0.18 volt 9 E. -0.20 volt 8231001 B 15 40808 52 17671627 0044 Given the following hypothetical half-reactions: 5 o Reaction E 5 3+ - 2+ M + e <=====> M -.505 5 2+ - + M + e <=====> M -.339 Which of the following is true? 5 3+ o A. M will disproportionate, E = 0.166 volts. 5 2+ o B. M will disproportionate, E = 0.166 volts. 5 + o C. M will disproportionate, E = -0.166 volts. 5 2+ o D. M will not disproportionate, E = -0.166 volts. 9 E. More information is required. 8231002 C 15 40817 52 059704070482 0044 Given the following standard electrode potentials: 5 o Reaction E 5 3+ Al <=====> Al -1.66 5 - 2+ MnO <=====> Mn 1.51 4 4 5 3+ 2+ Co <=====> Co 1.84 Which one of the reactions below will proceed spontaneously from left to right? (equations below are not necessarily balanced.) 5 2+ - 3+ 2+ A. Co + MnO -----> Co + Mn 4 4 5 2+ 3+ 3+ B. Co + Al -----> Co + Al 5 3+ 3+ 2+ C. Al + Co -----> Al + Co 5 3+ 3+ 2+ D. Al + Co -----> Al + Co 9 E. None of the above. 8231003 D 15 40827 52 059700291178 0044 Given the following standard electrode potentials: 5 o Reaction E 5 + - Li + e <=====> Li -3.05 5 3+ - Cr + 3e <=====> Cr -0.774 concerning the cell: 5 + 3+ Li/Li //Cr /Cr Which one of the statements below is incorrect? (Assume all 3 _________ substances are in the standard state.) A. As time goes on the cell voltage will gradually decrease. B. The following electrode reaction occurs in this cell: 5 3+ - Cr + 3e -----> Cr C. If the standard hydrogen half cell were substituted for the 5 3+ Cr half cell the voltage would be 3.05. 5 + D. Li ions will drift toward Li. 9 E. The cell voltage will be 2.28. 8231004 B 15 40838 52 176702270407 0044 Given the following hypothetical half-reactions: 5 o Reaction E 5 2+ - + M + e <=====> M -.660 5 3+ - 2+ M + e <=====> M -.192 5 o Find the equilibrium constant at 25 C for the reaction 5 2+ 3+ + 2M <=====> M + M A. log K = 7.93 B. log K = -7.93 C. log K = 0.468 9 D. log K = -3.97 E. log K = 3.97 8231005 D 15 40845 52 059700290407 0044 Given the following standard electrode potentials: 5 o Reaction E 5 4+ - 2+ Sn + 2e <=====> Sn 0.150 5 3+ - + Tl + 2e <=====> Tl 1.25 Calculate the potential of the following cell, given the tabulated molarities: 5 2+ 4+ 3+ + (anode) Pt/Sn ,Sn //Tl ,Tl /Pt (cathode) 5 2+ 3+ [Sn ] = .009 M [Tl ] = .001 M 5 4+ + [Sn ] = .900 M [Tl ] = .020 M 9 A. 1.12 B. 1.30 C. 0.90 D. 1.00 E. 1.20 8231006 C 15 40853 52 176704160407 0044 Given the following hypothetical half-reactions: 5 o Reaction E 5 3+ - 2+ M + e <=====> M 0.108 5 5+ - 3+ M + 2e <=====> M -0.444 Calculate the standard half cell potential for the reaction 5 5+ - 2+ M + 3e <=====> M 4 -1 9 A. -.112 B. -.336 C. -.260 D. -.760 x 10 E. .552 8231007 C 15 40859 51 074211860597 0020 What is the expected EMF of a voltaic cell made from a mercury- -mercury(II)ion electrode and a hydrogen electrode? A. 0.00 volts B. -0.85 volts C. +0.85 volts D. +1.70 volts 9 E. -1.70 volts 8231008 A 15 40862 51 059711910087 0020 What is the voltage of a battery consisting of silver and iron 5 + +2 electrodes in contact with 1 M solutions of Ag and Fe ions? A. 1.24 volts B. 0.36 volts C. 0.80 volts D. -0.44 volts 9 E. -0.96 volts 8231009 C 14 40866 52 15360407 0009 5 2+ The standard reduction potentials of Cl and Cu are +1.36 V and 4 2 5 o +0.34 V, respectively. The E value for the reaction: 5 2+ - Cu (aq) 2 Cl (aq) -----> Cu(s) + Cl (g) is 4 2 9 A. -2.38v B. -1.70v C. -1.02v D. +1.70v 8231010 D 14 40872 52 04070583 0009 5 o The E values for the following reactions are known to be positive: 5 2+ 2+ A(s) + B (aq) -----> A (aq) + B(s) 5 2+ 2+ A(s) + C (aq) -----> A (aq) + C(s) 5 2+ at standard concentrations, the reaction between B and c: A. is spontaneous B. is nonspontaneous 9 C. is at equilibrium D. cannot say 8231011 E 15 40878 31 08121536 IU 5 o The symbol E indicates A. standard reduction potential at pH 7 5 + B. standard reduction potential referred to 1 M H C. change in free energy for an oxidation-reduction reaction D. difference in electrode potential 9 E. none of the above. 8231012 D 15 40883 52 119000870306 0044 Given the following standard half-cell potentials in neutral solution: 5 o Reaction E 5 - - 1 e + H O <===> OH + - H (g) -0.414 4 2 2 2 5 + 1 - H O <===> H + - O (g) + 2 e -0.185 4 2 2 2 5 - 3+ 2+ e + M <===> M 0.371 Which of the following statements is correct? 5 3+ A. M is stable in neutral solution. 5 2+ 3+ B. M will reduce H O to give M and O gas. 4 2 2 5 3+ 2+ C. M will reduce H O to give M and H gas. 4 2 2 4 3+ 2+ D. M will oxidize H O to give M and O gas. 4 2 2 5 3+ 2+ E. M will oxidize H O to give M and H gas. 94 2 2 8233001 A 15 40897 52 07120655 2WVW What is the numerical value of the equilibrium constant at 5 o 25 C for the reaction 5 2+ 3+ 3 Cu + 2 Al ---> 2 Al + 3 Cu ? Standard Reduction 3 __________________ Half-reaction Potential, E (volts) 3_____________ ____________________ 5 + - Cu + e <===> Cu 0.52 5 2+ - Cu + 2 e <===> Cu 0.34 5 + - 2 H + 2 e <===> H 0.00 4 2 5 3+ - Al + 3 e <===> Al -1.66 (ln a = 2.303 log a; 5 o 2.303 RT/F = 0.0592 volt at 25 C) 5 +(6(2.00)/0.0592) +202 A. 10 = 10 5 +(6(1.32/3.3592) +134 B. 10 = 10 5 +(3(2.00)/0.0592) +101 C. 10 = 10 5 +(3(1.32)/0.0592) +67 D. 10 = 10 5 +(2.00/0.0592) +34 9 E. 10 = 10 8233002 E 15 40913 52 0753 2WVW What is the numerical value of the equilibrium constant for a 5 o reaction whose standard cell potential, E , is +2.07 volts? 5 o (ln a = 2.303 log a; 2.303 RT/F = 0.0592 volt at 25 C) 5 -(2.07/0.0592) -35 A. 10 = 10 (approx.) 5 -(0.0592 x 2.07) -12 B. 10 = 10 (approx.) 5 -(0.0592/2.07) -0.0286 C. 10 = 10 5 +(2.07/0.0592 35 D. 10 = 10 (approx.) 9 E. Insufficient information; the reaction must be known. 8233003 B 14 40922 52 119104070029 0009 It is possible to increase the voltage of a cell in which the reaction is 5 2+ 2+ Zn(s) + Cu (aq) -----> Zn (aq) + Cu(s) by 5 2+ A. increasing the concentration of Zn 5 2+ B. increasing the concentration of Cu C. increasing the size of the Zn electrode 9 D. increasing the size of the Cu electrode 8235001 C 15 40928 31 01960015007713 ETS2WVW A certain metal will liberate hydrogen from dilute acids although it does so from water only when the metal is strongly heated and the water is in the form of steam. With relation to the activity series of the metals, this metal A. is high in the series B. probably stands close to and below hydrogen C. probably stands close to and above hydrogen D. is below mercury and copper 9 E. is below silver 8235002 EAEBA 55 40934 31 0002001600091390 ETS2WVW MACROITEM STEM 2The better known metallic K 2elements are arranged at the right in the Na 2"activity series." After each item number on Ca 2the answer sheet, blacken space Mg 2 A. if the item is true of sodium (Na) Al 2 B. if the item is true of aluminum (Al). Zn 2 C. if the item is true of iron (Fe) Fe 2 D. if the item is true of hydrogen (H) Sn 2 E. if the item is true of silver (Ag) H 2 Cu 2 Hg 2 Ag 02 Au MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 This element displaces only gold (Au) from its compounds MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 This element releases hydrogen rapidly even from cold water. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 3 This is a "noble" metal. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 Calcium (Ca) would displace this metal from its salts, but zinc (Zn) 4 would not. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 This element has the greatest tendency of those listed to lose 9 electrons and to become a positive ion. 8235003 EEDBCE 65 40949 31 1390 ETS2WVW MACROITEM STEM 2The better known metallic K 2elements are arranged at the right in the Na 2"activity series." After each item number on Ca 2the answer sheet, blacken space Mg 2 A. if the item is true of sodium (Na) Al 2 B. if the item is true of aluminum (Al). Zn 2 C. if the item is true of iron (Fe) Fe 2 D. if the item is true of hydrogen (H) Sn 2 E. if the item is true of silver (Ag) H 2 Cu 2 Hg 2 Ag 02 Au MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 The ions of this element have the greatest tendency of those 1 listed to take electrons and thereby turn back into the metal. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 This element would be more likely than any other to be found in 2 nature in elementary form. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 The ions of this element can take electrons from tin (Sn) but not 3 from mercury (Hg). MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 When mixed in powdered form with iron oxide and ignited (the 4 thermite process), this metal replaces the iron in the oxide. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 This element releases hydrogen from acids, but less readily than any 5 of the other metals listed above. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 6 9 This metal will not displace hydrogen from HCl. 8235004 DDB 35 40967 51 0040019600391290 ETS2WVW MACROITEM STEM 2The following questions refer to the electromotive series. In 2the series, hydrogen is listed at zero potential. Above hydrogen 2the potentials increase positively and below it the potentials 2increase in the negative sense, e.g., Al has a potential of +1.67 2while gold has a potential of -1.68. Zn will displace H from 2dilute acids and Zn will displace Ag from salts of Ag. The tendency 2to go to the reduced state increases as one proceeds from top to 2bottom in the series, while the tendency to go to the oxidized 2state increases from gold to sodium. 2 Partial list of series 2Na-sodium Pb-lead 2Mg-magnesium h-hydrogen 2Al-aluminum Cu-copper 2Zn-zinc Ag-silver 2Fe-iron Au-gold 0 Sn-tin MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 In chemical reaction one might predict that A. Cu will displace H from acids B. Cu will displace pb from Pb salts C. H with zero potential is inert D. Sn will displace Cu from Cu salts 1 E. Au is more readily oxidized than Al MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 The positions of gold and sodium indicate that A. gold is relatively soft, sodium is not B. sodium is non-metallic, gold is not C. sodium has a complete outer ring of electrons, gold does not D. gold is resistant to corrosion, sodium is not 2 E. sodium is an integral part of acid salts, gold is not MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 Which one of the following expressions is impossible according to the theory of the electromotive series? (Some of these may not be balanced.) A. Zn + SnCl --> ZnCl + Sn 4 2 2 B. Fe + AlCl ---> FeCl + Al 4 3 3 C. Na + H O ---> NaOH + H 4 2 2 5 2+ 2+ D. Zn + Cu ---> Zn + Cu 9 E. None of the above is impossible. 8235005 B 15 40990 32 071207420227 2WVW What is the reaction with the largest equilibrium constant (assuming 1-molar concentrations) for the following cell 5 2+ 3+ Zn/Zn //Fe /Fe Standard Reduction 3 _____________________ Half-reaction Potential, E (volts) 3_____________ ____________________ 5 3+ - 2+ Fe + e <===> Fe 0.77 5 + - O + 2H + 2e <===> H O 0.68 4 2 2 2 5 + - 2H + 2e <===> H 0.00 4 2 5 2+ - Fe + 2e <===> Fe -0.44 5 3+ 2+ 2+ A. Zn + 2 Fe ---> 2 Fe + Zn 5 3+ 2+ B. 3Zn + 2Fe ---> 2 Fe + 3 Zn 5 2+ 3+ 2+ C. Zn + 2 Fe ---> Zn + 2 Fe 5 2+ 2+ D. Zn + Fe ---> Zn + Fe 5 + 2+ E. Zn + 2H ---> Zn + H 94 2 8235006 C 15 41004 72 075105970087 0042 An electrochemical cell has a cadmium electrode dipping into a 1.0 M solution of Cd(NO ) and an inert platinum electrode 4 3 2 dipping into a solution which is 1.0 M in both Fe(NO ) and 4 3 2 Fe(NO ) . When the cell is generating current which statement is 4 3 3 correct? A. Cadmium ions are reduced at the cathode. B. Electrons are flowing into the outer circuit from the platinum electrode. 5 3+ C. Concentration of the Fe is decreasing. D. The platinum electrode is the anode. 5 2+ 9 E. The concentration of Cd is decreasing. 8235007 D 15 41013 32 001501960077 0020 Which of the following metals will not displace hydrogen from an acid solution? A. Hg B. Au C. Pt D. none of these 9 E. all of these 8240002 A 15 41016 52 07430712 2WVW At 400 deg. C. the Li/LiCl/Cl cell has a voltage of 3.4 volts. 4 2 The energy requirement for an urban automobile is estimated to be 5 10 1.2 x 10 Joules for a year. This corresponds to how many Faradays? Assume the cell is 100% efficient. 5 4 (F = 9.6 x 10 coulombs) 5 4 A. 3.7 x 10 5 4 B. 6.1 x 10 5 5 C. 1.2 x 10 5 9 D. 5.9 x 10 10 9 E. 1.2 x 10 8240003 A 15 41023 31 055302630743 0020 One mole of electrons is called A. a Faraday B. an ohm C. a coulomb D. an ampere 9 E. a volt 8240004 B 15 41025 31 118711881189 0020 Amperes are A. units of EMF B. coulombs per second C. volts times ohms D. units of resistance 9 E. coulombs times seconds 8240005 C 15 41027 31 047607420418 0020 Volts measure A. electrical resistance B. quantity of electricity C. EMF D. coulombs times seconds 9 E. Faradays per second 8240006 EA 25 41029 52 0386047604161390 ETS2WVW MACROITEM STEM 2A certain 60-watt light bulb is designed to operate 120 volts 2potential difference. Using this information, answer the following 0 questions. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 When operating at rated voltage, About what current (in amperes) flows through the lamp? A. 60 B. 2 C. 240 D. 7200 1 E. 1/2 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 about what is the resistance (in ohms) of the lamp filament? A. 240 B. 2 C. 60 D. 7200 9 E. 1/2 8251001 A 15 41035 31 059711900196 0020 The standard electrode against which other half-cell voltages are measured A. is the hydrogen electrode B. is assigned an EMF of zero C. contains a Pt electrode D. uses hydrogen gas 9 E. all of these 8260001 D 15 41038 31 025315340751 0040 An electric current in a wire or metal is due to movement of electrons. In a melt or solution any electrical current is carried by: A. electrons B. positive ions C. negative ions D. positive and negative ions 9 E. No correct response is given. 8261001 D 14 41042 32 119301590392 0041 The quantity actually stored in a "storage battery" is 9 A. electric charge B. electric current C. voltage D. energy 8261002 A 14 41044 51 17631191 0043 The Edison storage cell is useful because: A. it supplies a constant voltage B. it is inexpensive 9 C. it has no electrolyte D. it never needs recharging. 8261003 E 15 41047 52 119300300012 0020 In the lead storage battery A. PbO is reduced at the anode 4 2 B. Pb is oxidized at the cathode C. Pb is reduced at the anode D. PbO is oxidized at the cathode 4 2 9 E. none of these 8261004 B 15 41050 52 057411931167 0020 At the cathode in a lead storage battery 5 - A. lead reacts with HSO 4 4 B. lead sulfate is produced C. PbO is formed 4 2 D. none of these 9 E. all of these 8261005 A 14 41054 31 117111930247 0019 The insoluble material formed as a car storage battery discharges A. PbSO B. PbCl C. PbO D. Pb 94 4 2 2 8261006 D 15 41056 52 034303331186 0040 Which of the following is a charging reaction of the lead-acid storage battery? 5 2- - A. Pb + SO -----> PbSO + 2e 4 4 4 5 - 2- B. PbSO + 2e -----> Pb + SO 4 4 4 5 + 2- - C. PbSO + 2H O -----> PbO + 4H + SO + 2e 4 4 2 2 4 D. More than one answer is correct 9 E. No correct response is given. 8261007 B 15 41063 32 07510343 0040 Which of the following is classified as a storage cell? A. A le Clanche cell B. A lead cell C. A mercury cell D. More than one response is correct 9 E. No correct response is given. 8261008 E 15 41066 52 034307510333 0040 The lead battery in an automobile A. contains primary cells B. contains two electrolytes C. contains identical cathodes and anodes D. is noted for its compactness and light weight 9 E. No correct response is given. 8261009 D 14 41070 31 119301850597 0009 When a lead storage battery is charged, lead sulfate A. is formed at the cathode B. is formed at the anode C. is formed at both electrodes 9 D. is removed from both electrodes 8263001 C 15 41073 52 033310200806 0020 Batteries in which the reactants can be supplied continuously and the products removed continuously are called A. storage batteries B. voltaic cells C. fuel cells D. dry cells 9 E. none of these 8263003 A 15 41076 32 0751 0040 Why are fuel cells especially useful? A. They have high effeciencies. B. They contain easily poisoned catalysts. C. They use cheap fuels. D. They can be recharged. 9 E. No correct response is given. 8263004 D 14 41079 52 040715830159 0009 Which one of the following reactions could serve as a source of energy in a fuel cell? A. H O(l) -----> H (g) + 1/2 O (g) 4 2 2 2 5 2+ 2+ B. Zn(s) + Cu (aq) -----> Zn (aq) + Cu(s) C. CO (g) -----> C(s) + O (g) 4 2 2 D. C(s) + O (g) -----> CO (g) 94 2 2 9100001 D 14 41084 31 001402630351 2 OS One reason for the large number of carbon compounds is that carbon A. has isotopes B. has several allotropic forms C. is a reducing agent 9 D. shares electron with other carbon atoms 9100002 A 15 41087 32 1508 0040 Which of the following formulas for saturated hydrocarbons represents a cyclic compound? A. C H B. C H C. CH D. C H 4 5 10 4 10 4 6 14 9 E. both A and B 9100003 B 14 41090 31 003700140355 0009 Compounds of carbon are so numerous and varied because A. carbon is the most abundant element B. carbon atoms readily bond to each other C. there are more people involved in research in organic than in inorganic chemistry D. every compound known contains one or another isotope of 9 carbon 9110001 C 15 41095 31 00140066066911 ETS2 OS When carbon forms a series of compounds, each differing from the preceding one by the same change in formula, the process is called A. isomerism B. isostasy C. homology D. hydrogenation 9 E. carbonation 9110002 B 15 41098 31 06710066 11 ETS2 OS A silicone is A. an element B. a compound C. a mixture D. a rock 9 E. two of the above 9110003 C 15 41100 31 02240049 11 ETS2 OS All of thse are chemical formulas of ordinary fuels excePt A. CO B. CH 4 4 C. CO 4 2 D. C H OH 4 2 5 E. C H 94 7 16 9110004 C 15 41103 31 0066 11 ETS2 OS The first member of a series of compounds in which each member differs from each successive member by the same change in formula is A. H SO 4 2 4 B. NaOH C. CH 4 4 D. H CO 4 2 3 E. HNO 94 3 9110005 C 14 41107 31 08490695 2WVW The number of isomeric pentanes is A. one B. two C. three 9 D. four 9110006 C 15 41109 52 06690066021211 ETS2 OS The basic or simplest member of an homologous series of compounds is A. H SO 4 2 4 B. NaOH C. CH 4 4 D. H CO 4 2 3 E. HNO 94 3 9110007 C 15 41112 52 03940293022411 ETS2 OS It is possible for A. a strong acid to react as a base in the presence of another acid to form a salt and water B. a carbohydrate to be synthesized from cabron dioxide and water in the laboratory C. two hydrocarbons to have the same formula but different molecular structures D. protein to consist only of carbon, hydrogen and oxygen 9 E. all of the above are possible 9110008 C 15 41118 52 01890382001411 ETS2 OS An essential element in every organic compound is A. oxygen B. hydrogen C. carbon D. potassium 9 E. calcium 9110009 A 15 41120 52 00140382 11 ETS2 OS The study of carbon compounds is known as A. organic chemistry B. inorganic chemistry C. physical chemistry D. quantiative chemistry 9 E. qualitative chemistry 9110010 E 15 41123 32 06770261 11 ETS2 OS A person buying dry ice is buying a sample of A. solid water D. carbon B. hydrogen E. solid carbon dioxide 9 C. nitrogen 9110011 B 15 41125 52 04480212 11 ETS2 OS The chief constituent of natural gas is A. butanol B. methane C. methanol D. butane 9 E. octane 9110012 C 15 41127 32 01960014039411 ETS2 OS Compounds consisting entirely of hydrogen and carbon are known as A. carbohydrates C. hydrocarbons E. carbides 9 B. hydrates D. carbonates 9110013 C 15 41130 52 06780394035511 ETS2 OS An unsaturated hydrocarbon A. is one in which the carbon atoms are combined by sharing a single electron B. is always a branched-chain hydrocarbon C. contains double bonds D. is one which forms unsaturated solutions E. is always formed by the union of two or more 9 benzene rings 9110014 A 15 41135 51 06690394067611 ETS2 OS A homologous series of hydrocarbons A. is one in which each member differs from the next preceding one by the combination CH 4 2 B. is made up entirely of the derivatives of benzene C. always has the general formula C H 4 n n D. is made up of a given hydrocarbon and its isomers 9 E. is confined to the straight-chain hydrocarbons 9110015 C 15 41141 52 00140212 11 ETS2 OS The percent of carbon in methane is A. 25% B. 20% C. 75% D. 133% 9 E. 300% 9110016 CCDE 45 41143 31 0670066906731190 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2The following questions are concerned largely with carbon 2compounds. Select from the key the most closely related term. 2 A. Hydrogenation 2 B. Homology 2 C. Polymerization 2 D. Isomerism 0 E. None of these MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 Molecules of a substance may add to each other to produce molecules of greatly increased molecular 1 weight. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 Many new plastic products are the result of such reactions. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 Compounds with the same formula but a different 3 arrangement of their atoms. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 Alternate forms of an element with the same number 9 of protons but a slightly differnt number of neutrons. 9110017 D 15 41151 52 0293039400141190 ETS2 OS 2The molecular structure of a certain hydrocarbon consists of a ring 2of six carbon atoms, all joined together by single valence bonds. How many hydrogen atoms would the molecule contain? 9 A. 24 B. 6 C. 8 D. 12 E. 14 9110018 BC 25 41158 52 1 053506919017119095 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2The following questions are based on the compounds shown in 0 Figure 17 which are known to exist. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 Which of the above compounds is called an alcohol? 1 A. A B. B C. C D. D E. E MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 Which of the above compounds is called an acid? 9 A. B B. C C. D D. E E. None of these 9110019 CDBE 45 41162 52 1290 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2Indicate the most closely related word or phrase 2from the key below. 2 A. Catalysis 2 B. Presence of C, H and O 2 C. Presence of OH 2 D. Presence of oh(-) groups (ions) 0 E. Presence of double bonds MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 Alcohols MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 Alkali MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 3 Carbohydrates MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 9 Unsaturation 9110020 A 14 41166 32 0738 0003 According to le Chatelier's principle, adding heat to a solid and liquid in equilibrium will cause the: A. amount of solid to decrease B. amount of liquid to decrease C. temperature to rise 9 D. temperature to fall 9110021 DBCA 45 41170 51 1290 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2Choose from the key list that term most closely 2related to the statements. 2 A. Hydrocarbon 2 B. Alcohol 2 C. Aldehyde 2 D. Acid 0 E. Ether MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 A carbon-hydrogen compound that has undergone the 1 most oxidation. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 A carbon-hydrogen compound that has undergone only 2 the initial stage of oxidation. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 The group of compounds with greatest use in the plastics 3 industry and closely related to the sugars. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 9 An organic compound that contains NO oxygen. 9110022 B 15 41176 31 05890263001411 ETS2 OS In the diamond, A. unbound electrons are abundant B. The four valence electrons of each carbon atom are used in firmly binding that carbon atom to four other carbon atoms C. the molecules have the formula C 4 8 D. separate planes of carbon atoms slip over one another easily, under slight pressure 9 E. the crystal is held together by electrovalent bonds 9110023 A 14 41182 31 038200140853 2WVW An example of an organic compound that contains an equal number of carbon and hydrogen atoms is A. benzene B. ethylene C. methane 9 D. propane 9110024 D 14 41185 31 053508540855 2WVW Alcoholic beverages contain A. wood alcohol B. isopropyl alcohol C. glyceryl alcohol 9 D. ethyl alcohol 9110025 A 14 41187 31 08560853 2WVW Of the following the one which is an aromatic compound is A. benzene B. ethyl alcohol C. iodoform 9 D. methane 9110026 D 14 41189 31 03820008 2WVW Which choice is not an organic compound? A. starch E. fat C. protein 9 D. water 9110027 B 14 41191 31 018903820014 2WVW The element always found in organic chemicals is A. iron B. carbon C. nitrogen D. carbon dioxide 9 E. hydrogen 9110028 A 14 41193 31 03820237 2 OS Which type of bonding generally characterizes organic compounds? A. covalent B. ionic C. hydrogen 9 D. metallic 9110029 E 15 41195 31 1 07719026 95 2WVW The IUPAC name for the compound shown in Figure 26 is A. 1-hydrosy-2,2,6,6-tetramethylcyclohexane B. 1,1,3,3,-tetramethylcyclohexanol-2 C. 1,1,3,3,-tetramethyl-2-hydroxycyclohexane D. tetramethylcyclohexanol 9 E. 2,2,6,6-tetramethylcyclohexanol 9110030 C 15 41199 52 07840785 2WVW A relatively rare amino acid (beta-methyllanthionine) has been found to be an important component of the antibiotic, nisin. How many possible stereoisomers exist for it? 5- - OOC-CH---CH---S-CH--CH-COO | | 2 | 4 + + 4 NH CH NH 4 3 3 3 9 A. 2 B. 4 C. 8 D. 16 E. 32 9110031 C 15 41204 72 146108531966 PKS Name the following organic compound by the best IUPAC 3 ____ accepted nomenclature: H H \ / C-C // \\ Cl-C C-Cl \ / C=C / \ CH H 4 3 A. 3,6-dichlorotoluene B. 4-chloro-2-methylchlorobenzene C. 2,5-dichlorotoluene D. 2,5-dichloro-1-methylbenzene 9 E. 2,5-dichlorophenylmethane 9110032 C 14 41210 51 001403510355 0041 Carbon atoms do not A. form covalent bonds by sharing electrons B. form bonds with other carbon atoms C. have stability at high temperatures 9 D. exist only in combination with other elements 9110033 B 15 41213 51 170803940128 0041 In general, in the paraffin series of hydrocarbons, a high molecular weight implies A. a low boiling point B. a high boiling point C. a low freezing point D. an artificial origin 9 E. a high vapor pressure 9110034 B 15 41216 72 1966 PKS Name the following organic compound by the best IUPAC 3 ____ nomenclature: H Cl \ / H-C-C-H / \ H C CH 4 2 2 4 \ / H-C-C-Cl / \ H H A. 1,3-dichlorobenzene D. 1,5-dichlorocyclohexane B. 1,3-dichlorocyclohexane E. 1,3-dichlorocycloheptane 9 C. m-chlorobenzene 9110035 A 14 41222 51 067803940293 0041 Unsaturated hydrocarbon molecules are characterized by A. double or triple bonds between carbon atoms so that additional atoms can be added readily B. the ability to absorb water C. the ability to dissolve in water 9 D. benzene rings in their structural formulas 9110036 B 14 41226 52 038200770239 0041 Organic acids are A. strong and highly corrosive B. rather weak C. not found in nature but must be artificially made 9 D. characterized by simple molecules 9110037 C 14 41229 51 09260037 0041 The number of covalent bonds each carbon atom has in organic compounds is usually 9 A. one B. two C. four D. six 9110038 B 14 41231 51 092613830130 0041 Hydrocarbons in which only single covalent bonds occur are A. highly reactive B. saturated 9 C. unsaturated D. allotropic 9110039 B 14 41233 52 0695 0043 The number of isomers of C H is: 4 5 12 9 A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5. 9110040 C 14 41235 51 022314610224 0043 Butane is: A. CH B. C H C. C H D. C H 94 4 3 8 4 10 6 6 9110041 C 14 44554 51 01920678 0043 Which of the following is an unsaturated hydrocarbon: A. C H B. C H OH C. C H D. HC H O E. CH 94 2 6 2 5 2 4 2 3 2 4 9110042 A 14 41239 31 0077 0043 Which of the following is an acid? A. C H COOH B. C H NH C. C H COCH D. C H COOCH 94 2 5 2 5 2 2 5 3 2 5 3 9110043 B 14 41241 31 1659 0043 Which of the following represents a pair of optical isomers? A. CHCl B. C H CHClNH C. C H COCH D. C H OH 94 3 2 5 2 2 5 3 2 5 9110044 A 15 41244 31 02930903 0047 A carbon atom in a molecule becomes an asymmetric center (exhibits optical activity) when it bears A. four different substituents B. four hydrogen atoms 9 C. a double bond D. a triple bond E. none of the above. 9110045 A 14 41247 31 00661000038251 9000 2Of the following compounds, which is an organic ester? 2 2 O O O O 2 // // // // 2 A. CH C-OC H B. CH C-OH C. CH C-NH D. CH C-H 94 3 2 5 3 3 2 3 9110046 B 14 41251 31 00661254087951 9000 Two chemical compounds having the same molecular formula but different structures are called 9 A. isotopes B. isomers C. polymers D. esters 9110047 A 15 41253 51 088903510919 0018 In the formation of an alkane, the carbon atom forms 5 3 A. four equivalent sp hybrid orbitals 5 4 B. one sp hybrid orbital C. two equivalent sp hybrid orbitals 5 2 D. three equivalent sp hybrid orbitals 5 2 9 E. four equivalent sp hybrid orbitals 9110048 E 15 41258 51 088903550394 0018 Which of the following is not a true statement? A. All organic compounds contain the carbon atom. B. Carbon atoms always form four bonds. C. As the molecular weights of organic molecules increase, the boiling points also increase. D. As the polarity of organic molecules increase, the boiling points also increase. 9 E. Alkanes are organic hydrocarbons containing a double bond. 9110049 B 15 41264 52 00660585 0018 Which of the following compounds exhibits isomerism? A. methane B. butane C. propane D. ethane 9 E. acetylene 9110050 A 15 41266 51 08890224 0018 Which of the following general formulas is that of an alkane? A. C H B. C H C. C H D. C H E. C H 94 8 18 8 16 4 6 6 6 4 2 9110051 B 15 41269 52 1141 0018 How many dichloroethanes are possible? 9 A. one B. two C. three D. four E. none 9110052 B 15 41271 52 069500371142 0018 How many geometrical isomers are possible for 2-butene? 9 A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 9110053 C 14 41274 71 07840695 0019 How many stereoisomers of 2, 3-dibromobutane are there? 9 A. one B. two C. three D. four 9110054 C 15 44424 51 12430695 0019 Which of the following can exist as a meso isomer? A. CH CHBrCO H 4 3 2 B. CH CH CO H 4 3 2 2 C. CH CHBrCHBrCH 4 3 3 D. CH CHBrCHBrCO H 4 3 2 E. CH CH=CHCH 94 3 3 9110055 C 15 44385 51 07660066 0019 How many optically active isomers are there of the following compound? CH CH(OH)CH(OH)CHO 4 3 9 A. one B. two C. four D. six E. eight 9110056 D 15 41281 71 124600660407 0019 The diastereomer of a compound produced by the reaction of a d acid with an l base is _________. A. d acid - d base B. l acid - l base C. l acid - d base D. both A and B 9 E. none of the above is correct 9110057 C 14 41284 51 069512560293 0019 How many isomers are possible for a triglyceride known to consist of one molecule of stearic acid and two molecules of butyric acid per molecule of glycerol? (Take into account the assymetric carbon atom.) 9 A. one B. two C. three D. four 9110058 A 14 41288 51 00660535 0020 Which of the following compounds is an alcohol? A. R-OH B. R-CHO C. R-O-R 9 D. R-CO-R 9110059 B 15 41290 51 00661000 0020 The compound CH CO CH (methyl ethanoate) is an 4 3 2 3 A. alcohol B. ester C. ketone D. aldehyde 9 E. acid 9110060 C 15 41292 51 039412270888 0020 Hydrocarbons that contain a double bond are called A. saturated B. alkanes C. alkenes D. alkynes 9 E. none of these 9110061 D 15 41294 51 122800661229 0020 How many structural isomers are there for the compound n-hexane, C H ? 4 6 14 9 A. 3 B. 5 C. 7 D. 1 E. 9 9110062 D 15 41296 51 088900140351 0020 The normal alkane that contains seven carbon atoms is called A. pentane B. octane C. nonane D. heptane 9 E. septane 9110063 C 15 41298 51 08881230 0020 The simplest alkene is called A. acetylene B. ethane C. ethylene D. benzene 9 E. none of these 9110064 C 15 41300 51 12311232 0020 There are a total of how many different dichlorobenzenes? 9 A. only one B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 9110065 C 15 41302 31 07971230 0020 The common name for ethene is A. ethane B. polyethene C. ethylene D. polyethylene 9 E. none of these 9110066 D 15 41304 51 02241286 0020 The formula for styrene is A. C H -CH=CH 4 6 6 2 B. C H -CH -CH 4 6 5 2 3 C. C H -CH=CH 4 6 5 3 D. CH =CH-C H 4 2 6 5 9 E. none of these 9110067 A 15 41307 31 022403820077 0020 The formula for an organic acid is A. R-CO H B. R-CO-O-RO C. R-O-RO D. R-CHO E. none of these 94 2 9110068 B 15 41309 31 100005350077 0020 Esters are A. R-C-O-RO B. formed from the reaction of alcohols with acids C. formed from the reaction of alcohols with aldehydes D. called glycols 9 E. none of these 9110069 B 15 41312 31 102307941238 0020 The amine functional group is A. R-NH B. -NH C. -CO-NH- D. R-NH -R' E. -NH 94 3 2 2 4 9110070 A 15 41314 31 038212380535 0040 The antifreeze ethylene glycol belongs to which of the following functional group categories? 9 A. alcohol B. acid C. amide D. ester E. amine 9110071 C 15 41317 51 038210230155 0040 Amines are often a part of the characteristic odor of 9 A. fruits B. fresh meat C. fish D. sour milk E. eggs 9110072 D 15 41319 31 038212380025 0040 Which of the following functional groups does not contain oxygen? 3 ________ 9 A. alcohol B. acid C. amide D. amine E. ester 9110073 D 15 41322 51 015510001238 0040 The pleasant, characteristic odor of fruits is often associated with the presence of 9 A. acids B. alcohols C. halides D. esters E. amines 9110074 B 15 41324 31 053511940382 0040 The alcohol present in alcoholic beverages is A. methyl alcohol B. ethyl alcohol 9 C. denatured alcohol D. wood alcohol E. t-butanol 9110075 A 15 41326 51 039410130382 0040 The difference between hard and soft detergents is A. hydrocarbon chain branching B. hydrocarbon chain length C. nature of functional group D. nature of metal in the salt 9 E. oxidation state of metal. 9110076 B 15 41329 31 011500181714 0040 True soaps are salts of A. alcohols B. carboxylic acids 9 C. sulfonic acids D. glycerol E. esters. 9110077 B 15 44448 72 19660888 PKS Which of the following is the best IUPAC name for 3 ____ H H \ / C=C / \ CH -CH CH -CH -CH -CH 4 3 2 2 2 2 3 A. cis-5-octene B. cis-3-octene C. trans-3-octene D. trans-5-octene 9 E. cis-1-butyl-2-ethylethylene 9110078 A 15 41335 72 19660888 PKS Which is the best IUPAC name for 3 ____ CH 4 3 4 | Cl-CH -CH=C-CH-CH 4 2 3 4 | Br A. 4-bromo-1-chloro-3-methyl-2-pentene B. 2-bromo-5-chloro-3-methyl-3-pentene C. 4-bromo-1-chloro-3-methyl-3-pentene D. 2-bromo-5-chloro-3-methyl-2-pentene 9 E. (1'bromo)-2-ethyl-4-chloro-2-butene 9110079 C 15 44405 51 How many isomers are there for C H ? 4 4 8 9 A. 4 B. 5 C. 6 D. 7 E. 8 9110080 E 12 44557 51 03820351094109 0041 Organic acids are characterized by the functional group A. CHO B. CH OH C. CH D. CONH E. COOH 94 2 3 2 9110081 A 15 44808 51 The enantiomer of a compound produced by reaction of a d acid with an l base is ____________. A. d acid - d base C. l acid - d base E. racemic 9 B. l acid - l base D. there is no enantiomer 9110087 D 14 41340 31 171503930394 0040 Which of the following compounds when added to commonly available gasoline fails to increase the octane rating? A. aromatic hydrocarbons B. highly branched hydrocarbons 9 C. tetraethyl lead D. normal octane 9110089 C 15 41343 52 069507840889 0019 There are ----- isomeric dichlorocyclopropanes. 9 A. one B. two C. three D. four E. five 9110090 C 15 41345 52 088914470878 0019 There are------sets of equivalent hydrogen atoms in cis-1, 3-dimethylcyclobutane. 3___ 9 A. one B. two C. three D. four E. five 9110091 B 15 41347 31 125008890014 0019 The number of secondary carbons in 2,2,4-trimethylpentane is 9 A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3 E. more than 3 9110092 C 15 41349 51 040717420695 0019 Which of the following has only one monochloro derivative? A. propane B. 2-methylpropane C. cyclopropane D. 2,2-dimethylbutane 9 E. 2,3-dimethylbutane 9110093 B 15 41352 71 088911050014 0019 The number of primary carbons in 2,2-dimethylpentane is 9 A. 2 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6 E. 7 9110094 C 15 41354 32 069508891742 0019 The number of isomers of the formula C H Cl is 4 4 9 9 A. 1 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 E. more than 5 9110095 E 15 41356 32 088906950895 0019 Which of the following can exhibit cis-trans isomerism? A. 1-butene B. 2-methyl-1-butene C. 2-methyl-2-butene D. 2,3-dimethyl-2-butene 9 E. 2, 3-dichloro-2-butene 9110096 B 14 41359 52 08900695 0019 There are----- isomeric alkynes having the molecular 9 A. one B. two C. three D. four 9110097 D 15 41361 52 021913810263 0019 The number of electrons in the pi bonds of acetylene is 9 A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 6 9110098 D 15 41363 32 088806950895 0019 Which of the following can exhibit cis-trans isomerism? A. propene B. 1,1-dibromopropene C. 3,3-dibromopropene D. 1,2-dibromopropene 9 E. 2,3-dibromopropene 9110099 A 15 41366 32 114208890888 0019 In which of the following is there free rotation about all of the C to C bonds? 9 A. propane B. propene C. propyne D. cyclopentane e.benzene 9110101 C 15 41368 31 08880224 An alkene containing a single C=C double bond has the general formula A. C H B. C H C. C H D. C H E. C H 94 n 2n+2 2n 2n n 2n n 2n-4 2n n 9110102 B 15 41371 52 06950849 How many isomers does C H have? 4 5 12 9 A. 5 B. 3 C. 2 D. 1 E. None of these is correct. 9110103 C 15 41373 52 146107970879 The IUPAC name for the following structure is: CH CH 4 3 3 4 | | CH -CH--CH--CH--C---CH 4 3 3 4 | | | Br Cl CH 4 2 4 | CH 4 3 A. 5-Bromo-3-Chloro-2-Ethyl-2,4-Dimethylhexane B. 4-Bromo-2-(2'-Methylbutyl)-3-Chloropentane C. 2-Bromo-3-Chloro-4,5,5-Trimethylheptane D. 2-Bromo-3-Chloro-5-Ethyl-4,5-Dimethylhexane 9 E. None of these is correct. 9110104 C 14 41381 52 08900224 The formula C H is that of an alkyne. Which of the 3 ___ 4 n 2n-2 following is not an alkyne? 3 ___ ___ A. CH -C=C-CH B. H-C=C-H 3 _ _ 4 3 3 H H H H \| |/ H C-C H \ / \ / C. C C / \ / \ H C=C H / \ H H H H H \| | H C---C-H \ / | D. CH=C-CH -C=C-C | 3 _ _ 4 2 4 \ | C---C-H /| | 9 H H H 9110105 A 15 41391 72 Give the BEST IUPAC name for H H Cl | | | F--CH --C==C--CH--CH --CH --Cl 4 2 2 2 4 | CH 4 2 4 | CH 4 2 4 | CH 4 2 4 | OH A. cis-4-chloro-4-(2'-chloroethyl)-1-fluoro-7-hydroxy-2-heptene B. trans-4-chloro-4-(2'-chloroethyl)-1-fluoro-7-hydroxy-2-heptene C. cis-4,6-dicholo-1-fluoro-4-(3'-hydroxypropyl)-2-hexene D. trans-4,6-dichloro-1-fluoro-4-(3'-hydroxypropyl)-2-hexene 9 E. trans-4-chloro-4-(2'-chloroethyl)-7-fluoro-hept-5-heptene-1-ol 9110106 A 15 41400 72 1982 Pick the best IUPAC name for the compound 3 ____ //\ Cl // \/ | || | || \\ / \\/ | | CH -CH-CH -C=CH 4 2 2 2 4 | | Cl CH 4 2 4 | CH 4 3 A. 5-(3'-chlorophenyl)-4-chloro-2-ethyl-1-pentene B. 1-(3'-chlorophenyl)-2-chloro-4-ethyl-4-pentene C. 1-(3'-chlorophenyl)-2-chloro-4-ethenylhexane D. 6-(3'-chlorophenyl)-5-chloro-3-ethenylhexane 9 E. 3,2'-dichloro-1-(4'-ethyl-4'-pentene)-benzene 9110107 D 15 41408 72 1982 Pick the best IUPAC name for the compound 3 ____ H H \ / C-C // \\ Cl-C C-OH \ / C=C / \ H H A. 1-hydroxy-4-chlorobenzene B. o=hydroxychlorobenzene C. p=hydroxychlorobenzene D. 4-cholor-phenol 9 E. 1-chlorophenol 9110301 C 15 41412 52 069517420856 0019 How many monobrominated anthracenes are possible? 9 A. one B. two C. three D. five E. ten 9110302 C 14 41414 31 174206950853 0019 There are-------isomeric dibromobenzenes. 9 A. one B. two C. three D. four 9110303 D 15 41416 52 150906951254 0019 How many isomeric compounds are there of molecular formula C H which contain four fused rings? 4 18 12 9 A. one B. two C. three D. four E. five 9110304 E 15 41419 51 095904981749 0019 Which of the following compounds has the highest boiling point? A. ethanol B. diethyl ether C. butane D. 1-butanol 9 E. phenol 9110305 A 15 41421 51 146112541011 0019 The molecular formula for glycerol is ---------. A. C H O B. C H O C. C H O D. C H O 94 3 8 3 3 6 3 3 8 2 6 2 9110306 B 14 41423 32 069517501254 0019 There are _____ isomeric ethers of the molecular formula C H O 4 4 10 9 A. one B. two C. three D. four 9110307 B 13 41426 52 007717491096 0019 Which of the following phenols is the most acidic? 9 A. phenol B. p-nitrophenol C. p-methylphenol 9110308 D 14 41428 31 076708790888 0019 In which of the following do all of the carbon atoms not lie in 3 ______ ___ the same plane? 9 A. propene B. acetone C. cyclopropane D. cyclohexane 9110309 C 15 41431 31 175305351750 0019 Which of the following is a hemiacetal? A. CH CH(OCH ) B. CH CH OCH C. CH CH(OH)OCH 4 3 3 2 3 2 3 3 3 D. CH CH(OH) 94 3 2 9110310 D 15 41434 31 007706910004 0019 Which of the following compounds should be the most acidic? A. chloroacetaldehyde B. bromoacetaldehyde 9 C. dichloroacetaldehyde D. trichloroacetaldehyde 9110311 B 14 41437 31 171406950879 0019 The number of isomeric acids of molecular formula C H O is ____. 4 4 8 2 9 A. one B. two C. three D. four 9110312 C 14 41440 31 007717140077 0019 Which of the following is the strongest acid? 9 A. water B. phenol C. formic acid D. methanol 9110313 A 13 41442 31 007717140077 0019 Which of the following is the strongest acid? 9 A. formic acid B. acetic acid C. butyric acid 9110314 C 14 41444 31 100006951714 0019 There are ------- esters containing glycerol combined with one molecule each of acetic, propionic, and butyric acid. 9 A. one B. two C. three D. four 9110315 A 13 41447 51 067506780077 0019 The iodine value of an oil containing only oleic acid is-------- that of an oil containing only linolenic acid. 9 A. less than B. more than C. the same as 9110316 C 14 41450 51 103417141516 0019 Microorganisms cannot degrade acids -----------. A. of high molecular mass B. containing unsaturation C. containing branches 9 D. containing calcium 9110317 D 14 41453 51 049809591023 0019 Which of the following compounds has the highest boiling point? A. trimethyl amine B. propyl amine C. butane 9 D. ethylene diamine 9110318 A 13 41455 51 006110230061 0019 The K for aniline is ______ that of p-nitroaniline 4 b 9 A. larger than B. smaller than C. the same as 9110319 B 13 41457 51 10651027 0019 LSD is an ----------. 9 A. acid B. amide C. alcohol 9110320 A 15 41458 31 125402930351 0040 Which of the following statements is not true for one molecule of 3 ___ a compound with the formula (CH ) O? 4 3 2 A. It contains two oxygen atoms. B. It contains two carbon atoms. C. It contains six hydrogen atoms D.The number of carbon atoms is twice the number of oxygen atoms. E. It has 2 (CH ) groups 94 3 9110321 C 14 41464 31 078407660535 0019 Which of the following is optically active? A. isobutane B. 2-propanol C. 2-butanol 9 D. 2-methyl-1-propanol 9110322 E 15 41466 31 17541142 0019 Which of the following is racemic? A. propane B. d-2-bromobutane 9 C. l-lactic acid D. d-glyceraldehyde E. none of the above 9110323 D 15 41468 31 0382 0040 Compounds classified as organic are those A. which occur in living organisms B. which are obtained from living or once living sources C. which contain carbon D. which contain carbon showing the property of catenation 9 E. which are polymers 9110324 D 15 41472 32 150806950394 0040 Consider the following five hydrocarbons: 1) n-pentane 2) 2-methylpentane 3) 2-methylbutane 4) 2,2-dimethylpropane 5) n-butane It is correct that A. 1 and 2 are isomers B. 1 and 5 are isomers C. 2 and 3 are isomers D. 1 and 4 are isomers 9 E. No correct response is given. 9110325 D 15 41476 32 150806950394 0040 Two isomers of an alkane would have which of the following in common? A. number of carbon atoms B. structural formula C. empirical formula 9 D. both A and C E. both B and C 9110326 C 15 41479 32 08900394 0040 Which one of the following formulas could represent an alkyne? A. C H B. C H C. C H D. more than one is correct 4 3 8 3 6 3 4 9 E. both B and D 9110327 A 15 41482 32 1508 0040 Which of the following is a saturated hydrocarbon? A. C H B. C H C. C H D. C H 4 2 6 2 4 6 6 2 2 9 E. No correct response is given. 9110328 D 15 41485 52 15080695 0040 The compound C H exists in how many isomeric forms? 4 4 6 A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 9 E. No correct response is given. 9110329 B 15 41487 32 15080695 0040 How many molecular structures (isomers) are possible for the hydrocarbon propane? A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3 9 E. No correct response is given. 9110330 D 15 41489 52 03940695 0040 A hydrocarbon contains 10 carbons, 3 double bonds, and no triple bonds. The number of hydrogen atoms in the molecule is 9 A. 20 B. 22 C. 18 D. 16 E. 10 9110331 B 15 41492 72 03940695 0040 In terms of the H to C ratio (number of H's)/(number of C's), a cyclic 6 carbon alkane formula is most like which of the following straight-chain formulas? A. an alkane B. a mono-alkene C. a mono-alkyne D. a di-alkene 9 E. either C or D 9110332 C 14 41496 31 08530888 0040 Which of the following terms cannot be correctly used to describe 3 ______ benzene? A. an aromatic B. a hydrocarbon C. an alkene 9 D. more than one response is correct 9110333 D 15 41499 31 0853 0040 The compound used as the model or basis for aromatic compounds is A. acetylene B. hexane C. naphthalene D. benzene 9 E. No correct response is given. 9110334 B 14 41502 52 003712541232 0009 How many different compounds have the molecular formula C H ? 4 2 12 9 A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. some other number 9110335 D 15 41505 51 029316581659 0034 Molecules that are related to each other as object and nonsuperposable mirror image are called A. dextrorotatory B. levorotatory C. achiral 9 D. optical isomers E. cis-trans isomers 9130002 D 15 41508 31 067311430888 0040 Which of the following could behave as a monomer in an addition polymerization process? A. CH --CH --CH B. CH --CH ==CH--CH C. CH ==CH--CH==CH 4 3 2 3 3 2 3 2 2 9 D. both B and C E. both A and B. 9130003 B 15 41512 31 067412391173 0040 Which of the following is not an addition polymer? 3 ______ A. natural rubber B. nylon C. polyethylene D. polystyrene 9 E. polyueethane 9130004 D 15 41515 31 067414561235 0040 Which of following is not a polymer? A. rubber B. teflon C. styrofoam D. all are polymers 9 E. none are polymers 9130007 C 15 41517 51 06741476 0034 A polymer that is thoroughly crosslinked is likely to be A. an elastomer B. a thermoplastic polymer 9 C. a thermosetting polymer D. moldable E. gelatinous 9130008 D 15 41520 51 067402930128 0034 Polymers differ from ordinary small molecules in A. not having precisely definable molecular weights B. not having sharp melting points C. the viscosity of their solution D. all of the above 9 E. none of the above 9131001 C 15 41524 31 1 06749025 95 2WVW In aerospace programs it is necessary to devise materials that will survive short-term exposure to extreme temperature conditions. Examine the following repeating units of polymers. (1) --CH--CH -- 4 2 | Cl (2) --CH --CH -- 4 2 2 (3) refer to Figure 25 (4) --CH --NH-- 4 2 (5) --CH --O-- 4 2 Which of the above would have a resulting polymer most likely to be resistant to high temperatures? 9 A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 9131002 C 14 41531 51 078702930673 0041 The process by which small hydrocarbon molecules join together to form heavier ones under the influence of heat and catalysts is called A. cracking B. esterification 9 C. polymerization D. saturation 9131003 D 14 41534 51 0674 1457 0043 Polymeric fluorocarbons tend to be: A. good oxidizing agents B. good reducing agents 9 C. corrosive to the skin D. very unreactive. 9131004 C 15 41536 51 114306741144 0018 What is the monomer involved in the formation of the polymer polyethylene? A. ethane B. ethyne C. ethene D. butene 9 E. none of these 9131005 A 14 41539 31 07000674 0026 A polymeric material which contains extensive crosslinking such that it undergoes degredation upon heating is called a A. thermoplastic B. latex C. plastic 9 D. thermosetting plastic. 9131006 C 14 41542 31 07000674 0026 Teflon is produced from A. CH =CFH B. CF =CClF C. CF =CF D. CCl =CF . 94 2 2 2 2 2 2 9131007 B 14 41544 51 114307000674 0026 If a single molecule is to act as the monomer unit for a polyamide, what two function groups should it contain? A. amine and hydroxyl B. carboxylic acid and amine C. alcohol and acid 9 D. ester and amine. 9131008 C 14 41547 31 068707000674 0026 The most important property of a U.V. stabilizer for a given plastic is A. solubility in that plastic B. that it contain the same functional groups as the monomer C. absorb light in the U.V. region of the spectrum 9 D. that it be highly colored. 9131009 D 14 41551 31 054707000674 0026 Which of the following plastics would probably not be extruded into an object? A. phenol-formaldehyde vein B. nylon 6 9 C. polyethylene D. a polyurethane. 9131010 B 15 41554 51 114412131234 0020 Polyethene is an example of A. an elastomer B. an addition polymer C. a peroxide radical D. a monomer 9 E. none of these 9131011 E 15 41556 51 1237 0020 Dacron is A. a polyamide B. similar to carbohydrates C. a cellulose D. made from xanthates 9 E. none of these 9131012 D 15 41558 51 123910650128 0020 Nylon contains A. amide groups B. nitrogen atoms C. high molecular mass molecules D. all of these 9 E. none of these 9131013 A 15 41560 51 114412130674 0020 Polyethylene is an example of A. a polymer molecule 5 2 B. a molecule containing sp hybrid bonds C. a molecule with pi bonds D. all of the above 9 E. none of the above 9131014 C 14 41563 31 14561457 0019 Teflon is -----. A. a reducing agent B. an oxidizing agent C. a polymer 9 D. soluble in hot water 9131015 A 15 41565 31 067414561144 0040 Teflon is closely related structurally to which of the following: A. polyethylene B. cellulose C. nylon D. rubber 9 E. polystyrene. 9131016 B 15 41567 31 123910650674 0040 Nylon corresponds to which of the following classifications? A. polyester B. polyamide C. polyether D. polyunsaturate 9 E. polyamine 9131021 B 14 41569 52 067411431239 0009 For which of the following polymers are two different monomers required? 9 A. polyethylene B. nylon C. polystyrene D. none of these 9131022 C 15 41571 51 123912130674 0034 Stretched nylon is an example of A. an amorphous polymer B. an unoriented crystalline polymer C. an oriented crystalline polymer D. an elastomer 9 E. a theromosetting polymer 9131023 B 15 41574 51 123716601213 0034 Dacron, a polyester, is an example of A. an addition polymer B. a condensation polymer C. a polypeptide D. all of the above 9 E. none of the above 9133001 D 15 41577 52 06790682 11 ETS2 OS Proteins A. are substances of high molecular weight which are found only in animal tissues B. are an important element of diet because vitamins are mostly derived from them C. are big molecules containing nitrogen which supply most of the energy in a typical human diet D. are hydrolyzed during digestion into their constituent amino acids 9 E. can be built up by animals from fats and ammonium salts 9133002 D 15 41583 52 06790394 11 ETS2 OS One of the following statements is not correct. A. The vital action in plants is mainly the building of complex substances from simple ones. B. Carbohydrates contain hydrogen and oxygen in the proportion of two atoms of hydrogen to one of oxygen. C. Fats are esters. D. Proteins are relatively simple hydrocarbons. E. In animals complex vegetable materials are broken down into smaller molecules and reconstructed into 9 bigger ones. 9133003 C 15 41590 52 06720066068011 ETS2 OS Which of the following compounds are we most likely to find in crude petroleum? A. C H 4 8 16 B. CHCl 4 3 C. C H 4 8 18 D. CH N 4 5 E. C H OH 94 6 13 9133004 A 14 41593 31 06790785 0026 Which of the following chemicals would you expect to find in a depilatory cream? A. sodium sulfide B. calcium hydroxide C. water 9 D. zinc oxide. 9133005 B 15 41596 51 094312350674 0020 Chemically, natural rubber is a polymer of A. styrene B. 2-methyl-1,3-butadiene C. methyl methacrylate D. 1,1-dichloroethene 9 E. none of these 9133006 E 15 41599 51 123502930398 0020 A single rubber molecule can have a mass as high as A. 5 000 amu B. 10 000 amu C. 50 000 amu D. 100 000 amu 9 E. 500 000 amu 9133007 C 15 41601 31 10530401 0020 Cellulose is A. an alcohol B. a polymer of glucose C. a carbohydrate D. a polymer containing 1800 to 3000 monomer units 9 E. all of these 9133008 D 15 41604 51 0410 0020 Wood does not contain A. cellulose B. resins C. minerals D. polyisoprene 9 E. lignin 9133009 A 15 41606 51 123517161476 0040 Vulcanized rubber differs from unvulcanized rubber in what way? A. Vulcanized contains cross-links B. Unvulcanized contains cross-links C. Sulfur is present in unvulcanized D. More than one correct response 9 E. No correct response is given. 9133010 C 15 41610 31 067412351481 0040 Which of the following is an addition polymer which occurs in nature? A. starch B. protein C. rubber 9 D. nylon E. polyethylene. 9135001 B 15 41612 52 01820171 11 ETS2 OS Charcoal is made by a process known as A. carbonation B. destructive distillation C. organic synthesis D. hydrogenation 9 E. hydration 9135002 E 15 45112 72 19661742 PKS In an organic chemistry lab, unknown compounds are identified by subjecting them to known reactions and analyzing their resulting products. By using chromatographic methods it was possible to detect the presence of the compounds described below. The identity of the unknown was reconstructed from these reaction products. Alkanes (C H ) are halogenated using a halogen (X ) and 4 n 2n+2 2 ultraviolet (UV) light to form mono-, di-, tri-, etc., halogenated alkyl compounds (C H X, C H X , etc.): 4 n 2n+1 n 2n 2 H H | UV light | RC-H + X -------> RC-X + HX 4 2 4 | | H H H X | UV light | R-C-X + X --------> R-C-X + HX 4 2 4 | | H H (X = Cl ,Br ,I ,F ) 4 2 2 2 2 2 The lab received a sample of an unknown alkane labeled Compound (1). This was then monobrominated photochemically and found to yield only three distinct reaction products. These products were each resubmitted to photochemical bromination. Each yielded six dibromo alkyl products. What is Compound (1)? A. CH -CH -CH -CH-CH D. CH -CH -CH-CH -CH 4 3 2 2 3 3 2 2 3 4 | | CH CH 4 3 3 CH 4 3 4 | B. CH -CH -CH -C-CH E. CH -CH -CH -CH -CH -CH 4 3 2 2 3 3 2 2 2 2 3 4 | CH 4 3 C. CH =CH-CH -CH -CH -CH 94 2 2 2 2 3 9135003 E 15 41683 32 0770 2WVW Gaseous ethene oxide (ethylene oxide), ---O---, has been used to / / CH - CH 4 2 2 destroy insects in many kinds of stored products such as packaged cereals and tobacco. Recently it has been employed to fumigate historical documents in the federal archives building in washington. Which one of the following products would result on reaction with one mole of HCl? A. Cl---O---CH CH 4 2 3 B. CH ---O---CH Cl 4 3 2 C. CH ---CH---OH 4 3 4 | Cl D. --- CH -- 4 2 4 / / CH - Cl - O 4 2 E. HO---CH CH Cl 94 2 2 9135004 A 15 41693 32 1 07709029 95 2WVW The structure of DDT, and one of its harmful metabolic byproducts, DDE, are shown in Figure 29. Examine the following laboratory reactions (equations not balanced). KOH (1) DDT -----> DDE + H O + KCl 4 2 KCl (2) DDT -----> DDE + KH + Cl 4 2 Ba(OH) 4 2 (3) DDT --------> DDE + BaCl + H O 4 2 2 Which of the above would, in fact, produce DDE? A. 1 and 3 B. 2 C. 1 D. all of them 9 E. none of them 9135005 C 14 41701 51 039412480829 0041 Hydrocarbon derivatives in general are A. formed by burning hydrocarbons in air B. alcohols C. hydrocarbons that have had H atoms replaced by other atoms or atom groups D. hydrocarbons that have more than one bond between carbon 9 atoms 9135006 B 14 41705 52 070103821306 0041 Compared with inorganic compounds in general, most organic compounds A. are more readily soluble in water B. are more easily decomposed by heat C. react more slowly 9 D. form ions more readily in solution 9135007 A 14 41708 51 067008061136 0043 The product of the hydrogenation of vinyl chloride, H C=CHCl, is: 4 2 A. CH CH Cl B. CH CHCl C. ClCH CH Cl D. CH CCl 94 3 2 3 2 2 2 3 3 9135008 B 14 41712 51 080604070105 0043 The product of the reaction of vinyl chloride with HCl is: A. ClCH CH Cl B. CH CHCl C. CH CCl D. ClCH CHCl 94 2 2 3 2 3 3 2 2 9135009 D 14 41715 51 083017500535 0043 The synthesis of ethers from alcohols depends on the fact that H SO is a good: 4 2 4 A. oxidizing agent B. reducing agent 9 C. complexing agent D. dehydrating agent. 9135010 A 15 41718 52 004302611140 0018 The complete combustion of propane produces A. CO +H O B. propene C. O +CO D. propyne E. methane 94 2 2 2 2 9135011 B 15 41720 52 016805530687 0018 A mixture of methane and chlorine in a 101 mole ratio will react if activitated by ultraviolet light to produce A. CHCl B. CH Cl C. CH Cl D. CCl E. all of these 94 3 2 2 3 4 9135012 B 15 41723 51 035505350008 0018 Addition of water to a carbon-carbon double bond produces A. an acid B. an alcohol C. an aldehyde D. a ketone 9 E. an ether 9135013 C 15 41725 51 09700006 0018 Reaction of 2-pentene with chlorine yields A. 2-chloropentane B. 2,3-dichloropentene C. 2,3-dichloropentane D. 1-chloropentane 9 E. none of these 9135014 E 15 41728 51 019609720844 0018 Addition of hydrogen to isobutene (2-methylpropene) in the presence of a nickel catalyst, heat, and pressure yields A. 2-methylbutane B. methylpentene C. 2-methylpentane D. methylbutane 9 E. 2-methylpropane 9135015 D 15 41731 51 097409700977 0018 Addition of hydrogen bromide to 2-pentene yields A. 2-bromopentene B. 2-bromopentane C. 3-bromopentane D. a mixture of B and C 9 E. none of these 9135016 A 15 41734 51 098000470985 0018 Treatment of 1-butanol with 60% sulfuric acid at 100 degrees C leads to a dehydration of the alcohol, resulting chiefly in the formation of A. 2-butene B. 1-butene C. 3-butene D. 2-butene hydrogen sulfate 9 E. 1-butene hydrogen sulfate 9135017 C 15 41738 51 002105350077 0018 The vigorous oxidation of a primary alcohol produces A. an aldehyde B. an ether C. an acid D. a ketone 9 E. an alkane 9135018 C 15 41740 51 002105350991 0018 The oxidation of a secondary alcohol with copper at 300 degrees C would most likely produce A. an aldehyde B. an acid C. a ketone D. an ether 9 E. a secondary alcohol 9135019 C 15 41743 51 007705351000 0018 Reaction of an acid with an alcohol produces A. a ketone B. an aldehyde C. an ester D. an ether 9 E. ethylene glycol 9135020 E 15 41745 51 100305520535 0018 Fermentation of sugars can ultimately lead to the formation of A. aldehydes B. acids C. alkanes D. alkenes 9 E. alcohols 9135021 D 15 41747 51 100000770535 0018 Hydrolysis (addition of water) of an ester produces A. an acid + water B. two alcohols C. two acids D. an acid + an alcohol 9 E. an alcohol + water 9135022 E 15 41750 51 002105350407 0018 Oxidation of tert-butyl alcohol with Cu at 300 degrees C produces A. tert-butyl ketone B. ether C. acid D. isobutane 9 E. no reaction 9135023 C 15 41753 51 100908401011 0018 In the determination of the saponification number of a fat or oil, the final products are A. an ester and glycerol B. an acid and glycerol C. an acid and an alcohol D. glycerol and three sodium salts of a fatty acid 9 E. none of these 9135024 D 15 41757 51 101900770072 0018 Acetamide could be produced by the reaction of A. methylamine and formic acid B. ethylamine and formic acid C. acetic acid and methylamine D. acetic acid and ammonia 9 E. none of these 9135025 B 15 41760 51 040710230061 0018 In the reaction of methylamine with hydrogen chloride to form methylamine hydrochloride, the amine acts as A. an acid B. a base C. a salt D. a hydrogen ion donor 9 E. both A and B 9135026 DDCABC 65 41763 72 196417421965 MACROITEM STEM The facts below relate to the following six items. i. Alkanes can be halogenated by free radical reaction. 5 heat . X ---------------> 2 X 4 2 or UV light 5 . . X + RH -------------> HX + R 5 . . R + X -------------> RX + X 4 2 5 . . . . . "X " represents a Halide radical, such as Cl , Br , I or F and the dot signifies an unpaired electron. R is an alkyl group. ii. An asymmetric Carbon atom is a Carbon atom which is surrounded by four different groups. For example, in the compound Cl | 4 * 4 H C-C-CH -CH , the halogenated carbon (*) is an 4 3 2 3 4 | asymmetric Carbon atom. A compound Br that contains an asymmetric Carbon atom is considered to be optically active. iii. Free rotation about a double bond does not occur. The absence of free rotation produces cis- and trans- isomers: R R' R H \ / \ / C=C C=C / \ / \ H H H R' cis trans iv. Carbon atoms can be classified generally by the number of additional carbons attached to them. 5 o A primary carbon (1 ) is attached to one other carbon atom. 5 o A secondary carbon (2 ) is attached to two other carbon atoms. 5 o A tertiary carbon (3 ) is attached to three other carbon atoms. v. An alkene can be synthesized from an alkyl halide by the dehydrohalogenation of alkyl halides. The reaction proceeds 5 o o o by 3 >2 >1 in ease of dehydrohalogenation of alkyl halides. | | | | 4 KOH alcoholic 4 -C-C- --------------> -C=C- + KX + H O 4 2 4 | | H X 0 (X is a Halogen) MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 The MAJOR product or products of the following reaction is CH 4 3 4 | alc. KOH CH -CH -C-CH -CH -CH -------> Product 4 3 2 2 2 3 4 | Cl CH CH 4 3 3 4 | | A. CH -CH -C=CH-CH -CH B. CH -CH=C-CH -CH -CH 4 3 2 2 3 3 2 2 3 CH 4 2 4 // C. CH -CH -C-CH -CH -CH D. A and B E. B and C 14 3 2 2 2 3 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 A substance, Product I, of general formula C H was 4 4 10 monochlorinated by free radical halogenation and produced several isomers. One isomer, Product II, was selected and dehydrohalogenated to produce three products, III, IV and V. Product III is a cis-alkene. Product IV is a trans-alkene. Product V is a minor product, but exhibits neither cis nor trans isomerization. From the information above, we can tell that Product II A. contains an asymmetric carbon. B. is a linear Alkyl Halide C. is a branched Alkyl Halide D. Both A and B are correct. 2 E. Nothing can be said from the information given. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 Product V is A. H C=C-CH B. H C-C-CH C. CH =CH-CH -CH 4 2 3 3 3 2 2 3 4 | \\ CH CH 4 3 2 D. CH -CH=CH-CH E. impossible to determine with the 4 3 3 34 information given. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 Product II is CH 4 3 4 | A. CH -CH -CH-CH B. ClCH -CH -CH -CH C. CH -C-CH -Cl 4 3 2 3 2 2 2 3 3 2 4 | | Cl H CH 4 3 4 | D. CH -C-CH E. impossible to determine from the 4 3 3 4 | information given. 4 Cl MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 Product III is H CH CH CH CH H 4 3 3 3 3 4 \ / \ / \ / A. C=C B. C=C C. C=C / \ / \ / \ CH H H H CH H 4 3 3 D. H C-C-CH E. impossible to determine with 4 3 3 4 \\ the information given. CH 54 2 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 6 Product IV is H H H \ / \ A. CH -C=C-CH B. CH -C-CH C. CH -C=C-CH 4 3 3 3 3 3 3 4 \\ \ CH H 4 2 H CH 4 3 4 \ / D. C=C / \ E. impossible to determine with the H CH information given. 94 3 9135027 A 15 41833 51 124700720044 0019 An SN displacement of bromide by NH in l-alpha-bromopropionic 4 2 3 will yield ______. A. d-alanine B. l-alanine C. glycine 9 D. racemic alanine E. none of the above 9135028 A 15 41836 51 119411670103 0020 Ethyl alcohol reacts with acetic acid to form A. an ester B. water C. two products D. ethyl acetate 9 E. all of these 9135029 B 15 41838 31 004308060888 0040 The products resulting from the complete combustion of an alkane in oxygen are A. CO, H O B. CO , H O C. C, CO, H O D. C, CO , H O 4 2 2 2 2 2 2 E. co, CO , H O 94 2 2 9135030 B 15 41842 32 088917420407 0019 The fraction of the monobrominated product of butane which is 1-bromobutane is: 9 A. 1/4 B. 1/3 C. 1/5 D. 1/2 E. 2/3 9135031 D 15 41844 52 088904071742 0019 5 o n-pentane undergoes free radical bromination at 127 C. The relative 5 o o rates of bromination are as follows: 2 :1 = 82:1. The percentage of the monobrominated product of n-pentane which is 2-bromopentane is 9 A. 25% B. 33% C. 50% D. 66% E. 75% 9135032 D 15 41849 72 174304071744 0019 The reaction of a mixture of bromoethane and 2-bromopropane will NOR yield any 9 A. butane B. 2,3-dimethylbutane C. 2-methylbutane D. hexane 9135033 C 15 41851 32 000217431744 0019 When sodium metal is added to 1-bromopropane, A. No reaction occurs B. propane is formed C. hexane is formed D. 2,3-dimethylbutane is formed 9 E. hydrogen is given off 9135034 A 15 41854 51 088910960407 0019 Which of the following reacts with H under the mildest conditions? 4 2 A. cyclopropane B. cyclobutane C. cyclopentane 9 D. cyclohexane E. none react since all are saturated 9135035 B 14 41857 51 088811690004 0019 The particle which attacks the double bond when Cl adds to 4 2 3 3 2-butene is 5 + - 9 A. Cl B. Cl C. Cl D. Cl.(free radical) 9135036 B 15 41860 51 089011691745 0019 The product when 1-butyne reacts with an excess of HCl is A. 1,1-dichlorobutane B. 2,2-dichlorobutane C. 1,2-dichlorobutane D. 1,1,2,2-tetrachlorobutane 9 E. butane 9135037 C 13 41863 52 088811690004 0019 A compound C H reacts with bromine to produce C H Br . 4 10 18 10 18 2 The compound C H could contain 10 18 A. two rings B. two double bonds 9 C. a ring and a double bond 9135038 A 14 41867 32 089007860407 0019 The reaction of 2-pentyne with bromine will produce A. 2,2,3,3-tetrabromopentane B. 2,2-dibromopentane C. 3,3-dibromopentane 9 D. 1,1,2,2-tetrabromopentane 9135039 B 13 41870 52 089011691745 0019 The reaction of 1-pentyne with HBr will produce A. 1,1-dibromopentane B. 2,2-dibromopentane 9 C. 1,2-dibromopentane 9135040 D 15 41872 52 089000020407 0019 A compound C H reacts with sodium and evolves hydrogen gas. The 4 5 8 compound may be A. 1-pentyne B. 2-pentyne C. 3-methyl-1-butyne 9 D. both A and C E. all of the above. 9135041 A 14 41875 51 085317420407 0019 The particle which attacks the ring when benzene reacts with bromine in the presence of iron is 5 + - A. Br B. Br C. Br- D. Br 94 2 9135042 C 14 41878 51 174208530348 0019 Which of the following would be least reactive toward 3 _____ bromination of the ring in the presence of iron? 9 A. benzene B. phenol C. nitrobenzene D. toluene 9135043 E 15 41881 51 034800020888 0019 Which of the following will not react with Na? A. ethanol B. 2-propanol C. 1-bromopropane D. propyne 9 E. propene 9135044 A 15 41883 52 174805350407 0019 Which of the following would give a reaction with I in NaOH 4 2 (iodoform test)? A. 3-methyl-2-pentanol B. 3-pentanol C. 3-pentanone D. formaldehyde 9 E. acetaldehyde 9135046 C 14 41887 52 018008880407 0019 Hydration of 2-methyl-2-butene by the hydroboration procedure will yield-------. A. 2-methyl-2-butanol B. 2-methyl-3-butanol C. 3-methyl-2-butanol 9 D. 2-mehtyl-1-butanol 9135047 C 14 41890 52 175117520535 0019 Reaction of a Grignard reagent with which of the following when followed by hydrolysis, leads to the production of a tertiary alcohol? A. formaldehyde B. acetaldehyde C. 2-butanone 9 D. 2-methylbutanal 9135048 E 15 41893 51 069117511748 0019 Pentanal and 3-pentanone can be distinguished by testing with A. NaOH + I B. Br C. Na D. 2, 4-dinitrophenylhydrazine 4 2 2 9 E. Tollens reagent 9135049 C 15 44711 71 053506911748 0019 1-Propanol and propanal can be distinguished by testing with A. KMnO D. Br 4 4 2 B. NaOH + I E. CrO + H SO 4 2 3 2 4 9 C. 2,4-dinitrophenylhydrazine 9135050 A 15 41899 51 053517511748 0019 Ethyl alcohol and acetone can be distinguished by testing with A. NaOH + I B. Lucas test C. Tollens' reagent D. KMnO 4 2 4 E. Br 94 2 9135051 D 15 41902 51 053512501748 0019 2-Pentanol and 3-pentanol can be distinguished by testing with A. Tollens' reagent B. lucas test C. Na D. NaOH + I E. KMnO 94 2 4 9135052 D 14 41905 51 001704070691 0019 The reduction of CH CHCH CHO by lithium aluminum hydride will 4 2 2 yield ____________. A. CH =CHCH CO H B. CH CH CH CHO C. CH CH CH CH OH 4 2 2 2 3 2 2 3 2 2 2 D. CH =CHCH CH OH 94 2 2 2 9135053 C 14 41909 52 040717140004 0019 Reaction of 1-bromopropane with potassium cyanide followed by acid hydrolysis yields ---------. A. propanoic acid B. methylpropanoic acid 9 C. butanoic acid D. butanol 9135054 B 14 41912 52 171404071752 0019 Reaction of the Grignard reagent of 2-bromopropane with carbon dioxide yields---------. A. butanoic acid B. methylpropanoic acid 9 C. 2-propanol D. methylbutanoic acid 9135055 B 14 41915 52 171408090407 0019 Reaction of propanoic acid with thionyl chloride yields ------------. A. chloropropanoic acid B. propanoyl chloride 9 C. thionyl propanoate D. chloropropanoyl chloride 9135056 E 15 41918 72 175200981751 0019 Addition of the methyl Grignard reagent to ethyl acetate yields -----------. A. 2-methyl-2-propanol B. butanone 9 C. methyl acetate D. methyl ethyl ether E. acetone 9135057 B 13 41921 52 001700980535 0019 Treatment of ethyl acetate with lithium aluminum hydride yields ----------. 9 A. acetic acid B. ethanol C. diethyl ether 9135058 C 14 41923 52 102300770407 0019 A compound C H N reacts with nitrous acid to yield C H NO . 4 3 9 3 7 2 the C H N compound is ________________. 4 3 9 A. trimethyl amine B. dimethyl amine 9 C. methyl ethyl amine D. propyl amine 9135059 C 14 41927 52 102302181201 0019 A 0.73 g sample of an amine releases 224 ml of nitrogen at STP. The compound could be A. methyl amine B. trimethyl amine 9 C. butyl amine D. diethyl amine 9135060 A 13 41930 32 076604071714 0019 Esterification of d-lactic acid at the carboxylic acid center will yield----------. A. A d-ester of lacitc acid D. An l-ester of citric acid B. The l-ester of lactic acid E. a racemic mixture 9 C. A d-ester of citric acid 9135061 C 14 41934 52 003711671331 0009 The compounds CH OH and H C-COOH would react together to produce 4 3 3 9 A. an alcohol B. a ketone C. an ester D. a fat 9135062 B 15 41936 51 040716570407 0034 The reaction NaOH + CH CH Cl -----> CH CH OH + NaCl may best be 4 3 2 3 2 classified as A. an addition reaction B. a substitution reaction C. an elimination reaction D. a rearrangement reaction 9 E. a reaction mechanism 9137001 C 15 41940 52 099305350997 0018 If a bottle of wine is 12% alcohol, then it is A. 6 proof B. 18 proof C. 24 proof D. 12 proof 9 E. none of these 9137002 D 14 41942 31 10110785 0026 Which of the following most aptly describes a grease? A. slippery B. a heavy metal salt 9 C. a fatty acid D. a glyceride. 9137004 D 15 41944 51 085604140672 0040 The best natural source of aromatic compounds is A. petroleum B. natural gas C. coal gas D. coal tar 9 E. crude oil 9140001 D 15 41946 51 06720066 11 ETS2 OS Petroleum A. is a liquid of constant boiling point B. consists primarily of unsaturated hydrocarbons C. consists of a mixture of hydrocarbons whose molecular weight is less than 150 D. contains both branched and straight chain compounds 9 E. is best refined by fractional crystallization 9140002 B 15 41951 52 06800049068111 ETS2 OS The octane number of a motor fuel is A. the percentage of octane in the fuel B. the percentage of iso-octane in a mixture of it and normal heptane which gives the same knock as does fuel C. the boiling point of the fuel in centigrade degrees D. the percentage of tetraethyl lead in the fuel 9 E. never over 100 9140003 D 15 41956 51 00490113044811 ETS2 OS One of the following statements concerning fuel gases is correct A. Water gas is composed of hydrogen and oxygen B. Acetylene is made by the action of water on silicon carbide C. Producer gas has a higher fuel value than any other common fuel gas D. Natural gas contains little or no carbon monoxide E. Coal gas is made by heating coal in an abundant 9 supply of air 9140004 E 15 41962 52 06720686 11 ETS2 OS Select the true statement or statements. A. Petroleums may be classified as paraffin base or asphalt base. B. Petroleum deposits occur in sedimentary rock. C. During the distillation of petroleum the aromatic hydrocarbons are separated from the paraffin hydrocarbons. The correct selection includes A. only A B. only B C. only C D. only A and B 9 E. A, B, and C 9140005 B 15 41968 52 06940672039411 ETS2 OS In the cracking of petroleum A. the average molecular weight of the hydrocarbon 3 _______ mixture is unchanged B. long-chain hydrocarbons are broken into shorter chain varieties C. the process is now obsolete because of the use of platinum catalyst D. short chains are combined to form ring compounds E. the boiling point of the product is higher than that 9 of the uncracked material 9140006 D 14 41974 31 067201680394 2WVW Petroleum is a mixture consisting largely of A. salts B. sugar C. organic acids 9 D. hydrocarbons 9140007 E 15 41976 31 06720675039311 ETS2 OS Cracking of petroleum oils is an important method for making A. synthetic fuels B. producer gas C. kerosene D. coal gas 9 E. gasoline 9140008 E 15 41979 31 06720675039311 ETS2 OS Cracking of petroleum oils is an important method for making A. synthetic fuels B. producer gas C. kerosene D. coal gas 9 E. hydrogen 9140009 B 14 41982 31 0393 0026 Which of the following compounds is added to gasoline to rid the engine of deposits? A. tetraethyllead B. TCP 9 C. ethyl mercaptan D. ethylenedraiumine. 9140010 C 14 41985 31 0393 0026 A dye is added to gasolines to A. indicate its cost B. look pretty 9 C. indicate the presence of additives D. coat the pistons. 9140011 E 15 41987 51 067203940066 0020 Crude petroleum contains A. hydrocarbons B. oxygen-containing compounds C. sulfur-containing compounds D. nitrogen-containing compounds 9 E. all of these 9140012 D 14 41990 52 039404380113 0009 Which of the following hydrocarbons is most likely to be a liquid at 25 degrees C and 1 atm? (the rest are gases). A. C H B. C H C. C H D. C H 94 2 4 2 6 4 10 6 14 9140013 D 15 41993 31 06720394 0040 Crude petroleum is composed mostly of A. sulfur-containing compounds B. nitrogen-containing compounds C. inorganic compounds D. hydrocarbon compounds 9 E. unsaturated compounds 9140014 E 15 41996 31 017106720806 0040 Which of the following types of compounds are not associated with 3 _______ the products from the fractional distillation of petroleum? A. gasolines B. kerosenes C. lubricating oils D. greases 9 E. all of the above are products 9140015 B 15 42000 31 152806720171 0040 A method very commonly used to separate the various components of petroleum is A. cracking B. distillation C. reforming D. isomerization 9 E. extraction. 9140016 B 15 42003 51 039317150394 0040 Gasoline which has the same knocking tendency as a mixture of 60% n-heptane and 40% isooctane has an octane number of 9 A. 100 B. 40 C. 60 D. 20 E. 80 9140017 B 15 42006 31 039403931436 0040 Which of the following hydrocarbons would most likely be a component of gasoline? A. C H B. C H C. C H D. C H E. C H 94 2 6 7 16 12 26 12 36 6 6 9140018 A 15 42009 31 004904140302 0040 Coal would be used more widely as a fuel if it were A. converted to a liquid or gas B. easier to mine 9 C. less easily burned D. more abundant E. cleaner 9150001 B 15 42012 52 0694 11 ETS2 OS Consider the following reaction C H ---> C H + C H 4 12 26 6 14 6 12 Which one of the following processes does the reaction illustrate? A. polymerization B. cracking C. hydrogenation D. neutralization 9 E. substitution 9150002 DEA 35 42016 52 1390 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2The complete combustion of heptane (C H ) 4 7 16 yields carbon dioxide (CO ) and water (H O). 04 2 2 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 How many carbon dioxide molecules are formed from each molecule of heptane? A. 1 B. 16 C. 14 D. 7 1 E. 8 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 How many water molecules are formed from each molecule of heptane? A. 1 B. 16 C. 14 D. 7 2 E. 8 MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 How many atoms of oxygen are needed for complete combustion of one molecule of heptane? A. 22 B. 11 C. 3 D. 7 9 E. 8 9150003 A 15 42024 51 12 ETS2 OS Carefully-controlled oxidation of normal propyl alcohol produces an aldehyde containing the same number of carbon atoms in the molecule as does the propyl alcohol. Deduce the molecular composition of the aldehyde. It is A. C H C=O 4 2 2 4 \ OH B. C H C=O 4 2 4 4 \ OH OH / C. C H C-OH 4 2 5 4 \ 4 OH OH / D. C H C-OH 4 3 5 4 \ 4 OH E. C H C=O 4 2 6 4 \ 9 OH 9150004 C 14 42032 31 2WVW The yield of ester is increased by the addition of A. water B. sodium chloride C. sulfuric acid 9 D. sodium 9150005 A 14 42034 31 2WVW A product of the destructive distillation of wood is A. acetic acid B. ethyl alcohol C. soap 9 D. kerosene 9150006 E 15 42036 52 The number of isomers possible for the molecular formula C H is 4 5 10 9 A. 5 B. 7 C. 9 D. 10 E. 11 9170001 C 15 42039 32 02610014 11 ETS2 OS Carbon dioxide in the air A. is being continually added to by the vital processes of plants B. is always large at the dew point C. is the source of all the carbon in plants D. may be absorbed by the action of P O upon it 4 2 5 9 E. varies very widely in amount from place to place 9170002 A 15 42044 72 02000683005411 ETS2 OS In photosynthesis A. an endothermic reaction promoted by light builds up sugars from carbon dioxide and water B. proteins are hydrolyzed to amino acids by sunlight C. plants evolve large quantities of heat which the large area of their leaves helps to dissipate D. bacteria in the roots of certain plants turn atmospheric nitrogen into nitrites 9 E. roots pick up inorganic salts from the soil 9200001 A 15 42050 51 108810330007 0018 Antiseptics are useful because they are ------------; therefore they have the property of killing bacteria. A. oxidizing agents B. reducing agents C. amino acids D. carbohydrates 9 E. acids 9200002 B 15 42053 51 083910281029 0018 A food preservative that may be a cancer-causing agent is A. 2-naphthylamine B. nitrates C. n-nitrosodimethylamine D. 4-biphenylamine 9 E. benzidine 9200003 A 15 42056 51 103610281038 0018 An azo dye found to be carcinogenic in animals is A. 4-o-tolylazo-o-toluidine B. benzidine C. 2-naphthylamine D. 2-anthramine 9 E. none of these 9200004 C 15 42059 51 107910811083 0018 Hypersensitivity occurring naturally in man or as an adverse reaction to a foreign substance that causes no reaction in the average person is A. hyperacidity B. hyperglycemia C. an allergy D. desensitization 9 E. none of these 9200005 D 15 42063 51 003705400952 0018 Which of the following classes of compounds is responsible for storing information in the body? A. vitamins B. hormones C. enzymes D. nucleic acids 9 E. none of these 9200006 A 15 42066 51 097109730976 0018 Which of the following heterocyclic bases is not a part of the DNA molecule? A. Uracil B. Adenine C. Thymine D. Cytosine 9 E. Guanine 9200007 B 15 42069 51 098309860976 0018 According to the Watson-Crick theory the "genetic message" carried by a gene is related most particulary to A. the presence of deoxyribose in DNA B. the order in which the bases are arranged along the phosphate-pentose chain in DNA C. the order in which the bases are arranged along the phosphate-pentose chain in rna D. the kinds of bases projecting from the phosphate-pentose chain in DNA 9 E. none of these 9200008 B 15 42075 71 099209940976 0018 Sickle cell anemia is A. a disease in which glutamic acid replaces valine in hemoglobin B. a disease caused by the substitution of a single base out of a sequence of 1,740 bases in the DNA molecule C. a disease that affects predominantly whites in the united states D. a disease in which the normal crescent shape of the red blood cells changes to a biconcave shape 9 E. both A and B 9200009 E 15 42081 51 102708651030 0018 Drugs or chemicals that will destroy infectious organisms without seriously harming human protoplasm are called A. enzymes B. hormones C. antibiotics D. hallucinogins 9 E. chemotherapeutic agents 9200010 B 15 42084 51 1043 0018 Which of the following would be classified as a narcotic antagonist? A. Codeine B. Nalorphine C. Prontosil D. Psilocybin 9 E. Mescaline 9200011 A 15 42087 51 102710371049 0018 Drugs that stimulate sensory perceptions having no basis in physical reality are called A. hallucinogens B. narcotics C. amphetamines D. barbiturates 9 E. analgesics 9200012 A 14 42090 31 10311035 0026 Which of the following is not an antibiotic? 9 A. Acetanilide B. Tenamycin C. Aureoruycin D. Sulfanilamide. 9200013 D 14 42092 51 0785 0026 Thalidomide is a known A. teratogen C. anticholmesterase poison 9 B. carcinogen D. mutagen 9200014 C 14 42094 31 019109960679 0026 In order to tenderize a meat by protein hydrolysis prior to cooking, the best thing to add is, 9 A. mono sodium glutamate B. salt C. papain D. water. 9200015 A 14 42097 31 10350785 0026 Penicillin was discovered by A. Joseph Lister B. Alexander Fleming 9 C. Adrian Autfield D. Shintara Kodama. 9200016 C 14 42099 31 108308610785 0026 An allergen is found in A. certain cells in the nasal passage B. proteins in the blood stream C. a pollen grain 9 D. certain amino acids 9200017 A 14 42102 31 10830785 0026 The specific compound which accounts for many of the symptoms of hay fever, bronchial asthma, and other allergies is A. histamine B. histidine 9 C. immuno-globin e D. antihistimine. 9200018 B 14 42105 31 10350785 0026 Which of the following is not a germicide? A. Pencillin B. I C. Phenol D. NaOCl. 94 2 9200019 C 14 42107 31 067404030785 0026 Which polymer is capable of carrying iodine? A. polyethylene B. polystyrene 9 C. polyvinylacetate D. polyvinyl pyrollidone. 9200020 C 14 42109 51 07661255 0019 There are------- optically active aldoheptoses of the d series. 9 A. 6 B. 8 C. 16 D. 32 9200021 C 14 42111 51 12651254 0019 A monoterpene hydrocarbon has the molecular formula------------. A. C H B. C H C. C H D. C H 94 10 16 8 12 5 8 12 18 9200022 D 15 42114 51 1269 0019 The grouping of four bases in trios gives rise to --------codons 9 A. 16 B. 28 C. 32 D. 64 E. 112 9200023 B 14 42116 51 097910681002 0019 In order to direct the placement of 146 amino acids the messenger RNA must have a specific sequence of ------- bases along its chain. 9 A. 292 B. 438 C. 146 D. 584 9200024 D 15 42119 51 10821014 0040 Which of the following is a chemical mediator involved in nerve impulse transmission? A. Acetylcholine B. Norepinephrine C. Novocain 9 D. Both A and B E. All of the above. 9200025 B 15 42122 51 108208611264 0040 Stimulation of parasympathetic nerves causes A. an increase in blood pressure B. decrease in heartbeat rate C. a dryness in the mouth D. blood vessels to constrict 9 E. both A and C. 9200026 C 15 42125 31 1082 0040 A chemical mediator is proposed as the transmitter of nerve impulses A. along the axon B. through the nerve cell body C. across synapses D. inside receptor organs 9 E. throughout the dendrite. 9200027 B 15 42128 51 1082 0040 Which of the following would slow down nerve impulse transmission 3 _________ in the body? A. Increase the rate of generation and release of mediator at a synapse B. Decrease the rate of diffusion of mediator across a synapse C. Decrease the rate of deactivation of mediator on acceptor cells 9 D. Both A and C E. Both B and C 9200028 B 15 42134 31 100516240996 0040 The mechanism by which nerve gases and some insecticides work in the body is A. lethal synthesis B. enzyme inhibition C. to mimic the action of normal chemical mediators 9 D. both A and C E. both B and C. 9200029 D 15 42137 31 173010271731 0040 Several compounds widely used as mild analgesics are related to A. barbituric acid B. morphine c. cocaine D. salicylic acid 9 E. both B and C. 9200030 A 15 42140 31 173017311027 0040 The effects of mild analgesics include A. relief of minor muscle pain B. drowsiness C. decreased mental alertness 9 D. both B and C E. all of the above. 9200031 D 15 42143 31 173210270168 0040 General anesthetics are substances that A. produce readily reversible unconsciousness B. were not discovered until 1930 C. are usually given as mixtures of compounds 9 D. both A and C E. all of the above. 9200032 E 15 42146 51 17301027 0040 Which of the following are strong analgesics? A. Cocaine B. Codeine C. Novocain 9 D. Both A and B E. All of the above. 9200033 C 15 42148 51 17331027 0040 Which of the following chemotherapeutic agents contains highly toxic arsenic? A. Penicillin B. Sulfa drugs C. Salvarsan D. Tetracyclines 9 E. Both A and D. 9200034 E 15 42151 31 103517341034 0040 The antibiotic streptomycin A. has wider antibiotic applications than sulfa drugs B. was originally discovered as a soil organism C. is a bacteriocide 9 D. both C and D E. all of the above. 9200035 C 15 42154 51 173510340996 0040 Penicillinase is A. an enzyme that is used to manufacture penicillin B. an enzyme that helps penicillin act more effectively C. an enzyme produced by some resistant bacteria D. a form of penicillin that is acid resistant 9 E. both A and B. 9200036 C 15 42158 51 17341034 0040 Sulfa drugs show bacteriocidal behavior by acting as A. nurve impulse inhibitors B. tranquilizers C. antimetabolites D. chemical mediators 9 E. both A and B. 9200037 C 15 42161 31 173310341730 0040 A chemotherapeutic agent is a chemical that A. is a strong analgesic B. is an antiseptic C. can kill invading organisms inside the body D. is a tranquilizer 9 E. both B and C. 9200038 D 15 42164 31 097616321633 2932 IU DNA is considered to be a highly organized molecule. This organization takes the form of A. the sequence of bases along the polynucleotide chain B. complementary base-pairing between the two chains C. the double helix formed by the two chains D. all of the above 9 E. just B and C above. 9200039 E 15 45577 71 To determine the molecular weight of the enzyme lysozyme, which consists of a single polypeptide chain of 129 amino acid subunits, one would probably A. do an x-ray diffraction study B. take its mass spectrum. C. measure the vapor pressure of a solution. D. measure the freezing point of a solution. 9 E. measure the osmotic pressure of a solution. 9210001 E 15 42168 52 02180698069711 ETS2 OS Select the true statement or statements (if any) of those below. A. Vertebrate animals are able to synthesize all necessary proteins from atmospheric nitrogen. B. All chlorophyll-containing plants can synthesize proteins directly from atmospheric nitrogen. C. In general, animals can synthesize all necessary proteins from inorganic nitrogen compounds. The correct selection includes A. only A B. only B C. only C D. only B and C 9 E. none of them 9210002 B 14 42175 31 04030796 2WVW With iodine the food turned blue. This indicates that the tested food was A. sugar B. starch C. protein 9 D. fat 9210003 D 14 42177 31 083808390840 2WVW A transparent spot that would not dry was left on brown paper. This would indicate that the food tested was A. sugar B. starch C. protein 9 D. fat 9210004 A 14 42180 31 05520842 2WVW Which choice is not a sugar? A. glycogen B. glucose C. lactose 9 D. maltose 9210005 D 14 42182 52 04541707 0041 Living matter does not contain as an essential constituent A. proteins B. carbohydrates 9 C. nucleic acids D. paraffin hydrocarbons 9210006 A 14 42184 51 067905591068 0041 Proteins consist of combinations of A. amino acids B. nucleic acids C. esters of glycerin with organic acids 9 D. DNA and RNA molecules. 9210007 C 14 42186 51 171211181713 0041 A class of organic compounds of little biological significance is the 9 A. fatty acids B. amino acids C. elastomers D. nitrogen bases 9210008 D 14 42188 52 1053 0041 Cellulose is not A. a carbohydrate B. the chief constituent of wood C. present in all plants 9 D. easily digested by most animals 9210009 C 14 42190 51 1068 0041 The number of amino acids is 9 A. 2 B. 4 C. 23 D. 69 9210010 D 14 42191 51 106806791000 0041 The amino acids in a protein molecule are not linked by A. peptide bonds B. hydrogen bonds 9 C. disulfide bonds D. ester groups 9210011 B 14 42193 51 087909761633 0041 The structure of a DNA molecule resembles A. a single helix B. a double helix 9 C. a pleated ribbon D. a straight chain 9210012 D 14 42195 51 0976 0679 0041 DNA controls the development and functioning of a cell by governing its manufacture of 9 A. carbohydrates B. lipids C. amino acids D. proteins 9210013 C 14 42198 51 01990401 0043 Glucose is a: 9 A. starch B. cyclic hydrocarbon C. carbohydrate D. ester. 9210014 D 15 42200 51 110310680091 0047 The isoelectric point of an amino acid is that pH at which A. the amino acid carries no net electrical charge B. there is no migration of the amino acid in an electric field C. there are an equal number of negative and positive electrical charges on a molecule of the amino acid 9 D. all of the above E. none of the above. 9210015 A 15 42205 51 10451046 0018 Which of the following would be classified as a ketohexose? A. fructose B. glucose C. maltose D. galactose 9 E. glyceraldehyde 9210016 A 15 42207 51 019910471048 0018 Which of the following will yield d-glucose and d-galactose on hydrolysis? A. lactose B. sucrose C. glycogen D. maltose 9 E. none of these 9210017 E 15 42210 51 079608421053 0018 Starch, glycogen, and cellulose are all polysaacharide polymers of A. d-fructose B. d-galactose C. lactose D. sucrose 9 E. d-glucose 9210018 B 15 42213 51 05521058 0018 Which of the following is not a reducing sugar? A. glucose B. sucrose C. maltose D. lactose 9 E. galactose 9210019 D 15 42215 51 067910721074 0018 The protein portion of hemoglobin A. is called heme B. combines with four oxygen molecules C. consists of two long folded polypeptide chains D. is called globin 5 2+ 9 E. contains a ferrous ion (Fe ) 9210020 D 15 42219 51 067910741086 0018 Proteins associated with the globulin fraction of blood serum and generally formed to combine specifically with a corresponding antigen are called A. albumins B. fibrins C. epinephrines D. antibodies 9 E. none of these 9210021 B 15 42223 51 10901092 0018 The alpha-helix is a A. primary structural feature of proteins B. secondary structural feature of proteins C. tertiary structural feature of proteins D. secondary structural feature of amino acids 9 E. feature of all amino acids 9210022 C 15 42227 51 095803551095 0018 Interactions of groups such as salt bonds, hydrogen bonds, and disulfide bonds in the side chains of amino acids leads to A. the primary structure of proteins B. the secondary structure of proteins C. the tertiary structure of proteins D. denaturation of proteins 9 E. none of these 9210023 C 15 42231 51 109801911002 0018 A peptide consisting of glu, gly, ala, val, lys, and phe was subjected to hydrolysis. The following fragments were obtained: lys . val + ala . gly + gly . lys + glu . ala + val . phe the correct amino acid sequence in the peptide is A. phe-val-lys-gly-ala-glu- B. glu-val-phe-ala-gly-lys- C. glu-ala-gly-lys-val-phe- D. lys-val-ala-gly-glu-phe- 9 E. none of these 9210024 D 15 42236 51 067900911103 0018 A protein at a pH higher than its isoelectric point is A. insoluble B. uncharged C. positively charged D. negatively charged 9 E. none of these 9210025 D 15 42239 51 110706791090 0018 Denaturation of a protein is generally the result of A. disruption of the disulfide bonds B. hydrolysis of the peptide linkages C. formation of salt bridges D. uncoiling of the helical chains 9 E. none of these 9210026 A 15 42242 51 100706790996 0018 An apoenzyme is A. the protein portion of the enzyme B. an inorganic ion C. derived from a vitamin D. the prosthetic group of the enzyme 9 E. the nonprotein moiety 9210027 D 14 42245 31 078509760191 0026 The incomplete hydrolysis of DNA yields A. nucleotides B. peptide 9 C. complex acids D. all of these. 9210028 D 14 42247 31 078506791250 0026 The secondary structure of DNA discovered by Watson and Crick was that of A. a spiral nebulae B. an endwrapped chain 9 C. a triangular prism D. a double helix. 9210029 C 14 42250 51 078509581250 0026 Long chains of bonded amino acids in protein structures are held together by A. ionic bonds B. coordinate covalent bonds C. hydrogen bonds 9 D. covalent bonds. 9210030 C 14 42253 31 099611920785 0026 The energy required to get an enzymatic reaction started is called the A. kinetic energy B. starting energy 9 C. activation energy D. potential energy. 9210031 C 14 42256 31 02000785 0026 The reduction of carbon dioxide to sugar and the oxidation of water to oxygen is known as A. a compled reaction B. the light reaction 9 C. photosynthesis D. the dark reaction. 9210032 D 14 42259 31 106312730785 0026 In the reaction ADP + phosphate + ______ ----> ATP, the missing part is 9 A. light B. NADP C. chlorophyll D. energy. 9210033 B 14 42261 51 10630785 0026 The product of anaerobic glycolysis A. pyruvic acid C. glucose E. sucrose 9 B. lactic acid D. ethanol 9210034 B 14 42263 51 128110630785 0026 The net result of the Krebs cycle is A. pyruvate ion B. NADH C. carbon dioxide and ATP 9 D. ATP and oxygen. 9210035 C 14 42265 51 098809570785 0026 The sequencing of amino acids in protein synthesis is accomplished by A. a ribosome B. transfer RNA 9 C. messenger RNA D. ribosomal RNA. 9210036 C 14 42267 51 01911098 0019 Hydrolysis of a pentapeptide can yield -------- tripeptides. 9 A. 5 B. 4 C. 3 D. 2 9210037 B 14 42269 51 019110980977 0019 Partial hydrolysis of a hexapeptide yields leu-val-gly, ala-ser-ileu and gly-ala-ser. The structure of the compound is ---------. A. gly-ala-ser-ala-ser-ileu B. leu-val-gly-ala-ser-ileu C. gly-ala-ser-leu-val-gly 9 D. ala-ser-ileu-gly-ala-ser 9210038 B 14 42273 51 095806791250 0019 The hydrogen bonds in proteins constitute its------- structure. 9 A. primary B. secondary C. tertiary D. quarternary 9210039 D 14 42275 51 067908791251 0019 The association of several protein chains into a larger structure as in the case of hemoglobin is an example of--------- structure. 9 A. primary B. secondary C. tertiary D. quarternary 9210040 A 15 42278 51 12521058 0019 Which of the following does not reduce Tollens' reagent? 9 A. sucrose B. lactose C. maltose D. glucose E. fructose 9210041 A 15 42280 51 02241253 0019 The general molecular formula for an aldohexose is ------------. A. C H O B. C H O C. C H O D. C H O E. C H O 94 6 12 6 6 10 5 6 12 5 6 10 6 6 14 6 9210042 B 15 42283 51 12541058 0019 The molecular formula for sucrose is ---------. A. C H O B. C H O C. C H O D. C H O 4 12 24 12 12 22 11 12 24 11 12 22 12 E. C H O 94 12 22 10 9210043 C 14 42286 51 12590066 0019 Drying oils are compounds -------. A. which react with water B. used in hair setting C. which react with oxygen 9 D. which contain butyric acid 9210044 B 15 42289 31 055210460156 0040 Which of the following sugars is the sweetest? A. glucose B. fructose C. sucrose D. maltose 9 E. all have the same sweetness. 9210045 C 15 42291 31 172105521058 0040 Which of the following is a common disaccharide sugar? A. glucose B. fructose C. sucrose D. starch 9 E. both A and C. 9210046 D 15 42293 31 172101990552 0040 All of the following are disaccharides except A. sucrose B. lactose C. maltose D. glucose 9 E. all are disaccharides. 9210047 B 15 42295 31 040100140196 0040 In addition to carbon and hydrogen, carbohydrates contain A. nitrogen B. oxygen C. sulfur D. phosphorus 9 E. both A and B. 9210048 B 15 42297 31 019117221710 0040 Monosaccharides are the products of the hydrolysis of each of the following except A. polysaccharides B. lipids C. cellulose D. starches 9 E. both B and C. 9210049 A 15 42300 31 105306740199 0040 Cellulose is a natural polymer in which the monomer units are A. glucose molecules B. fructose molecules 9 C. sucrose molecules D. ribose molecules E. galactose 9210050 D 15 42303 31 019916430796 0040 In which of the following polysaccharides is glucose the monomer or building block? A. starch B. glycogen C. cellulose 9 D. all of the above E. both A and C. 9210051 D 15 42306 51 079610531143 0040 The differences between starch and cellulose lie in A. their digestability by man B. the type of linkage between monomer units C. the identity of the monomer unit 9 D. both A and B E. all of the above. 9210052 D 15 42309 31 105304101236 0040 Which of the following would not be expected to contain 3 _________ cellulose? 9 A. wood B. rayon C. paper D. animal fat E. cellophane. 9210053 C 15 42312 31 172317240840 0040 Cholesterol is an example of a A. saccharide B. fat C. steroid D. sex hormone 9 E. both C and D. 9210054 C 15 42314 31 171007960840 0040 Lipids include each of the following except A. fats and oils B. waxes C. starch D. steroids 9 E. both A and B. 9210055 B 15 42316 31 171006750840 0040 Which of the following substances is not normally considered to contain large amounts of lipids? A. butter B. lean meat C. cottonseed oil D. beeswax 9 E. both A and C. 9210056 C 15 42319 31 171008400675 0040 Which of the following would be a good source of lipids in a diet? 9 A. lean steak B. bread C. butter D. celery E. apple. 9210057 B 15 42321 31 171013940112 0040 Lipids are substances that A. contain monosaccharides B. are soluble in nonpolar solvents C. have molecular weights greater than 1000 9 D. both A and C E. both B and C. 9210058 D 15 42324 31 019110111725 0040 The types of compounds that result from the hydrolysis of fats and oils include A. glycerol B. fatty acids C. steroids 9 D. both A and B E. all of the above. 9210059 C 15 42327 31 017208400675 0040 The main distinction between fats and oils is A. their hydrolysis products B. the degree of branching of the hydrocarbon chain C. their melting point 9 D. both A and B E. both B and C. 9210060 D 15 42330 31 172608400675 0040 Waxes differ from fats and oils in that A. no fatty acids are produced upon hydrolysis B. they are not as easily hydrolyzed C. the alcohol produced upon hydrolysis is not glycerol 9 D. both B and C E. all of the above. 9210061 C 15 42334 31 067910680077 0040 The main distinguishing feature between various amino acids is A. length of the carbon chain B. the number of amino groups C. identity of the side chain D. the number of acid groups 9 E. both B and D. 9210062 D 15 42337 31 067910680191 0040 Hydrolysis of a protein will result in the formation of A. amino acids B. starch C. polypeptides 9 D. both A and C E. all of the above. 9210063 C 15 42339 31 106806730679 0040 The reaction of amino acids responsible for the polymerization into protein involves which pair of functional groups? A. two amine groups B. two acid groups C. an amine and an acid group D. an amine and an alcohol 9 E. an acid and an alcohol. 9210064 B 15 42343 31 106606790879 0040 In silk, the protein is in the form of a pleated sheet. This is an example of what type of protein structure? A. primary B. secondary C. tertiary D. pleated. 9 E. No correct response is given. 9210065 D 15 42346 31 067911431068 0040 Protein is a condensation polymer of monomer units called A. monosaccharides B. sugars C. lipids D. amino acids 9 E. both A and B. 9210066 B 15 42348 31 067910920879 0040 Which of the following characteristics of a protein would be classified as a secondary structural feature? A. amino acid sequence B. helical spiral C. a ball formed from a helical spiral 9 D. both A and C E. both B and C. 9210067 D 15 42352 31 110706790879 0040 The denaturation of proteins usually involves a breakdown of A. primary structures B. secondary structures C. tertiary structures 9 D. both B and C E. all of the above. 9210068 C 15 42355 31 067910920879 0040 The interaction of groups in the side chains of proteins gives rise to A. primary structural features B. secondary structural features C. tertiary structural features 9 D. polypeptides E. both A and D. 9210069 D 15 42358 31 172704011710 0040 Which of the following occurs during digestion? A. Carbohydrates are hydrolyzed into di- and monosaccharides. B. Lipids are emulsified by bile from the liver. C. Amino acids are broken up into protein. 9 D. Both A and B E. all of the above. 9210070 C 15 42362 31 02091727 0040 Components of gastric juice include A. bile B. carbohydrates C. hydrochloric acid 9 D. both A and B E. both A and C. 9210071 B 15 42364 31 067917281727 0040 The protective coating of the stomach which prevents the stomach from being digested consists of A. enzymes B. mucoproteins C. waxes D. inorganic ions 9 E. both A and D. 9210072 B 15 42367 31 002516341072 0040 Oxygen is carried to various parts of the body, via the bloodstream, in the form of A. a dissolved gas B. oxyhemoglobin C. bicarbonate ions D. carbon dioxide 9 E. both A and B. 9210073 D 15 42370 31 114805190114 0040 The movement of water through the walls and out of capillaries is influenced by A. blood pressure B. osmotic pressure C. atmospheric pressure 9 D. both A and B E. all of the above. 9210074 C 15 42373 31 106814610981 0040 The codons used in specifying amino acids involved in protein synthesis consist of A. one-letter words B. two-letter words C. three-letter words D. four-letter words 9 E. five-letter words. 9210075 D 15 42376 31 114309521488 0040 A monomer portion of a nucleic acid is called A. DNA B. RNA C. amino acid D. nucleotide 9 E. both C and D. 9210076 D 15 42378 31 097609520959 0040 The secondary structure of DNA consists of two nucleic acid chains A. each in the form of a helix coiled around the same axis B. cross-linked to each other via sulfur atoms C. held together by hydrogen bonding between base units 9 D. both A and C E. both B and C. 9210077 B 15 42382 31 097609521002 0040 The most important feature of a DNA molecule is the A. sequence of P atoms B. sequence of base units C. sequence of deoxyribose units D. sequence of amino acids 9 E. all of the above. 9210078 A 15 42385 31 097914890976 0040 Messenger RNA molecules are formed when A. the strands of a DNA helix partially unwind B. DNA comes in contact with a ribosome C. proteins are denatured by the body D. DNA molecules are hydrolyzed 9 E. both B and D. 9210079 C 15 42389 31 095209761591 0040 The nucleic acid DNA consists of each of the following types of subunits except A. organic base B. phosphoric acid C. amino acid D. deoxyribose 9 E. both A and D. 9210080 A 13 42392 51 172617140535 0019 _________ are esters of high molecular mass unbranched carboxylic acids and high molecular mass alcohols. 9 A. Waxes B. Fats C. Oils 9210081 C 14 42394 52 01121564 0009 The best solvent for a polypeptide is likely to be A. CCl B. CH -O-ch C. H O D. HF 94 4 3 3 2 9210082 C 14 42396 51 114301520952 0009 The linkage between monomers ("residues") in a nucleic acid involves 9 A. C-N B. C-O-C C. P-O-C D. hydrogen bond 9210083 D 14 42398 52 135510981068 0009 The maximum number of different tripeptides that can be formed from three different amino acids, using one residue of each, is: 9 A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 6 9210084 C 15 42401 72 109810681355 0009 The maximum number of different tripeptides that can be made from three different amino acids, using any number of residues of each, is: 9 A. 3 B. 6 C. 8 D. 9 E. 27 9210085 B 14 42404 51 064702041491 0009 A change in the composition of which kind of molecule is most likely to result in a mutation? 9 A. RNA B. DNA C. carbohydrate D. enzyme 9210086 D 14 42406 51 067909530958 0009 The "backbone" in a protein molecule can assume only a limited number of conformations. This is a result of: A. hydrogen bonding B. relative solubilities of attached groups C. the geometry of the peptide link D. the size of the protein 9 E. A, B and C are all correct 9210087 C 14 42410 51 087914991570 0009 Where rigidity in structure is required (as in an animal's skeleton), the material is likely to consist of 9 A. DNA B. nucleotides C. polysaccharrides D. alkanes 9210088 D 14 42413 51 022402040679 0009 Which one of the following formulas would you choose to represent an average composition of protein? A. CH O B. C H O C. CH NO D. C H SH O 94 2 57 110 6 7 9 13 2 2 9210089 C 14 42416 51 142102860043 0009 The largest amount of heat would be obtained from the complete combustion of a gram of: A. protein B. carbohydrate C. fat (e.g., C H O ) D. DNA 94 57 110 6 9210090 A 14 42419 51 063401280679 0009 The method of choice for determining the molecular weight of a protein is: A. osmotic pressure B. gas density C. freezing point lowering 9 D. direct weighing of a single molecule 9210091 C 15 42422 51 098006791107 0034 The treatment of proteins by heat or acid causes A. hydrogen bonding B. precipitation of the protein and an increase in its physiological activity C. denaturation - a change in the secondary and tertiary structure D. a change in the chirality of the helix from right to left 9 E. all of the above 9210092 A 15 42427 51 100206791105 0034 The exact sequence of amino acids which appears in a given protein is called its A. primary structure B. secondary structure C. tertiary structure D. quaternary structure 9 E. peptide structure 9210093 C 15 42430 51 0976 1445 0034 The ability of DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) molecules to replicate themselves and thus serve in the transmission of genetic characteristics from one generation to the next is due to A. hydrogen bonding between adjacent protein chains B. the unique sizes of the various sugars in the double helix C. the constant interchain distance produced only when certain base pairs link together through hydrogen bonding D. the double helical structure of the molecule 9 E. the alpha helical structure of the molecule 9210094 A 15 42437 51 038208650008 0034 Which of the following is not considered one of the four major 3 ___ groups of organic compounds that occur in living organisms? A. water B. proteins C. carbohydrates D. fats 9 E. nucleic acids 9210095 C 15 42441 51 164305700552 2971 IU Polysaccharides are composed of A. chains of nucleotides B. chains of amino acids C. chains of sugars D. chains of lipids 9 E. none of the above. 9210096 A 14 42444 51 019116431644 2972 IU The spontaneous hydrolysis of polysaccharides is ( ), consequently the synthesis of these molecules is ( ). A. exergonic, energy-requiring B. exergonic, energy yielding C. endergonic, energy requiring 9 D. endergonic, energy yielding. 9210097 E 15 42448 31 067910021489 2933 IU Proteins are molecules with a high degree of structural organization. This organization is reflected in A. the sequence of amino acids along the polypeptide chain B. the formation of helical structures C. the complete three- dimensional structure of the molecule D. just B and C 9 E. all of the above. 9210098 B 15 42453 31 087909521002 2934 IU The most direct structural relationship between the nucleic acids and the proteins of a given cell is A. the occurence of helical structures in both B. the base sequence of the nucleic acids and the amino acid sequence of proteins C. the complete three-dimensional structures of both D. the helical structure of nucleic acids and the amino acid composition of proteins E. the base composition of nucleic acids and the amino acid 9 composition of proteins. 9210099 A 15 42460 51 106311430952 2944 IU Structurally, ATP is most nearly related to A. the monomers of the nucleic acids B. the monomers of protein C. sugars D. phosphoric acid 9 E. polysaccharides. 9220001 A 14 42463 31 086801590839 2WVW Yeast A. only partially uses the energy available in food B. is poorly adapted in living without air C. is highly advanced in respiration processes 9 D. lacks energy to survive for long 9220002 D 14 42466 51 015910380842 0041 Energy is stored in animal cells in the form of 9 A. starch B. cellulose C. chitin D. glycogen 9220003 E 15 42468 52 015904010842 0018 The energy of carbohydrate oxidation is derived from a complex series of chemical reactions involving compounds formed from ------------ A. carbon dioxide B. water C. oxygen D. ammonia 9 E. glycogen 9220004 C 15 42471 51 112311241125 0018 Which of the following is an antiknock additive that slows down free radical reactions in the combustion chamber of an engine? A. 1,2-dichloroethane B. lead oxide C. tetraethyllead D. 2,2,4-trimethylpentane 9 E. lead bromide 9220005 A 15 42475 51 10131010 0018 Which of the following would be classified as a synthetic detergent? A. alkylbenzene sulfonate B. sodium salt of a fatty acid C. glycerol D. stearic acid 9 E. none of these 9220006 D 15 42478 51 029301591063 0018 A high-energy molecule in which most of the available energy in living cells is stored is A. carbon dioxide B. glucose C. starch D. adenosine triphosphate 9 E. none of these 9220007 A 15 42481 51 046310561061 0018 Pheromones are chemicals used in insect control because A. they are insect sex attractants that can be used to lure male insects into traps. B. they prevent insect development from larval to adult stage. C. they serve as a pathagon to kill certain types of insects. D. they are used in sterilization techniques. 9 E. None of these 9220008 E 15 42486 51 105710561062 0018 Which of the following has not been considered as an alternate method to pesticides in the control of insects? A. The use of insect sex attractants B. The use of insect hormones to prevent the development of the adult stage of the insect C. Male insect sterilization D. The introduction of predators, parasites, and pathogens to fight a specific pest. 9 E. None of these (i.e., all have been considered) 9220009 B 15 42492 31 006611541155 0020 A compound that is suitable for use as a working fluid in refrigeration equipment is A. carbon dioxide B. freon C. ammonium nitrate D. sulfur dioxide 9 E. none of these 9220010 D 15 42495 51 085305471044 0020 Benzene is used for the manufacture of A. nylon B. dyes C. pesticides D. explosives 9 E. all of these 9220011 B 15 42497 31 163400430263 2936 IU In what basic respect are respiration and combustion closely related processes A. They are both endothermic B. Electrons are transfered from carbon containing substances to oxygen C. The final products are water and carbon monoxide D. Both occur rapidly and at low temperatures 9 E. Energy is released in the form of heat and light 9220012 A 15 42502 52 1 07350649903395 IU Using the data in Figure 33, the standard free energy change for the transfer of two electrons from reduced Cytochrome a to oxygen is A. -24 kcal B. -21 kcal C. -18 kcal D. -15 kcal 9 E. -12 kcal 9220013 D 15 42505 51 163716381635 2947 IU The electron transport chain consists of A. nicotinamide nucleotide coenzymes B. flavin nucleotides C. cytochromes D. all of the above 9 E. none of the above 9220014 A 15 42508 51 106306831639 2951 IU The synthesis of ATP is A. endothermic and endergonic B. exergonic and exothermic C. endergonic and exothermic D. exergonic and endothermic 9 E. isoenergetic 9220015 C 15 42511 51 015900291640 2952 IU The site of energy generation in living cells is subcellular organelles called A. electron transport chains B. cytochromes C. mitochondria D. ribosomes 9 E. nucleotides 9220016 B 15 42514 51 10631639 2956 IU The formation of ATP is basically an A. exergonic process B. endergonic process C. isoenergetic process D. oxidation -reduction reaction 9 E. hydrolytic reaction. 9220017 A 15 42517 51 106316370735 2958 IU The sites at which ATP synthesis occurs along the electron transport chain A. are determined by the free energy changes involved B. all involve nicotinamide nucleotide coenzymes C. all involve cytochromes D. all involve molecular oxygen 9 E. none of the above. 9220018 D 15 42521 51 073508301643 2962 IU Chemical energy must be supplied in the synthesis of long polysaccharide chains because A. there is a positive free energy change B. there is a negative free energy change C. the thermodynamics tend to drive the reaction in the direction of hydrolysis rather than synthesis D. A and C 9 E. B and C 9220019 A 15 42526 52 106806790870 2935 IU When a collection of amino acids are joined together to form a protein A. the entropy content of the amino acids decreases B. the entropy content of the amino acids increases C. the entropy of the universe decreases D. there is no net change in free energy 9 E. no thermodynamic conclusions can be drawn. 9220020 C 15 42531 52 100802630159 2937 IU Since most common substrates employed for energy generation purposes in living systems have standard reduction potentials near -0.2 V., the transfer of a pair of electrons from such a 5 o substrate to oxygen (E = .8) will generate A. 23 kcal. B. 9.2 kcal. C. 46 kcal. D. 6.6 kcal. 9 E. 27.6 kcal. 9220021 E 15 42536 52 086511300649 2939 IU The basic means by which all living organisms generate metabolic energy is A. oxidation of sugars to carbon dioxide and water B. hydrolytic reactions catalyzed by enzymes C. protein synthesis D. synthesis and degradation of nucleic acids 9 E. transfer of electrons from one substance to another. 9220022 C 15 42541 52 1 07350649903395 IU Using the data in Figure 33, the standard free energy change for the transfer of a pair of electrons from molecular hydrogen to oxygen is A. -28 kcal B. -44 kcal C. -57 kcal D. -70 kcal 9 E. -87 kcal 9220023 C 15 42544 51 073500211063 2945 IU The free energy released in the course of oxidation of organic substrates by living organisms is A. utilized with nearly 100 percent efficiency B. released principally as light and heat C. trapped, in part, in the form of ATP D. directly employed to hydrolyze organic polymers 9 E. none of the above. 9220024 C 15 42549 51 106301590251 2948 IU The key feature of ATP is A. the high energy bonds in the adenosine radical B. the high energy released when it is oxidized to ADP C. the high energy bonds which exist between the phosphate groups D. A and B 9 E. B and C 9220025 A 15 42553 51 083010630735 2949 IU The synthesis of ATP is driven by A. the negative free energy change at three steps along the pathway of electron transfer B. the positive free energy change at three steps along the pathway of electron transfer C. the negative free energy change associated with the conversion of flavin nucleotides to pyridine nucleotides D. the positive free energy change associated with the 5 +++ ++ conversion of cytochrome (Fe ) to cytochrome (Fe ) 9 E. none of the above 9220026 A 15 42561 51 019110630735 2953 IU Hydrolysis of the pyrophosphate bonds of ATP proceeds with A. a large negative free energy change B. a large positive free energy change C. little free energy change D. a large decrease in entropy 9 E. a large increase in entropy. 9220027 C 15 42565 51 015910530191 2963 IU The energy that must be added to effect the addition of a molecule of glucose to a cellulose chain is supplied by A. the conversion of ADP to ATP B. the oxidation of glucose-1-phosphate C. the hydrolysis of ATP D. the hydrolysis of ADP-glucose 9 E. none of the above 9220028 B 15 42569 51 015902930199 2964 IU Which of the following are considered to be low energy molecules A. ATP B. glucose C. glucose-1-phosphate D. ADP-glucose 9 E. B and C 9230001 A 14 42572 31 078516280996 0041 Most biochemical processes in living matter are catalyzed by 9 A. enzymes B. glycogen C. lipids D. DNA 9230002 E 15 42574 31 099611180485 0047 Enzymes A. are usually lipoproteins B. convert free energy of food stuffs to heat C. never actually participate in a chemical reaction 9 D. are not stereospecific E. are biological catalysts. 9230003 A 15 42577 51 099600371008 0018 An enzyme's ------------ is the compound or type of substance on which the enzyme acts. A. Substrate B. Inhibitor C. Apoenzyme D. Prosthetic group 9 E. None of these 9230004 D 15 42580 51 099609980796 0018 An enzyme present in saliva and responsible for the partial degradation of starch molecules in the mouth is 9 A. peptidase B. lipase C. maltase D. ptyalin E. mucin 9230005 B 15 42583 51 100209961004 0018 Which of the following sequences is correct in describing the mechanism of enzyme action? A. E + S ---> EP B. E + S -----> ES -----> EP ----- E + P C. E + P -----> EP D. E + S -----> ES -----> E + P 9 E. none of these 9230006 D 15 42587 51 099610211022 0018 An enzyme characterized by general specificity is A. maltase B. urease C. sucrase D. esterase 9 E. none of these 9230008 A 15 42589 51 10250996 0018 The lock-and-key theory is used to explain A. enzyme action B. the action of carbohydrates C. the action of poisons D. the action of proteins 9 E. the action of lipids 9230009 D 15 42592 51 107316411007 0040 Vitamins are substances that may function as A. coenzymes B. apoenzymes C. precursors to coenzymes 9 D. both A and C E. both B and C. 9230010 A 15 42594 31 111410730996 0040 A proposed function of vitamins in the body is to A. activate some enzymes B. act as enzymes C. form small polypeptides D. hydrolyze lipids 9 E. both A and B. 9230011 C 14 42597 52 016109961566 0009 As the temperature is increased, the rate of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction first increases and then decreases. The decrease can be explained in the following way: A. all reactions achieve a maximum rate at some temperature B. the molecules acted on by the catalyst spontaneously decompose at the high temperature C. intramolecular forces (e.g., h-bonding) in the enzyme molecule begin to break down 9 D. all catalyzed reactioss behave in this unaccountable manner 9230012 D 14 42604 52 049109960138 0009 The rate of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction is generally found to increase with the concentration of the reactant substrate up to some maximum rate and then level off. This levelling-off is probably due to: A. decomposition of enzyme B. a change in enzyme conformation C. molecules of reactant get in the way of each other at high concentrations 9 D. all the "active sites" on the enzyme molecules are occupied 9230013 C 14 42610 31 113008651631 2930 IU The metabolism of an organism is subject to control. It is reasonable to expect this control to take the form of A. regulation of the synthesis of enzymes B. regulation of the activity of enzymes C. both A and B 9 D. neither A or B. 9230014 D 15 42614 51 099609790988 2969 IU The enzyme that catalyzes the synthesis of messenger RNA is A. DNA transferase B. DNA catalase C. amino acid acylase D. RNA polymerase 9 E. DNA synthetase 9230015 A 15 42617 31 067904070996 IU The proteins which determine those biochemical reactions that will occur and the rates at which they will occur are called A. enzymes B. hormones C. nucleic acids D. nucleotides 9 E. vitamins 9230016 A 15 42621 31 029308650996 2929 IU The class of molecules that is most directly related to an organisms metabolism is A. enzymes B. proteins C. nucleic acids D. polysaccharides 9 E. lipids. 9230017 D 15 42624 51 040709960865 IU The complete set of chemical reactions that occur in an organism is most DIRECTLY influenced by A. the nature of the RNA present B. the nature of the small substrate molecules present C. the nature of the polysaccharides present D. the nature of the enzymes present 9 E. the diet of the organism. 9240001 A 14 42629 31 078701920258 2WVW The process by which a substance spreads through cells is called A. diffusion B. photosynthesis C. respiration 9 D. mitosis 9240002 A 14 42631 31 085901380258 2WVW The movement of materials through a cell membrane against a concentration gradient is called A. diffusion B. osmosis C. active transport 9 D. Brownian movement 9240003 A 14 42634 31 00290863 2WVW In plasmolysis, the contents of a cell A. shrinks B. divides C. swells 9 D. remains the same 9240004 C 14 42636 31 015700290258 2WVW The physical process used by cells to move materials in and out of the cell is A. respiration B. photosynthesis C. diffusion 9 D. mitosis 9240005 D 14 42639 31 086508660867 2WVW Which circulatory mechanism is characteristic of all organisms A. flame-cell B. gastro-vascular C. xylem-phloem 9 D. diffusion 9240006 D 14 42641 31 02180218 0041 Fixed nitrogen is not added to soil by A. lightning discharges B. bacteria 9 C. animal wastes D. earthworms 9240007 D 14 42643 51 040100080485 0041 Plants manufacture carbohydrates from water and carbon dioxide during photosynthesis with the help of chlorophyll, which acts A. to extract oxygen from the atmosphere B. to shield the reacting molecules from the sun's rays C. to prevent the water from evaporating 9 D. to catalyze the reaction 9240008 D 14 42648 52 0066 0408 0041 A compound not believed to have played an important part in the early stages of the origin of life is A. H O B. NH C. CH D. NaCl 94 2 3 4 9240009 A 14 42651 52 002101990842 0041 The biological oxidation of glucose does NOT yield 9 A. glycogen B. water C. carbon dioxide D. energy 9240010 B 14 42653 51 171003780401 0041 Lipids are synthesized in plants and animals from 9 A. proteins B. carbohydrates C. enzymes D. nucleic acids 9240011 C 14 42655 52 0679 0041 Living cells principally consist of 9 A. carbohydrates B. lipids C. proteins D. nucleic acids 9240012 D 14 42657 52 04540679 0041 Living things differ most from one another in their constituent 9 A. carbohydrates B. lipids C. amino acids D. proteins 9240013 B 15 42659 31 002711331134 0018 The practice of refining wheat and polishing rice leads to A. an increase of mercury compounds in our bodies B. a decrease in the consumption of physiologically valuable zinc C. a decrease in the consumption of cadmium compounds D. an increase in lead consumption 9 E. none of these 9240014 C 15 42664 51 003701910842 0018 Which compound is the product of the hydrolysis of glycogen? A. ribose B. fructose C. glucose D. galactose 9 E. lactose 9240015 C 15 42666 51 002110290861 0018 Addition of certain oxidizing agents such as nitrates or nitrites to the bloodstream can oxidize the ferrous ion to the 5 3+ ferric (Fe ) state and result in A. oxyhemoglobin B. carboxyhemoglobin C. methemoglobinemia D. oxygen toxicity 9 E. anemia 9240016 D 15 42670 51 080001910952 0018 Which of the following is not a product of complete hydrolysis of a nucleic acid? A. nitrogen compounds such as cytosine B. ribose or deoxyribose C. phosphoric acid D. acidic compounds such as citric acid 9 E. none of these 9240017 D 15 42674 51 097809790981 0018 Transfer RNA molecules can bring amino acid units to the protein synthesis site, which is A. a nuclear membrane B. a mitochondrion C. a cell nucleus D. a messenger RNA molecule in the microsome 9 E. none of these 9240018 D 15 42678 51 097800290988 0018 Which of the following is not a true statement about transfer- RNA molecules? A. They have low molecular weights compared to normal RNA. B. they contain a number of "abnormal" nucleotides not found in normal RNA. C. Most (80% to 90%) of the molecule exists in a double helix, but it is folded back on itself. D. RNA molecules unwind during cell division, forming two exact copies of the original molecule. E. The last three nucleotide units on one of the "loose" ends 9 of the RNA molecule are always the same. 9240019 D 15 42686 51 007909760990 0018 Proteins that wrap themselves around long stretches of DNA and prevent the DNA from transferring its coded information to messenger RNA are called A. globulins B. albuminods C. inducers D. repressors 9 E. inhibitors 9240020 C 15 42690 51 040010051006 0018 Poisons such as nerve gases act by A. denaturing proteins B. hydrolyzing lipids C. inhibiting the action of cholinesterase D. inhibiting the formation of acetylcholine 9 E. inhibiting the hydrolysis of acetylcholine 9240021 A 15 42694 51 101004001014 0018 Atropine could act as a poison by A. blocking acetylcholine from transmitting nerve signals B. blocking cholinesterase from hydrolyzing acetylcholine C. blocking the formation of acetylcholine D. blocking the formation of cholinesterase 9 E. none of these 9240022 E 15 42698 51 10311032 0018 Prontosil breaks down in the body to form __________, the active agent against streptococcal infections. A. sulfapyridine B. p-aminobenzoic acid C. penicillin D. folic acid 9 E. sulfanilamide 9240023 D 15 42701 51 083010331031 0018 In the synthesis of folic acid, bacteria normally use p-aminobenzoic acid. However, in altered folic acid ____________ replaces p-aminobenzoic acid, rendering the folic acid ineffective as a coenzyme and inhibiting the growth of the bacteria. A. sulfapyridine B. penicillin C. prontosil D. sulfanilamide 9 E. streptomycin 9240024 C 15 42706 51 046310341035 0018 Chemicals produced by microorganisms that can inhibit the growth of or even destroy other microorganisms are called A. chemotherapeutic agents B. antimetabolites C. antibiotics D. hormones 9 E. none of these 9240025 C 15 42709 51 102710411042 0018 Which of the following classes of drugs are excreted to a large extent in the urine in unchanged form, with the extent of excretion dependent on ph? A. barbiturates B. hallucinogens C. amphetamines D. analgesics 9 E. none of these 9240026 D 14 42713 51 113004000785 0026 Which of the following poisons would best be classed as metabolic poisons? A. phosgene B. carbon monoxide 9 C. sulfite ion D. fluoroacetic acid. 9240027 D 14 42716 31 041311300785 0026 A cumulative poison is one that builds up slowly in the body. Which of these are cumulative? 9 A. carbon monoxide B. phosgene C. lithium D. mercury. 9240028 C 14 42719 51 034311300400 0026 A good chemical for treating a victim of lead poisoning is, 9 A. aspirin B. BAL C. EDTA D. NTA 9240029 A 14 42721 51 11300400 0026 Which of the following would be likely sources of anticholinesterase neurotoxins? 9 A. war gases B. insecticides C. mushrooms D. fungicides 9240030 B 14 42723 51 124012411242 0019 D(+)-glyceraldehyde can be transformed into ------- lactic acid. 9 A. d(+) B. d(-) C. l(+) D. l(-) 9240031 A 15 42725 51 12611262 0019 Which of the following is an oral contraceptive? A. norethindrone B. acetylcholine C. aldosterone D. sarsasapogin 9 E. testosterone 9240032 B 15 42728 52 056812631264 0019 Assuming a direct proportionality, calculate the lethal dosage of 4 -5 digitalis for a 150 lb man if 6 x 10 g is of digitalis is sufficient to stop the heart of a 20 g mouse. 9 A. .045 B. .2 C. .99 D. .45 E. .0045 9240033 D 15 42732 51 127012711272 0019 Cytidylic acid will yield -------- upon hydrolysis. A. cytidine alcohol B. cytidine and ribose C. cytidene and deoxyribose D. cytidine, ribose and phosphoric acid 9 E. cytidine, deoxyribose and phosphoric acid 9240034 B 14 42735 51 068312731063 0019 The reaction ADP + H PO ---> ATP + H O is ____________. 4 3 4 2 A. exothermic by 12 kcal/mole B. endothermic by 12 kcal/mole C. not balanced 9 D. an oxidation reduction reaction 9240035 D 15 42738 51 019212741275 0019 The substances which act as chemical messengers in the humoral system are called-------. A. enzymes B. apoenzymes C. coenzymes D. hormones 9 E. peptidases 9240036 B 14 42741 51 104609771240 0019 Fructose-1,6-diphosphate ultimately yields------- glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate(s). 9 A. one B. two C. three D. none 9240037 B 14 42743 51 002109770553 0019 The oxidation of one mole of stearic acid occurs via the spiral ------- times to yield ------ moles of acetylcoenzyme A . 9 A. 8,9 B. 8,8 C. 7,8 D. 7,7 9240038 A 14 42746 51 001712811063 0019 The reduction of one mole of NAD is accomplished by the formation of -------- moles of ATP. 9 A. one B. two C. three D. four 9240039 C 14 42748 51 128202000054 0019 The dark reaction in the process of photosynthesis ----------. A. cannot occur in the dark B. cannot occur in the light C. can occur in the light 9 D. none of the above are correct 9240040 B 14 42751 51 128312840261 0019 Ribulose diphosphate combines with carbon dioxide and cleaves to form ------- molecules of glyceric acid-3-phosphate. 9 A. one B. two C. three D. four 9240041 D 14 42754 52 008710550008 0009 In a 0.10 M solution of glycine, H C(NH )CO h, at a pH of 10, the 4 2 2 2 most abundent species next to water is 5 - A. OH B. H C(NH )CO 4 2 3 2 5 + - C. H C(NH )CO H D. H C(NH )CO 94 2 3 2 2 2 2 9240042 B 14 42759 51 152409881564 0009 A synthetic RNA made up of only the base uracil would probably cause a cell to produce a polypeptide which contained only A. uracil B. phenylalanine C. three phenylalanines 9 D. any amino acid other than glu, gln or lys 9240043 B 14 42763 51 156715680996 0009 The argument for evolution gains support from which of the following? A. Proteins, nucleic acids and carbohydrates are not suffinciently stable to be found in fossils B. The function of a particular enzyme in man is served by enzymes of similar structure in other organisms C. The "active site" in an enzyme is the locale for most mutations 9 D. DNA is found in all organisms 9240044 C 14 42769 51 162111201622 0009 An anion which promotes the growth of algae in water is 5 - 2- 3- - A. Cl B. SO C. PO D. CN 94 4 4 9240045 C 15 42772 51 038516300029 0034 The simplest self-sustaining unit of life is 9 A. DNA B. protein C. the cell D. RNA E. ribosome 9240046 E 15 42774 52 004304140600 0034 The combustion of coal differs from the decompostion of carbohydrates in the cell in that A. coal produces energy whereas carbohydrates do not B. coal produces CO whereas carbohydrates do not 4 2 C. coal combustion gives usable energy whereas carbohydrate decomposition does not D. coal combustion occurs over a wide temperature range whereas carbohydrate decomposition occurs over a very narrow range 9 E. none of the above 9240047 C 15 42781 51 02000159 0034 In photosynthesis A. unstable molecules are converted into stable ones B. a large amount of energy is released C. energy storage takes place D. carbohydrates are broken down into CO and H O 4 2 2 9 E. proteins are formed 9240048 B 15 42785 31 113004071628 2923 IU Metabolism is best described as A. the synthesis of classes of ordered macromolecules B. the totality of the chemical reactions of a living system C. the ordering of structure which is essential for function D. the thermodynamics of living organisms 9 E. the storage of basic information in living cells 9240049 D 15 42790 31 113004071628 2924 IU Which of the following statements is true A. The life process is dependent on a sort of organization which is not directly expressed in the structures of molecules such as proteins B. The structures of proteins and polysaccharides account for the properties of living systems C. An orderly sequence of metabolic processes requires that the metabolism as a whole be sensitive to an organized set of control mechanisms D. Both A and C 9 E. Both B and C 9240050 E 15 42797 31 16300870 2926 IU The maintenance of the life process involves A. maintaining a low level of orderliness B. a continual positive entropy change C. maintaining zero standard free energy D. a continual positive free energy change 9 E. a continual negative entropy change 9240051 D 15 42801 31 087001591630 2927 IU The negative entropy change involved in life maintenance can be overcome by A. the input of energy B. the input derived from positive entropy changes in the environment C. the input of enthalpy D. any of the above 9 E. none of the above 9240052 C 15 42805 31 162811300407 2928 IU For a given living system, the metabolism of that system is most closely associated with A. the nature of the nucleic acids present B. the nature of the protein present C. the sum of the chemical reactions which occur D. the totality of all polymers present 9 E. energy generation through oxidation processes. 9240053 E 15 42810 51 086516360021 IU Some organisms use protons as the acceptor for electrons released in oxidation reactions. For such organisms which of the following statements is likely to be true? A. The organism will evolve H 4 2 B. The organism may live by oxidizing succinate C. The organism may live by oxidizing beta-hydroxybutyrate D. Both A and B 9 E. Both A and C. 9240054 C 15 42816 51 16350009 2950 IU All of the cytochromes contain one or more atoms of A. P B. Cu C. Fe D. Sn 9 E. Zn 9240055 E 15 42818 51 163716411638 2954 IU Which of the following are components of the electron transport chain A. nicotinamide nucleotide coenzymes B. ATP C. flavin nucleotides D. both A and B 9 E. both A and C. 9240056 D 15 42821 51 16371635 2955 IU Which of the following are components of the electron transport chain A. myoglobin B. ATP C. carboxypeptidase D. cytochromes 9 E. none of the above. 9240057 C 15 42824 51 163708301063 2957 IU Along the electron transport chain, the synthesis of ATP occurs at A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 9 E. 5 independent sites. 9240058 D 15 42826 51 012616351637 2959 IU Cyanide is able to combine with and prevent the function of some cytochromes of the electron transport chain. As a consequence, one would expect that the rate of ATP synthesis would ( ) and that the rate of oxygen consumption would ( ). A. increase, increase B. increase, decrease C. decrease, increase D. decrease, decrease 9 E. decrease, not change. 9240059 C 15 42831 51 002116421063 2960 IU Dinitrophenol uncouples the process of oxidation and phosphorylation. That is, electron transfer and synthesis of ATP become independent processes. The result is that the rate of ATP synthesis is ( ) and the rate of oxygen consumption is ( ) A. increased, increased B. increased, decreased C. decreased, increased D. decreased, decreased 9 E. not changed, not changed. 9240060 A 15 42837 51 100116351637 2961 IU Suppose that an inhibitor of cytochrome C is added to the electron transfer chain. As a result, the electron carrier further down the electron transport chain will become ( ) and the rate of oxygen consumption will ( ). A. oxidized, decrease B. oxidized, increase C. reduced, decrease D. reduced, increase 9 E. oxidized, not change. 9240061 A 15 42842 51 09790976 2967 IU Messenger RNA is synthesized by A. making a complementary copy of one of the two complementary chains of DNA B. complementary base pairing between transfer RNA and DNA C. interaction of ribosomes and aminoacyl-transfer RNA D. reaction of amino acids with ATP 9 E. none of the above 9240062 B 15 42847 31 11300029 2925 IU Which of the following statements is untrue A. The DNA molecule in a liver cell is the same as the DNA molecule in a brain cell B. The metabolism of a liver cell is the same as the metabolism of a brain cell C. Not all of the information present in a cell is expressed at any given time D. There must be order and organization in the control processes as well as order and organization in the metabolic processes E. DNA carries the code of instructions for the synthesis of 9 specific enzymes 9240063 B 15 42855 52 160700211063 2938 IU The key chemical intermediate synthesized by the oxidation of foodstuffs is A. ADP B. ATP C. NADH D. RNA 9 E. DNA 9240064 D 15 42857 51 040709780981 2968 IU The reaction of aminoacyl-amp with transfer RNA A. is isoenergetic B. is specific for each type of transfer RNA C. is an important step in protein synthesis D. all of the above 9 E. only B and C 9240065 A 15 42860 51 098110681273 2970 IU Which of the following is NOT an important step in protein synthesis A. activation of amino acids by ADP B. formation of amino acyl-transfer RNA molecules C. synthesis of messenger RNA D. formation of a complex between ribosomes and messenger RNA E. binding of amino acyl-transfer RNA to ribosome-messenger 9 RNA complex 9300001 C 14 42865 31 147304611335 0026 Which of the following materials is added to a blast furnace to get rid of impurities such as sand? 9 A. coke B. carbon C. calcium carbonate D. iron oxide. 9300002 D 14 42868 31 0404 0026 Which is the most important element industrially? 9 A. Al B. Si C. Fe D. Cl. 9300003 E 15 42870 32 00081122 0040 Natural waters may be purified for various uses by which one of the following methods? A. addition of a bacteriocide (chlorine) B. distillation C. ion exchange D. reverse osmosis 9 E. all responses are correct 9300004 B 15 42874 31 10401483 0040 In which of the following sequences are the compounds listed in order of increasing annual production? A. H SO , Cl , NaOH B. O , NH , H SO 4 2 4 2 2 3 2 4 C. Cl , H SO , NH D. Cl , NH , NaOH 4 2 2 4 3 2 3 9 E. No correct response is given 9300005 D 15 42878 31 104014830056 0040 The chemical produced industrially in a quantity twice that of any other chemical is A. nitric acid B. sodium hydroxide C. nitrogen D. sulfuric acid 9 E. No correct response is given. 9300006 D 15 42881 31 104014830404 0040 Two of the five chemicals produced in largest quantities in the United States are elements. They are A. H and O B. N and Cl C. O and N D. O and Cl 4 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 9 E. No correct response is given 9310001 B 15 42885 32 04520109038711 ETS2WVW In the Linde liquid air machine the cooling effect is due to A. the boiling of a liquid B. the work done by the air when it expands C. the energy required to overcome the cohesion between molecules D. the calcium chloride solution 9 E. the energy required to compress the air 9310002 D 14 42889 31 017101090025 2WVW In the fractional distillation of liquid air, the gas which boils off last is A. argon B. helium C. nitrogen 9 D. oxygen 9310003 C 14 42891 31 2WVW Hydrogenation is a process used to A. fill weather balloons B. homogenize fats C. increase the yield of gasoline 9 D. reduce oxide ore 9310004 C 14 42893 32 2WVW The solvent used in the extraction of aluminum from its ore is A. cryolite B. bauxite C. water 9 D. molten sodium chloride 9310005 D 14 42895 31 147300130016 0041 The final step in aluminum refining involves 9 A. hematite B. slag C. a blast furnace D. electrolysis 9310006 B 14 42897 51 176208440214 0043 In the Mond process nickel is reacted with: A. HCl B. CO C. NH D. HCN. 94 3 9310007 A 14 42899 51 008613350231 0043 The calcium in the limestone added to a blast furnace ends up in: 9 A. slag B. gangue C. calcium carbonate D. metallic calcium. 9310008 D 14 42901 51 104000320013 0043 The final step in the production of highly refined copper metal is: A. smelting B. complexing 9 C. roasting D. electrolytic refining. 9310009 D 14 42903 51 098000870199 0043 5 + Treatment of a solution containing Ag(NH ) with glucose yields: 4 3 2 A. Ag O B. AgOH C. AgO D. Ag 94 2 9310010 D 14 42906 51 006211221770 0043 Metallic solids may be purified to ultrahigh levels by: A. electrolytic reduction B. vacuum distillation 9 C. selective adsorption D. zone refining. 9310011 D 14 42909 51 177501920045 0043 In the Ostwald process the substance which is used to oxidize NH 4 3 is: A. NO B. Pt C. H O D. O 94 2 2 2 9310012 B 14 42912 51 005600130806 0043 When pure H SO is electrolyzed, the product at the anode is: 4 2 4 A. H S O B. H S O C. H S O D. H S O 94 2 2 7 2 2 8 2 2 3 2 4 6 9310013 C 14 42915 51 054700560234 0043 In the manufacture of sulfuric acid by the contact process, SO 4 3 is not added to water directly to form H SO , because: 4 2 4 A. the reaction does not go to completion B. the reaction is exothermic C. the reaction is quite slow D. SO is insoluble in H O 94 3 2 9310014 B 14 42921 51 019204850234 0043 A substance which is commonly used as a catalyst in the contact process is: A. Fe O B. V O C. SO D. Ag O 94 2 3 2 5 3 2 9310015 B 14 42924 31 07870211 0026 How is the chlorine recycled in the production of magnesium metal? A. reacts with lime to produce CaCl 4 2 B. reacts with magnesium by hydroxide to produce magnesium chloride C. reacts with magnesium metal to form the chloride 9 D. all of these are useful reactions. 9310016 C 15 42929 51 08061236 0020 The intermediate product in the manufacture of rayon is called A. carbon disulfide B. cellulose C. a xanthate D. cellophane 9 E. none of these 9310017 E 15 42932 31 00561331 0020 Sulfuric acid is used to produce 9 A. paints B. rayon C. steel D. fertilizers E. all of these 9310018 D 15 42934 51 078700561333 0020 In the contact process, sulfuric acid is produced when water is added to A. sulfur dioxide B. S O 4 2 6 C. H SO 4 2 3 D. pyrosulfuric acid 9 E. all of these 9310019 B 15 42937 51 137200061173 0020 Commercially, chlorine is prepared A. by heating sodium chloride B. from the electrolysis of aqueous sodium chloride C. from the decomposition of hydrochloric acid D. from seaweed 9 E. from salt water 9310020 A 15 42940 31 104014830056 0040 Which of the following compounds is not an intermediate in the commercial production of sulfuric acid? A. H S B. H S O C. SO D. SO 4 2 2 2 7 2 3 9 E. No correct response is given. 9310021 A 15 42943 31 104000560094 0040 The source of the S used for H SO manufacture is underground 4 2 4 deposits of S which are obtained by the A. Frasch process B. Haber process C. contact process D. Ostwald process 9 E. No correct response is given. 9310022 C 15 42947 31 104000720196 0040 Most of the H needed for NH production is obtained from 4 2 3 A. the atmosphere B. decomposition of water C. steam-hydrocarbon reforming D. electrolysis of aqueous nacl 9 E. No correct response is given. 9310023 C 15 42951 31 00250461 0040 Steel-making consumes over 70% of the annual production of A. sulfuric acid B. ammonia C. oxygen D. chlorine 9 E. No correct response is given. 9310024 A 15 42954 31 148300060215 0040 Which of the following pairs of chemicals are produced by a single industrial process? A. Cl and NaOH B. NaOH and NH 4 2 3 C. NH and Cl D. H SO and Cl 9 E. No correct response is given 9310025 B 15 42958 31 148300060215 0040 The basic raw materials for the chlor-alkali industry are A. sea water B. common salt (NaCl) and water C. HCl and mercury D. lye and HClO 9 E. No correct response is given 9310026 C 15 42961 31 148600090461 0040 The most widely used form of iron is A. cast iron B. pig iron C. steel D. coke 9 E. No correct response is given. 9310027 B 15 42963 31 147300170032 0040 The production of which one of the following metals involves a self-reduction step? A. iron B. copper C. gold D. aluminum 9 E. both A and B 9310028 C 15 42966 31 14730032 0040 In the refining of copper the correct sequence for the process listed below is A. flotation, smelting, roasting B. roasting, smelting, flotation C. flotation, roasting, smelting D. smelting, flotation, roasting 9 E. No correct response is given. 9310029 B 15 42970 31 14730032 0040 Antiqueing is a process used on alloys containing A. gold B. copper C. iron D. silver 9 E. both A and D are correct 9310030 B 14 42972 51 085205890114 0009 To convert graphite to diamond, one would use A. high temperatures at atmospheric pressure B. high pressures at an elevated temperature C. oxygen under pressure 9 D. the philosopher's stone 9310031 D 14 42975 52 19480016 0059 The usual source of Al for the commercial production of Al metal is: 9 A. feldspar B. clay C. corundum D. bauxite 9310032 A 14 42977 52 194710750013 0058 A commercial process for producing H O is based on: 4 2 2 A. electrolysis of aqueous H SO 4 2 4 B. a reaction of H and O in the presence of a catalyst 4 2 2 C. absorption of O by water under pressure 4 2 D. a reaction of Pbo and H SO 94 2 2 4 9310033 B 15 45241 31 All of the following statements about sodium hydroxide are true EXCEPT: A. Most drain cleaners contain NaOH. B. NaOH is prepared commercially by the electrolysis of molten NaCl. C. It is used in the preparation of soap. D. It is used in the purification of aluminum ore. 9 E. It reacts with carbon dioxide. 9330001 D 15 42983 32 03440018045011 ETS2 OS At present, the most important demand for potassium salts is for use A. in gunpowder B. in matches C. in the manufacture of cement D. as laboratory reagents 9 E. as fertilizer 9330002 C 15 42986 52 00090459 11 ETS2 OS Concerning the different varieties of iron, A. wrought iron contains the greatest percentage of carbon B. high carbon steel is similar in composition to wrought iron C. cast iron cannot be tempered D. in the united states most of the steel is made by the besemer process 9 E. gray cast iron contains NO carbon 9330003 D 15 42991 32 01940461043011 ETS2WVW Three, and only three, of the following are used in the production of alloy steels. A. Bauxite B. Mercury C. Chromium D. Tungsten E. Nickel The three which are used in alloy steels are A. A,C, and E B. A, B, and C C. B, C, and E D. C, D, and E 9 E. B, C, and D 9330004 D 14 42995 31 00720022 2WVW Ammonia is obtained as a by-product in the commercial production of A. wood charcoal B. sulfuric acid C. water gas 9 D. coke 9330005 A 14 42997 31 2WVW Steels are distinguished from iron by the presence of 9 A. carbon B. chromium C. nickel D. tungsten E. sulfur 9330006 C 14 42999 52 19481769 0059 Carborundum is essentially: A. C B. CaC C. SiC D. Al O 94 2 2 3 9330007 B 14 43001 51 00331296 0043 Pig iron usually contains about 4%: 9 A. Fe B. C C. S D. Ca. 9330008 D 14 43002 51 17640852 0043 Gray cast iron contains: A. iron carbide B. silicon carbide 9 C. silicon dioxide D. graphite. 9330009 D 14 45646 31 040408480092 0043 "Chlorine-type" laundry bleaches are in reality aqueous solutions of A. HOCl B. HClO C. NaClO D. NaOCl E. Cl 94 3 3 2 9330010 A 15 43006 31 10400056 0040 Nearly one-half of all the sulfuric acid produced in the U.S. is used in the production of A. phosphate fertilizers B. high octane gasoline C. car batteries D. iron and steel 9 E. No correct response is given. 9330011 D 15 43009 31 10400072 0040 The main end use of ammonia is A. explosives B. livestock feed C. synthetic fibers D. fertilizers 9 E. No correct response is given. 9330012 D 15 43011 31 10401483 0040 For which of the following chemicals is the fertilizer industry the main consumer? A. H SO B. NaOH C. NH 4 2 4 3 9 E. No correct response is given 9330013 B 15 43014 31 03361483 0040 The most widely used product containing silicon is A. transistors B. glass C. asbestos D. zeolite 9 E. silicones 9330014 B 15 43016 31 03361483 0040 Which of the following elements is most important to the glassmaking industry from the point of view of amount used? A. Pb (lead) B. Si (silicon) C. Ca (Calcium) D. B (boron) 9 E. oxygen 9330015 B 15 43019 31 03361483 0040 A glass containing substantial amounts of potassium and lead is known as A. safety glass B. flint glass C. plate glass D. pyrex glass 9 E. jena glass. 9330016 D 15 43022 31 147304610027 0040 A zinc coating on steel is very effective in preventing rust primarily because A. zinc is flexible and doesn't chip when steel is bent B. zinc is not easily perforated and prevents air from getting to steel C. zinc forms an alloy with the steel D. zinc in contact with steel is corroded rather than the steel 9 E. both A and B 9330017 A 15 43027 31 147304610027 0040 Galvanized iron does not rust because it is protected by a covering of A. zinc B. tin C. copper D. aluminum 9 E. either A or B 9330018 D 14 43029 51 033608100196 0009 The various types of glass you use in the laboratory are unlikely to contain appreciable amounts of: 9 A. oxygen B. boron C. sodium D. hydrogen 9330019 D 15 45394 71 All of the following reactions represent viable methods for the commercial production of hydrogen EXCEPT: A. C H (g) + 3H O(g) ---> 3CO(g) + 7H (g) 4 3 8 2 2 B. C(s) + H O(g) ---> CO(g) + H (g) 4 2 2 5 catalyst C. CO(g) + H O(g) ---------> CO(g) + H (g) 4 2 2 D. 2NH (g) ---> N (g) + 3H (g) 4 3 2 2 5 electrolysis E. 2H O(l) -------------> 2H (g) + O (g) 94 2 2 2 9350001 B 14 43032 51 152416151772 0043 The primary use of zeolites is as: A. lubricants B. molecular sieves C. semiconductors 9 D. plastics E. superconductors 9350002 C 15 43034 51 025110130073 0018 One of the roles of phosphates as builders in detergents is A. to make the detergent more biodegradable bl to help in the desirable role of eutrophication C. to combine with calcium and other dissolved minerals so that the wash water will be softened D. to maintain a desirable level of acidity in the water 9 E. none of above 9350003 D 15 43039 51 101710130002 0018 Which of the following is classified as a builder in detergents? A. glycerol B. Alkylbenzene sulfonates C. Phenol D. Sodium tripolyphosphate 9 E. Fatty acids 9350005 D 14 43042 31 134303320687 0026 Which of the following would you consider most essential for a good suntan lotion? A. A good emollient B. A good emulsifier 9 C. A good perfume D. A good U. V. light absorber 9350006 B 15 43045 31 028211540791 0020 The principle involved in the operation of an electric refrigerator is A. cooling by sublimation B. cooling by evaporation C. freezing by liquefaction D. all the above 9 E. none of these 9410001 E 15 43048 31 11 ETS2WVW Which one of the following contains no aluminum? A. corundum B. cryolite C. clay D. sapphire 9 E. hematite 9410002 C 15 43050 31 11 ETS2WVW Sulfides, carbonates, and silicates, in the study of geology, are properly classed as A. igneous rocks B. hydrates C. minerals D. elastic sediments 9 E. metamorphic rocks 9410003 BEBAA 55 43053 31 1190 ETS2WVW MACROITEM STEM 2The following questions refer to some of the methods used to 2identify minerals. For each item select from the key the most 2appropriate response. 2 A. Chemical tests 2 B. cleavage or examination of crystalline faces 2 C. characteristic odor after striking the specimen 2 D. structure 0 E. tests of hardness MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 A valuable aid to the identification of mica MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 The most satisfactory field test for distinguishing calcite 2 from quartz MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 3 An identification involving a property common to asbestos MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 4 A test very likely to be used in distinguishing fluorite from gypsum MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 9 A test most likely to be used in identifying limestone 9410004 BDEC 45 43062 51 1190 ETS2WVW MACROITEM STEM 2The following questions refer to the four minerals described as 2follows 21. The first mineral fizzes when hydrochloric acid is placed 2upon it. 22. The second mineral is colorless and has a hardness of 10. 23. The third mineral is white and consists of easily separable 2but inelastic scales or plates. It has a hardness of 1. 24. The fourth mineral has a metallic luster, cubic cleavage, and 2is a sulphide. 0 Based on this information, answer the following questions. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 The first mineral A. is a major constituent of granite B. is a major ore of zinc C. is generally used as a ring stone D. has rhombic cleavage and can be scratched with a knife 1 E. is common in cooled lava MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 The second mineral A. when burned in oxygen leaves NO ash B. is a major ore of aluminum C. has well-developed conchoidal fracture D. is commonly used as an abrasive in tooth paste and cleaning powders 2 E. is used as a filler in paint MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 The third mineral A. has a formula of Nacl B. is used to make plaster of paris C. is a major ore of iron D. is usually found in abundance in the residue of evaporated sea water 3 E. is soapy to the touch MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 The fourth mineral A. has a formula of Zns B. is metallic and yellow in color C. is a major ore of lead D. has a specific gravity of .5 9 E. is the second most common mineral 9410005 B 15 43080 31 11 ETS2WVW The second most abundant element in the lithosphere is 3 ______ A. hydrogen B. oxygen C. silicon D. iron 9 E. nitrogen 9410006 A 15 43082 31 11 ETS2WVW A mineral is a naturally occurring substance with characteristic chemical composition and generally reflecting crystalline structure by external geometrical form. As thus defined which of the following is not a mineral? 3 ___ A. carbon monoxide B. common salt C. ice D. lava 9 E. carbon 9410007 A 15 43087 31 11 ETS2WVW A sulfide mineral is described as having a metallic luster, and cubic cleavage. This mineral A. has a formula of ZnS B. is metallic and yellow in color C. is a major ore of lead D. has a specific gravity of .5 9 E. is the second most common mineral 9410008 B 15 43091 31 11 ETS2WVW Heating limonite, a yellow hydrated iron oxide, yields A. metallic iron B. a compound with a characteristic red color C. a product useful in neutralizing acid soils D. good brick-making material 9 E. precipitation of calcareous tufa 9410009 E 15 43095 31 11 ETS2WVW The one of the following which may be classed as a mineral is A. quartz B. obsidian C. basalt D. scoria 9 E. all of the above 9410010 D 15 43097 31 11 ETS2WVW Which one of these statements is false? A. All rocks of the earth are composed of minerals. B. Minerals in the earth show a great range of chemical composition. C. Minerals can be identified through a study of their physical properties. D. All metals are obtained from mineral deposits. E. All chemical alterations in minerals result from diastrophic 9 forces. 9410011 C 15 43103 31 11 ETS2WVW Galena, lead ore, is found as A. an oxide B. a carbonate C. a sulfide D. a pure substance, or uncombined 9 E. a by-product of iron ores 9410012 B 15 43106 31 11 ETS2WVW Which one of the following minerals is most abundant in the lithosphere? A. mica B. quartz C. calcite D. gypsum 9 E. galena 9410013 D 15 43108 31 11 ETS2WVW Gypsum is A. a carbonate B. an oxide C. a silicate D. a sulfate 9 E. a sulfide 9410014 EDAC 45 43110 31 1190 ETS2WVW MACROITEM STEM 2The following questions refer to ores from which it is profitable to 2extract metals. For each item select from the key the form in which 2the ore is found. 2 A. Uncombined 2 B. Hydrated oxide 2 C. Oxide 2 D. Carbonate 0 E. Sulfide MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 Galena, lead ore MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 Sphalerite, zinc ore MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 3 Copper ore, Michigan MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 9 Hemitite, iron ore, Minnesota 9410015 C 15 43115 31 11 ETS2WVW Inherent color in a mineral is A. the color produced by impurities B. color associated with metallic luster C. characteristic of the pure compound D. the exotic color of the specimen 9 E. variation in the depth of color in the specimen 9410016 D 14 43119 52 194805890852 0059 With respect to diamond and graphite: 1. the crystal systems are the same. 2. The number of C atoms per unit cell is the same. 3. The percent empty space in unit cells is the same. 4. The sta- bilities under room conditions are the same. A. All statements are true B. Only 1, 2, and 3 are true C. Only 2 and 3 are false 9 D. All statements are false 9410017 DEC 35 43124 31 1190 ETS2WVW MACROITEM STEM 2The following questions refer to the sources of some of our 2common metals. For each item select from the key the associated 2ore. 2 A. Galena 2 B. Hematite 2 C. Bauxite 2 D. Sphalerite 0 E. Some ore other than one of the above four MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 An important ore of zinc MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 An important ore of copper MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 9 An important ore of aluminum 9410018 BAEDC 55 43129 31 1190 ETS2WVW MACROITEM STEM 2To answer the following questions, use the key to classify 2each item as to the type of chemical compound. 2 A. Carbonate 2 B. Halide 2 C. Oxide 2 D. Silicate 0 E. Sulfate MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 Rock salt MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 Mica MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 3 Gypsum MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 4 Feldspar MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 9 Quartz (the main constituent of sand) 9410019 ECAA 45 43133 31 11 ETS2WVW MACROITEM STEM 2The following questions are a list of minerals. Select from 2the key the group to which each belongs. 2 A. Silicates 2 B. Carbonates 2 C. Sulfates 2 D. Halides 0 E. Oxides MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 Quartz MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 Gypsum MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 3 Mica MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 9 Feldspar 9410020 ECBA 45 43136 31 1190 ETS2WVW MACROITEM STEM 2For each item, select from the key the essential metal 2characteristic of the mineral given in the item. 2 A. Lead 2 B. Copper 2 C. Aluminum 2 D. Zinc 0 E. Iron MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 Hematite MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 Bauxite MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 3 Chalcopyrite MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 9 Galena 9410021 EDB 35 43139 31 1190 ETS2WVW MACROITEM STEM 2For each item, select from the key the essential metal 2characteristic of the mineral given in the item. 2 A. Lead 2 B. Copper 2 C. Aluminum 2 D. Zinc 0 E. Iron MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 Limonite MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 Sphalerite MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 9 Malachite 9410022 A 15 43142 31 11 ETS2WVW The atmosphere A. as a mixture, has a greater specific gravity than oxygen has B. contains a larger per cent of argon than of CO 4 2 C. contains no element which reacts with heated magnesium D. is completely insoluble in water 9 E. is the principal source of commercial hydrogen 9410023 B 15 43147 31 11 ETS2WVW Judging by the composition of the earth's outer crust, which one of the following compounds would probably occur most commonly in the earth's crust? A. MgCl 4 2 B. SiO 4 2 C. CuO D. NaO 9 E. NaCl 9410024 A 15 43151 31 11 ETS2WVW The dominant minerals of the earth's crust are A. silicates B. organic compounds C. oxides D. native elements 9 E. sulfides 9410025 E 15 43153 31 11 ETS2WVW Which of the following pair of mineral and derived metal is not true? A. Galena-lead B. Hematite-iron C. Gold-gold D. Pitchblende-uranium 9 E. Chalcopyrite-zine 9410026 B 15 43156 31 11 ETS2WVW Which of the following pairs of elements are the most abundant in the lithosphere of the earth? A. Nitrogen and oxygen B. Oxygen and silicon C. Silicon and aluminum D. Calcium and silicon 9 E. Hydrogen and oxygen 9410027 A 14 43160 31 11 ETS2WVW Which one of the following metals does not occur as a free metal in 3 ___ the lithosphere? A. Zinc B. Copper C. Gold 9 D. Silver 9410028 C 15 43163 31 11 ETS2WVW The feldspar minerals are complex compounds composed of sodium, potassium, or calcium silicates in various combinations, principally with the silicate of A. magnesium B. iron C. aluminum D. manganese 9 E. lithium 9410029 D 15 43167 31 11 ETS2WVW A naturally-occurring inorganic substance having a definite chemical composition and, as a rule, a definite form and structure is properly called A. an organic compound B. coal C. a physical property D. a mineral 9 E. a mixture 9410030 D 15 43171 31 11 ETS2WVW The mineral which is very soft, and composed of thin elastic plates that separate easily is called A. galena B. calcite C. quartz D. mica 9 E. feldspar 9410031 B 14 43174 31 001508570010 2WVW Metals near the bottom of the electro-chemical series would probably be found as A. carbonate ores B. native ores C. oxides ores 9 D. sulfide ores 9410032 A 15 43177 31 12 ETS2WVW Estimate roughly the atomospheric pressure on a mountaintop 8000 ft in elevation above sea level. In pounds per square inch, it is approximately A. 7 B. 9 C. 10 D. 11 9 E. 12 9410033 D 14 43180 31 018908220025 2 OS The most abundant element associated with earth is A. silicon B. carbon C. hydrogen 9 D. oxygen 9410034 A 14 43182 31 04150189 0041 The most abundant element in the earth's crust is 9 A. oxygen B. nitrogen C. silicon D. carbon 9410035 B 14 43184 31 041501890321 0041 The most abundant element in the earth's atmosphere is 9 A. oxygen B. nitrogen C. hydrogen D. carbon 9410036 C 14 43186 31 068404540852 0041 Silica is not an important constituent of 9 A. quartz B. glass C. graphite D. sand 9410037 C 14 43188 51 162104771771 0043 The anion repeat unit in the pyroxene minerals is: 5 4- 6- 2- 2- A. SiO B. Si O C. SiO D. Si O 94 4 2 7 3 2 5 9410038 D 14 43191 31 00941458 0043 Sulfur is found naturally in large deposits as: A. sulfuric acid B. sulfurous acid 9 C. hydrosulfuric acid D. free sulfur. 9410039 D 14 43193 31 06840350 0026 Which statement about silica is not true. A. Can exist as a crystalline substance and as a glass B. Contains si-o bonds C. Is used to make glass 9 D. Has a low melting point. 9410040 D 14 43196 31 009411591458 0019 Sulfur is found in large deposits in the form of ------. A. H SO B. Na SO C. H S D. S 94 2 4 2 3 2 9410041 C 15 43198 31 021604770086 0040 Limestone is an impure form of A. NaCl B. SiO C. CaCO D. Mg(OH) E. CaSiO 94 2 3 2 4 9410042 A 15 43200 31 001405890477 0040 Which of the following elements occurs in nature in at least one pure form, uncombined with other elements? A. carbon B. phosphorus C. silicon D. sodium 9 E. more than one correct response 9410043 C 15 43203 31 033606850477 0040 All silicate minerals are based on the simple tetrahedral silicate ion, which is 5 4- 4- 4- 8- A. SiO B. SiO C. SiO D. Si O E. Si 94 2 3 4 2 8 9410044 B 15 43207 31 147300320010 0040 In the metallurgy of copper which one of the following serves as an important natural source of the metal? A. Copper sulfate B. Copper sulfide C. Brass D. Bronze 9 E. Cinnabar 9410045 E 15 43210 31 14730039 0040 Which of the following metals has as a commercial source the naturally occurring free element? 9 A. Iron B. Copper C. Gold D. Silver E. both C and D 9410046 B 14 43213 51 006708520879 0009 Many of the properties of graphite resemble those of mica because A. both contain a group 4a element B. both have two-dimensional layer structures C. both are thermodynamically stable at 25 degrees C and 1 atm 9 D. they occur together in nature 9410047 C 15 43217 51 OS86 The most abundant element (by mass) on the earth's surface (the crust, the oceans and the atmosphere) is 9 A. carbon B. silicon C. oxygen D. hydrogen E. iron 9410048 C 15 44504 31 Quartz is A. a carbonate C. an oxide E. a sulfate 9 B. a halide D. a chloride 9430001 B 15 43220 31 06340379048011 ETS2WVW The most acceptable method for estimating the age of the earth is related to the A. rate of increase of salt in the ocean B. radioactive changes in the lithosphere C. rate of melting of present glaciers D. thickness of and rate of deposition of sedimentary layers 9 E. rate of cooling of the centrosphere 9430002 C 15 43225 31 11 ETS2WVW The transformation of wood into hard coal involves some of the following stages A. Anthracite B. Bituminous C. Graphite D. Coke E. Liguite F. Peat A correct sequential list of the actual states would be A. C, B, E, D B. F, B, A, D, E C. F, E, B, A D. E, F, C, A 9 E. F, D, E, B, A 9430003 C 15 43230 31 11 ETS2WVW Petrification of wood involves A. a compacting of the wood due to great pressures followed by cementation by silica B. a slow baking process whereby the clay in the spaces of the wood is hardened C. elimination of the woody substances and their replacement with minerals D. deposition of minerals in the spaces between the wood fibers E. chemical oxidation of soft wood fibers to hard mineral-like 9 substances 9430004 A 15 43236 31 11 ETS2WVW All of these may be produced by chemical weathering except 3 ______ A. quartz B. diamond C. kaolin D. calcite 9 E. limonite 9430005 A 15 43239 31 11 ETS2WVW The fine-grained texture of an igneous rock is produced by A. rapid cooling B. slow cooling C. cooling deep down in the earth D. long transportation by streams 9 E. not solidifying 9430006 B 15 43242 31 11 ETS2WVW Igneous rocks are those which A. have been transported by wind B. have solidified from molten material C. usually contain abundant calcite D. are always light in color 9 E. are always dark in color 9430007 B 15 43245 31 11 ETS2WVW Of the following, the one that would be classed as a chemical sediment is A. chert B. sandstone C. shale D. tuff 9 E. conglomerate 9430008 D 14 43248 32 040703210025 0041 Reactions that involve atmospheric oxygen are never promoted by A. moisture B. carbonic acid 9 C. bacterial activity D. low temperatures 9430009 B 14 43250 51 041412061454 0041 Coal is composed of A. petrified wood B. buried plant material that has partially decayed C. buried animal material that has partially decayed 9 D. a variety of iron ore 9430010 A 14 43253 31 03210985 0043 Lightning bolts in the atmosphere cause the formation of: A. NO B. NH C. NH OH D. NH OH 94 3 4 2 9430011 C 15 43255 51 041406890985 0040 Coal in the final stage of formation is called 9 A. peat B. lignite C. anthracite D. bituminous E. diamond. 9430012 B 15 43257 51 03210822 0034 The atmosphere surrounding the primitive pre-biotic earth is believed to have consisted of A. H O, H , N , CO 4 2 2 2 2 B. H O, H , NH , CH 4 2 2 3 4 C. H O, CO , O , NH 4 2 2 2 3 D. NO , CH , H , O 4 2 4 2 2 E. O , H , N , C 94 2 2 2 2 9500001 E 15 43262 51 01591018 0018 Which of the following is not a possible source of energy for the future? A. Solar energy B. Tidal energy C. Geothermal energy D. Nuclear reactors 9 E. None of these(i.e.,all are sources) 9500002 A 15 43265 51 110906870025 0018 The photochemical dissociation of water vapor in the upper atmosphere by short-wavelength ultraviolet light ultimately yields as the main product A. oxygen B. hydroxyl radicals C. ozone D. hydrogen peroxide 9 E. none of these 9500003 A 14 43269 51 110404120610 0018 The greenhouse effect is the explanation for the way in which A. water vapor and carbon dioxide in the air not only absorb infrared radiation from the earth but reradiate it back to the earth. B. gases are lost into the atmosphere. C. ultraviolet light (sun's rays) break up molecules. 9 D. cool air mases below warm air masses are unable to rise. 9500004 B 14 43274 51 016102860495 0018 The two explanations for the fluctuation in the mean global temperature are as follows: (A) loss of heat into space decreases because of the buildup of CO , so the earth heats up (carbon dioxide reradiates the heat 4 2 back to earth). (B) the buildup of particles in the air (turbidity) allows the sun's rays to penetrate more easily, allowing the earth to heat up. (C) the buildup of particles in the air (turbidity) causes the incoming light to be reflected or scattered, thereby decreasing the amount of heat that reaches the earth. (D) the earth cools off because the CO content in the air is 4 2 building up so that CO absorbs more of the sun's rays. 4 2 9 A. A and B B. A and C C. A and D D. B and C E. B and D 9500005 A 15 43285 51 01091108 0018 When air is heated, it generally rises if there is cooler air on top of it. However, if there is warmer air on top, then the heated air cannot rise; instead it sinks back down again. This situation, in which there is a warm layer of air over a colder layer of air, is called A. an inversion B. the greenhouse effect C. photosynthesis D. a biogeochemical cycle 9 E. none of these 9500006 A 14 43291 31 11220008 0026 To make most water fit for drinking, the primary treatment is A. removal of silt B. chlorination C. fluoridation 9 D. adjustment of pH. 9500007 B 14 43293 31 02160109 0026 An approximate global level of carbon dioxide is 9 A. 1 ppm B. 20 ppm C. .1 ppm D. 100 ppm. 9500008 B 15 43295 51 000801651163 0020 Most of the water of the world is contained A. in the polar ice caps B. in the oceans C. as subsurface water D. in lakes 9 E. in rivers 9500009 E 15 43298 51 11640008 0020 An average person consumes approximately how many gallons of water per day? A. 1000 B. 30 C. 140 D. 360 9 E. 7 9500010 D 15 43300 31 11630008 0020 Ocean waters contain A. bromides B. gold compounds C. silver compounds D. all of these 9 E. none of these 9500011 C 14 43302 31 11680211 0020 Hard water can be caused by the presence of A. nitrate ions B. sodium ions C. magnesium ions 9 D. potassium ions 9500012 B 14 43304 31 015601641518 0009 One way to remove the unpleasant taste of chlorinated water is to A. filter it B. add NH C. add NaOH D. soften it 94 3 9500013 A 14 43307 51 000814630456 0009 5 2+ - A certain water supply contains Ca and HCO in a 1:2 mole 4 3 ratio. To soften this water by the lime-soda process (lime is Ca(OH) , soda is NaHCO ), one should add 4 2 3 A. only lime B. only soda C. both lime and soda D. CO 94 2 9500014 C 14 43313 51 151913680519 0009 In reverse osmosis, the relationship between the applied pressure, P, and the osmotic pressure, PI, would most likely be 9 A. P < PI B. P = PI C. P > PI D. P >> PI 9500015 D 15 43316 31 116800080073 0019 Hard water is A. ice 5 - B. water containing hCO 4 3 5 + + C. water containing Na and K 5 2+ 2+ 2+ D. water containing Ca , Fe or Mg 9 E. dry ice 9500016 D 15 43320 31 010902180025 0040 The air we breathe is essentailly a mixture of nitrogen and oxygen. The approximate percentages by volume of nitrogen and oxygen are A. 80% oxygen and 20% nitrogen B. 50% oxygen and 50% nitrogen C. 60% oxygen and 40% nitrogen D. 20% oxygen and 80% nitrogen 9 E. 30% oxygen and 20% nitrogen. 9500017 E 15 43325 31 032102141004 0040 The CO concentration in the atmosphere is not increasing at as rapid a rate as expected for the amount released to the atmosphere, indicating that there is a mechanism for its removal once in the air. Recently it was determined that this mechanism is A. the conversion of CO to CO 4 2 B. the conversion of CO to HBCO C. the breakdown of CO to C and O 4 2 D. the conversion of CO to carbonates 9 E. removed by soil organisms 9500018 D 15 43332 31 151802141034 0040 Some soil organisms have a great ability to remove which one of the following from air: A. SO B. NO C. NO D. CO E. O 94 2 2 2 9500019 A 15 43335 31 032102140057 0040 In a typical urban atmosphere the concentrations of CO, SO , 4 2 and NO would respectively be approximately A. 20 ppm, 1.5 ppm, 0.5 ppm B. 1.5 ppm, 20 ppm, 0.5 ppm C. 20 ppm, 0.5 ppm, 1.5 ppm D. 0.5 ppm, 1.5 ppm, 20 ppm 9 E. 20 ppm, 1.5 ppm, 1.5 ppm 9500020 D 14 43340 51 06771602 0009 Dry ice is effective in seeding clouds because A. CO and H O have similar crystal structures 4 2 2 B. it increases the water content of the cloud C. CO molecules offer a nucleus for condensation 4 2 9 D. upon evaporation, it lowers the temperature of the water 9500021 B 15 43344 51 015511541662 0038 Which of following would be most effective in removing undesirable odors from the air circulating in a closed refrigerator? A. solid calcium chloride B. activated charcoal C. concentrated sulfuric acid D. a mixture containing chlorophyll 9 E. rock salt 9510001 B 15 43348 31 11291130 0018 Cadmium poses an environmental health hazard because A. it concentrates in the food chain and enters the human body in high concentrations. B. it is capable of replacing zinc and as a result the body is no longer able to metabolize fats. C. its toxicity is greatly increased by combination with nitrilotriacetic acid. D. it forms a complex with sulfhydryl groups,preventing an essential step in the metabolic reactions for glucose. 9 E. None of these 9510002 C 15 43355 31 099411311132 0018 Which of the following elements is capable of causing a disease called itaiitai that results in severe muscle pains, decalcification of bones,and kidney damage? A. mercury B. zinc C. cadmium D. lead 9 E. arsenic 9510003 B 15 43359 31 113504131136 0018 A mysterious illness known as Minamata bay disease,which killed over 100 people in Japan between 1953 and 1960, was found to be caused by A. cadmium in the water supply B. poisonous mercury wastes from a vinyl chloride plant C. mercury from the fungicide panogen D. lead from automobile exhausts E. organochlorine compounds such as ddt that had dissolved in 9 the bay's waters 9510004 D 15 43365 31 01890413 0018 In the 1950's Sweden discovered that the element ------------ was responsible for the dwindling bird population. 9 A. Cadmium B. Lead C. Zinc D. Mercury E. Tin 9510005 A 15 43368 31 041311371138 0018 The phrase "Mad as a hatter" orginated in the nineteenth century from the use of compounds of ------------ to treat the felt material from which hats were made. 9 A. mercury B. cadmium C. calcium D. zinc E. lead 9510006 C 15 43371 32 110104130598 0018 Which of the following is not a major source of mercury contamination? A. Farmlands on which seeds and trees have been treated with mercury compounds to prevent fungus B. Chemical and plastic industrial plants C. The plating industry D. Paper mills 9 E. All of these are sources of mercury contamination 9510007 B 15 43376 51 099903840057 0018 Which of the following is a major pollutant of electric power generation? A. Carbon monoxide B. Sulfur dioxide C. Ozone D. Peroxyacyl nitrates 9 E. Hydrocarbons 9510008 D 15 43379 51 06420094 0018 Which of the following is not major concern of nuclear power plants? A. Possibility of accidents B. Thermal pollution C. Disposal of radioactive wastes D. Release of sulfur oxides 9 E. Availability of low-cost uranium resources 9510009 A 15 43383 51 021403281111 0018 About 80% of man-made carbon monoxide emissions globally are contributed by A. automoblies B. burning of fossil fuels C. industries D. electric power plants 9 E. none of these 9510010 E 15 43386 51 11140321 0018 Which of the following is not a function of the earth's atmosphere? A. Maintenance of nature's balance between oxygen needed for animal respiration and carbon dioxide needed for photosynthesis by plants B. Source of precipitation C. Protective layer that burns up meteors D. Interception and dispersal of cell-destroying cosmic rays and absorption or scattering of most of ultraviolet rays from the sun 9 E. All of these 9510011 B 14 43393 51 109911000407 0018 A photochemical smog differs from other types of smog in that A. it is a mixture of sulfuric acid, sulfur dioxide, and soot. B. it is a mixture of aldehydes, ketones, and other compounds produced by the reaction of certain light rays from the sun with emissions from automobile exhausts. C. it is more deadly. 9 D. it is caused by a certain type of fog. 9510012 C 15 43398 51 110109991102 0018 The major source of man-made air pollutants is A. electric power plants B. industries C. vehicles D. refuse disposals 9 E. space heating 9510013 B 15 43401 51 099900910056 0018 Sulfur dioxide is an air pollutant that can lower the pH of surface waters because of the ultimate formation of A. sulfur bases B. sulfuric acid C. sulfur trioxide D. sulfate salts 9 E. none of these 9510014 E 15 43404 51 099411121113 0018 Which of the following is not one of the diseases believed to be made worse by air pollution? A. Cancer of lung and stomach B. Asthma C. Bronchitis D. Heart disease 9 E. None of these (i.e., all have been linked to air pollution) 9510015 B 15 43408 51 063409990393 0018 Several methods have been employed to control air pollutants. Which of the following is not a method that has been or is being used? A. Exhaust system catalysts B. Increasing the amount of Pb in gasoline C. Use of fuels other than gasoline D. Other types of automobile engines 9 E. None of these (all are being or have been employed) 9510016 B 15 43413 51 00081116 0018 For water to be safe to drink, it should have a coliform count less than A. 2/100 ml of water B. 100/100 ml of water C. 1,000/100 ml of water D. 10,000/100 ml of water 9 E. none of these 9510017 B 15 43416 51 111803820008 0018 A measure of the amount of dissolved oxygen consumed in the biological processes that degrade organic matter that enters natural waters is rferred to as A. chemical oxygen demand B. biological oxygen demand C. eutrophication D. biological degradation 9 E. none of these 9510018 B 15 43420 51 098003820701 0018 One of the advantages of tertiary waste treatment over secondary and primary is that A. it is much less expensive. B. in some cases it is designed to remove the organic and inorganic material remaining in the water. C. it decreases the dissolved oxygen in the effluent. D. it increases the biological oxygen demand of the effluent. 9 E. it aids in eutrophication. 9510019 D 14 43426 51 112209800006 0018 In water purification for health purposes, which of the following treatments is mainly used to destroy harmful bacteria? A. Aluminum sulfate treatment B. Aeration C. Filtering 9 D. Chlorine treatment 9510020 D 15 43429 51 103411150025 0018 Organic wastes that enter water are converted by oxygen- requiring microorganisms to A. algae B. other harmful organic compounds C. oxygen D. inorganic nutrients 9 E. none of these 9510021 A 15 43432 51 111500080200 0018 Inorganic nutrients in waters are converted by process of ------------to organic material. A. photosynthesis B. eutrophication C. biological oxygen demand D. primary waste treatment 9 E. none of these 9510022 B 15 43435 51 111911151128 0018 Eutrophication, a process of enrichment with nutrients, causes excessive growth of algae and other plant life. This leads to A. water that is considered less polluted B. water that is depleted of oxygen,even to the extent that fish may die C. water that is considered more beneficial to man because of the rich plant life D. increased oxygen supply because of the process of photosynthesis 9 E. none of these 9510023 D 15 43441 51 11120008 0018 Thermal pollution refers to A. a type of air pollution B. release of radioactive particles as pollutants C. release of "hot" neutrons with a long half-life D. release of hot water to lakes or rivers after it has been used in a cooling process 9 E. none of these 9510024 D 15 43445 51 09800488 0018 Which of the following is involved in a tertiary waste treatment process? A. Chlorine treatment B. Aluminum sulfate treatment C. Aeration D. Reverse osmosis 9 E. None of these 9510025 D 15 43448 51 03930143 0018 The major source of airborne lead in urban areas results from A. lead-based paints B. incineration of refuse C. combustion of coal D. leaded gasoline 9 E. use of pesticides 9510026 A 15 43451 51 11011126 0018 Which of the following is not a source of lead poisoning A. Chloroalkali plants B. lead-based paints C. ceramic glazes D. Moonshine whiskey 9 E. Leaded gasoline 9510027 A 15 43454 51 10501051 0018 Which of the following is not a valid reason for not using DDT? A. It is highly toxic to human beings. B. It is a universal poison. C. It is fat soluble. D. It accumulates in the food chain. 9 E. It degrades slowly in the environment. 9510028 B 14 43458 51 10500620 0018 An important advantage of DDT over nonchlorinated pesticides is that A. it is fat soluble. B. it has a long half-life. C. it accumulates in the food chain. 9 D. it is capable of poisoning insects through external contact. 9510029 B 15 43462 51 105210541050 0018 Birds of prey, such as the bald eagle, peregrine falcon, and brown pelican, have undergone disastrous population declines since 1945 because of A. ingestion of the very toxic pesticide parathion B. reproductive failures resulting from the ingestion of DDT C. concentration of DDT in the brain tissue D. concentration of DDT in the liver and kidneys 9 E. none of these 9510031 D 14 43468 31 099901090853 0026 Which of the following is considered to be a major pollutant of the atmosphere? 9 A. Ozone B. Carbon dioxide C. Oxygen D. Benzene. 9510032 C 14 43470 31 109911121100 0026 Which of the following are likely to be found in a photochemical smog? 9 A. Ozone B. Hydrocarbons C. PAN D. Dust particles. 9510033 C 14 43472 31 02160109 0026 Which of the following is not a mechanism of major importance for the removal of CO from the atmosphere? 4 2 A. Photosyntheses B. Dissolving in the oceans C. Escape from the atmosphere into space 9 D. Reaction with ozone to form more complicated species. 9510034 E 15 43476 31 11111233 0020 Automobile exhausts contain A. carbon monoxide B. carbon dioxide C. hydrocarbons D. nitrogen oxides 9 E. all of these 9510035 E 15 43478 51 110005660077 0020 Smog can contain A. acids B. asbestos C. ozone D. lead 9 E. all of these 9510036 A 15 43480 51 110004071124 0020 Many smog-forming reactions involve intermediates called A. free radicals B. peroxynitrates C. aldehydes D. hydrocarbons 9 E. none of these 9510037 C 15 43483 71 01870054 0020 NO + ____________ ---> nitric oxide + ___________________ 4 2 A. heat + oxygen, light B. light, atomic oxygen C. heat, atomic oxygen D. light quantum, smog 9 E. none of these 9510038 E 15 43487 31 099902140566 0040 Which of the following is not considered a pollutant when added 3 ______ to the air? A. NO B. CO C. SO D. O E. CO 94 2 2 3 2 9510039 C 15 43490 31 021411120261 0040 Control methods for carbon monoxide pollution usually involve the A. conversion of CO to a catalyst B. breaking the CO into C and O 4 2 C. conversion of CO to CO 4 2 D. conversion of CO to hydrocarbons 9 E. conversion of CO to HBCO. 9510040 B 15 43495 31 018711120043 0040 Nitrogen oxide pollution is usually associated with combustion processes since A. almost all materials have nitrogen as a major impurity B. nitrogen and oxygen of the air react together at temperatures reached during combustion processes C. most fuels are mainly nitrogen 9 D. both A and C E. both B and C. 9510041 B 15 43500 31 005704140834 0040 The main source of sulfur oxides in the air is A. automobile exhaust B. exhaust from coal burning C. exhaust from smelting ores D. exhausts from sulfuric acid manufacturing 9 E. exhaust from vulcanization 9510042 C 15 43503 31 021411120138 0040 The amount of time required for the CO concentration in a person's bloodstream to reach the value in polluted air is about 9 A. 1 hour B. 1 day C. 8 hours D. 1 month E. 4 hours. 9510043 B 15 43506 31 111211110057 0040 Transportation (automobiles, etc.) is the main source of a number of air pollutants. Which one of the following pollutants is not 3 ______ primarily produced by transportation? A. hydrocarbons B. SO C. CO D. NO E. O 94 x 3 9510044 A 15 43511 31 099400571112 0040 People with respiratory diseases are particularly susceptible to which type of pollution? A. Sulfur oxide B. Nitrogen oxide C. Carbon monoxide D. Hydrocarbon 9 E. Both A and C. 9510045 C 15 43514 31 111201100057 0040 Which of the following air pollutants exists only momentarily in the atmosphere in gaseous form because of its extreme solubility in water vapor? A. NO B. NO C. SO D. SO E. CO 94 2 3 2 9510046 B 15 43517 31 099902140057 0040 In which of the following choices are the air pollutants arranged in order of decreasing relative toxicity? 3 __________ A. Carbon monoxide, sulfur oxides, nitrogen oxides B. Particulates, hydrocarbons, carbon monoxide C. Sulfur oxides, nitrogen oxides, hydrocarbons D. Carbon monoxide, sulfur oxides, hydrocarbons 9 E. Hydrocarbons, particulates, sulfur oxides 9510047 A 15 43523 31 111208340999 0040 Which of the following general sources of air pollutants is 3 _______________ responsible for the greatest tonnage of such pollutants being 3 ________________ released into the atmosphere? A. Transportation B. Solid waste disposal C. Stationary fuel combustion D. Industrial processes 9 E. Both A and D are the same 9510048 C 15 43528 31 099903940057 0040 Which class of pollutants is put into the atmosphere in the greatest tonnage in the U.S.? 3________________ A. sulfur oxides B. nitrogen oxides 9 C. hydrocarbons D. particulates E. carbon monoxide. 9510049 A 14 43531 51 099911001099 0040 Which of the following is a harmful constituent of smog produced in a photochemical manner? A. peroxyacyl nitrates B. unreacted hydrocarbons 9 C. carbon dioxide D. all are correct 9510050 B 15 43534 31 109911000687 0040 In the photolytic cycle resulting in smog production, ultraviolet light from the sun plays what role? A. Heats up gases so they may react B. Breaks NO into NO and O 4 2 C. Breaks hydrocarbon molecules into H and C D. Causes O and NO to form NO 4 3 2 9 E. Both B and D. 9510051 E 15 43539 31 099902610057 0040 Which of the following is a secondary air pollutant? A. CO B. SO C. NO D. O E. both C and D 94 2 2 2 9510052 D 15 43541 31 147809990394 0040 The family of compounds known as PANs are most closely associated with which of the following pollutants? A. SO B. SO C. CO D. hydrocarbons 4 2 3 9 E. both C and D. 9510053 D 15 43544 31 109911000187 0040 Smog results when the normal NO photolytic cycle is upset by the 4 2 presence of 9 A. oxygen B. NO C. ozone D. hydrocarbons E. CO 9510054 A 15 43547 31 110005660674 0040 One component of smog very vigorously attacks rubber and other polymers and causes some dyes to fade rapidly. This component is A. O B. PAN C. NO D. CO E. SO 94 3 2 2 9510055 D 14 43550 31 171709991167 0040 Important physical properties of particulates, when talking about environmental effects, include A. their size range B. their ability to serve as possible sites for absorption C. their ability to interact with light D. none of these is correct 9 E. more than one of the above is correct 9510056 B 15 43554 31 110402610214 0040 The main substance involved in the greenhouse effect is A. SO B. CO C. NO D. O E. CO 94 2 2 2 3 9510057 C 15 43556 31 110801090161 0040 An inversion can exist in the atmosphere when A. prevailing winds are strong B. the air above is colder than that below C. the air above is warmer than that below D. there is much vertical movement of air 9 E. both A and D. 9510058 C 15 43560 31 041100081112 0040 Pure water in a pollution sense is water that A. contains only H O molecules 4 2 B. contains no toxic materials C. contains nothing to detract from its normal use D. contains sufficient dissolved oxygen for aquatic life 9 E. both B and D. 9510059 E 15 43564 31 171800081112 0040 The BOD value of a body of water gives an estimate of A. the amount of plant nutrients present B. the number of disease-causing agents present C. the amount of dissolved oxygen present D. the amount of oil present 9 E. more than one of the above is correct 9510060 D 15 43568 31 055400250008 0040 Which of the following processes decreases the amount of disolved 3 _________ oxygen in a body of water? A. decomposition of dead animal matter B. the growth of algae C. increase in temperature of the water 9 D. both A and C E. all of the above. 9510061 B 15 43572 31 171800250600 0040 The term BOD is related to which type of water pollutant? A. disease-causing organisms B. oxygen-demanding wastes 9 C. oil D. plant nutrients E. phosphates 9510062 D 15 43575 31 025110131112 0040 Phosphates from detergents are considered to be undesirable water pollutants because they A. are toxic B. represent a form of oxygen-demanding waste C. interfere with water treatment in municipal treatment facilities D. speed up the normal eutrophication of natural waters 9 E. both A and B. 9510063 D 15 43580 31 127917190155 0040 The unpleasant odors associated with water overrun with plant growth are the result of A. decomposition occurring under aerobic conditions B. decomposition occurring under anaerobic conditions C. the generation of nonoxygen-containing decomposition products 9 D. both B and C E. both A and C. 9510064 B 15 43585 31 111902511112 0040 The problem of lake eutrophication has focused much attention on the presence of A. DDT in water B. phosphates in water C. acid wastes in water 9 D. oil in water E. animal wastes in water. 9510065 C 15 43588 31 101302510943 0040 NTA is a chemical which A. is used to kill disease-causing agents in water B. is used to degrade DDT once it is in a water supply C. is a possible substitute for phosphates in detergents 9 D. adds oxygen to water E. both A and D. 9510066 A 15 43592 31 04131112 0040 The use of mercury compounds as fungicides involves the A. agricultural industries B. gasoline industry C. detergent industry 9 D. rubber industry E. both A and B. 9510067 D 15 43595 31 105016241051 0040 Which of the following is a property of DDT that makes it an effective insecticide but also causes it to be a problem in the environment? A. chlorine content B. toxicity C. long life 9 D. both A and B E. both B and C. 9510068 D 15 43599 31 105009990808 0040 DDT is considered by many to be a serious water pollutant because it is A. soluble in fatty tissues of animals B. subject to biological amplification C. the cause of diseases in human beings 9 D. both A and B E. both B and C. 9510069 C 15 43603 31 103311160999 0040 Coliform bacteria A. are the main disease-causing agents in water B. are always present in water and are harmless C. are used as an indicator organism to diagnose recent fecal contamination 9 D. both A and C E. both B and C. 9510070 C 15 43607 31 007700180477 0040 Increases in the acidity and salinity of water are usually the result of pollutants which fall into the category of A. synthetic organic chemicals B. oxygen-demanding wastes C. inorganic chemcials and mineral substances 9 D. disease causing agents E. both A and C. 9510071 E 15 43611 31 067501531720 0040 By the end of three months only about 15% of the original volume of an oil spill remains. The original oil A. evaporates B. is degraded C. forms emulsions with water 9 D. both A and C E. all of the above. 9510072 B 15 43614 31 111202860384 0040 The generation of electrical power by nuclear reactors presents an environmental problem involving A. particulates B. heat C. SO D. NO E. both C and D. 94 x x 9510073 E 15 43617 31 028600081112 0040 The addition of abnormal amounts of heat (thermal pollution) to a body of water is of concern since A. the amount of dissolved oxygen in the water decreased B. the rates of undesirable chemical reactions are increased C. false temperature cues may be given to aquatic life 9 D. both A and C E. all of the above. 9510074 C 15 43622 51 021408611072 0040 Carbon monoxide is a very poisonous gas because A. it reacts with the calcium in the blood to form insoluble calcium carbonate. B. it reacts with the oxygen in the blood to form carbon dioxide, thus lowering the concentration of oxygen. C. it forms a more stable compound with hemoglobin than oxygen does. D. it changes the red corpuscles to white corpuscles. 9 E. it reacts with itself to form peroxides. 9510075 B 15 43628 31 10231026 0040 The odor of fish or decayed tissue is often due to the presence of 3 _____ 9 A. alcohols B. amines C. esters D. ethers E. mercaptans 9510076 D 14 43631 51 111103281101 0009 Automobile emissions are not a major source of A. NO B. CO C. hydrocarbons D. SO 94 2 2 9510077 B 14 43633 51 039416031100 0009 Which one of the following hydrocarbons would be most likely to contribute directly to smog formation? A. CH B. C H C. C H D. C H 94 4 2 4 3 8 6 6 9510078 C 14 43636 51 004914090999 0009 Of the following fuels, which one, under normal conditions, produces the lowest concentration of pollutants? 9 A. coal B. wood C. natural gas D. petroleum 9510079 D 14 43639 51 162316241050 0009 The principal advantage of an insecticide like sevin over DDT is that A. it is less expensive B. it is less toxic to humans C. it remains effective longer 9 D. it breaks down more quickly 9510080 C 14 43642 51 038204131625 0009 Mercury-containing organic compounds resemble DDT in that they A. have similar toxicities B. usually arise from the same source C. accumulate in the food chain 9 D. have similar molecular structures 9600001 B 14 43645 31 019201680008 2WVW A clear liquid, known to be a pure substance is separated from what appears to be sand in the bottom of its container. The liquid is found by experiment to have a density of 1.00 g/cc, a boiling point 5 o of 99 C and it dissolves sugar. The substance is probably which of the following? 9 A. alcohol B. water C. fuel oil D. ammonia E. ether 9600002 C 14 43650 31 04040021 2WVW In the usual laboratory preparation of chlorine gas, manganese dioxide is used as A. a catalyst B. a reducing agent C. an oxidizing agent D. an accelerator 9 E. a buffer 9600003 B 14 43653 31 2WVW Identical laboratory apparatus may be used to prepare and collect carbon dioxide and A. ammonia C. iodine E. hydrogen chloride 9 B. hydrogen D. nitric acid 9600004 D 14 43656 31 2WVW Many elements can be identified by the characteristic color they produce when heated in the vapor state. An instrument useful in such an identification is the A. electroscope B. geiger counter C. scintillation counter D. spectroscope 9 E. colorimeter 9600005 A 14 43660 31 2WVW Nitric acid is collected by A. condensation B. displacement of water C. filtration 9 D. sublimation 9600006 C 14 43662 31 2WVW After salt water has been distilled, the salt is found in the A. condenser B. cooling water C. distilling flask 9 D. receiver 9600007 C 14 43664 31 18380810 0043 A dehydrating agent commonly used in the laboratory is: A. MgCO B. CaF C. CaCl D. MgF 94 3 2 2 2 9600008 A 13 45693 51 If I were to say, "The water can be removed from a precipitate of 5 o X at around 110 C, but Y does not lose its water until it is 5 o heated to nearly 1200 C," a correct combination would be X Y X Y X Y A. AgCl Al O B. AgCl BaSO C. BaSO CaC O 94 2 3 4 4 2 4 9610001 B 14 43666 31 00150125 2WVW Which metal is sometimes found uncombined in nature? 9 A. aluminum B. silver C. sodium D. potassium E. calcium 9610002 C 14 43668 31 010508080109 2WVW Hydrogen chloride is A. insoluble in water and difficult to liquefy B. less dense than air and colorless C. very soluble in water and denser than air 9 D. very soluble in water and greenish-yellow in color 9610003 A 14 44478 31 02610073 2WVW Carbon dioxide is identified by its reaction with a solution of A. barium hydroxide B. hydrochloric acid C. oxygen D. sodium carbonate 9 E. sodium hydroxide 9610004 C 14 43673 31 00940066 2WVW Which sulfur compound is used as a bleaching agent? A. hydrogen sulfide B. sulfuric acid C. sulfur dioxide 9 D. sulfur trioxide 9610005 D 14 43675 31 03500843 2WVW Silicon is found chiefly in A. sea water B. coal C. limestone 9 D. sand 9610006 D 14 45000 31 01890094 2WVW The element selenium has chemical properties most similar to which of the following elements? 9 A. beryllium B. oxygen C. silicon D. sulfur E. arsenic 9610007 B 14 43679 31 004302610057 2WVW The complete combustion of carbon disulfide would yield carbon dioxide and A. sulfur B. sulfur dioxide C. sulfuric acid 9 D. water 9610008 A 14 43681 31 02140022 2WVW Carbon monoxide is produced when carbon dioxide is passed over hot A. coke B. calcium carbonate C. calcium carbide 9 D. silicon dioxide 9610009 B 14 43684 31 002700940209 2WVW When a mixture of zinc and sulfur reacts completely, and hydrochloric acid is added to the product A. hydrogen is formed B. hydrogen sulfide is formed C. sulfur trioxide is formed 9 D. there is no reaction 9610010 A 14 43687 31 000901890844 2WVW The iron triad of elements also contains A. cobalt and nickel B. manganese and chromium C. palladium and platinum 9 D. vanadium and titanium 9610011 D 14 43690 31 084804040073 2WVW Bleaching powder may be made by passing chlorine over which of the following? A. calcium carbonate B. hydrated calcium sulfate C. anhydrous calcium sulfate 9 D. calcium hydroxide 9610012 A 14 43693 31 006602250850 2WVW Which of the following compounds is the most volatile? A. ammonium hydroxide B. calcium hydroxide C. potassium hydroxide 9 D. sodium hydroxide 9610013 D 14 43696 31 00140852 2WVW A form of carbon used for refractory linings is A. charcoal B. carbon black C. coke 9 D. graphite 9610014 D 14 43698 31 007208080008 2WVW Ammonia is A. colorless and inert B. denser than air and tasteless C. odorless and a reducing agent 9 D. very soluble in water and less dense than air 9610015 C 14 43701 31 2WVW Hydrogen is A. heavier than air and colorless B. lighter than air and inert C. odorless and slightly soluble in water 9 D. very soluble in water and combustible 9610016 A 14 43704 31 2WVW The halogen which is liquid at room temperature is A. bromine B. chlorine C. fluorine 9 D. iodine 9610017 A 14 43706 31 2WVW The bleaching action of chlorine is due to the formation of A. hypochlorous acid B. hydrochloric acid C. chlorous acid 9 D. hydrogen 9610018 D 14 43708 31 2WVW A chemical property common to oxygen and chlorine is that both A. are colorless B. reduce metals C. have the same oxidation number 9 D. support combustion of hydrogen 9610019 D 14 43711 31 2WVW Fluorine is normally produced by the A. reduction of the fluoride ion B. action of chlorine on potassium fluoride C. electrolysis of sodium fluoride solution 9 D. electrolysis of potassium hydrogen fluoride 9610020 C 14 43714 31 2WVW When chlorine and carbon tetrachloride are added to a solution of iodine, the color produced is A. brown B. orange C. violet 9 D. yellow 9610021 A 14 43717 31 2WVW Nitrogen and oxygen are similar in that they both A. form diatomic molecules B. react vigorously at room temperature C. are colored gases 9 D. are very soluble in water 9610022 C 14 43720 31 2WVW Which physical property is most useful in identifying hydrogen gas? A. color B. odor C. density 9 D. ability to burn 9610023 B 15 43722 52 070317881258 0044 What mass (in grams) of Cu should be added to an excess of concentrated H SO to generate as much SO as 7.94 grams of 4 2 4 2(g) sodium sulfite, Na SO ? the reactions are: 4 2 3 Cu + 2 H SO -----> Cuso + SO + 2 H O 4 2 4 4 2 2 Na SO + H SO -----> Na SO + SO + H O 4 2 3 2 4 2 4 2 2 A. 2.00 grams B. 4.01 grams C. 0.00283 grams 9 D. 31.5 grams E. 15.7 grams. 9610024 E 15 43729 52 070317881258 0044 A freshman chemist can make an estimate of Avogadro's number by simply adding a few drops of an alcoholic solution of oleic acid to a water surface dusted with lycopodium powder. To calculate the result, some numerical values are necessary and some assumptions have to be made, such as listed below. Select the one item which does not belong (either incorrect, unnecessary, or irrelevant). A. the molecular weight of oleic acid. B. Assume oleic acid is insoluble in water. C. The density of oleic acid. D. The volume of a drop of solution. 9 E. The mass of the electron. 9610025 E 15 44530 52 1789 1097 0044 A freshman chemist analyzed a sample of CaCO .6H O for water of 4 3 2 hydration by weighing the sample, heating to convert it to anhydrous CaCO and reweighing it. The % H O was determined to be 52.3% The 4 3 2 theoretical value is 51.9%. A possible source of error is: A. After weighing the sample, a piece of rust fell from the tongs into the crucible. B. Moisture driven from the sample condensed on the inside of the crucible cover. C. All the weighings were made on a balance which is high by 0.4%. D. The original sample contained some anydrous CaCO 4 3 9 E. The original sample was wet. 9610026 A 15 43745 52 0224 0087 0044 A team of freshmen determined x in the formula PbCl using Job's 4 x method and weighing the solid PbCl produced. They found x=2.09 4 x rather than 2.00, which most other chemists have found. A possible source of error is: A. The NaCl solution from the stockroom was actually less concentrated than labelled. B. None of the students dried their precipitates thoroughly, leaving about 4.5% moisture, on the average. C. None of the students collected their precipitates thoroughly leaving about 4.5% behind, on the average. D. All of the burets in the lab were 4.5% high. 9 E. All of the burets in the lab were 4.5% low. 9610027 D 14 43755 31 18350662 0043 The flame test color of strontium is: 9 A. yellow B. green C. yellow-green D. red. 9620001 D 14 43757 31 00320008 2WVW Anhydrous copper sulfate may be used to test for the presence of A. hydrogen B. nitrogen C. oxygen 9 D. water 9620002 C 14 43759 31 2WVW The "brown ring" test is used to determine the presence of a A. carbonate B. chloride C. nitrate 9 D. sulfate 9620003 B 15 43761 52 086917800413 0047 A gas kineticist wishes to calibrate a gas buret. She fills the buret with mercury to the upper graduation and then runs the mercury out into a preweighed beaker until the mercury reaches the lower graduation. The beaker was found to contain 197.56 g of Hg. What was the volume between the graduations if the density of mercury is 13.6 g/ml. 9 A. 15.00 ml B. 14.52 ml C. 17.34 ml D. 12.53 ml E. 12.97 ml 9620004 A 14 43767 51 066300540662 0041 A spectroscope: A. spreads a beam of light out into its component colors B. is a device for examining the rainbow C. is a telescope modified to examine colored stars 9 D. mixes colors to produce any desired hue 9620005 D 14 43770 71 10791930 05 The precision of a single pan analytical balance is 5 1 -4 9 A. 0.001 g B. 0.01 g C. 10 g D. 10 g 9620006 B 15 43773 71 10791930 05 The smallest division which can be read on a triple beam balance is 5 0 -1 -2 -3 -4 9 A. 10 g B. 10 g C. 10 g D. 10 g E. 10 g 9630001 B 15 43776 51 1973 PINE If a hazardous gas should begin leaking into the laboratory, one should A. find the source of the leak and stop it before leaving the laboratory. B. evacuate the laboratory and summon help. C. get a gas mask. D. open the windows and continue working. 9 E. run while holding breath. 9630002 D 15 43781 51 08190003 PINE The best way of extinguishing an alkali metal fire is to: A. use a carbon tetrachloride extinguisher B. smother it with a blanket C. use water D. smother it with sand 9 E. smother it with a plastic bag 9630003 E 15 43784 51 0056 PINE A small amount of dilute sulfuric acid splashed into a student's eye. He should: A. Roll around his eyeball until it stops hurting B. Apply some vaseline ointment C. Immediately wash the eye thoroughly with dilute sodium hydroxide to neutralize the acid, then see a physician. D. Report immediately to the laboratory instructor for information. E. Immediately wash the eye thoroughly with water, then see 9 a physician 9630004 C 14 43790 51 1969 PINE When cutting glass tubing A. the tubing should be etched with a single stroke of a file and broken toward your body B. The tubing should be sawed until a deep cut is made and then broken by tapping against a lab bench C. the tubing should be etched with a single stroke of a file and broken away from your body 9 D. the tubing should be etched in a complete circle before breaking. 9630005 D 14 43796 51 1969 PINE The ends of glass tubing should be fire-polished for all of the following reasons except: A. ease in pushing through stoppers and corks B. safety against cutting hands when handling C. keeps the tubing from scratching flasks, beakers, and etc. 9 D. it looks more professional to have all the ends neat 9630006 D 14 43801 51 028615010438 PINE When heating a liquid in a test tube, care should be taken to insure: A. the test tube is held vertically B. steady heat is applied at the side of the test tube C. steady heat is applied at the base of the test tube 9 D. the test tube is heated evenly throughout the liquid 9630007 E 15 43805 31 0400 PINE Which of the following is a cumulative poison? A. Potassium perchlorate B. Sodium sulfate C. Hydrochloric acid D. Nitrogen 9 E. Mercury 9630008 D 15 43808 51 1970 PINE Safety glasses should be worn in the chemical laboratory A. When working alone. B. Only when hazardous materials are used. C. Only during the progress of a reaction. D. At all times. 9 E. Only when an accident is anticipated. 9630009 A 15 43812 51 039401120819 PINE A hydrocarbon solvent fire is best extinguished with A. carbon dioxide. B. water. C. compressed air. D. sand. 9 E. carbon tetrachloride. 9630010 E 15 43815 31 1051 PINE When using a toxic material one should A. work in a fume hood. B. work with a partner C. work in a corner of the laboratory. D. Keep all doors and windows open. 9 E. Take the precautions consistent with the hazard involved. 9630011 D 15 43819 51 19710113 PINE Pressure regulators cannot be interchanged with which two of the following gas cylinders? A. He-N B. N O-Ar C. CH -C H D. O -H E. None 94 2 2 4 2 2 2 2 9630012 C 15 43822 51 1450 PINE Which of the following should not be stored together? 3 ___ A. Chlorates and nitrates B. Sulfides and chlorides C. Mineral acids and cyanides D. Potassium persulfate and barium dioxide 9 E. Carbon tetrachloride and benzene 9630013 D 14 43826 51 1972 PINE The primary purpose of a laboratory hood is to A. prevent escape of unpleasant odors. B. store hazardous chemicals. C. prevent explosions when using explosive chemicals. 9 D. prevent escape of chemical vapors into the laboratory. 9640001 C 15 43830 72 1966 GLND Reagents 1,2,3 and 4 are reacted pairwise with solutions of ions I,II,III and IV. Some combinations produce precipitates (ppt) and some do not. Refer to the chart below to answer the following question. ------------------------------- | | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | ------------------------------- | I | | | ppt | | ------------------------------- | II | ppt | ppt | ppt | ppt | ------------------------------- | III | ppt | | ppt | ppt | ------------------------------- | IV | | | ppt | ppt | ------------------------------- Determine the correct order to use reagents 1,2,3 and 4 to separate ions I, II, III and IV. A. 3,4,1,2 B. 4,3,2,1 C. 2,1,4,3 9 D. 3,2,4,1 E. 1,2,3,4 9640002 D 15 45682 51 5 2+ 2+ In order to separate the ions Cu and Ca from a solution containing both, one could use as a precipitating reagent 5 2+ A. an HCl solution to precipitate Ca as CaCl 4 2 5 2+ B. an HCl solution to precipitate Cu as CuCl 4 2 5 2+ C. an Na S solution to precipitate Ca as CaS 4 2 5 2+ D. an Na S solution to precipitate Cu as CuS 4 2 5 2+ E. a KNO solution to precipitate Ca as Ca(NO ) 94 3 3 2 9641001 B 14 43841 52 OS All of the following elements are members of group I EXCEPT 9 A. Ag B. Cu C. Hg D. Pb 9641002 AD 25 43843 52 OS MACROITEM STEM A student is given a sample containing only group I elements. Treatment of the sample with 6M HCl and subsequent boiling yields a white precipitate and a clear solution. The solution is decanted and a few drops of 1 M K CrO are added. A clear yellow solution 4 2 4 results. The precipitate is mixed with several drops of 6 M NH . 4 3 After centrifugation, a white precipitate and a clear solution 0 remain. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 At this point, the student can correctly conclude that A. no more than two group I elements are present. B. only Ag is present C. Pb and Hg are present, but Ag is not. D. Both Ag and Pb are present. 1 E. Pb is absent and Ag is present. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 The next step in the procedure should be A. to add NH to the yellow solution. 4 3 B. to decant the solution over the white precipitate and add a few drops of HNO to the precipitate. 4 3 C. to boil the solution over the white precipitate. D. to decant the solution over the white precipitate and add HNO to the decanted solution. 4 3 E. to add more NH to the tube containing the white precipitate 4 3 9 in order to dissolve the rest of it. 9700001 D 15 43860 32 06920693008611 ETS2 OS Portland cement is made by heating together A. sand, limestone, soda B. sand, clay C. coke, iron ore, limestone D. clay, limestone 9 E. sand, coke, soda 9700002 D 15 43863 71 06960697039411 ETS2 OS The Fischer-Tropsch process A. produces gasoline by passing hydrogen through powdered coal at atmospheric pressure B. consists of the controlled distillation of coal so as to produce a high percentage of octanes in the distillate C. is an economical method of making gasoline from oil shales D. produces a variety of hydrocarbons by passing water gas over a hot catalyst at atmospheric pressure E. is a method of improving the octane number of 9 gasoline 9700003 D 14 43870 31 06410263001511 ETS2WVW The Edison effect refers to the A. emission of electrons from an illuminated metallic surface B. emission of sound waves from phonograph needles C. conversion of electric current into visible light 9 D. emission of electrons from hot metals 9700004 BCBEABC 75 43874 32 0010005304151190 ETS2 OS MACROITEM STEM 2After each item number on the answer sheet, blacken space 2 A. if the item is true of sulfides 2 B. if the item is true of oxides 2 C. if the item is true of elements in the elementary form 2 D. if the item is true of silicates 0 E. if the item is true of chlorides MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 1 Commercial iron ore is an example. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 2 Gold as it usually occurs in nature. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 3 The most abundant of the above. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 4 Deposited from solution through evaporation of sea water. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 Certain ores of mercury, zinc, lead, copper, and antimony are 5 examples. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 6 6 Aluminum ore is an example. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 7 Elements above hydrogen in the activity series do not occur in 9 commercial amounts in this form in nature. 9700005 C 14 43883 51 078700940056 2 OS In the contact process, sulfur trioxide is absorbed in A. dilute sulfuric acid B. dilute sulfurous acid C. concentrated sulfuric acid 9 D. water 9700006 B 14 43886 31 009407980560 2 OS Sulfur dioxide is converted to sulfur trioxide when mixed with air and passed over heated A. magnesium dioxide B. manganese dioxide C. hydrochloric acid 9 D. copper 9700007 A 14 43889 31 00080094 2 OS The main function of the superheated water in the Frasch process is to A. melt the sulfur D. dissolve the sulfur C. emulsify the sulfur D. suspend the sulfur 9 E. vaporize the phosphorus 9700008 A 14 43892 31 07860393 2 OS The tremendous demand for bromine is due to the A. gasoline industry B. glass industry C. refrigeration industry 9 D. drug industry 9700009 C 14 43894 31 01960463 2 OS The most important use of hydrogen sulfide is in A. vulcanizing rubber B. food preservative C. chemical analysis 9 D. fungicides 9700010 D 15 43896 32 000807810959 0040 The bonding in a water molecule is characterized correctly by which of the following descriptive statements? A. angular B. polar C. hydrogen bonded D. more than one correct response 9 E. No correct response is given. 9700011 B 14 43900 52 19480457 0059 Which is not an alum? A. NH Fe(SO ) . 12H O 4 4 4 2 2 B. (NH ) SO . FeSO . 6H O 4 4 2 4 4 2 C. NH Cr(SO ) . 12H O 4 4 4 2 2 D. (NH ) SO . Cr (SO ) . 24H O 94 4 2 4 2 4 3 2 9700012 D 14 43904 52 1949 0060 Which statement about SO is incorrect? 4 2 A. It is acidic in aqueous solution B. May act as an oxidizing agent C. May act as a reducing agent 9 D. Has a high boiling point 9700013 C 14 43907 52 1949 0060 5 o Which U oxide is most stable at 1000 C? A. UO B. UO C. U O D. UO 94 2 3 3 8 4 9710001 D 15 43910 32 059900870004 0042 An unknown solution was known to contain only one of the halogens or one of the halide ions. To the solution was added some solid sodium bromide and some carbon tetrachloride. After shaking, two layers formed and the lower layer was brown. The original solution could have contained: A. chloride ion B. iodine C. fluoride ion 9 D. chlorine E. bromide ion. 9710002 C 14 43915 51 137600920185 0043 5 3+ B cannot exist in aqueous solution because of its: A. strong reducing ability B. large size and small charge 9 C. small size and large charge D. strong oxidizing ability. 9710003 C 14 43918 51 055400870985 0043 The dissolving of Al(OH) by a solution of NaOH results in the 4 3 formation of: 5 + A. Al(H O) (OH) B. Al(H O) (OH) 4 2 4 2 2 3 3 5 - + C. Al(H O) (OH) D. AlO 94 2 2 4 2 9710004 C 14 43922 52 144803340016 0043 Although aluminum has a high oxidation potential, it resists corrosion because of the formation of a tough, impervious surface coat of: A. AlN B. Al(NO ) C. Al O D. Al (CO ) 94 3 3 2 3 2 3 3 9710005 C 14 43926 51 033608080087 0043 Glass is soluble in solutions of: A. HNO B. HCl C. HF D. H CO 94 3 2 3 9710006 A 14 43928 51 00081331 0043 Phosphine may be produced by adding to water some: A. Ca P B. P O C. P O D. HPO 94 3 2 4 6 4 10 3 9710007 C 14 43930 31 002101091331 0043 Oxidation of NO in air produces: A. N O B. N O C. N O D. N O 94 2 2 3 2 4 2 5 9710008 C 14 43932 31 006404150321 0043 The noble gas which is most abundant in the atmosphere is: 9 A. He B. Ne C. Ar D. Kr. 9710009 A 14 43934 51 01610768 0043 The dimerization of NO as the temperature is lowered is 4 2 accompanied by: A. a decrease in paramagnetism B. an increase in pressure 9 C. a darkening in color D. the formation of a colloid. 9710010 C 14 43937 51 002403510025 0043 In phosphorous oxide the number of oxygen atoms bonded to each phosphorus atom is: 9 A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4. 9710011 D 14 43939 31 116700250109 0043 Which of the following reacts most rapidly with oxygen in the air at ordinary temperatures? A. N B. red P C. N O D. white P 94 2 2 9710012 C 14 43942 51 066204030087 0043 The deep color produced when iodine is dissolved in a solution of potassium iodide is caused by the presence of: 5 - - - A. I B. I C. I D. I 94 2 3 2 9710013 B 15 44568 51 04071503 0043 Which of the following uncatalized reactions is fast at room temperature? A. 2H (g) + O (g) -----> 2H O(g) 4 2 2 2 B. H (g) + F (g) -----> 2HF(g) 4 2 2 C. CO(g) + 2H (g) -----> CH OH(g) 4 2 3 D. 3H (g) + N (g) -----> 2NH (g) 4 2 2 3 E. Fe(s) + O (g) -----> Fe O (s) 94 2 2 3 9710014 B 14 43950 51 056604490817 0043 Ozone is: A. a fast oxidizing agent B. a powerful oxidizing agent 9 C. a straight molecule D. a stable allotrope 9710015 B 14 43952 51 18121178 0043 The following does not contain the peroxide ion: A. Na O B. H O C. BaO D. SrO 94 2 2 2 2 2 2 9710016 D 14 43954 51 08080008 0043 The following is very soluble in water: A. AlPO B. CaSO C. CaCO D. CaBr 94 4 4 3 2 9710017 D 14 43956 31 034418350662 0043 The potassium flame test color is: 9 A. red B. yellow C. green D. violet. 9710018 D 14 43958 31 005700940834 0026 What is the product of the reaction of sulfur burning in air A. SO B. H S O C. H SO D. SO 94 3 2 2 7 2 4 2 9710019 D 14 43960 31 040700940056 0026 Which of the following can not be used to make sulfuric acid? A. SO B. sulfur C. H S O D. NH 94 2 2 2 7 3 9710020 C 14 43962 31 040700720220 0026 Which of the following can be made from ammonia (NH )? 4 3 A. HNO B. NO C. NH NO D. NO 94 3 2 4 3 9710021 A 14 43965 31 040701970692 0026 Which component of portland cement reacts principally with water in setting? A. CaO B. Fe O C. Al O D. SiO 94 2 3 2 3 2 9710022 D 14 43968 31 11680216 0026 5 2+ Which of these ions could be used to rid hard water of Ca ions? 5 - - 2+ 2- A. OH B. Cl C. Fe D. CO . 94 3 9710023 B 15 43972 31 03401224 0020 Helium is used A. in the plastic industry B. for deep-sea diving C. for making gasoline D. as a solvent 9 E. none of these 9710024 B 15 43974 31 0218 0040 Fixed nitrogen is nitrogen A. that is obtained in elemental form from ammonia B. in a chemically combined form C. that is dissolved in water D. that is found only in certain regions of the atmosphere 9 E. No correct response is given. 9710025 D 15 43978 31 00250109 0040 The advantage of using pure oxygen, rather than air, in a chemical process is that A. the concentration of oxygen is approximately five times larger B. the volumes of gaseous reactant required are reduced C. reaction times are decreased D. both A and B are correct 9 E. No correct response is given. 9710026 D 15 43983 31 002510401483 0040 Commercial production of oxygen involves its A. extraction from water by chemical processes B. extraction from air by chemical processes C. extraction from water by physical processes D. extraction from air by physical processes 9 E. No correct response is given. 9710027 B 15 43987 31 00250049 0040 Liquid rocket propellant systems consist of an oxidizing agent (oxidant) and a fuel. Liquid oxygen has been extensively used in such systems as A. the fuel B. the oxidant C. as both the fuel and oxidant D. more than one correct response given 9 E. No correct response is given. 9710028 C 15 43991 31 00061059 0040 The principle form in which chlorine reaches the consumer is A. in paper B. in medical disinfectant C. in chlorinated hydrocarbons D. in water chlorination 9 E. No correct response is given. 9710029 C 15 43994 31 000601911330 0040 When water is chlorinated the disinfecting power is due to the presence of 5 - - A. Cl B. HOCl C. OCl D. Cl 2 9 E. No correct response is given. 9710030 C 15 43997 32 08170350 0040 Which of the following elements do not show the property of allotropy? A. carbon B. phosphorus C. silicon 9 D. sodium E. chlorine 9710031 B 15 43999 31 0024 0040 Pure phosphorus in elemental form is found in which of the following? A. safety matches B. striking surface for safety matches C. strike anywhere matches D. commercial fertilizers 9 E. bleach 9710032 E 15 44002 31 0024 0040 Which of the following normally contains no phosphorus in any form? A. bones of animals B. strike anywhere matches C. commercial fertilizer mixtures D. urine 9 E. steel 9710033 C 15 44005 31 00240606 0040 Which of the following nonmetals was discovered in urine? A. carbon B. silicon C. phosphorus D. graphite 9 E. chlorine 9710034 D 15 44007 31 0024 0040 Safety matches have tips of A. white phosphorus B. red phosphorus C. P S D. Sb S and K Cr O 4 4 3 2 3 2 2 7 E. Sb S 94 2 5 9710035 C 15 44010 31 00241460 0040 Triple superphosphate fertilizer is made by treating phosphate rock with A. sulfuric acid B. nitric acid C. phosphoric acid D. ammonia 9 E. hydrochloric acid 9710036 A 15 44013 31 0024 0040 Which of the following properties is not characteristic of elemental white phosphorus? A. soluble in water B. glows in the dark under appropriate conditions C. spontaneously bursts into flame at room temperature D. toxic to the body 9 E. has a density less than 1 g/ml 9710037 B 15 44017 31 00140852 0040 Which of the following substances contains a free (uncombined) element? A. phosphate fertilizer B. graphite C. glass D. limestone 9 E. nirite fertilizer 9710038 A 15 44020 31 00240817 0040 The poisonous, spontaneously flammable, form of phosphorus is known as A. white phosphorus B. red phosphorus C. phosphine D. violet phosphorus 9 E. both A and B 9710039 D 15 44023 31 001405890834 0040 If a diamond were burned in an excess of oxygen the product would consist of A. CO and water B. CO and CO 4 2 2 C. CO , CO, and water D. CO 4 2 2 9 E. No reaction occurs. 9710040 B 15 44027 31 001407160781 0040 Each carbon atom in the graphite structure is covalently bonded to how many other carbon atoms? 9 A. four B. three C. two D. one E. six 9710041 C 15 44029 31 00140817 0040 Which of the following is not an allotrope of carbon? A. diamond B. carbon black C. CaCO D. graphite 4 3 9 E. carbon-14 9710042 C 15 44032 31 00140589 0040 An allotropic form of carbon is A. emerald B. sand C. graphite D. more than one response is correct 9 E. carbon dioxide 9710043 B 15 44034 31 033603500684 0040 The most prevalent ingredient of glass is A. boron oxide B. silicon dioxide C. lead oxide D. calcium oxide 9 E. bariumoxide 9710044 C 15 44036 31 0336 0040 Glass may be etched rapidly with the acid known as A. fuming sulfuric B. aqua regia C. hydrofluoric D. fuming nitric 9 E. either A or B 9710045 DCEAEBACC95 44038 52 OS MACROITEM STEM The instructor demonstrates some properties of five elements: sodium, oxygen, aluminum, nitrogen and magnesium. He removes the sodium from a bath of kerosene and uses a knife to cut off several small chunks. One of the chunks is dropped into water and it is observed to scoot around on the surface, reacting vigorously. A second chunk is placed on an asbestos pad and a bunsen burner flame is aimed at the chunk. After some delay, the chunk begins to burn with increasing vigor until it is completely consumed. A piece of Mg ribbon is placed in water. No visible reaction is observed. A beaker covered with a watch glass is filled with N 4 2 gas. A match is lighted and the watch glass is removed. The match is lowered into the beaker where it is extinguished. A piece of Mg ribbon is placed in a bunsen burner flame, where it begins to react. It is then lowered into the beaker and it continues to react. A piece of Al foil is placed in a bunsen burner flame where it shrivels and sags but does not otherwise react visibly. Some Al powder is mixed with sodium peroxide and the mixture is poured into a pile on the asbestos pad. A short piece of Mg ribbon is inserted in the mixture and ignited. The flame travels down the ribbon until it reaches the mixture, which then begins to react vigorously. 0 Use the above information to answer the next nine questions. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 1 The sodium chunk on the asbestos pad is observed to burn A. with a nearly invisible azure blue flame. B. with a sudden burst of red sparks. C. with an intense white flame. D. with a bright yellow flame. 1 E. with a sputtering green flame which throws off blue sparks. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 2 The magnesium ribbon burns in air A. with a nearly invisible azure blue flame. B. with a sudden burst of red sparks. C. with an intense white flame. D. with a bright yellow flame. 2 E. with a sputtering green flame which throws off blue sparks. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 3 The aluminum foil was not placed in the water. On the basis of other observations made in this demonstration, what is it reasonable to assume would be observed? A. The Al would dissolve, producing a clear green solution. B. The explosive compound Al O would form, producing a hazardous 4 2 3 situation for both instructor and students. C. A murky white suspension of Al(OH) would form. 4 3 D. H gas would form as the Al metal dissolves. 4 2 3 E. There would be no visible reaction. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 4 Neither Mg nor Na are tested for their reactivity in pure O 4 2 gas because A. the vigor of the resulting reaction might be hazardous both to instructor and to members of the class. B. previous observations suggest that no reaction will occur. C. the MgNa alloy formed is a poisonous gas at room temperature. 4 2 D. the reaction is too slow to observe at a distance. 4 E. poisonous ozone is one of the products of the reaction. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 5 Of the following statements, which gives the observer the greatest amount of information concerning the relative reactivity of the three metals? A. The behavior of Mg and Na in water. B. The behavior of Al and Mg in the bunsen burner flame. C. The behavior of the match and Mg in the nitrogen gas. D. The behavior of Na with sodium peroxide. 5 E. More than one of the above needs to be considered. MACRO SUB-ITEM # 6 The three metals have a relative increasing reactivity shown by which of the following choices? 6 A. Mg

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